Stallings CDC Z3dx7x Cyberspace Support Craftsman Volume 2

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1. What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group Commander?

Explanation

The typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group Commander is O-6. This indicates that the commander holds the rank of Colonel in the United States military.

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About This Quiz
Stallings CDC Z3dx7x Cyberspace Support Craftsman Volume 2 - Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in cyberspace support within military operations, focusing on deployment planning, mobilization, and readiness reporting. It is designed for advanced learners aiming to master the complexities of Air Force support roles in cyber contexts.

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2. In the operate the airbase module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center (NCC-D)?

Explanation

The maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center (NCC-D) in the operate the airbase module is 16 km.

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3. Which of the following is NOT a career field assigned to engineering installation units?

Explanation

The career field 3D0X3 Cyber Surety is not assigned to engineering installation units. The other three career fields (3D1X2 Cyber Transport Systems, 3D1X7 Cable and Antenna Systems, and 3D1X3 RF transmission Systems) are all related to engineering installation units.

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4. Which of these items in contained in the Project Plan?

Explanation

The correct answer is Cost Management Plan. The Project Plan is a comprehensive document that outlines the objectives, scope, deliverables, and strategies for managing a project. It includes various plans that are essential for successful project execution, such as the Cost Management Plan. This plan outlines how the project's costs will be estimated, budgeted, and controlled throughout its lifecycle. It includes information on cost estimating techniques, cost baseline, cost tracking, and cost control procedures. The Cost Management Plan is crucial for ensuring that the project stays within budget and that financial resources are effectively managed.

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5. Which CIPS functional area supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order.

Explanation

Work Orders are the correct answer because they support enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level in the form of a maintenance task order. Work Orders are typically completed within a short timeframe of less than 30 days, making them suitable for addressing maintenance and improvement needs quickly and efficiently.

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6. Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?

Explanation

The AFPC AEF Center is responsible for initiating the requirements or deployment sourcing process. They are in charge of managing the Air Force's Expeditionary Force requirements and ensuring that the necessary resources and personnel are available for deployment.

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7. The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are 

Explanation

The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are secure communications and intelligence. This means that in order to effectively establish control, it is crucial to have a secure communication system in place to ensure that information is transmitted safely and accurately. Additionally, having access to intelligence allows for better decision-making and understanding of the situation, enabling effective control to be established.

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8. Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?

Explanation

The force module "Robust the airbase" contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established. This suggests that the forces in this module are meant to provide long-term support and reinforcement to the airbase, rather than being immediately available upon establishment.

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9. What deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises, determines forces are required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans and evaluate COA's?

Explanation

Deliberate planning is the correct answer because it involves the development of predetermined responses to potential crises, determining the forces required to achieve objectives, preparing deployment plans, and evaluating courses of action (COAs). This process is typically conducted in advance and involves careful analysis and consideration of various factors to ensure effective and efficient deployment of forces.

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10. Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)s

Explanation

Pilot Units develop logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)s.

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11. If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the 

Explanation

The correct answer is the Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph. This is because if the instructions provided are not detailed enough to require a separate annex, the information on base functional area support is included in the OPLAN major paragraph. The OPLAN is a comprehensive document that outlines the operational concept, tasks, and responsibilities for a specific operation. It provides guidance and direction for the execution of the operation and includes information on various aspects, including base functional area support. Therefore, the OPLAN major paragraph is the appropriate place to include this information.

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12. Which type of contract is permissible when there is only ONE viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services?

Explanation

Sole Source contracts are permissible when there is only one viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services. In this situation, there is no competition available, and the contract can be awarded to the sole source without going through a competitive bidding process. This type of contract is typically used when there is a unique product or service that only one supplier can provide, or when the government has determined that only one contractor is capable of fulfilling the requirement.

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13. The Contingency Response Wing HQ is located at 

Explanation

The correct answer is Joint Base McGuire-Dix Lakehurst, NJ. This is the location where the Contingency Response Wing HQ is situated.

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14. Which modification type evaluates, demonstrates or exercises the technical performance operational effectiveness, and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test materiel (hardware, firmware, and software) capabilities?

Explanation

T-2 Temporary modification evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the technical performance operational effectiveness and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test materiel capabilities. This type of modification is specifically designed for temporary purposes and is used to assess the performance and suitability of hardware, firmware, and software capabilities. It allows for testing and evaluation without permanently altering the materiel.

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15. Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)

Explanation

The RQ-11B RAVEN is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS) because it is a lightweight and compact drone that is typically used for short-range surveillance and reconnaissance missions. It is designed to be easily deployed and operated by a small team, making it suitable for tactical operations. The other options, RQ-4 Global Hawk and MQ-9 Reaper, are larger and more advanced UAS that are used for long-range and high-altitude missions. "TOP SECRET SHIT" is not a valid option and does not provide any relevant information.

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16. Which type of contract requires supplies or services base on direct labor hours at specified fixed hourly rates

Explanation

A time and material contract requires supplies or services to be provided based on direct labor hours at specified fixed hourly rates. This type of contract is commonly used when the scope of work is uncertain or when it is difficult to estimate the total cost of the project. The contractor is paid for the actual hours worked and for the materials used, providing flexibility to adjust the scope and requirements as the project progresses. This type of contract is often used for research and development projects or for services that require specialized expertise.

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17. Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering projects including new construction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities, and relocations of organizations? 

Explanation

The Facilities Utilization Board is the correct answer because it is the type of planning meeting that identifies civil engineering projects including new construction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities, and relocations of organizations.

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18. Who is responsible for inspecting all "Real Property" on a installation to ensure it meets applicable standards?

Explanation

Base CE, or Base Civil Engineering, is responsible for inspecting all "Real Property" on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards. Base CE is responsible for the maintenance, repair, and construction of infrastructure on military installations, including buildings and facilities. They are specifically trained and equipped to assess the condition and compliance of real property with safety, environmental, and operational standards.

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19. Engineering Support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier

Explanation

Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by the Cyberspace Systems Integrator at Tier 2. This means that the support is provided at a level where the Cyberspace Systems Integrator is responsible for integrating and managing the engineering efforts for the MAJCOMs. Tier 2 support typically involves more complex issues that require specialized knowledge and expertise.

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20. Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements?

Explanation

AFI 10-201 is the correct answer because it provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements. It is likely that this document outlines the specific requirements and guidelines for creating and implementing DOC statements within the context of the Air Force. The other options, AFI 10-244, AFI 10-255, and AFI 10-200, may be related to other topics or procedures within the Air Force but do not specifically address DOC statements.

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21. The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as 

Explanation

A deliverable refers to the desired outcome, product, or service of a project. It is something tangible that can be delivered to the stakeholders upon completion of the project. A deliverable can be a document, a software application, a physical product, or any other work product that meets the project objectives. It represents the final result of the project and is usually agreed upon with the stakeholders during the project planning phase.

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22. Which of the following is not an exception to the "full and open competition " stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Agency?

Explanation

The "full and open competition" stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Agency requires that contracts be awarded through a competitive process. Unusual compelling urgency, national security interest, and sole source are exceptions to this requirement, as they allow for contracts to be awarded without competition in certain circumstances. Unit Commanders Interest, however, is not an exception to the "full and open competition" stipulation. Therefore, it is the correct answer as it does not qualify as an exception.

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23. Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed

Explanation

Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed "MAJOR" because major exceptions refer to issues or problems that have a significant impact on the system's functionality and ability to meet the specified requirements. These exceptions are more severe than minor exceptions and may require immediate attention and resolution in order to ensure the system's proper functioning.

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24. What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the comm systems under contract during Peacetime?

Explanation

The correct answer is Logistics. In the Annex K, the area that is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communication systems under contract during peacetime is Logistics. This section likely includes information on the logistical support required to ensure the proper functioning and maintenance of communication systems during wartime, such as supply chain management, equipment maintenance, and personnel support.

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25. SECDEF and House and Senate Armed Services Committees authorization and appropriation are required for what type of construction projects?

Explanation

SECDEF (Secretary of Defense) and the House and Senate Armed Services Committees authorization and appropriation are required for major construction projects. This means that for any significant construction projects within the defense sector, approval and funding from these entities are necessary. This ensures proper oversight and allocation of resources for major construction endeavors.

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26. Which of the following is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services by establishing "charge accounts" with qualified sources of supply?

Explanation

A Blanket Purchase Agreement (BPA) is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services by establishing "charge accounts" with qualified sources of supply. This means that instead of going through a lengthy procurement process each time supplies or services are needed, a BPA allows the buyer to make purchases directly from pre-approved vendors. This method is efficient and saves time and resources by streamlining the procurement process.

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27. What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase?

Explanation

Follow-up is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase. It involves regularly checking and monitoring the project's progress, addressing any issues or obstacles that arise, and taking necessary actions to keep the project on track. By providing timely follow-up, project managers can ensure that tasks are completed on time, resources are allocated effectively, and any deviations from the project plan are addressed promptly. This helps to maintain project momentum and increase the chances of successful project delivery.

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28. What does the project management provide in the Initiate Phase?

Explanation

In the Initiate Phase of project management, answers, guidance, and education are provided. This phase involves setting the project's objectives, defining its scope, and identifying stakeholders. It is crucial to gather information, seek guidance from experts, and educate the team members about the project's goals and requirements. This helps in ensuring a clear understanding of the project's purpose and sets the foundation for successful project execution.

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29. Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?

Explanation

One of the causes for requirements to be considered special is when they require additional funding. This means that the project or task at hand needs extra financial resources to be completed successfully. However, the other options listed (requires additional manpower, mobility deployment equipment, requires services from outside agencies) can also be considered causes for requirements to be considered special, as they all involve additional resources or external assistance.

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30. Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)

Explanation

The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) measures and reports various areas related to resources and training. Facility condition is not one of the areas measured and reported by SORTS. SORTS focuses on areas such as training, manning, and personnel, but does not include facility condition in its reporting.

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31. Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?

Explanation

The airbase force module arrives within 2 days after the airbase is opened, and the delivery is estimated to be complete within 14 days.

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32. Which Force module supported by TDC is established within 48 Hrs and supports 50 to 150 users in a  Cafe' environment?

Explanation

The correct answer is Command and Control. In a Cafe' environment, where there are 50 to 150 users, the Command and Control Force module is established within 48 hours to support the operations. This module helps in coordinating and managing the activities and resources of the users in an efficient manner. It ensures effective communication, decision-making, and overall control of the operations in the Cafe' environment.

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33. Within how many days of the delivery date must a fully researched, completed requirement for a fixed-priced and cost reimbursement contact with a monetary value of $100,000 be submitted to the Base Contracting Office 

Explanation

A fully researched, completed requirement for a fixed-priced and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 must be submitted to the Base Contracting Office within 35 calendar days of the delivery date. This means that the contractor has 35 days from the date of delivery to gather all the necessary information, conduct research, and complete the requirements for the contract before submitting it to the Base Contracting Office.

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34. Who implements a technical solution for a base?

Explanation

The implementing organization is responsible for implementing a technical solution for a base. This means they are the ones who actually carry out the necessary steps and actions to put the solution into place. The other options, such as COMM SQ, I-NOSC, and Project Manager, may have roles or involvement in the process, but they are not specifically tasked with implementing the solution.

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35. Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of a project not meeting requirement specifications?

Explanation

Defect Repairs is the correct answer because it refers to a type of change request that is used to fix a portion of a project that does not meet the specified requirements. This could include resolving any errors, bugs, or faults in the project deliverables or addressing any non-compliance with the stated requirements. It aims to rectify the identified defects and ensure that the project aligns with the desired specifications.

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36. In what (ITIL) stage do you determine the underlying principals used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle?

Explanation

In the Service Strategy stage of ITIL, you determine the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle. This stage focuses on understanding and defining the organization's overall business objectives and how IT services can support them. It involves analyzing the market, identifying customer needs, and creating a strategy to deliver value to customers. By determining the underlying principles, Service Strategy ensures that the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes align with the organization's overall strategy and goals.

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37. Which of the following funding options does the local CS implement using base level support resourses? 

Explanation

The local CS implements the funding option of Self-Help using base level support resources. This means that they rely on their own efforts and resources to fund their projects or initiatives, rather than seeking external funding sources. Self-Help funding allows the local CS to be self-sufficient and independent in carrying out their activities, without relying on external contracts or inorganic sources of funding like grants or loans.

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38. Which type of JET tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service's core mission?

Explanation

Joint Force/Capability is the correct answer because it refers to a type of JET tasking where one service provides a force or capability to perform another service's core mission. This means that one service will temporarily take on the responsibilities and tasks of another service in order to fulfill their core mission. This type of tasking allows for flexibility and collaboration between different services within a joint force.

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39. Who is responsible for providing training to QA personnel and functional directors/commanders?

Explanation

The QA program coordinator is responsible for providing training to QA personnel and functional directors/commanders. This role involves coordinating and overseeing the quality assurance program, which includes training and ensuring that personnel have the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their duties effectively. The facility manager, unit contract monitor, and contracting office rep may have other responsibilities related to facility management and contract administration, but they are not specifically responsible for providing training to QA personnel and functional directors/commanders.

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40. Which is NOT an initial capability of the Open The Airbase Force Module?

Explanation

The Open The Airbase Force Module does not have the initial capability of EOD (Explosive Ordnance Disposal). This means that the module does not include the capability to handle and dispose of explosive devices or materials. EOD is a specialized field that deals with the identification, assessment, and disposal of explosive hazards, and it is not one of the initial capabilities provided by the Open The Airbase Force Module.

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41. As a minimum a support agreement MUST be reviewed how soon after its effective date?

Explanation

A support agreement must be reviewed at least once every three years after its effective date. This ensures that the terms and conditions of the agreement are still relevant and meet the needs of both parties involved. Regular reviews help identify any necessary updates or changes that may be required to maintain the effectiveness and efficiency of the support agreement.

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42. All armed forces Broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN) in

Explanation

In 1998, all armed forces Broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN). This merger allowed for a unified broadcasting service for the armed forces, providing consistent and reliable news, entertainment, and information to military personnel stationed around the world. The merger aimed to streamline operations, improve efficiency, and enhance the quality of programming for the armed forces community.

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43. Which is NOT a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?

Explanation

Combat Support is NOT a division of the Air and Space Operations Center. The Air and Space Operations Center typically consists of divisions such as Strategy, Combat Plans, and Combat Operations, which are responsible for developing and executing military strategies, planning combat operations, and overseeing ongoing combat activities. However, Combat Support, which involves providing logistical and administrative support to combat operations, is not typically considered a division within the Air and Space Operations Center.

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44. The Five Key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service life cycles are service strategy, 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Service Design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement." This is because these stages represent the key components of the ITIL service life cycle. Service Design involves designing new or changed services to meet business requirements. Service Transition is the process of moving services from the development stage to the live environment. Service Operation is the stage where services are delivered and managed on a day-to-day basis. Continual Service Improvement is an ongoing process of analyzing and improving the performance of services.

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45. What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system?

Explanation

AFTO Form 747 is the correct answer because it is commonly used in the United States Air Force to document the completion and validation of a project, specifically the installation of a communications system. This form serves as a record of the final inspection and ensures that all necessary steps have been taken to successfully complete the project. It is a crucial document that marks the end of the project and verifies the successful installation of the communications system.

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46. Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the installations contract Quality Assurance Program?

Explanation

The Contacting Office is responsible for establishing and maintaining the installations contract Quality Assurance Program. This office is in charge of managing and overseeing the contract and ensuring that the quality standards are met. They are responsible for coordinating with the contractor and other stakeholders to ensure that the program is implemented effectively and any issues or concerns are addressed promptly.

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47. Who is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional experts as primary and alternate contract officer representatives (COR)?

Explanation

The functional director/commander is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional experts as primary and alternate contract officer representatives (COR). This individual has the authority and knowledge to assess the skills and expertise required for the COR role and can make informed decisions regarding the assignment of these individuals. The contracting office may provide support and guidance in the process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the functional director/commander.

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48. As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technical solutions?

Explanation

A Base Civil engineer is not required to review and validate technical solutions. This is because a Base Civil engineer typically focuses on the design, construction, and maintenance of infrastructure projects, such as roads, bridges, and buildings. While they may provide input or expertise related to technical solutions in their specific field, their primary role is not to review and validate technical solutions across all areas.

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49. What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability called?

Explanation

The source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability are called "Requirements." These documents outline the specific criteria and specifications that must be met in order to fulfill the necessary capabilities within the cyberspace infrastructure. They serve as a guide for developing and implementing the required components and functionalities to support the infrastructure's objectives.

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50. Which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements?

Explanation

A concept plan is a type of plan where writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing an assigned mission in the event of a future situation. However, they only provide a summary of the mobility and logistic requirements. This means that while the plan outlines the overall strategy and approach to achieve the mission, it does not go into detail about the specific logistical and mobility needs that will be required to execute the plan.

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51. Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish  its assigned mission?

Explanation

The force module that facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission is "Establish the airbase". This force module is responsible for setting up and preparing the airbase for operations, including tasks such as constructing infrastructure, establishing communication systems, and coordinating logistics. By successfully establishing the airbase, the necessary foundation is created for the airfield to generate air support and carry out its mission effectively.

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52. Which Engineering installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports 72hr rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?

Explanation

The correct answer is 85 (EIS). The question asks which Engineering installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72hr rapid response force during a crisis, providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis. The answer 85 (EIS) indicates that this particular unit is responsible for this role.

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53. Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool? (ART)

Explanation

The correct answer is "Home Station Mission" because the Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) measures readiness categories, and "Home Station Mission" is not one of them. The tool is designed to assess the readiness of air and space expeditionary forces, and it measures categories such as Training, Off Station Training, and equipment condition. However, the readiness of the home station mission is not included in the measurement.

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54. Which of the following is NOT a step required in the modification proposal process?

Explanation

The work center manager certification and approval is not a step required in the modification proposal process. This suggests that the work center manager does not have the authority to certify and approve modification proposals. The other options mentioned in the question, such as request action and organization validation, using command and lead command validation, and program manager review and approval of technical requirements and solution, are all steps that are necessary in the modification proposal process.

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55. What methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?

Explanation

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56. What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties?

Explanation

A Program Action Officer is the title given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties. They are responsible for coordinating and implementing program activities, ensuring that tasks are completed on time and within budget, and providing support to the program manager in decision-making and planning. They act as a liaison between different teams and stakeholders, ensuring effective communication and collaboration. The Program Action Officer plays a crucial role in the successful execution of the program and helps in achieving its objectives.

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57. The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using O&M funds is 

Explanation

The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using O&M funds is 1.5M. This means that any construction project with a cost below 1.5 million dollars would not require O&M funds for its completion.

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58. Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program?

Explanation

The correct answer is TO 00-33D-3003. This is because TO 00-33D-3003 is listed along with other technical order numbers, while the other options (TO 00-33D-2002 and TO 00-33D-1001) are also listed but do not pertain to the specific question of finding a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program. CIPS is not mentioned in relation to the question at all.

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59. The five phases of Project Management are Initiate, 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Plan, Execute, Close, and Control". In project management, the first phase is planning, where the project objectives, scope, and timeline are defined. The next phase is execution, where the project plan is put into action. After the project is completed, the closing phase involves finalizing and delivering the project deliverables. Finally, the control phase involves monitoring and controlling the project progress to ensure it stays on track and meets the desired outcomes.

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60. Who acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/or obtain base civil engineering support?

Explanation

The Unit Plans, Planning, and agreements section acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/or obtain base civil engineering support. They are responsible for coordinating and facilitating the planning and design process within the unit, as well as ensuring that agreements are in place for obtaining necessary support from the base civil engineering department. This section plays a crucial role in ensuring that the unit has the necessary design and engineering support for its operations.

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61. Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?

Explanation

Volume 1 is the correct answer because it provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war.

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62. The AF Form 1067 is used for defining, validating and approving requirements for

Explanation

The AF Form 1067 serves the purpose of defining, validating, and approving requirements for various modifications. These modifications can be both temporary and permanent in nature. Therefore, the correct answer is that the AF Form 1067 is used for all temporary and permanent modifications, including safety mods, T-1 Temp Mods, and T-2 Temp Mods.

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63. When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans?

Explanation

When tasked by the supported combatant commander, a supporting plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans. A supporting plan is a detailed plan that provides specific guidance and resources to assist in the execution of the overall contingency plan. It outlines the specific actions, tasks, and responsibilities of various units or organizations involved in the operation. This plan helps to coordinate and synchronize the efforts of different entities, ensuring that they work together effectively to achieve the mission objectives.

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64. Which type of contract should only be used when it is impossible to accurately estimate the extent or duration of the work anticipated costs with any reasonable degree of accuracy?

Explanation

A Time and Material contract should only be used when it is impossible to accurately estimate the extent or duration of the work anticipated costs with any reasonable degree of accuracy. This type of contract allows for flexibility in terms of both time and materials used, as the contractor is paid based on the actual hours worked and the materials used. It is suitable for projects where the scope and requirements may change or are uncertain, making it difficult to provide a fixed price contract.

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65. Changes are requested during a project using an 

Explanation

The correct answer is AF Form 1146. This form is used to request changes during a project. It is specifically designed for this purpose and provides a standardized format for submitting change requests. The other forms listed are not intended for this specific use and may not have the necessary fields or information required for requesting changes.

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66. The governing guidance for Air and Space expeditionary force reporting tool (ART) reporting is AFI

Explanation

The correct answer is AFI 10-244. This Air Force Instruction provides the governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force reporting tool (ART) reporting. It outlines the procedures and requirements for reporting and documenting the activities and capabilities of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force.

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67. In what (ITIL) stage do you create the framework to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented 

Explanation

Service Transition is the correct answer because this stage in ITIL is responsible for planning, coordinating, and implementing changes to the IT infrastructure, including the introduction of new services. It involves creating the framework to ensure that the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented, including activities such as testing, training, and managing the release of the service into the live environment.

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68. Support agreements are documented on 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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69. What must base CE prepare and forward to MAJCOM for review and approval if major or minor construction is required?

Explanation

Base CE must prepare and forward DD Form 1391 to MAJCOM for review and approval if major or minor construction is required. This form provides detailed information about the proposed construction project, including the scope, cost estimates, and justification. It is used to request funding and ensure that the project aligns with the overall strategic objectives and priorities of the MAJCOM.

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70. Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)

Explanation

AFI 33-150 is the correct answer because it provides the guidance for the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS). AFI 33-150 is the Air Force Instruction that specifically outlines the policies and procedures for managing and operating cyberspace infrastructure. It covers topics such as network planning, configuration management, and security measures. Therefore, AFI 33-150 is the appropriate guidance for the use of CIPS.

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What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response...
In the operate the airbase module, what is the maximum distance an...
Which of the following is NOT a career field assigned to engineering...
Which of these items in contained in the Project Plan?
Which CIPS functional area supports enhancements to current...
Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?
The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and...
Which force module contains support forces that would generally not...
What deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to...
Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of...
If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex,...
Which type of contract is permissible when there is only ONE viable...
The Contingency Response Wing HQ is located at 
Which modification type evaluates, demonstrates or exercises the...
Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial...
Which type of contract requires supplies or services base on direct...
Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering projects...
Who is responsible for inspecting all "Real Property" on a...
Engineering Support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems...
Which document provides detailed information and instructions on...
The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to...
Which of the following is not an exception to the "full and open...
Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified...
What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for...
SECDEF and House and Senate Armed Services Committees authorization...
Which of the following is a simplified method of filling anticipated...
What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project...
What does the project management provide in the Initiate Phase?
Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be...
Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of...
Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the...
Which Force module supported by TDC is established within 48 Hrs and...
Within how many days of the delivery date must a fully researched,...
Who implements a technical solution for a base?
Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a...
In what (ITIL) stage do you determine the underlying principals used...
Which of the following funding options does the local CS implement...
Which type of JET tasking is a service providing a force or capability...
Who is responsible for providing training to QA personnel and...
Which is NOT an initial capability of the Open The Airbase Force...
As a minimum a support agreement MUST be reviewed how soon after its...
All armed forces Broadcasting affiliates merged under the American...
Which is NOT a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?
The Five Key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure...
What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful...
Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the installations...
Who is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional...
As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and...
What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace...
Which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation,...
Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and...
Which Engineering installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned...
Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and...
Which of the following is NOT a step required in the modification...
What methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project...
What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager...
The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using O&M...
Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices...
The five phases of Project Management are Initiate, 
Who acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/or...
Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated...
The AF Form 1067 is used for defining, validating and approving...
When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is...
Which type of contract should only be used when it is impossible to...
Changes are requested during a project using an 
The governing guidance for Air and Space expeditionary force reporting...
In what (ITIL) stage do you create the framework to ensure the...
Support agreements are documented on 
What must base CE prepare and forward to MAJCOM for review and...
Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning...
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