Molecular/cellular Part Of Biochemistry

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1. What type of gene was most likely involved in the condition described as Klein-Waardenburg Syndrome?

Explanation

Homeotic genes control the pattern of body system formations during embryonic development, making them a likely candidate for conditions that affect multiple systems as seen in Klein-Waardenburg Syndrome.

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About This Quiz
Molecular Biology Quizzes & Trivia

Explore the intricate world of biochemistry with a focus on molecular and cellular processes. This content assesses understanding in molecular biology, aiding learners in grasping complex biochemical interactions... see moreand their applications in scientific research and health sciences. see less

2. What are enhancers and how do they enhance transcription?

Explanation

Enhancers are specific DNA sequences that help regulate gene expression by interacting with transcription factors to enhance transcription at a specific promoter site. They do not directly transcribe genetic material, inhibit RNA polymerase, or exist exclusively in prokaryotic cells.

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3. Acetylation of nucleosome core histones leads to increased/decreased expression of particular genes?

Explanation

Acetylation of histones generally leads to increased gene expression by promoting transcriptional activation. This modification modifies the chromatin structure to a more open form, making it easier for transcription factors to access the DNA and initiate gene transcription.

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4. What lab technique utilizes dideoxynucleotides to randomly terminate growing strands of DNA, with gel electrophoresis used to separate DNA lengths in order to read the DNA sequence?

Explanation

The key feature of the lab technique described is the use of dideoxynucleotides to terminate DNA strands, which is characteristic of DNA sequencing. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) involves amplifying DNA sequences through heating and cooling cycles, Western Blotting is a technique used to detect specific proteins, and Flow Cytometry is used for analyzing and sorting cells based on various parameters.

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5. What is the principle of gel electrophoresis?

Explanation

Gel electrophoresis is a technique used to separate molecules based on their size and charge. DNA segments are treated with restriction enzymes, pipetted into a gel, subjected to an electric field, and visualized under UV light for analysis.

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6. What technique is used to determine the relationship between 'Possible Parent' and 'Possible child'?

Explanation

When determining the relationship between 'Possible Parent' and 'Possible child', DNA Fingerprinting is the most accurate method as it compares specific genetic markers through amplification of STRs using PCR.

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7. How is collagen synthesized?

Explanation

The correct answer explains the process of collagen synthesis starting from protein translation in the rough endoplasmic reticulum through various posttranslational modifications to form collagen fibrils. The incorrect answers provide inaccurate information about the synthesis of collagen in different cell organelles, diverting from the actual pathway described in the correct answer.

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8. What type of collagen is found in granulation tissue?

Explanation

Granulation tissue primarily consists of Type 3 collagen, which is also found in various other tissues such as blood vessels, uterus, fetal tissue, and skin.

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9. What is the main difference between collagen found in the cornea and collagen found in the vitreous body?

Explanation

Collagen Type 1 is primarily found in the cornea, tendons, and bones, providing strength and structure. On the other hand, Collagen Type 2 is mainly present in the vitreous body, cartilage, and nucleus pulposus, contributing to flexibility and cushioning.

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10. A couple comes to your office and they want you to tell them if they are at risk of having a child with 'Constant Infections and Pancreas problems'. What test would you utilize?

Explanation

The correct test to determine if a couple is at risk of having a child with 'Constant Infections and Pancreas problems' is PCR and sequencing to identify carriers of the CFTR gene mutation. Blood type testing, X-ray imaging, and urinalysis are not relevant tests for this specific condition.

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11. CFTR gene(affected by Phe508 deletion on chromosome 7 in CF) Codes for ATP-Dependent CL channel which is meant to SECRETE CL in GI and Lungs.so why the hell we have increased CL in Sweat and thick mucus with decreased CL in GI/Lungs?
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12. Which site of the ribosome does the FIRST tRNA that carries METHIONINE enter?

Explanation

The first tRNA that carries METHIONINE enters the P site of the ribosome, this is an exception as in other cases tRNA enters the A site before moving to the P site.

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13. What are the components of the initiation complex in prokaryotes?

Explanation

The initiation complex in prokaryotes consists of the 30S subunit, an aminoacyl-tRNA bound to N-formylmethionine, and initiation factors. The incorrect answers provided do not reflect the correct components of the initiation complex.

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14. How do macrolides prevent the formation of peptide bonds?

Explanation

Macrolides, such as erythromycin, work by binding to the 23S RNA of the 50S subunit in the bacterial ribosome, thus preventing the formation of peptide bonds. This mechanism disrupts protein synthesis in bacteria. The incorrect answers provided describe different mechanisms that do not accurately reflect how macrolides function.

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15. What is the procedure to check if a donor has CMV in his blood?

Explanation

The correct procedure to check for CMV in a donor's blood involves using the PCR method.

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16. Which proofreading activity is critical in determining the accuracy of nuclear DNA replication and thus the base substitution mutation rate in humans?

Explanation

The 3' to 5' exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase δ is crucial in proofreading during DNA replication to ensure accurate base incorporation, thereby affecting the mutation rate. The incorrect answers do not directly relate to proofreading during DNA replication or mutation rate in humans.

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17. What is the most likely source of the nucleic acid in a sample with 10% guanine, 40% cytosine, 30% thymine, and 20% adenine?

Explanation

All other choices have DOUBLE-STRANDED DNA composition which should obey the Chargaff's rule's (%A = %T, %C = %G), so we are left with SINGLE-Stranded agents like Picornavirus and Parvovirus. The best choice would be Parvovirus because it is Single-stranded but DNA virus, while Picornavirus is a Single-Stranded RNA virus (Nucleic acid sample would contain Uracil instead of thymine).

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18. Fluroquinolones inhibit which prokaryotic enzyme necessary for bacterial DNA replication?

Explanation

Fluroquinolones specifically target Topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) in prokaryotic cells, inhibiting its function and ultimately disrupting bacterial DNA replication.

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19. RNA dependent DNA polymerase required for chromosome duplication in the nuclei of rapidly dividing cells, what enzyme it is, some conditions that might hint you that they talk about this enzyme?

Explanation

Telomerase is the enzyme that best fits the description provided. It plays a key role in maintaining the length of telomeres in rapidly dividing cells. Conditions like aging, immortal cancer cells, and certain diseases like Dyskeratosis congenital, Progeria, and Congenital aplastic anemia are often associated with telomerase dysfunction.

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20. Which class of enzyme catalyses the formation of the phosphodiester bonds in DNA repair?

Explanation

In DNA repair, DNA Ligases are responsible for sealing the phosphodiester bonds in DNA strands that have been damaged. DNA Polymerases are mainly involved in DNA synthesis, while RNA Polymerases transcribe RNA from DNA. Helicases unwind the DNA double helix during processes like replication and repair, but they do not directly catalyze the formation of phosphodiester bonds.

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21. Mutation of cytoplasmic enzyme involves substitution of alanine for the serine(Normally present at position 127). How does this mutation result in decreased activity of the enzyme?

Explanation

The mutation results in decreased enzyme activity because phosphorylation is a key regulatory mechanism in enzyme function. By preventing phosphorylation, the enzyme's activity is decreased.

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22. Given the DNA sequences 3>5 direction:Strand GCAGC 5>3 direction:Strand CGTCG, how can you find mRNA?

Explanation

The correct way to find mRNA in this case is to identify the 5>3 direction (coding strand) and substitute uracil for thymidines. The mRNA sequence will be the same as the coding strand, except for the substitution of uracil for thymidines.

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23. What is the main difference between transcription of genes by polymerase I and polyadenylation of pre-mRNA by poly A polymerase?

Explanation

Transcription of genes by polymerase I occurs in the nucleolus, while polyadenylation of pre-mRNA by poly A polymerase happens in the nucleoplasm, which is a part of the nucleus outside the nucleolus.

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24. What codon could code for the same amino-acid as UAC?

Explanation

Wobble codons often differ only in the third base. UAA would not be the correct answer because it is a STOP codon.

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25. What is a COMPLETE giveaway for I-cell disease?

Explanation

I-cell disease is characterized by the elevation of lysosomal enzymes in the serum due to a defect in Golgi-associated phosphotransferase leading to impaired post-translational modification and transportation through the Golgi apparatus.

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26. Decreased secretion of the particular protein from the cell and its accumulation in the cytoplasm is suggestive of mutation in which part of the gene that codes for that protein?

Explanation

When a particular protein is not being secreted properly and instead accumulates in the cytoplasm, it suggests a mutation in the part of the gene that codes for the N-terminal amino acid signal sequence. This signal sequence is crucial for targeting the nascent protein to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) for proper translocation and secretion. Mutations in other parts of the gene, such as the C-terminal amino acid signal sequence, intron regions, or the promoter region, would not directly impact the translocation of the protein to the ER.

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27. What would you want to measure in tissue to identify if it is rich in Collagen? Note: collagen is very rich in glycine.

Explanation

Collagen is rich in glycine, but glycine is not specific enough to identify collagen. Vitamin C is important for collagen synthesis, but measuring its levels does not directly indicate collagen richness. Elastin is a different protein and not relevant for identifying collagen richness in tissue.

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28. Which X-linked recessive disease causes functional copper deficiency, leading to decreased activity of lysyl oxidase and poorly cross-linked connective tissue resulting in fragile bones and blood vessels?

Explanation

Menkes disease is a rare X-linked recessive disorder that causes impaired copper absorption, leading to decreased lysyl oxidase activity and poorly cross-linked connective tissue. This results in symptoms such as fragile bones and blood vessels. Cystic fibrosis affects the lungs and digestive system, hemophilia impairs blood clotting, and Marfan syndrome affects connective tissue but they do not involve functional copper deficiency or decreased lysyl oxidase activity.

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29. What is the significance of a splice-site mutation?

Explanation

A splice-site mutation is a specific type of mutation that can have significant effects on gene expression by altering the splicing of introns and exons in mRNA. This can lead to the production of abnormal proteins or the loss of essential protein function, contributing to various genetic disorders and diseases.

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What type of gene was most likely involved in the condition described...
What are enhancers and how do they enhance transcription?
Acetylation of nucleosome core histones leads to increased/decreased...
What lab technique utilizes dideoxynucleotides to randomly terminate...
What is the principle of gel electrophoresis?
What technique is used to determine the relationship between 'Possible...
How is collagen synthesized?
What type of collagen is found in granulation tissue?
What is the main difference between collagen found in the cornea and...
A couple comes to your office and they want you to tell them if they...
CFTR gene(affected by Phe508 deletion on chromosome 7 in CF) Codes for...
Which site of the ribosome does the FIRST tRNA that carries METHIONINE...
What are the components of the initiation complex in prokaryotes?
How do macrolides prevent the formation of peptide bonds?
What is the procedure to check if a donor has CMV in his blood?
Which proofreading activity is critical in determining the accuracy of...
What is the most likely source of the nucleic acid in a sample with...
Fluroquinolones inhibit which prokaryotic enzyme necessary for...
RNA dependent DNA polymerase required for chromosome duplication in...
Which class of enzyme catalyses the formation of the phosphodiester...
Mutation of cytoplasmic enzyme involves substitution of alanine for...
Given the DNA sequences 3>5 direction:Strand GCAGC 5>3...
What is the main difference between transcription of genes by...
What codon could code for the same amino-acid as UAC?
What is a COMPLETE giveaway for I-cell disease?
Decreased secretion of the particular protein from the cell and its...
What would you want to measure in tissue to identify if it is rich in...
Which X-linked recessive disease causes functional copper deficiency,...
What is the significance of a splice-site mutation?
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