Aircraft Volume 3 Unit Review Exercises

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 57

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Aircraft Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    1. (401) What type of fuselage construction uses a fabric or thin metal covering, and may be found on small, lightweight aircraft?
    • A. 

      Truss.

    • B. 

      Cantilever.

    • C. 

      Monocoque.

    • D. 

      Semimonocoque

  • 2. 
    2. (401) The primary structural components of an aircraft wing include the spars, ribs, and
    • A. 

      Skin.

    • B. 

      Stringers.

    • C. 

      Empennage.

    • D. 

      Trailing edge.

  • 3. 
    3. (401) Which assembly includes the aft end of the fuselage of conventionally designed aircraft?
    • A. 

      Fairing.

    • B. 

      Ailerons.

    • C. 

      Empennage.

    • D. 

      Trailing edge.

  • 4. 
    4. (402) Which of the following are examples of secondary flight controls?
    • A. 

      Ailerons.

    • B. 

      Rudders.

    • C. 

      Trim tabs.

    • D. 

      Elevators.

  • 5. 
    5. (403) Low observable (LO) technology allows modern aircraft to avoid
    • A. 

      Enemy aircraft.

    • B. 

      Enemy radar.

    • C. 

      Friendly forces.

    • D. 

      Night flying incidents.

  • 6. 
    6. (404) The situation that describes an ideal installation of a bolt on an aircraft component is the grip length of the bolt is
    • A. 

      Slightly shorter than the thickness of the materials being joined.

    • B. 

      The same as the thickness of the materials being joined.

    • C. 

      Slightly longer than the materials being joined.

    • D. 

      Much longer than the materials being joined.

  • 7. 
    7. (404) The size of a bolt is generally stated in terms of its
    • A. 

      Weight, diameter, and head size.

    • B. 

      Head size, grip length, and weight.

    • C. 

      Length, weight, and threads per inch.

    • D. 

      Diameter, length, and threads per inch.

  • 8. 
    8. (404) What type of bolt is used where standard-type bolt is impractical?
    • A. 

      Clevis.

    • B. 

      Eyebolt.

    • C. 

      Twelve point.

    • D. 

      Stud.

  • 9. 
    9. (405) For which aircraft application should a self-locking nut not be installed?
    • A. 

      Attachment of a pulley.

    • B. 

      Attachment of an antifriction bearing.

    • C. 

      Mounting an accessory near the engine.

    • D. 

      Connecting sections of a movable joint.

  • 10. 
    10. (406) Which type of rivet is used on the top skin surface of an aircraft?
    • A. 

      Flathead.

    • B. 

      Countersunk.

    • C. 

      Roundhead.

    • D. 

      Brazier head.

  • 11. 
    11. (406) Which is a feature of the hi-lok type of fastener?
    • A. 

      It is a single-part fastener

    • B. 

      It can easily be overtorqued.

    • C. 

      It can be installed with hand tools.

    • D. 

      It is a low-strength threaded fastener.

  • 12. 
    12. (407) What type of tubing is used in high-pressure systems such as the landing gear system?
    • A. 

      Copper.

    • B. 

      Stainless steel.

    • C. 

      Titanium alloy.

    • D. 

      Aluminum alloy.

  • 13. 
    13. (408) Flexible hose is used in areas of the aircraft
    • A. 

      Which are subject to great amount of vibration.

    • B. 

      Which are not subject to vibration.

    • C. 

      Where flexibility is not required.

    • D. 

      Where rigidity is required.

  • 14. 
    14. (408) Which example is not acceptable regarding the installation of a flexible hose assembly?
    • A. 

      Use oil to aid the installation of a self-sealing hose.

    • B. 

      Install the hose so that it will not be subjected to twisting.

    • C. 

      Ensure clamps are not so tight that they restrict flow.

    • D. 

      Support the hose at least every 24 inches of length.

  • 15. 
    16. (410) What is the maximum number of widely-spaced bolts that may be safety-wired together using the double-twist method?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      4.

    • D. 

      5.

  • 16. 
    15. (409) What is the first step when removing a V-band type coupling?
    • A. 

      Remove the nut.

    • B. 

      Cut the safety wire.

    • C. 

      Remove the snap rings.

    • D. 

      Pull back on the.

  • 17. 
    17. (410) What minimum diameter safety wire should be installed on bolts having a .050-inch drilled hole?
    • A. 

      .020-inch.

    • B. 

      .028-inch.

    • C. 

      .032-inch.

    • D. 

      .045-inch

  • 18. 
    18. (411) Why is the use of cotter pins on aircraft systems favorable?
    • A. 

      They can be reused after removal.

    • B. 

      They are stronger than safety wire.

    • C. 

      They are less expensive than other pins.

    • D. 

      They can be removed and installed quickly.

  • 19. 
    19. (412) During an integral tank inspection, you discover an area at which the protective coating is scarred and the metal is discolored. Pitting has also occurred to a depth of one mil (0.001 inch). What degree of corrosion has taken place?
    • A. 

      Light.

    • B. 

      Severe.

    • C. 

      Moderate.

    • D. 

      Intermediate.

  • 20. 
    20. (413) When installing removable screws and bolts, what portion is coated with sealant?
    • A. 

      Install only nonmetal hardware and clamps.

    • B. 

      Spray all metal surfaces to be installed with SAE–10 oil.

    • C. 

      Paint all exposed metal on the clamp and attaching hardware.

    • D. 

      Coat the lower side of the heads of screws and bolts with sealant.

  • 21. 
    21. (414) What types of hammers are used in fuel systems maintenance?
    • A. 

      Mallets and claw hammers.

    • B. 

      Claw and ball-peen hammers.

    • C. 

      Soft-faced mallets and ball-peen hammers.

    • D. 

      Mallets and plastic-face hammers.

  • 22. 
    22. (414) Which type of wrench should you use to tighten an internal wrenching nut?
    • A. 

      Adjustable jaw.

    • B. 

      Recessed.

    • C. 

      Socket.

    • D. 

      Allen.

  • 23. 
    23. (415) What should you use to clean tools that are extremely greasy and grimy?
    • A. 

      JP–4 or gasoline.

    • B. 

      Approved cleaning solvent.

    • C. 

      Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK).

    • D. 

      Aluminum oxide abrasive cloth.

  • 24. 
    24. (416) How many foot-pounds of torque are produced by 120 inch-pounds of force on a breakaway-type torque wrench?
    • A. 

      10.

    • B. 

      12.

    • C. 

      20.

    • D. 

      60.

  • 25. 
    25. (417) What powered tool would you use to remove access door screws?
    • A. 

      Impact wrench.

    • B. 

      Speed handle.

    • C. 

      Air hammer.

    • D. 

      Electric drill with adapter.

  • 26. 
    26. (417) Which tool would you use to repair a fuel cell fitting?
    • A. 

      Air chisel.

    • B. 

      Bench grinder.

    • C. 

      Torque wrench.

    • D. 

      Pneumatic buffer.

  • 27. 
    27. (417) Which type of attachment should you use on the fuel cell pneumatic buffer to buff bladder cells and flanges?
    • A. 

      Buffing arbor.

    • B. 

      Buffing pad.

    • C. 

      Buffing band.

    • D. 

      Buffing stone.

  • 28. 
    28. (418) The ratio of output pressure to input pressure of a two-part sealant high-pressure injection gun is
    • A. 

      10 to 1.

    • B. 

      25 to 1.

    • C. 

      50 to 1.

    • D. 

      125 to 1.

  • 29. 
    29. (419) After you are finished using the sealant filleting gun, what must be done?
    • A. 

      Discard the residual sealant

    • B. 

      Clean the residual sealant.

    • C. 

      Replace the cartridge.

    • D. 

      Turn the gun off.

  • 30. 
    30. (420) The one-part sealant injection gun is used to inject sealant into
    • A. 

      Prepacks.

    • B. 

      Loose rivet holes.

    • C. 

      Voids inside the tank.

    • D. 

      Channels under the wing skin.

  • 31. 
    31. (421) What will happen to an air hose if you run it over with heavy equipment?
    • A. 

      It will rupture.

    • B. 

      It will roll and become twisted.

    • C. 

      It will get dirty.

    • D. 

      Nothing, hoses are very strong

  • 32. 
    32. (422) When using the electric knife to cut foam, which do you not inspect?
    • A. 

      Cut wires.

    • B. 

      Motor speed.

    • C. 

      Blade installation.

    • D. 

      Cracks in body.

  • 33. 
    33. (423) When you use the water manometer, you should
    • A. 

      Relieve tank pressure by disconnecting the manometer hose.

    • B. 

      Ensure that the manometer safety relief valves are calibrated.

    • C. 

      Unplug the negative pressure connection when the fuel tank is given a positive test.

    • D. 

      Ensure the positive pressure connection is plugged when the fuel tank is under negative pressure.

  • 34. 
    34. (424) What is the preferred piece of equipment for monitoring fuel tanks?
    • A. 

      Combustible gas indicator.

    • B. 

      Combustible gas alarm.

    • C. 

      Bachrach 514.

    • D. 

      Photo-ionization detector (PID).

  • 35. 
    35. (425) The Model T477W bonding meter is designed to measure
    • A. 

      Voltage.

    • B. 

      Resistance.

    • C. 

      Wattage.

    • D. 

      Amperage.

  • 36. 
    36. (425) You turn on the display on the T477W bonding meter by pressing the
    • A. 

      TEST button.

    • B. 

      START button.

    • C. 

      ILLUMINATE button.

    • D. 

      LIGHT button.

  • 37. 
    37. (425) All values displayed on the T477W Bonding meter are in
    • A. 

      Ohms.

    • B. 

      Milliohms.

    • C. 

      Volts.

    • D. 

      Millivolts.

  • 38. 
    38. (426) What support equipment item is designed to operate pneumatic tools at a maximum air pressure of 200 pounds per square inch (psi)?
    • A. 

      MC–1A.

    • B. 

      MC–2A.

    • C. 

      MD–1.

    • D. 

      MD–2.

  • 39. 
    39. (426) Which is a feature of the MC–7 Air compressor?
    • A. 

      Capable of delivering high volumes of air

    • B. 

      Delivers a maximum pressure of 200 psi.

    • C. 

      Can be used as a source of breathing air.

    • D. 

      Gas engine will run for one hour without refueling.

  • 40. 
    40. (427) Which is an inspection requirement on the pneumatic vacuum?
    • A. 

      Bleed of air pressure in tank.

    • B. 

      Document tire pressure.

    • C. 

      Look for fuel leaks.

    • D. 

      Document temporary repairs.

  • 41. 
    41. (428) Which two buttons must you press to start the HDU–13/M heater?
    • A. 

      Blower and heater.

    • B. 

      Start and heater.

    • C. 

      Blower and start.

    • D. 

      Bypass and ignite.

  • 42. 
    42. (428) Which heater is not explosion proof and must be kept outside the repair area?
    • A. 

      RCD.

    • B. 

      MC–1.

    • C. 

      HDU–13/M.

    • D. 

      H–1.

  • 43. 
    43. (429) If you are using a pneumatic powered blower, the maximum pressure on the pressure gauge should be
    • A. 

      14 pounds per square inch (psi).

    • B. 

      24 psi.

    • C. 

      34 psi.

    • D. 

      44 psi.

  • 44. 
    44. (429) An equipment item that is not permitted inside the fuel systems repair area is the
    • A. 

      Rhine air fan.

    • B. 

      Air conditioner.

    • C. 

      Pneumatic blower.

    • D. 

      Fuel cell servicing cart.

  • 45. 
    45. (430) Where should you position the fuel cell/tank servicing cart?
    • A. 

      Near the MA–1 blower.

    • B. 

      Beside the HDU/13 heater.

    • C. 

      Inside the fuel system repair area.

    • D. 

      At least 10 feet from any vent or other tank opening.

  • 46. 
    46. (430) When must you station a safety guard at the fuel cell/tank servicing cart?
    • A. 

      Anytime the cart is in the repair area.

    • B. 

      Each time the air supply system is used.

    • C. 

      During access door removal and cell/tank purging.

    • D. 

      Whenever two or more personnel are using respirators.

  • 47. 
    47. (431) Which support equipment item is equipped with a 110 volts alternating current (VAC) power receptacle to permit the use of electrical equipment outside the repair area?
    • A. 

      NF–2 Light-all.

    • B. 

      MB–2 Nitrogen cart.

    • C. 

      Diesel generator.

    • D. 

      HDU–13/M heater.

  • 48. 
    48. (432) Which maintenance stand is not adjustable?
    • A. 

      B–1.

    • B. 

      B–2.

    • C. 

      B–5.

    • D. 

      C–1.

  • 49. 
    49. (432) Which maintenance stand can you easily move by yourself?
    • A. 

      B–1.

    • B. 

      B–2.

    • C. 

      C–1.

    • D. 

      Manlift.

  • 50. 
    50. (432) Maintenance stands used specifically for fuel systems maintenance should be equipped with
    • A. 

      Static discharge plates.

    • B. 

      Static discharge plates and handrail steps.

    • C. 

      Wheel locks and bonding wire reels.

    • D. 

      Handrail steps and wheel locks.

  • 51. 
    51. (433) In a new facility, emergency personnel showers must
    • A. 

      Be located in bathrooms.

    • B. 

      Have privacy enclosure.

    • C. 

      Have male and female showers.

    • D. 

      Be within 25 feet of the repair area.

  • 52. 
    52. (433) What type scrub sinks is required in existing fuel system facilities?
    • A. 

      Hands-free type.

    • B. 

      Contaminate free type.

    • C. 

      Stainless steel surgical.

    • D. 

      Rinse free cycle with hot water.

  • 53. 
    53. (433) Aircraft which are adjacent to an open fuel systems repair area must not be operated under their own power within
    • A. 

      50 feet.

    • B. 

      100 feet.

    • C. 

      150 feet.

    • D. 

      200 feet.

  • 54. 
    54. (434) What outside agency must be notified prior to opening fuel tanks?
    • A. 

      Civil Engineering.

    • B. 

      Bioenvironmental Engineering Services.

    • C. 

      Fire Protection Services.

    • D. 

      Wing Safety.

  • 55. 
    55. (435) Who is responsible for evaluating industrial ventilation systems?
    • A. 

      Flight chief.

    • B. 

      Section chief.

    • C. 

      Fire Protection Services.

    • D. 

      Bioenvironmental Engineering Flight.

  • 56. 
    56. (435) When filling out an AFTO Form 1492, Warning Tag, who is required to sign the signature block?
    • A. 

      Any SSgt.

    • B. 

      RED X qualified supervisor.

    • C. 

      Tool room personnel.

    • D. 

      Most qualified 5-level.

  • 57. 
    57. (436) The minimum safe distance between an aircraft using full powered radar and the fuel system repair area is
    • A. 

      100 feet.

    • B. 

      200 feet.

    • C. 

      300 feet.

    • D. 

      400 feet.

  • 58. 
    58. (437) What type of wheels must be installed on rolling support equipment used in the fuel systems repair area?
    • A. 

      Non-spark producing metal.

    • B. 

      Aluminum composite.

    • C. 

      Antistatic, nonmetal.

    • D. 

      Antistatic intrinsically safe metal.

  • 59. 
    59. (437) When tasked to set up the open repair area, where must you place the powered support equipment?
    • A. 

      Within 25 feet of the ropes.

    • B. 

      Outside the 25 foot marked area.

    • C. 

      Outside the 50 foot marked area.

    • D. 

      Inside the 50 foot marked area.

  • 60. 
    (437) An air compressor operating outside the fuel systems repair area
    • A. 

      Must be bonded

    • B. 

      Must be grounded.

    • C. 

      Must be grounded and bonded.

    • D. 

      Does not require grounding or bonding.

  • 61. 
    61. (438) Who designates the Alternate Entry Authority for a fuel shop?
    • A. 

      Entry Authority.

    • B. 

      Ground Safety personnel.

    • C. 

      Maintenance Group commander.

    • D. 

      Maintenance superintendent.

  • 62. 
    62. (438) Which is the most important role when serving as an attendant?
    • A. 

      Recognizing symptoms of over exposure.

    • B. 

      Ensuring the entrant has the proper hand tools.

    • C. 

      Contacting the wing safety office.

    • D. 

      Notifying bioenvironmental after taking tank readings

  • 63. 
    63. (439) Who must be identified on the emergency response plan as being authorized to attempt initial removal of incapacitated entrants?
    • A. 

      Authorized attendant only.

    • B. 

      Authorized runner/equipment monitor only.

    • C. 

      Authorized attendant or tank entry chief.

    • D. 

      Authorized attendant or runner/equipment monitor.

  • 64. 
    64. (440) Which task would be considered a change to the entry permit?
    • A. 

      The task takes a few days longer than expected.

    • B. 

      Authorized chemicals are brought into the tank.

    • C. 

      The aircraft is moved from one repair location to another.

    • D. 

      Previously permitted personnel require re-entry into the tank.

  • 65. 
    65. (441) What must you do when you are draining fuel into a metallic container?
    • A. 

      Bond container to aircraft.

    • B. 

      Place container on the ground.

    • C. 

      Ensure all facility doors are opened.

    • D. 

      Place several pieces of absorbent mat on the ground.

  • 66. 
    66. (442) What is the recommended method of purging an aircraft fuel tank?
    • A. 

      Blow purge.

    • B. 

      Fluid purge.

    • C. 

      Exhaust purge.

    • D. 

      Combination purge.

  • 67. 
    67. (443) When removing fire suppression foam from an aircraft fuel tank, you should
    • A. 

      Wear a half-face respirator.

    • B. 

      Remove it as quickly as possible

    • C. 

      Wear chemical-resistant gloves.

    • D. 

      Tear it as evenly as possible.

  • 68. 
    68. (443) Foam removed from a fuel tank may be stored in an
    • A. 

      Enclosed metal shed.

    • B. 

      Open metal container.

    • C. 

      Electro-static-free plastic bag

    • D. 

      Vented rubber container

  • 69. 
    69. (443) If you were planning to cut small quantities of replacement foam for a fuel tank, you would use
    • A. 

      An Ontario knife.

    • B. 

      A razor blade.

    • C. 

      A hacksaw

    • D. 

      A stitcher.

  • 70. 
    70. (444) If you are performing the task of depuddling, which do you use to remove the fuel?
    • A. 

      Sump pump.

    • B. 

      Absorbent cloth.

    • C. 

      Wet-or-dry vacuum.

    • D. 

      Venturi air mover.

  • 71. 
    71. (445) The structural components that form the end boundaries of an integral tank are the
    • A. 

      Ribs.

    • B. 

      Spars.

    • C. 

      Stringers.

    • D. 

      Stiffeners.

  • 72. 
    72. (446) The three approved methods for locating a fuel leak exit point on an integral tank are
    • A. 

      Vacuum bubble, blowback, and talcum powder.

    • B. 

      Talcum powder, pressure test, and vacuum bubble.

    • C. 

      Leak detection powder, pressure test, and gas detection.

    • D. 

      Pressure test, vacuum bubble, and gas detection.

  • 73. 
    73. (447) You have a Class “D” running leak in an external location. Which step is appropriate?
    • A. 

      Repair to no leakage or condition 1 or 2.

    • B. 

      Permanently ground the aircraft.

    • C. 

      Do not repair by applying temporary repair procedures.

    • D. 

      No repair or documentation is required.

  • 74. 
    74. (447) What factor(s) determine the appropriate condition/action of an integral tank fuel leak?
    • A. 

      Location.

    • B. 

      Classification.

    • C. 

      Classification and location.

    • D. 

      Location and repair required.

  • 75. 
    75. (448) What type of illustration (view) of the structure should be drawn to aid in locating a seal plane?
    • A. 

      Top.

    • B. 

      Inside.

    • C. 

      Horizontal.

    • D. 

      Cross-sectional.

  • 76. 
    76. (448) After you have found the exact leak exit point, what is the next step prior to repairing the fuel leak?
    • A. 

      Find the leak source.

    • B. 

      Apply a permanent repair.

    • C. 

      Return aircraft to service.

    • D. 

      Remove defective sealant.

  • 77. 
    77. (449) When should the hollow bolt dye injector method be used to isolate a leak source in an integral tank?
    • A. 

      When the double cup assembly was unsuccessful.

    • B. 

      When the leak is at a common tank boundary.

    • C. 

      Any time the leak is larger than Class A.

    • D. 

      In conjunction with the pressure box.

  • 78. 
    78. (450) What are the two parts of curing type sealant?
    • A. 

      Base and compound.

    • B. 

      Base and accelerator.

    • C. 

      Accelerator and compound

    • D. 

      Accelerator and petrolatum.

  • 79. 
    79. (451) Which basic type of access door opens into the fuel tank, providing a tighter seal than other types?
    • A. 

      Plug.

    • B. 

      O-ring.

    • C. 

      Direct seal.

    • D. 

      Interference fit.

  • 80. 
    80. (452) After the defective sealant has been removed, how far from the ends of the fillet should you abrade to prepare the surface for the new fillet?
    • A. 

      1/4 inch.

    • B. 

      1/2 inch.

    • C. 

      3/4 inch.

    • D. 

      1 inch.

  • 81. 
    81. (453) A brush coat of sealant should be applied with
    • A. 

      A spatula.

    • B. 

      An acid brush.

    • C. 

      A paint brush.

    • D. 

      A fairing tool.

  • 82. 
    82. (453) A large fillet is defined as any fillet
    • A. 

      Less than a half inch.

    • B. 

      Greater than a half inch.

    • C. 

      Less than a quarter inch.

    • D. 

      Greater than three quarters inch.

  • 83. 
    83. (454) When injecting using high pressure injection gun, which step will protect the aircraft structure?
    • A. 

      Appling a temporary repair.

    • B. 

      Removing only one screw.

    • C. 

      Providing an air escape.

    • D. 

      Using a low pressure injection gun.

  • 84. 
    84. (455) The initial shelf life of a sealant material has expired. The sealant has been tested and has been found to be serviceable. The shelf life may now be updated
    • A. 

      1 month.

    • B. 

      3 months.

    • C. 

      6 months.

    • D. 

      12 months.

  • 85. 
    85. (456) Which tool should you use to remove a repair done with Hardman epoxy?
    • A. 

      Plastic scraper and needle-nose pliers.

    • B. 

      Aluminum scraper and needle-nose pliers.

    • C. 

      Heat gun and steel scraper.

    • D. 

      Chisel and rubber mallet.

  • 86. 
    86. (457) The ply of a self-sealing cell that contains the fuel is the
    • A. 

      Retainer.

    • B. 

      Buna gum.

    • C. 

      Nylon barrier.

    • D. 

      Sealant layer.

  • 87. 
    87. (458) The fuel cell is plasticized prior to storage in order to
    • A. 

      Keep cell walls clean.

    • B. 

      Prevent cracking and drying.

    • C. 

      Prevent cell material from hardening.

    • D. 

      Make the cell more resistant to temperature changes.

  • 88. 
    88. (459) Never attempt to fold, unfold, or flex a bladder cell if the cell temperature is below
    • A. 

      50F.

    • B. 

      55F

    • C. 

      60F.

    • D. 

      65F

  • 89. 
    89. (459) What is the maximum length of time you should allow a self-sealing fuel cell to remain collapsed?
    • A. 

      1 hour.

    • B. 

      2 hours.

    • C. 

      3 hours.

    • D. 

      4 hours.

  • 90. 
    90. (460) Which condition will likely result in a fuel cell fitting leak?
    • A. 

      Installing a used but serviceable o-ring.

    • B. 

      Petrolatum on the surface of an o-ring.

    • C. 

      Hair or lint between an o-ring and its groove.

    • D. 

      Applying torque to fitting bolts after installation.

  • 91. 
    91. (460) Vithane cells which have been in storage for a long time in a dry climate will tend to
    • A. 

      Melt.

    • B. 

      Shrink.

    • C. 

      Expand.

    • D. 

      Grow fungus.

  • 92. 
    92. (461) What is the most important factor in isolating a fuel cell leak?
    • A. 

      The size of the fuel leak.

    • B. 

      Knowledge of the cavity drain system.

    • C. 

      Whether or not the cell is a bladder type.

    • D. 

      The construction of a cross-sectional view.

  • 93. 
    93. (462) Which discrepancy would likely result in a fast and severe type of fuel cell leak?
    • A. 

      Pinhole.

    • B. 

      Delamination.

    • C. 

      Loose cell fitting bolt.

    • D. 

      Loose interconnect fitting.

  • 94. 
    94. (463) Which cell repair is best performed at depot or contractor facilities?
    • A. 

      Corner repairs.

    • B. 

      Blister repairs.

    • C. 

      Corrosion treatment.

    • D. 

      Loose seams or patches

  • 95. 
    95. (463) Which cell repair is best performed at field level?
    • A. 

      Corner repairs.

    • B. 

      Fitting repairs.

    • C. 

      Repair of loose patches.

    • D. 

      Self-sealing cell repairs.

  • 96. 
    96. (464) The inside patch required to repair a hole in a bladder cell must be cut
    • A. 

      1 ½ inches in diameter.

    • B. 

      3 ¼ inches in diameter.

    • C. 

      3 ½ inches in diameter.

    • D. 

      4 inches in diameter.

  • 97. 
    97. (465) The curing temperature for the heating element used in the vulcanizing repair method is
    • A. 

      160 ± 10°F.

    • B. 

      230 ± 10°F.

    • C. 

      290 ± 10°F.

    • D. 

      350 ± 10°F.

  • 98. 
    98. (466) You have removed a fuel cell and during the inspection have found a defect, what should you do next?
    • A. 

      Pressurize the cell to check for leaks.

    • B. 

      Refer to applicable TO for allowable limits.

    • C. 

      Condemn the cell and order a new one.

    • D. 

      Ignore the damage and reinstall it.

  • 99. 
    99. (467) Which does not subject the exterior of the fuel cell to damage?
    • A. 

      Handling.

    • B. 

      Shipping.

    • C. 

      Removal.

    • D. 

      Components.

  • 100. 
    100. (468) Cells up to 1000 gallons can be pressurized up to
    • A. 

      ¼ pounds per square inch (psi).

    • B. 

      ½ psi.

    • C. 

      ¾ psi.

    • D. 

      1 psi.