Stallings CDC Z3dx7x Cyberspace Support Craftsman Volume 2

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  • 1/70 Questions

    What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group Commander?

    • O-6
    • O-7
    • O-5
    • O-No
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About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in cyberspace support within military operations, focusing on deployment planning, mobilization, and readiness reporting. It is designed for advanced learners aiming to master the complexities of Air Force support roles in cyber contexts.

Stallings CDC Z3dx7x Cyberspace Support Craftsman Volume 2 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    In the operate the airbase module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center (NCC-D)?

    • 16 km

    • 8 km

    • 12 km

    • 66 km

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 km
    Explanation
    The maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center (NCC-D) in the operate the airbase module is 16 km.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is NOT a career field assigned to engineering installation units?

    • 3D0X3 Cyber Surety

    • 3D1X2 Cyber Transport Systems

    • 3D1X7 Cable and Antenna Systems

    • 3D1X3 RF transmission Systems

    Correct Answer
    A. 3D0X3 Cyber Surety
    Explanation
    The career field 3D0X3 Cyber Surety is not assigned to engineering installation units. The other three career fields (3D1X2 Cyber Transport Systems, 3D1X7 Cable and Antenna Systems, and 3D1X3 RF transmission Systems) are all related to engineering installation units.

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  • 4. 

    Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?

    • AFPC AEF Center

    • Installation deployment office

    • Joint staff

    • UDM

    Correct Answer
    A. AFPC AEF Center
    Explanation
    The AFPC AEF Center is responsible for initiating the requirements or deployment sourcing process. They are in charge of managing the Air Force's Expeditionary Force requirements and ensuring that the necessary resources and personnel are available for deployment.

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  • 5. 

    The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are 

    • Secure communications and intelligence

    • Airbase functional Support

    • Secure comm and fire support units

    • Secure Communications and Force Accountability

    Correct Answer
    A. Secure communications and intelligence
    Explanation
    The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are secure communications and intelligence. This means that in order to effectively establish control, it is crucial to have a secure communication system in place to ensure that information is transmitted safely and accurately. Additionally, having access to intelligence allows for better decision-making and understanding of the situation, enabling effective control to be established.

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  • 6. 

    Which of these items in contained in the Project Plan?

    • Cost Management Plan

    • Allied support plan

    • Nostradamus Plan

    • Material plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Cost Management Plan
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Cost Management Plan. The Project Plan is a comprehensive document that outlines the objectives, scope, deliverables, and strategies for managing a project. It includes various plans that are essential for successful project execution, such as the Cost Management Plan. This plan outlines how the project's costs will be estimated, budgeted, and controlled throughout its lifecycle. It includes information on cost estimating techniques, cost baseline, cost tracking, and cost control procedures. The Cost Management Plan is crucial for ensuring that the project stays within budget and that financial resources are effectively managed.

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  • 7. 

    Which CIPS functional area supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order.

    • Work Orders

    • Trouble Tickets

    • Requests

    • Snorlax

    Correct Answer
    A. Work Orders
    Explanation
    Work Orders are the correct answer because they support enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level in the form of a maintenance task order. Work Orders are typically completed within a short timeframe of less than 30 days, making them suitable for addressing maintenance and improvement needs quickly and efficiently.

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  • 8. 

    What deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises, determines forces are required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans and evaluate COA’s?

    • Action Planning

    • Deliberate Planning

    • Mont'e python

    • Noodleboegie

    Correct Answer
    A. Deliberate Planning
    Explanation
    Deliberate planning is the correct answer because it involves the development of predetermined responses to potential crises, determining the forces required to achieve objectives, preparing deployment plans, and evaluating courses of action (COAs). This process is typically conducted in advance and involves careful analysis and consideration of various factors to ensure effective and efficient deployment of forces.

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  • 9. 

    Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)s

    • EOD

    • Pilot Units

    • Logistics SQ

    • LOGDET manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Pilot Units
    Explanation
    Pilot Units develop logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)s.

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  • 10. 

    Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?

    • Robust the airbase

    • Establish the airbase

    • Conclude this airbase

    • Dont touch the airbase

    Correct Answer
    A. Robust the airbase
    Explanation
    The force module "Robust the airbase" contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established. This suggests that the forces in this module are meant to provide long-term support and reinforcement to the airbase, rather than being immediately available upon establishment.

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  • 11. 

    If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the 

    • Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph

    • Programming Plan (PPLAN)

    • Program Action Directive (PAD)

    • Time Phased Force and Development Data (TPFDD)

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph. This is because if the instructions provided are not detailed enough to require a separate annex, the information on base functional area support is included in the OPLAN major paragraph. The OPLAN is a comprehensive document that outlines the operational concept, tasks, and responsibilities for a specific operation. It provides guidance and direction for the execution of the operation and includes information on various aspects, including base functional area support. Therefore, the OPLAN major paragraph is the appropriate place to include this information.

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  • 12. 

    Which type of contract is permissible when there is only ONE viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services?

    • Sole Source

    • Time and Material

    • Performance Based

    • Firm Fixed Price

    Correct Answer
    A. Sole Source
    Explanation
    Sole Source contracts are permissible when there is only one viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services. In this situation, there is no competition available, and the contract can be awarded to the sole source without going through a competitive bidding process. This type of contract is typically used when there is a unique product or service that only one supplier can provide, or when the government has determined that only one contractor is capable of fulfilling the requirement.

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  • 13. 

    Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements?

    • AFI 10-244

    • AFI 10-201

    • AFI 10-255

    • AFI 10-200

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 10-201
    Explanation
    AFI 10-201 is the correct answer because it provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements. It is likely that this document outlines the specific requirements and guidelines for creating and implementing DOC statements within the context of the Air Force. The other options, AFI 10-244, AFI 10-255, and AFI 10-200, may be related to other topics or procedures within the Air Force but do not specifically address DOC statements.

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  • 14. 

    The Contingency Response Wing HQ is located at 

    • Beale AFB, CA

    • Joint Base McGuire-Dix Lakehurst, NJ.

    • Hanscom AFB, MA

    • Donald J Trump Air Force Station

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint Base McGuire-Dix Lakehurst, NJ.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Joint Base McGuire-Dix Lakehurst, NJ. This is the location where the Contingency Response Wing HQ is situated.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)

    • RQ-11B RAVEN

    • RQ-4 Global HawK

    • MQ-9 Reaper

    • TOP SECRET SHIT

    Correct Answer
    A. RQ-11B RAVEN
    Explanation
    The RQ-11B RAVEN is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS) because it is a lightweight and compact drone that is typically used for short-range surveillance and reconnaissance missions. It is designed to be easily deployed and operated by a small team, making it suitable for tactical operations. The other options, RQ-4 Global Hawk and MQ-9 Reaper, are larger and more advanced UAS that are used for long-range and high-altitude missions. "TOP SECRET SHIT" is not a valid option and does not provide any relevant information.

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  • 16. 

    Engineering Support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier

    • Tier 3

    • Tier 4

    • Tier 2

    • Tier 1

    Correct Answer
    A. Tier 2
    Explanation
    Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by the Cyberspace Systems Integrator at Tier 2. This means that the support is provided at a level where the Cyberspace Systems Integrator is responsible for integrating and managing the engineering efforts for the MAJCOMs. Tier 2 support typically involves more complex issues that require specialized knowledge and expertise.

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  • 17. 

    Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering projects including new construction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities, and relocations of organizations? 

    • CIPS

    • Facilities Utilization Board

    • Mission Briefings

    • Joe Dirt

    Correct Answer
    A. Facilities Utilization Board
    Explanation
    The Facilities Utilization Board is the correct answer because it is the type of planning meeting that identifies civil engineering projects including new construction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities, and relocations of organizations.

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  • 18. 

    Which modification type evaluates, demonstrates or exercises the technical performance operational effectiveness, and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test materiel (hardware, firmware, and software) capabilities?

    • T-1 Temporary modification

    • T-2 Temporary modification

    • All Temporary modifications

    • Saftey mods

    Correct Answer
    A. T-2 Temporary modification
    Explanation
    T-2 Temporary modification evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the technical performance operational effectiveness and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test materiel capabilities. This type of modification is specifically designed for temporary purposes and is used to assess the performance and suitability of hardware, firmware, and software capabilities. It allows for testing and evaluation without permanently altering the materiel.

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  • 19. 

    Which type of contract requires supplies or services base on direct labor hours at specified fixed hourly rates

    • Time and Material

    • Sole Source

    • Performance Based

    • Firm Fixed Price

    Correct Answer
    A. Time and Material
    Explanation
    A time and material contract requires supplies or services to be provided based on direct labor hours at specified fixed hourly rates. This type of contract is commonly used when the scope of work is uncertain or when it is difficult to estimate the total cost of the project. The contractor is paid for the actual hours worked and for the materials used, providing flexibility to adjust the scope and requirements as the project progresses. This type of contract is often used for research and development projects or for services that require specialized expertise.

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  • 20. 

    Who is responsible for inspecting all "Real Property" on a installation to ensure it meets applicable standards?

    • Base CE

    • Gaining Work Center

    • QA

    • Contracting Office

    Correct Answer
    A. Base CE
    Explanation
    Base CE, or Base Civil Engineering, is responsible for inspecting all "Real Property" on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards. Base CE is responsible for the maintenance, repair, and construction of infrastructure on military installations, including buildings and facilities. They are specifically trained and equipped to assess the condition and compliance of real property with safety, environmental, and operational standards.

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  • 21. 

    Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)

    • Training

    • Mannning

    • Facility Condition

    • Personell

    Correct Answer
    A. Facility Condition
    Explanation
    The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) measures and reports various areas related to resources and training. Facility condition is not one of the areas measured and reported by SORTS. SORTS focuses on areas such as training, manning, and personnel, but does not include facility condition in its reporting.

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  • 22. 

    Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?

    • 10 days arrival 114 days delivery complete

    • 20 days arrival 140 days delivery complete

    • 400 days arrival 1 day delivery complete

    • 2 days arrival 14 days delivery complete

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 days arrival 14 days delivery complete
    Explanation
    The airbase force module arrives within 2 days after the airbase is opened, and the delivery is estimated to be complete within 14 days.

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  • 23. 

    What does the project management provide in the Initiate Phase?

    • Answers, Guidance and Education

    • Funding

    • Answers, Guidance and Questions

    • Requirements Management Plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Answers, Guidance and Education
    Explanation
    In the Initiate Phase of project management, answers, guidance, and education are provided. This phase involves setting the project's objectives, defining its scope, and identifying stakeholders. It is crucial to gather information, seek guidance from experts, and educate the team members about the project's goals and requirements. This helps in ensuring a clear understanding of the project's purpose and sets the foundation for successful project execution.

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  • 24. 

    The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as 

    • The status

    • A milestone

    • A deliverable

    • The final result of a project

    Correct Answer
    A. A deliverable
    Explanation
    A deliverable refers to the desired outcome, product, or service of a project. It is something tangible that can be delivered to the stakeholders upon completion of the project. A deliverable can be a document, a software application, a physical product, or any other work product that meets the project objectives. It represents the final result of the project and is usually agreed upon with the stakeholders during the project planning phase.

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  • 25. 

    Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed

    • MINOR

    • Major and Minor

    • MAJOR

    • Critical

    Correct Answer
    A. MAJOR
    Explanation
    Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed "MAJOR" because major exceptions refer to issues or problems that have a significant impact on the system's functionality and ability to meet the specified requirements. These exceptions are more severe than minor exceptions and may require immediate attention and resolution in order to ensure the system's proper functioning.

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  • 26. 

    What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase?

    • Follow-up

    • Controller

    • Organization

    • Documenting

    Correct Answer
    A. Follow-up
    Explanation
    Follow-up is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase. It involves regularly checking and monitoring the project's progress, addressing any issues or obstacles that arise, and taking necessary actions to keep the project on track. By providing timely follow-up, project managers can ensure that tasks are completed on time, resources are allocated effectively, and any deviations from the project plan are addressed promptly. This helps to maintain project momentum and increase the chances of successful project delivery.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?

    • Requires additional funding

    • Requires additional manpower

    • Mobility deployment eqmt

    • Requires services from outside agencies

    Correct Answer
    A. Requires additional funding
    Explanation
    One of the causes for requirements to be considered special is when they require additional funding. This means that the project or task at hand needs extra financial resources to be completed successfully. However, the other options listed (requires additional manpower, mobility deployment equipment, requires services from outside agencies) can also be considered causes for requirements to be considered special, as they all involve additional resources or external assistance.

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  • 28. 

    What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the comm systems under contract during Peacetime?

    • Logistics

    • Assumptions

    • Administration

    • Special Measures

    Correct Answer
    A. Logistics
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Logistics. In the Annex K, the area that is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communication systems under contract during peacetime is Logistics. This section likely includes information on the logistical support required to ensure the proper functioning and maintenance of communication systems during wartime, such as supply chain management, equipment maintenance, and personnel support.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is not an exception to the "full and open competition " stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Agency?

    • Unusual compelling urgency

    • Unit Commanders Interest

    • National security interest

    • Sole Source

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit Commanders Interest
    Explanation
    The "full and open competition" stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Agency requires that contracts be awarded through a competitive process. Unusual compelling urgency, national security interest, and sole source are exceptions to this requirement, as they allow for contracts to be awarded without competition in certain circumstances. Unit Commanders Interest, however, is not an exception to the "full and open competition" stipulation. Therefore, it is the correct answer as it does not qualify as an exception.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services by establishing "charge accounts" with qualified sources of supply?

    • Indefinite Delivery

    • Sole Source

    • Time and Material

    • Blanket Purchase Agreement

    Correct Answer
    A. Blanket Purchase Agreement
    Explanation
    A Blanket Purchase Agreement (BPA) is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services by establishing "charge accounts" with qualified sources of supply. This means that instead of going through a lengthy procurement process each time supplies or services are needed, a BPA allows the buyer to make purchases directly from pre-approved vendors. This method is efficient and saves time and resources by streamlining the procurement process.

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  • 31. 

    SECDEF and House and Senate Armed Services Committees authorization and appropriation are required for what type of construction projects?

    • Minor Construction

    • Elemental Fabrication

    • Major Construction

    • NONE

    Correct Answer
    A. Major Construction
    Explanation
    SECDEF (Secretary of Defense) and the House and Senate Armed Services Committees authorization and appropriation are required for major construction projects. This means that for any significant construction projects within the defense sector, approval and funding from these entities are necessary. This ensures proper oversight and allocation of resources for major construction endeavors.

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  • 32. 

    Which type of JET tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service's core mission?

    • ILO

    • Unit type code UTC

    • Joint Force/ Capability

    • AD HOC ARRANGEMENTS

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint Force/ Capability
    Explanation
    Joint Force/Capability is the correct answer because it refers to a type of JET tasking where one service provides a force or capability to perform another service's core mission. This means that one service will temporarily take on the responsibilities and tasks of another service in order to fulfill their core mission. This type of tasking allows for flexibility and collaboration between different services within a joint force.

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  • 33. 

    Which is NOT an initial capability of the Open The Airbase Force Module?

    • AOC operations

    • Force accountability

    • Trailer park boyz

    • EOD

    Correct Answer
    A. EOD
    Explanation
    The Open The Airbase Force Module does not have the initial capability of EOD (Explosive Ordnance Disposal). This means that the module does not include the capability to handle and dispose of explosive devices or materials. EOD is a specialized field that deals with the identification, assessment, and disposal of explosive hazards, and it is not one of the initial capabilities provided by the Open The Airbase Force Module.

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  • 34. 

    Which Force module supported by TDC is established within 48 Hrs and supports 50 to 150 users in a  Cafe' environment?

    • Operate the Airbase

    • Command and Control

    • Force multipliers

    • Mummified remains

    Correct Answer
    A. Command and Control
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Command and Control. In a Cafe' environment, where there are 50 to 150 users, the Command and Control Force module is established within 48 hours to support the operations. This module helps in coordinating and managing the activities and resources of the users in an efficient manner. It ensures effective communication, decision-making, and overall control of the operations in the Cafe' environment.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of a project not meeting requirement specifications?

    • BLM

    • Status Report

    • Preventative Actions

    • Defect Repairs

    Correct Answer
    A. Defect Repairs
    Explanation
    Defect Repairs is the correct answer because it refers to a type of change request that is used to fix a portion of a project that does not meet the specified requirements. This could include resolving any errors, bugs, or faults in the project deliverables or addressing any non-compliance with the stated requirements. It aims to rectify the identified defects and ensure that the project aligns with the desired specifications.

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  • 36. 

    Who implements a technical solution for a base?

    • Implementing Organization

    • COMM SQ

    • I-NOSC

    • Project Manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Implementing Organization
    Explanation
    The implementing organization is responsible for implementing a technical solution for a base. This means they are the ones who actually carry out the necessary steps and actions to put the solution into place. The other options, such as COMM SQ, I-NOSC, and Project Manager, may have roles or involvement in the process, but they are not specifically tasked with implementing the solution.

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  • 37. 

    In what (ITIL) stage do you determine the underlying principals used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle?

    • Service Strategy

    • Service Transition

    • Service Design

    • Service Improvement

    Correct Answer
    A. Service Strategy
    Explanation
    In the Service Strategy stage of ITIL, you determine the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle. This stage focuses on understanding and defining the organization's overall business objectives and how IT services can support them. It involves analyzing the market, identifying customer needs, and creating a strategy to deliver value to customers. By determining the underlying principles, Service Strategy ensures that the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes align with the organization's overall strategy and goals.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following funding options does the local CS implement using base level support resourses? 

    • PMP cert

    • Contract

    • Inorganic

    • Self-Help

    Correct Answer
    A. Self-Help
    Explanation
    The local CS implements the funding option of Self-Help using base level support resources. This means that they rely on their own efforts and resources to fund their projects or initiatives, rather than seeking external funding sources. Self-Help funding allows the local CS to be self-sufficient and independent in carrying out their activities, without relying on external contracts or inorganic sources of funding like grants or loans.

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  • 39. 

    Within how many days of the delivery date must a fully researched, completed requirement for a fixed-priced and cost reimbursement contact with a monetary value of $100,000 be submitted to the Base Contracting Office 

    • 35 Calender Days

    • 36 Calender Days

    • 15 Calender Days

    • 30 Calender Days

    Correct Answer
    A. 35 Calender Days
    Explanation
    A fully researched, completed requirement for a fixed-priced and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 must be submitted to the Base Contracting Office within 35 calendar days of the delivery date. This means that the contractor has 35 days from the date of delivery to gather all the necessary information, conduct research, and complete the requirements for the contract before submitting it to the Base Contracting Office.

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  • 40. 

    Who is responsible for providing training to QA personnel and functional directors/commanders?

    • Facility manager

    • Unit contract monitor

    • Contracting office rep

    • QA program coordinator

    Correct Answer
    A. QA program coordinator
    Explanation
    The QA program coordinator is responsible for providing training to QA personnel and functional directors/commanders. This role involves coordinating and overseeing the quality assurance program, which includes training and ensuring that personnel have the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their duties effectively. The facility manager, unit contract monitor, and contracting office rep may have other responsibilities related to facility management and contract administration, but they are not specifically responsible for providing training to QA personnel and functional directors/commanders.

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  • 41. 

    All armed forces Broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN) in

    • 1997

    • 1998

    • 1996

    • 2017

    Correct Answer
    A. 1998
    Explanation
    In 1998, all armed forces Broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN). This merger allowed for a unified broadcasting service for the armed forces, providing consistent and reliable news, entertainment, and information to military personnel stationed around the world. The merger aimed to streamline operations, improve efficiency, and enhance the quality of programming for the armed forces community.

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  • 42. 

    As a minimum a support agreement MUST be reviewed how soon after its effective date?

    • 3 Years

    • 1 year

    • 6 months

    • 60 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 Years
    Explanation
    A support agreement must be reviewed at least once every three years after its effective date. This ensures that the terms and conditions of the agreement are still relevant and meet the needs of both parties involved. Regular reviews help identify any necessary updates or changes that may be required to maintain the effectiveness and efficiency of the support agreement.

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  • 43. 

    Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish  its assigned mission?

    • Establish the airbase

    • Operate the airbase

    • Operate the forklift

    • Generate the mission

    Correct Answer
    A. Establish the airbase
    Explanation
    The force module that facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission is "Establish the airbase". This force module is responsible for setting up and preparing the airbase for operations, including tasks such as constructing infrastructure, establishing communication systems, and coordinating logistics. By successfully establishing the airbase, the necessary foundation is created for the airfield to generate air support and carry out its mission effectively.

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  • 44. 

    Which is NOT a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?

    • Strategy

    • Combat Plans

    • Combat Operations

    • Combat Support

    Correct Answer
    A. Combat Support
    Explanation
    Combat Support is NOT a division of the Air and Space Operations Center. The Air and Space Operations Center typically consists of divisions such as Strategy, Combat Plans, and Combat Operations, which are responsible for developing and executing military strategies, planning combat operations, and overseeing ongoing combat activities. However, Combat Support, which involves providing logistical and administrative support to combat operations, is not typically considered a division within the Air and Space Operations Center.

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  • 45. 

    What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability called?

    • Technical Orders

    • Technical Solutions

    • Priorities

    • Requirements

    Correct Answer
    A. Requirements
    Explanation
    The source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability are called "Requirements." These documents outline the specific criteria and specifications that must be met in order to fulfill the necessary capabilities within the cyberspace infrastructure. They serve as a guide for developing and implementing the required components and functionalities to support the infrastructure's objectives.

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  • 46. 

    What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system?

    • AFTO Form 747

    • AFTO Form 757

    • AFTO Form 780-0-WA

    • AF Form 1747

    Correct Answer
    A. AFTO Form 747
    Explanation
    AFTO Form 747 is the correct answer because it is commonly used in the United States Air Force to document the completion and validation of a project, specifically the installation of a communications system. This form serves as a record of the final inspection and ensures that all necessary steps have been taken to successfully complete the project. It is a crucial document that marks the end of the project and verifies the successful installation of the communications system.

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  • 47. 

    The Five Key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service life cycles are service strategy, 

    • Service Design, service status, service capabilities, and continual service improvement

    • Service Design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement

    • Service Design, service transition, service operation, and continual service commitment

    • Service architecture, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement

    Correct Answer
    A. Service Design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Service Design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement." This is because these stages represent the key components of the ITIL service life cycle. Service Design involves designing new or changed services to meet business requirements. Service Transition is the process of moving services from the development stage to the live environment. Service Operation is the stage where services are delivered and managed on a day-to-day basis. Continual Service Improvement is an ongoing process of analyzing and improving the performance of services.

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  • 48. 

    As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technical solutions?

    • PM

    • Base Civil engineer

    • Infected work center

    • AIDS

    Correct Answer
    A. Base Civil engineer
    Explanation
    A Base Civil engineer is not required to review and validate technical solutions. This is because a Base Civil engineer typically focuses on the design, construction, and maintenance of infrastructure projects, such as roads, bridges, and buildings. While they may provide input or expertise related to technical solutions in their specific field, their primary role is not to review and validate technical solutions across all areas.

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  • 49. 

    Which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements?

    • Concept Plan

    • Functional Plan

    • Supporting Plan

    • Operational Plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Concept Plan
    Explanation
    A concept plan is a type of plan where writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing an assigned mission in the event of a future situation. However, they only provide a summary of the mobility and logistic requirements. This means that while the plan outlines the overall strategy and approach to achieve the mission, it does not go into detail about the specific logistical and mobility needs that will be required to execute the plan.

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  • May 03, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Oct 21, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Sstallings

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