Aircraft Volume 3 Unit Review Exercises

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Aircraft Volume 3 Unit Review Exercises - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    1. (401) What type of fuselage construction uses a fabric or thin metal covering, and may be found on small, lightweight aircraft?

    • A.

      Truss.

    • B.

      Cantilever.

    • C.

      Monocoque.

    • D.

      Semimonocoque

    Correct Answer
    A. Truss.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is truss because truss fuselage construction uses a fabric or thin metal covering and is commonly found on small, lightweight aircraft. Truss construction consists of a framework of interconnected beams or rods that provide strength and support to the fuselage. This type of construction is lightweight and cost-effective, making it suitable for smaller aircraft where weight and cost considerations are important. Cantilever, monocoque, and semimonocoque are other types of fuselage construction methods that are not characterized by a fabric or thin metal covering.

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  • 2. 

    2. (401) The primary structural components of an aircraft wing include the spars, ribs, and

    • A.

      Skin.

    • B.

      Stringers.

    • C.

      Empennage.

    • D.

      Trailing edge.

    Correct Answer
    A. Skin.
    Explanation
    The primary structural components of an aircraft wing include the spars, ribs, and skin. The spars are long, horizontal beams that run the length of the wing and provide the main structural support. The ribs are vertical or diagonal supports that connect to the spars and help maintain the wing's shape. The skin, also known as the wing covering, is the outermost layer of the wing and provides aerodynamic smoothness and protection to the internal components. The stringers are additional structural members that run parallel to the spars and provide additional support. The empennage refers to the tail section of the aircraft, which is not a part of the wing. The trailing edge is the rear edge of the wing, which is also not a primary structural component.

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  • 3. 

    3. (401) Which assembly includes the aft end of the fuselage of conventionally designed aircraft?

    • A.

      Fairing.

    • B.

      Ailerons.

    • C.

      Empennage.

    • D.

      Trailing edge.

    Correct Answer
    C. Empennage.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Empennage. The empennage is the assembly at the aft end of the fuselage of conventionally designed aircraft. It includes the horizontal stabilizer, vertical stabilizer, and control surfaces such as the elevator and rudder. The empennage plays a crucial role in providing stability and control to the aircraft during flight.

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  • 4. 

    4. (402) Which of the following are examples of secondary flight controls?

    • A.

      Ailerons.

    • B.

      Rudders.

    • C.

      Trim tabs.

    • D.

      Elevators.

    Correct Answer
    C. Trim tabs.
    Explanation
    Secondary flight controls are the additional control surfaces on an aircraft that assist in controlling its movement and stability. Ailerons, rudders, and elevators are considered primary flight controls as they directly control the aircraft's roll, yaw, and pitch respectively. Trim tabs, on the other hand, are secondary flight controls that are used to fine-tune the primary controls and adjust the aircraft's balance and stability during flight. They help the pilot in reducing control forces and maintaining the desired flight attitude.

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  • 5. 

    5. (403) Low observable (LO) technology allows modern aircraft to avoid

    • A.

      Enemy aircraft.

    • B.

      Enemy radar.

    • C.

      Friendly forces.

    • D.

      Night flying incidents.

    Correct Answer
    B. Enemy radar.
    Explanation
    Low observable (LO) technology refers to the design and construction techniques used to minimize an aircraft's radar signature, making it difficult for enemy radar systems to detect and track the aircraft. By reducing the radar signature, modern aircraft equipped with LO technology can avoid detection by enemy radar, increasing their chances of survival and mission success. This technology includes features such as stealth coatings, shape optimization, and radar-absorbent materials, all aimed at reducing the aircraft's radar cross-section and making it less visible to enemy radar systems. Therefore, the correct answer is enemy radar.

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  • 6. 

    6. (404) The situation that describes an ideal installation of a bolt on an aircraft component is the grip length of the bolt is

    • A.

      Slightly shorter than the thickness of the materials being joined.

    • B.

      The same as the thickness of the materials being joined.

    • C.

      Slightly longer than the materials being joined.

    • D.

      Much longer than the materials being joined.

    Correct Answer
    A. Slightly shorter than the thickness of the materials being joined.
    Explanation
    An ideal installation of a bolt on an aircraft component requires the grip length of the bolt to be slightly shorter than the thickness of the materials being joined. This ensures that the bolt can securely hold the materials together without excessive protrusion or insufficient engagement. Having the grip length slightly shorter allows for proper thread engagement and prevents the bolt from bottoming out, resulting in a secure and reliable joint.

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  • 7. 

    7. (404) The size of a bolt is generally stated in terms of its

    • A.

      Weight, diameter, and head size.

    • B.

      Head size, grip length, and weight.

    • C.

      Length, weight, and threads per inch.

    • D.

      Diameter, length, and threads per inch.

    Correct Answer
    D. Diameter, length, and threads per inch.
    Explanation
    The size of a bolt is generally stated in terms of its diameter, length, and threads per inch. The diameter refers to the thickness of the bolt, the length refers to the overall size of the bolt, and the threads per inch refers to the number of threads that are present on the bolt per inch of length. These three measurements are important in determining the size and compatibility of a bolt for a specific application. The weight, head size, and grip length are not typically used to describe the size of a bolt.

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  • 8. 

    8. (404) What type of bolt is used where standard-type bolt is impractical?

    • A.

      Clevis.

    • B.

      Eyebolt.

    • C.

      Twelve point.

    • D.

      Stud.

    Correct Answer
    D. Stud.
    Explanation
    A stud is used when a standard-type bolt is impractical because it is a threaded rod that does not have a head like a bolt. It is inserted into a hole and secured with a nut on the other end, making it a suitable choice when a bolt head would not fit or when a more secure fastening method is required.

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  • 9. 

    9. (405) For which aircraft application should a self-locking nut not be installed?

    • A.

      Attachment of a pulley.

    • B.

      Attachment of an antifriction bearing.

    • C.

      Mounting an accessory near the engine.

    • D.

      Connecting sections of a movable joint.

    Correct Answer
    D. Connecting sections of a movable joint.
    Explanation
    A self-locking nut should not be installed for connecting sections of a movable joint. This is because a movable joint requires the ability to move freely, and a self-locking nut would prevent this movement. Self-locking nuts are designed to resist loosening due to vibrations or other forces, but in the case of a movable joint, it is necessary for the sections to be able to move relative to each other. Therefore, a regular nut should be used for connecting sections of a movable joint instead of a self-locking nut.

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  • 10. 

    10. (406) Which type of rivet is used on the top skin surface of an aircraft?

    • A.

      Flathead.

    • B.

      Countersunk.

    • C.

      Roundhead.

    • D.

      Brazier head.

    Correct Answer
    B. Countersunk.
    Explanation
    Countersunk rivets are used on the top skin surface of an aircraft. These rivets have a tapered head that sits flush with the surface, providing a smooth and aerodynamic finish. This helps to reduce drag and maintain the aircraft's performance. Flathead, roundhead, and brazier head rivets are not typically used on the top skin surface as they would create a protrusion or uneven surface, which could negatively impact the aircraft's aerodynamics.

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  • 11. 

    11. (406) Which is a feature of the hi-lok type of fastener?

    • A.

      It is a single-part fastener

    • B.

      It can easily be overtorqued.

    • C.

      It can be installed with hand tools.

    • D.

      It is a low-strength threaded fastener.

    Correct Answer
    C. It can be installed with hand tools.
    Explanation
    The hi-lok type of fastener is a feature that can be installed with hand tools. This means that it does not require specialized equipment or power tools to be installed. This feature makes it convenient and accessible for use in various applications. It being a single-part fastener means that it does not consist of multiple components. The statement about it being easily overtorqued is not mentioned in the question or answer choices. Lastly, the question does not provide information about the strength of the hi-lok fastener.

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  • 12. 

    12. (407) What type of tubing is used in high-pressure systems such as the landing gear system?

    • A.

      Copper.

    • B.

      Stainless steel.

    • C.

      Titanium alloy.

    • D.

      Aluminum alloy.

    Correct Answer
    B. Stainless steel.
    Explanation
    Stainless steel is used in high-pressure systems such as the landing gear system because it has excellent resistance to corrosion and can withstand high pressures and temperatures. It is also strong and durable, making it suitable for use in demanding environments. Copper, titanium alloy, and aluminum alloy may not have the same level of strength and resistance to corrosion as stainless steel, making them less suitable for high-pressure systems.

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  • 13. 

    13. (408) Flexible hose is used in areas of the aircraft

    • A.

      Which are subject to great amount of vibration.

    • B.

      Which are not subject to vibration.

    • C.

      Where flexibility is not required.

    • D.

      Where rigidity is required.

    Correct Answer
    A. Which are subject to great amount of vibration.
    Explanation
    Flexible hose is used in areas of the aircraft that are subject to a great amount of vibration because flexible hoses can absorb the vibrations and prevent damage or failure. The flexibility of the hose allows it to move and adjust with the vibrations, ensuring that it remains intact and functional. In areas where there is no vibration or where rigidity is required, flexible hoses may not be necessary as they are designed specifically to accommodate and withstand vibrations.

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  • 14. 

    14. (408) Which example is not acceptable regarding the installation of a flexible hose assembly?

    • A.

      Use oil to aid the installation of a self-sealing hose.

    • B.

      Install the hose so that it will not be subjected to twisting.

    • C.

      Ensure clamps are not so tight that they restrict flow.

    • D.

      Support the hose at least every 24 inches of length.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use oil to aid the installation of a self-sealing hose.
    Explanation
    Using oil to aid the installation of a self-sealing hose is not acceptable because it can cause the hose to slip out of position or create a potential leak. It is important to install the hose without any additional lubrication to ensure a secure and tight connection.

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  • 15. 

    16. (410) What is the maximum number of widely-spaced bolts that may be safety-wired together using the double-twist method?

    • A.

      2.

    • B.

      3.

    • C.

      4.

    • D.

      5.

    Correct Answer
    B. 3.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3 because the double-twist method involves safety-wiring two bolts together by twisting the wire around them in opposite directions. This creates a secure connection between the bolts and prevents them from loosening. Since each pair of bolts requires one wire, the maximum number of widely-spaced bolts that can be safety-wired together using this method is three. If there were more than three bolts, additional wires would be needed to connect them all.

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  • 16. 

    15. (409) What is the first step when removing a V-band type coupling?

    • A.

      Remove the nut.

    • B.

      Cut the safety wire.

    • C.

      Remove the snap rings.

    • D.

      Pull back on the.

    Correct Answer
    B. Cut the safety wire.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Cut the safety wire." When removing a V-band type coupling, the first step is to cut the safety wire. This is necessary to release the tension and secure the coupling. Once the safety wire is cut, the coupling can be easily removed by following the remaining steps.

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  • 17. 

    17. (410) What minimum diameter safety wire should be installed on bolts having a .050-inch drilled hole?

    • A.

      .020-inch.

    • B.

      .028-inch.

    • C.

      .032-inch.

    • D.

      .045-inch

    Correct Answer
    C. .032-inch.
    Explanation
    The minimum diameter safety wire that should be installed on bolts with a .050-inch drilled hole is .032-inch. This diameter ensures that the safety wire is securely fastened to the bolts and provides the necessary level of safety. A smaller diameter wire may not be strong enough to hold the bolts in place, while a larger diameter wire may not fit properly in the drilled hole. Therefore, .032-inch is the appropriate size for this application.

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  • 18. 

    18. (411) Why is the use of cotter pins on aircraft systems favorable?

    • A.

      They can be reused after removal.

    • B.

      They are stronger than safety wire.

    • C.

      They are less expensive than other pins.

    • D.

      They can be removed and installed quickly.

    Correct Answer
    D. They can be removed and installed quickly.
    Explanation
    The use of cotter pins on aircraft systems is favorable because they can be removed and installed quickly. This is important in aircraft maintenance and repairs, as it allows for efficient and timely servicing of the systems. Additionally, quick removal and installation of cotter pins can help minimize downtime and ensure that the aircraft is back in operation as soon as possible.

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  • 19. 

    19. (412) During an integral tank inspection, you discover an area at which the protective coating is scarred and the metal is discolored. Pitting has also occurred to a depth of one mil (0.001 inch). What degree of corrosion has taken place?

    • A.

      Light.

    • B.

      Severe.

    • C.

      Moderate.

    • D.

      Intermediate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Light.
    Explanation
    The given answer is "Light" because the description of the situation indicates that the corrosion is not very severe. The protective coating is scarred and the metal is discolored, but the pitting has only occurred to a depth of one mil (0.001 inch). This suggests that the corrosion is not extensive and can be classified as light.

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  • 20. 

    20. (413) When installing removable screws and bolts, what portion is coated with sealant?

    • A.

      Install only nonmetal hardware and clamps.

    • B.

      Spray all metal surfaces to be installed with SAE–10 oil.

    • C.

      Paint all exposed metal on the clamp and attaching hardware.

    • D.

      Coat the lower side of the heads of screws and bolts with sealant.

    Correct Answer
    D. Coat the lower side of the heads of screws and bolts with sealant.
    Explanation
    When installing removable screws and bolts, the lower side of the heads of screws and bolts should be coated with sealant. This helps to create a tight seal and prevent any leakage or loosening of the screws and bolts. Coating the lower side of the heads with sealant ensures that the sealant is in direct contact with the surface being fastened, providing a secure and reliable connection.

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  • 21. 

    21. (414) What types of hammers are used in fuel systems maintenance?

    • A.

      Mallets and claw hammers.

    • B.

      Claw and ball-peen hammers.

    • C.

      Soft-faced mallets and ball-peen hammers.

    • D.

      Mallets and plastic-face hammers.

    Correct Answer
    C. Soft-faced mallets and ball-peen hammers.
    Explanation
    Soft-faced mallets and ball-peen hammers are used in fuel systems maintenance. Soft-faced mallets have a non-metallic face that prevents damage to delicate parts while still providing enough force to make adjustments or repairs. Ball-peen hammers have a rounded end and a flat end, with the rounded end used for shaping metal and the flat end used for striking punches and chisels. These types of hammers are suitable for working on fuel systems as they provide the necessary precision and force without causing damage to the components.

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  • 22. 

    22. (414) Which type of wrench should you use to tighten an internal wrenching nut?

    • A.

      Adjustable jaw.

    • B.

      Recessed.

    • C.

      Socket.

    • D.

      Allen.

    Correct Answer
    D. Allen.
    Explanation
    To tighten an internal wrenching nut, you should use an Allen wrench. Allen wrenches, also known as hex keys, have a hexagonal-shaped head that fits into the corresponding hexagonal hole in the nut. This type of wrench provides a secure and precise fit, allowing you to apply the necessary torque to tighten the nut effectively. Adjustable jaw wrenches are used for different types of nuts that require adjustable sizes, while recessed wrenches and sockets are not specifically designed for internal wrenching nuts.

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  • 23. 

    23. (415) What should you use to clean tools that are extremely greasy and grimy?

    • A.

      JP–4 or gasoline.

    • B.

      Approved cleaning solvent.

    • C.

      Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK).

    • D.

      Aluminum oxide abrasive cloth.

    Correct Answer
    B. Approved cleaning solvent.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Approved cleaning solvent." When tools are extremely greasy and grimy, it is important to use a cleaning solvent that is specifically approved for this purpose. JP-4 or gasoline may be flammable and pose safety risks, while methyl ethyl ketone (MEK) may be too harsh and damaging to the tools. Using an approved cleaning solvent ensures effective and safe cleaning of the tools. Aluminum oxide abrasive cloth is not suitable for cleaning greasy and grimy tools as it is an abrasive material used for polishing and sanding.

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  • 24. 

    24. (416) How many foot-pounds of torque are produced by 120 inch-pounds of force on a breakaway-type torque wrench?

    • A.

      10.

    • B.

      12.

    • C.

      20.

    • D.

      60.

    Correct Answer
    A. 10.
    Explanation
    A foot-pound is a unit of torque, which is the measure of the turning force of an object. To convert inch-pounds to foot-pounds, divide the inch-pounds by 12. In this case, 120 inch-pounds divided by 12 equals 10 foot-pounds. Therefore, 120 inch-pounds of force on a breakaway-type torque wrench produces 10 foot-pounds of torque.

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  • 25. 

    25. (417) What powered tool would you use to remove access door screws?

    • A.

      Impact wrench.

    • B.

      Speed handle.

    • C.

      Air hammer.

    • D.

      Electric drill with adapter.

    Correct Answer
    A. Impact wrench.
    Explanation
    An impact wrench is the most suitable powered tool for removing access door screws. It is designed to deliver high torque output with minimal effort, making it ideal for loosening tight or stubborn screws. A speed handle is a manual tool and would require more physical effort. An air hammer is typically used for chiseling or breaking apart materials, not for removing screws. While an electric drill with an adapter can also remove screws, an impact wrench is specifically designed for this purpose and would likely be more efficient and effective.

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  • 26. 

    26. (417) Which tool would you use to repair a fuel cell fitting?

    • A.

      Air chisel.

    • B.

      Bench grinder.

    • C.

      Torque wrench.

    • D.

      Pneumatic buffer.

    Correct Answer
    D. Pneumatic buffer.
    Explanation
    A pneumatic buffer is a tool used to smooth and polish surfaces. It is not suitable for repairing a fuel cell fitting, as it does not have the necessary features or capabilities to perform such a task. Fuel cell fittings require precision and specific tools for proper repair, which a pneumatic buffer does not provide.

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  • 27. 

    27. (417) Which type of attachment should you use on the fuel cell pneumatic buffer to buff bladder cells and flanges?

    • A.

      Buffing arbor.

    • B.

      Buffing pad.

    • C.

      Buffing band.

    • D.

      Buffing stone.

    Correct Answer
    D. Buffing stone.
    Explanation
    A buffing stone should be used on the fuel cell pneumatic buffer to buff bladder cells and flanges. A buffing stone is a type of attachment that is specifically designed for smoothing and polishing surfaces. It is commonly used in automotive and aerospace industries to remove imperfections and create a smooth finish. In this case, using a buffing stone on the fuel cell pneumatic buffer would ensure that bladder cells and flanges are properly buffed and prepared for use.

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  • 28. 

    28. (418) The ratio of output pressure to input pressure of a two-part sealant high-pressure injection gun is

    • A.

      10 to 1.

    • B.

      25 to 1.

    • C.

      50 to 1.

    • D.

      125 to 1.

    Correct Answer
    C. 50 to 1.
    Explanation
    The ratio of output pressure to input pressure of a two-part sealant high-pressure injection gun is 50 to 1. This means that for every unit of input pressure, the gun will generate 50 units of output pressure. This high ratio allows for the efficient and effective application of the sealant, ensuring that it is properly injected into the desired areas.

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  • 29. 

    29. (419) After you are finished using the sealant filleting gun, what must be done?

    • A.

      Discard the residual sealant

    • B.

      Clean the residual sealant.

    • C.

      Replace the cartridge.

    • D.

      Turn the gun off.

    Correct Answer
    B. Clean the residual sealant.
    Explanation
    After using the sealant filleting gun, it is important to clean the residual sealant. This is necessary to prevent the sealant from hardening and clogging the gun, which could affect its performance in future use. Cleaning the residual sealant also helps to maintain the gun in good condition and ensures that it is ready for the next application.

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  • 30. 

    30. (420) The one-part sealant injection gun is used to inject sealant into

    • A.

      Prepacks.

    • B.

      Loose rivet holes.

    • C.

      Voids inside the tank.

    • D.

      Channels under the wing skin.

    Correct Answer
    D. Channels under the wing skin.
    Explanation
    The one-part sealant injection gun is specifically designed to inject sealant into channels under the wing skin. This suggests that the sealant is intended to be applied in areas where there are channels, which are likely to be present under the wing skin. This method of injection is not suitable for prepacks, loose rivet holes, or voids inside the tank, as it is specifically designed for channels under the wing skin.

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  • 31. 

    31. (421) What will happen to an air hose if you run it over with heavy equipment?

    • A.

      It will rupture.

    • B.

      It will roll and become twisted.

    • C.

      It will get dirty.

    • D.

      Nothing, hoses are very strong

    Correct Answer
    A. It will rupture.
    Explanation
    If an air hose is run over by heavy equipment, it will rupture. This means that the hose will break or burst, causing a hole or tear in the material. Running over the hose with heavy equipment puts a significant amount of pressure and force on it, which can cause it to become damaged and ultimately rupture.

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  • 32. 

    32. (422) When using the electric knife to cut foam, which do you not inspect?

    • A.

      Cut wires.

    • B.

      Motor speed.

    • C.

      Blade installation.

    • D.

      Cracks in body.

    Correct Answer
    B. Motor speed.
    Explanation
    When using an electric knife to cut foam, the motor speed is not something that needs to be inspected. The motor speed is controlled by the knife itself and does not require any manual adjustment or inspection. It is more important to inspect the cut wires to ensure they are not damaged, the blade installation to ensure it is secure and properly aligned, and any cracks in the body of the knife that may affect its performance or safety.

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  • 33. 

    33. (423) When you use the water manometer, you should

    • A.

      Relieve tank pressure by disconnecting the manometer hose.

    • B.

      Ensure that the manometer safety relief valves are calibrated.

    • C.

      Unplug the negative pressure connection when the fuel tank is given a positive test.

    • D.

      Ensure the positive pressure connection is plugged when the fuel tank is under negative pressure.

    Correct Answer
    C. Unplug the negative pressure connection when the fuel tank is given a positive test.
  • 34. 

    34. (424) What is the preferred piece of equipment for monitoring fuel tanks?

    • A.

      Combustible gas indicator.

    • B.

      Combustible gas alarm.

    • C.

      Bachrach 514.

    • D.

      Photo-ionization detector (PID).

    Correct Answer
    D. Photo-ionization detector (PID).
    Explanation
    A photo-ionization detector (PID) is the preferred piece of equipment for monitoring fuel tanks. PIDs are specifically designed to detect and measure volatile organic compounds (VOCs), including fuel vapors. They work by using ultraviolet light to ionize gas molecules, which then produce an electrical current that can be measured. PIDs are highly sensitive and can detect low levels of fuel vapors, making them ideal for monitoring fuel tanks to ensure safety and prevent leaks or spills.

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  • 35. 

    35. (425) The Model T477W bonding meter is designed to measure

    • A.

      Voltage.

    • B.

      Resistance.

    • C.

      Wattage.

    • D.

      Amperage.

    Correct Answer
    B. Resistance.
    Explanation
    The Model T477W bonding meter is specifically designed to measure resistance. This means that it is meant to determine the opposition to the flow of electric current in a circuit. It is not designed to measure voltage, wattage, or amperage.

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  • 36. 

    36. (425) You turn on the display on the T477W bonding meter by pressing the

    • A.

      TEST button.

    • B.

      START button.

    • C.

      ILLUMINATE button.

    • D.

      LIGHT button.

    Correct Answer
    A. TEST button.
    Explanation
    To turn on the display on the T477W bonding meter, you need to press the TEST button. This button is specifically designed to activate the display and allow you to view the measurements and readings on the meter. The START, ILLUMINATE, and LIGHT buttons do not serve the same function and therefore cannot be used to turn on the display.

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  • 37. 

    37. (425) All values displayed on the T477W Bonding meter are in

    • A.

      Ohms.

    • B.

      Milliohms.

    • C.

      Volts.

    • D.

      Millivolts.

    Correct Answer
    B. Milliohms.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is milliohms. The T477W Bonding meter is used to measure electrical resistance. The unit for measuring resistance is ohms. Since the values displayed on the meter are in milliohms, it means that the resistance being measured is in the range of thousandths of an ohm.

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  • 38. 

    38. (426) What support equipment item is designed to operate pneumatic tools at a maximum air pressure of 200 pounds per square inch (psi)?

    • A.

      MC–1A.

    • B.

      MC–2A.

    • C.

      MD–1.

    • D.

      MD–2.

    Correct Answer
    B. MC–2A.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MC-2A. MC-2A is a support equipment item that is designed to operate pneumatic tools at a maximum air pressure of 200 pounds per square inch (psi).

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  • 39. 

    39. (426) Which is a feature of the MC–7 Air compressor?

    • A.

      Capable of delivering high volumes of air

    • B.

      Delivers a maximum pressure of 200 psi.

    • C.

      Can be used as a source of breathing air.

    • D.

      Gas engine will run for one hour without refueling.

    Correct Answer
    A. Capable of delivering high volumes of air
    Explanation
    The MC-7 Air compressor is capable of delivering high volumes of air. This means that it can produce a large amount of compressed air, which is useful for various applications such as powering pneumatic tools or filling up large inflatable objects. This feature makes the MC-7 Air compressor a versatile and efficient tool for tasks that require a significant amount of compressed air.

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  • 40. 

    40. (427) Which is an inspection requirement on the pneumatic vacuum?

    • A.

      Bleed of air pressure in tank.

    • B.

      Document tire pressure.

    • C.

      Look for fuel leaks.

    • D.

      Document temporary repairs.

    Correct Answer
    C. Look for fuel leaks.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Look for fuel leaks." This is an inspection requirement on the pneumatic vacuum because fuel leaks can be hazardous and can lead to accidents or fires. Inspecting for fuel leaks ensures the safety of the equipment and the people operating it.

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  • 41. 

    41. (428) Which two buttons must you press to start the HDU–13/M heater?

    • A.

      Blower and heater.

    • B.

      Start and heater.

    • C.

      Blower and start.

    • D.

      Bypass and ignite.

    Correct Answer
    A. Blower and heater.
    Explanation
    To start the HDU-13/M heater, you need to press the blower button first, which activates the blower. This is important because the blower helps to circulate air and ensure proper ventilation. After that, you need to press the heater button to start the heating process. By pressing both buttons, you are ensuring that the blower is functioning and the heater is activated, which is necessary for the heater to start working effectively.

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  • 42. 

    42. (428) Which heater is not explosion proof and must be kept outside the repair area?

    • A.

      RCD.

    • B.

      MC–1.

    • C.

      HDU–13/M.

    • D.

      H–1.

    Correct Answer
    D. H–1.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is H-1. The question is asking for the heater that is not explosion proof and should be kept outside the repair area. Since the other options (RCD, MC-1, HDU-13/M) are not mentioned as explosion proof or requiring to be kept outside the repair area, H-1 is the only option left.

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  • 43. 

    43. (429) If you are using a pneumatic powered blower, the maximum pressure on the pressure gauge should be

    • A.

      14 pounds per square inch (psi).

    • B.

      24 psi.

    • C.

      34 psi.

    • D.

      44 psi.

    Correct Answer
    C. 34 psi.
    Explanation
    When using a pneumatic powered blower, the maximum pressure on the pressure gauge should be 34 pounds per square inch (psi). This means that the pressure should not exceed 34 psi to ensure safe and efficient operation of the blower. Any pressure higher than this could potentially damage the blower or cause other safety hazards.

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  • 44. 

    44. (429) An equipment item that is not permitted inside the fuel systems repair area is the

    • A.

      Rhine air fan.

    • B.

      Air conditioner.

    • C.

      Pneumatic blower.

    • D.

      Fuel cell servicing cart.

    Correct Answer
    B. Air conditioner.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is air conditioner. An air conditioner is not permitted inside the fuel systems repair area because it poses a risk of introducing foreign particles or contaminants into the area. The fuel systems repair area requires a clean and controlled environment to ensure safety and prevent any potential hazards. The other options, such as the Rhine air fan, pneumatic blower, and fuel cell servicing cart, are all equipment items that are commonly used in the fuel systems repair area and do not pose a risk to the environment or safety.

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  • 45. 

    45. (430) Where should you position the fuel cell/tank servicing cart?

    • A.

      Near the MA–1 blower.

    • B.

      Beside the HDU/13 heater.

    • C.

      Inside the fuel system repair area.

    • D.

      At least 10 feet from any vent or other tank opening.

    Correct Answer
    C. Inside the fuel system repair area.
  • 46. 

    46. (430) When must you station a safety guard at the fuel cell/tank servicing cart?

    • A.

      Anytime the cart is in the repair area.

    • B.

      Each time the air supply system is used.

    • C.

      During access door removal and cell/tank purging.

    • D.

      Whenever two or more personnel are using respirators.

    Correct Answer
    B. Each time the air supply system is used.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Each time the air supply system is used." This means that whenever the air supply system of the fuel cell/tank servicing cart is being utilized, a safety guard must be stationed. This is likely because the air supply system may pose certain risks or hazards that require the presence of a safety guard to ensure the safety of personnel and the proper functioning of the equipment.

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  • 47. 

    47. (431) Which support equipment item is equipped with a 110 volts alternating current (VAC) power receptacle to permit the use of electrical equipment outside the repair area?

    • A.

      NF–2 Light-all.

    • B.

      MB–2 Nitrogen cart.

    • C.

      Diesel generator.

    • D.

      HDU–13/M heater.

    Correct Answer
    A. NF–2 Light-all.
    Explanation
    The NF-2 Light-all is equipped with a 110 volts alternating current (VAC) power receptacle, allowing for the use of electrical equipment outside the repair area. This suggests that the NF-2 Light-all is a portable lighting equipment that can be used in various locations, providing illumination where needed. The other options, such as the MB-2 Nitrogen cart, Diesel generator, and HDU-13/M heater, do not mention having a 110 VAC power receptacle, making them unlikely choices for this question.

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  • 48. 

    48. (432) Which maintenance stand is not adjustable?

    • A.

      B–1.

    • B.

      B–2.

    • C.

      B–5.

    • D.

      C–1.

    Correct Answer
    D. C–1.
    Explanation
    Maintenance stand C-1 is not adjustable.

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  • 49. 

    49. (432) Which maintenance stand can you easily move by yourself?

    • A.

      B–1.

    • B.

      B–2.

    • C.

      C–1.

    • D.

      Manlift.

    Correct Answer
    C. C–1.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C-1. The reason why C-1 is the correct answer is because it is specifically designed to be easily moved by a single person. The B-1 and B-2 maintenance stands are larger and heavier, requiring more than one person to move them. The Manlift option is not a maintenance stand, but rather a type of equipment used for lifting personnel to higher areas. Therefore, C-1 is the only option that fits the criteria of being easily moved by oneself.

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  • 50. 

    50. (432) Maintenance stands used specifically for fuel systems maintenance should be equipped with

    • A.

      Static discharge plates.

    • B.

      Static discharge plates and handrail steps.

    • C.

      Wheel locks and bonding wire reels.

    • D.

      Handrail steps and wheel locks.

    Correct Answer
    A. Static discharge plates.
    Explanation
    Maintenance stands used specifically for fuel systems maintenance should be equipped with static discharge plates. These plates are essential for safely discharging any static electricity that may build up during the maintenance process. This is important because fuel systems can be highly flammable, and any static discharge could potentially ignite the fuel and cause a fire or explosion. By having static discharge plates, the stand provides a grounded path for the static electricity to safely dissipate, reducing the risk of accidents.

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