Airbus A320 System Practice Test!

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  • 1/186 Questions

    SRS means?

    • Speed Retard System.
    • Speed Reference System.
    • Safety Reference System.
    • Stall Reference System.
Please wait...
About This Quiz

Get ready to test your knowledge with our Airbus A320 System Practice Test! This comprehensive quiz is designed to cover all critical areas of the Airbus A320, ensuring you're well-prepared for any challenge. Quiz areas include general questions and specific systems such as air conditioning and pressurization, automatic flight, auxiliary power units, communications, electrical, and energy equipment.

You'll also find questions on fire protection, flight controls, flight instruments, fuel, hydraulic power, ice and rain protection, and landing gear. This detailed practice test offers explanations and instant feedback to help you learn and improve. Start the Airbus A320 System Practice Test now and elevate your understanding of this advanced aircraft!

Airbus A320 System Practice Test! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    When can the RAT be restored?

    • At any time.

    • Below 140 kts.

    • Below 100 kts.

    • On the ground only.

    Correct Answer
    A. On the ground only.
    Explanation
    The RAT (Ram Air Turbine) can only be restored when the aircraft is on the ground. The RAT is a backup power source that provides hydraulic and electrical power in the event of an engine failure or other power loss. It is typically deployed automatically when the aircraft's main power sources are unavailable. Restoring the RAT requires the aircraft to be on the ground, as it involves resetting and repositioning the turbine for future use. Therefore, the correct answer is "On the ground only."

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  • 3. 

    How is the optimum touchdown point marked on the runway?

    • Red barrettes.

    • Large white painted rectangles on the runway surface.

    • Yellow edge lights.

    • Green centreline lights.

    Correct Answer
    A. Large white painted rectangles on the runway surface.
    Explanation
    The optimum touchdown point on the runway is marked by large white painted rectangles on the surface. These rectangles serve as visual indicators for pilots to accurately determine the touchdown zone during landing. They provide a clear reference point and help pilots maintain proper alignment and distance from the runway threshold. The use of large white painted rectangles ensures their visibility from the air, allowing pilots to make precise landings and enhance overall safety during aircraft operations.

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  • 4. 

    When landing a serviceable aircraft with Flaps 3, what is the correct action on the GPWS panel?

    • Switch OFF the SYS switch.

    • Switch ON the G/S MODE switch.

    • Switch ON the LDG FLAP 3 switch.

    • Switch ON the FLAP MODE switch.

    Correct Answer
    A. Switch ON the LDG FLAP 3 switch.
    Explanation
    When landing a serviceable aircraft with Flaps 3, the correct action on the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) panel is to switch ON the LDG FLAP 3 switch. This action ensures that the GPWS system is properly configured to account for the specific flap setting being used during landing. The LDG FLAP 3 switch is specifically designed to indicate to the GPWS system that the aircraft is landing with Flaps 3, allowing the system to provide accurate warnings and alerts based on this configuration.

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  • 5. 

    Which lights go off when the gear is retracted?

    • Nose and Turn Off

    • Turn Off and Wing

    • Nose and Land

    • Logo and Land

    Correct Answer
    A. Nose and Turn Off
    Explanation
    When the gear of an aircraft is retracted, the lights that go off are the nose light and the turn off lights. The nose light is typically located on the front of the aircraft and is used to provide illumination during taxiing. The turn off lights are positioned on the sides of the aircraft and are used to enhance visibility during turns on the ground.

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  • 6. 

    What is the max. speed for FLAP FULL?

    • 177 kts.

    • 185 kts.

    • 200 kts.

    • 205 kts.

    Correct Answer
    A. 177 kts.
    Explanation
    The maximum speed for FLAP FULL is 177 kts. This means that when the flaps are fully extended, the aircraft should not exceed this speed in order to maintain safe and stable flight. Going beyond this speed could potentially cause damage to the flaps or other parts of the aircraft, and may compromise the safety of the flight.

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  • 7. 

    What is the maximum speed for the use of windscreen wipers?

    • Green Dot.

    • 230 kts.

    • 240 kts.

    • 250 kts.

    Correct Answer
    A. 230 kts.
    Explanation
    The maximum speed for the use of windscreen wipers is 230 knots. This is because windscreen wipers are designed to effectively remove rain or debris from the windscreen of an aircraft during flight. However, at higher speeds, the force of the wind can cause the wipers to malfunction or even break. Therefore, it is recommended to use windscreen wipers at speeds below 230 knots to ensure their proper functioning and avoid any potential damage.

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  • 8. 

    What happens in the event of SFCC 1total failure?

    • SLATS will be inoperative.

    • FLAPS will be inoperative.

    • SLATS and FLAPS will be locked by the Wing Tip Brake.

    • SLATS and FLAPS will operate at half speed.

    Correct Answer
    A. SLATS and FLAPS will operate at half speed.
    Explanation
    In the event of SFCC 1 total failure, the SLATS and FLAPS will operate at half speed. This means that the SLATS and FLAPS will still be functional, but their operation will be slower than normal. The SFCC 1 is responsible for controlling the SLATS and FLAPS, so if it fails, the SLATS and FLAPS will still be able to move, but at a reduced speed. This allows for some level of control and maneuverability, although it may not be as effective as when the SFCC 1 is fully operational.

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  • 9. 

    When does a DECEL light illuminate?

    • With autobrake in use, and green hydraulic pressure satisfactory.

    • With LO autobrake selected, two seconds after touchdown.

    • With at least 80% of selected deceleration rate.

    • To show that the anti-skid is serviceable.

    Correct Answer
    A. With at least 80% of selected deceleration rate.
    Explanation
    The DECEL light illuminates when at least 80% of the selected deceleration rate is achieved. This indicates that the braking system is functioning properly and the aircraft is decelerating at the desired rate. The light serves as a visual indication to the pilot that the braking system is working effectively.

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  • 10. 

    What is the minimum speed for use of full reverse thrust?

    • 50 kt.

    • 60 kt.

    • 70 kt.

    • 75 kt.

    Correct Answer
    A. 70 kt.
    Explanation
    The minimum speed for use of full reverse thrust is 70 kt. This means that in order to safely and effectively use the full reverse thrust capability of an aircraft's engines, the aircraft must be traveling at a speed of at least 70 knots. Below this speed, the use of full reverse thrust may not be recommended or may not have the desired effect in terms of deceleration.

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  • 11. 

    Which part of the Airbus A320 is responsible for controlling the aircraft's pitch and roll movements? 

    • Landing Gear

    • Wing Flaps

    • Horizontal Stabilizer

    • Cabin Pressurization System

    Correct Answer
    A. Horizontal Stabilizer
    Explanation
    The horizontal stabilizer, along with the elevator attached to it, is primarily responsible for controlling the pitch of the Airbus A320—up and down movement of the aircraft's nose. For roll (tilting the wings side to side), the ailerons on the wings play the main role, but pitch and roll are closely coordinated during flight. The other options, like landing gear and cabin pressurization, do not affect aircraft control in this way.

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  • 12. 

    If both pilots push and hold the take-over pushbuttons on the sidesticks, which of the following statements is true?

    • The last pilot to press a button has priority.

    • They cancel each other out, and the aircraft flies normally.

    • Sidestick priority is locked out until the end of the flight.

    • After 40 seconds, the first person to press a button loses use of sidestick.

    Correct Answer
    A. The last pilot to press a button has priority.
    Explanation
    On Airbus aircraft like the A320, when both pilots press and hold the sidestick take-over pushbuttons, the system assigns control to the last pilot who pressed the button. This allows quick transfer of control authority in urgent situations. A "Priority Left" or "Priority Right" audio and visual message appears, depending on who has control. The aircraft does not cancel inputs or lock sidestick priority for the rest of the flight.

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  • 13. 

    On the overhead, when should AUDIO SWITCHING be selected to CAPT 3?

    • The Captain is using RMP tuning of the NAVAIDS.

    • The Captain's ACP has failed.

    • The Captain's loudspeaker has failed.

    • Both RMPs have failed.

    Correct Answer
    A. The Captain's ACP has failed.
    Explanation
    When the Captain's ACP (Audio Control Panel) has failed, AUDIO SWITCHING should be selected to CAPT 3. This means that the audio signals from the aircraft's communication and navigation systems will be routed to the third audio control panel, allowing the Captain to continue receiving and transmitting audio communications.

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  • 14. 

    In Alternate LAW, which of the following statements is true?

    • High Speed Protection will prevent an overspeed.

    • Alpha Floor will prevent the aircraft being stalled.

    • Low Speed Stability will prevent the aircraft being stalled.

    • It is possible to stall the aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is possible to stall the aircraft.
    Explanation
    In Alternate LAW, the statement "It is possible to stall the aircraft" is true. Alternate LAW is a flight control mode in an aircraft where some of the normal protections are lost. In this mode, the aircraft can be stalled if the pilot does not take appropriate action to prevent it. While High Speed Protection prevents overspeed and Alpha Floor prevents the aircraft from being stalled in Normal LAW, these protections are not available in Alternate LAW. Therefore, it is important for the pilot to be cautious and take necessary measures to avoid stalling the aircraft.

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  • 15. 

    At the start of the flight, what will be the condition of ATHR?

    • ACTIVE at 1500 feet AAL.

    • ACTIVE on selection of TOGA or FLX power.

    • ARMED on selection of TOGA or FLX power.

    • ARMED at 80 kts.

    Correct Answer
    A. ARMED on selection of TOGA or FLX power.
    Explanation
    At the start of the flight, the condition of ATHR will be ARMED on selection of TOGA or FLX power. This means that the Autothrust (ATHR) system is ready to engage and control the thrust of the engines once the TOGA (Takeoff/Go-Around) or FLX (Flex) power is selected. The ATHR system will remain in the ARMED state until the pilot selects TOGA or FLX power, at which point it will become ACTIVE and start controlling the thrust. The condition of ATHR being ARMED at 80 kts is not relevant to the start of the flight.

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  • 16. 

    Immediate actions with unreliable IAS on take-of before SLAT retraction?

    • AP/FD OFF : FLAPS - do not move.

    • AP/FD ON : FLAPS - do not move.

    • FD OFF : FLAPS - retract on schedule.

    • AP OFF : FLAPS - retract on schedule.

    Correct Answer
    A. AP/FD OFF : FLAPS - do not move.
    Explanation
    When the autopilot/flight director (AP/FD) is turned off, the flaps should not move during takeoff before the slat retraction. This is because without the AP/FD, the pilot has full control of the aircraft and should manually retract the flaps according to the scheduled procedure. The AP/FD is responsible for automatically controlling the aircraft's systems, including the flaps, but when it is turned off, the pilot must manually handle the flaps. Therefore, in this scenario, the correct action is to not move the flaps when the AP/FD is off.

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  • 17. 

    What is the sequence of actions, on the FCU, in order to start an emergency descent (structural failure)?

    • Select lower ALT and PULL : HDG knob - turn left or right and PULL : SPEED knob : PULL : MACH / SPEED target adjust.

    • PULL and select lower ALT : HDG knob - PULL and turn left or right : MACH / SPEED changeover button - PRESS.

    • Select lower ALT and PULL : HDG knob - PULL and turn left or right : SPEED knob : PULL and descend at Mᴍᴏ/Vᴍᴏ minus 10 kts.

    • Select lower ALT and PUSH : HDG knob - PULL and turn left or right : SPEED knob : PULL : MACH / SPEED changeover button - PRESS.

    Correct Answer
    A. Select lower ALT and PULL : HDG knob - turn left or right and PULL : SPEED knob : PULL : MACH / SPEED target adjust.
    Explanation
    The correct answer explains the sequence of actions required to start an emergency descent (structural failure) on the FCU. It states that the first step is to select a lower altitude and then pull the HDG knob. Next, the answer instructs to turn left or right and pull the SPEED knob. Finally, it suggests pulling the MACH/SPEED target adjust. This sequence of actions ensures that the aircraft descends rapidly in case of a structural failure.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is NOT a primary flight control system on the Airbus A320?

    • Ailerons 

    • Spoilers 

    • Slats 

    • Rudder

    Correct Answer
    A. Slats 
    Explanation
    Slats are a secondary flight control surface on the Airbus A320, used to increase lift at low speeds. The primary flight control systems are the ailerons (for roll control), spoilers (for roll and speed control), and rudder (for yaw control).

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  • 19. 

    What information is given by the speed trend arrow on the PFD?

    • The direction the speed should be adjusted to achieve the required speed.

    • The ECON speed range during descent.

    • The speed attained in 5 seconds with constant acceleration.

    • The speed attained in 10 seconds with constant acceleration.

    Correct Answer
    A. The speed attained in 10 seconds with constant acceleration.
    Explanation
    The speed trend arrow on the PFD provides information about the speed attained in 10 seconds with constant acceleration. This means that the arrow shows the predicted speed of the aircraft in 10 seconds if the current acceleration rate is maintained. It helps the pilot anticipate and adjust the speed accordingly to achieve the desired speed within the given timeframe.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following correctly completes this statement?"With the Yellow Electric pump not switched ON, it will operate automatically ...

    • ... if the Yellow Engine Driven Pump fails."

    • ... if the yellow system pressure falls below 2500 p.s.i.."

    • ... when the Cargo Door is operated."

    • .. when a Cabin Door is opened with the slide armed."

    Correct Answer
    A. ... when the Cargo Door is operated."
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "... when the Cargo Door is operated." This option completes the statement by indicating that the automatic operation of the pump will occur when the Cargo Door is operated. This suggests that the pump is designed to activate in response to the opening or closing of the Cargo Door.

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  • 21. 

    What are the initial actions, after selecting MAX REVERSE, in event of loss of braking when Autobrake is selected OFF?

    • Recycle A/SKID & NW STEERING switch : use brakes normal.

    • Apply Parking Brake intermittently max 1000 psi.

    • Switch to ALTN BRAKING, brakes use max 1000 psi.

    • Brakes release, A/SKID & NW STEERING off, brakes max 1000 psi.

    Correct Answer
    A. Brakes release, A/SKID & NW STEERING off, brakes max 1000 psi.
    Explanation
    After selecting MAX REVERSE and experiencing a loss of braking when Autobrake is selected OFF, the initial actions are to release the brakes, turn off A/SKID & NW STEERING, and apply brakes up to a maximum pressure of 1000 psi.

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  • 22. 

    Following a TCAS "Descend, descend now", what are the initial actions?

    • Follow Flight Director commands.

    • A/P OFF : ATHR OFF : increase rate of descent from present value.

    • A/P OFF : Both FD's OFF : set vertical speed to Green area.

    • A/P OFF : THR LVRS idle : set vertical speed to Green area.

    Correct Answer
    A. A/P OFF : Both FD's OFF : set vertical speed to Green area.
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests that the initial actions after receiving a TCAS "Descend, descend now" command are to turn off the autopilot (A/P), turn off both flight directors (FD's), and set the vertical speed to the green area. This means that the pilot should manually control the aircraft, disengage the autopilot and flight directors, and adjust the vertical speed to maintain a safe descent rate within the recommended range indicated by the green area on the vertical speed indicator. This response ensures that the pilot takes immediate control of the aircraft and follows the TCAS command to descend.

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  • 23. 

    "Pressing the ECAM control panel RCL push-button switch ...

    • ... displays the STATUS page on the lower ECAM."

    • ... continuously scrolls through all the System Displays."

    • ... for more than 3 seconds, will recall any CANCELLED CAUTIONS."

    • ... displays the LANDING MEMO on the E.W.D."

    Correct Answer
    A. ... for more than 3 seconds, will recall any CANCELLED CAUTIONS."
    Explanation
    Pressing the ECAM control panel RCL push-button switch for more than 3 seconds will recall any cancelled cautions. This means that if there were any caution messages that were previously cancelled or cleared, pressing and holding the RCL button for more than 3 seconds will bring them back onto the display. This allows the pilot to review and address any previously cleared cautions that may still require attention.

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  • 24. 

    The ECAM CTL PANEL "WHEEL" pushbutton switch has failed.  What must you do to display the WHEEL page?

    • Use the STS button.

    • Use the ALL button.

    • Transfer the SD to the F/O (or CAPT) using the SWTG PANEL.

    • Use the RECAL button.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use the ALL button.
    Explanation
    When the ECAM CTL PANEL "WHEEL" pushbutton switch fails, it means that you cannot directly access the WHEEL page using the dedicated button. In this situation, you need to use an alternative method to display the WHEEL page. The ALL button on the ECAM control panel cycles through all available system display pages sequentially. By pressing the ALL button, you can manually cycle through the different system pages, including the WHEEL page, until the desired page is displayed.

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  • 25. 

    When can both Autopilots be engaged at the same time?

    • After the APPROACH PHASE is activated on the MCDU.

    • After APPR is armed on the FCU.

    • After LOC capture.

    • After G/S capture.

    Correct Answer
    A. After APPR is armed on the FCU.
    Explanation
    When the APPR (Approach) mode is armed on the Flight Control Unit (FCU), both Autopilots can be engaged at the same time. This means that the aircraft is ready to capture and follow the localizer (LOC) and glide slope (G/S) signals for landing. Once the APPR mode is armed, the Autopilots will be able to engage and assist in flying the aircraft during the approach phase.

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  • 26. 

    What does the AVAIL light on the START switch indicate?

    • APU starter disengagement.

    • APU electrical power can be used.

    • N speed greater than 75%

    • ECB power-up check is satisfactory.

    Correct Answer
    A. APU electrical power can be used.
    Explanation
    The AVAIL light on the START switch indicates that the APU electrical power can be used. This means that the auxiliary power unit (APU) is ready to provide electrical power to the aircraft systems.

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  • 27. 

    If, on opening a door with the slide armed, the slide does not auto-inflate, what are the correct actions?

    • Close the door and use another exit.

    • Manually open the Air Valve.

    • Recycle the Door Control Handle.

    • Recycle the Slide Arming lever.

    Correct Answer
    A. Manually open the Air Valve.
    Explanation
    If the slide does not auto-inflate when opening a door with the slide armed, the correct action is to manually open the Air Valve. This is because the Air Valve controls the flow of air into the slide, and by manually opening it, the slide will inflate properly. Closing the door and using another exit, recycling the Door Control Handle, or recycling the Slide Arming lever are not the correct actions in this situation.

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  • 28. 

    A/C on GND - Flap Lever Position 1

    • SLATS are 2 FLAPS are 1

    • SLATS are 0 FLAPS are 1

    • SLATS are 1 FLAPS are 1

    • SLATS are 1 FLAPS are 0

    Correct Answer
    A. SLATS are 1 FLAPS are 1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SLATS are 1 FLAPS are 1. This means that the slats are extended by one position and the flaps are also extended by one position. The slats and flaps are aerodynamic devices on the wings of an aircraft that help to increase lift and control the aircraft during takeoff and landing. By extending both the slats and flaps, the aircraft can generate more lift at lower speeds, allowing for safer takeoffs and landings.

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  • 29. 

    Which hydraulic system have fluid shutoff valves and why?

    • G and Y (operated by the engine fire switches) to isolate fluid from fire.

    • G and Y (operated by switches on the OHP) in case of PTU failures.

    • All systems; to isolate the systems in event of fluid loss.

    • All systems; for use by maintenance.

    Correct Answer
    A. G and Y (operated by the engine fire switches) to isolate fluid from fire.
    Explanation
    The hydraulic system that has fluid shutoff valves operated by the engine fire switches is G and Y. These valves are designed to isolate the fluid from fire. This is important in case of an engine fire, as shutting off the fluid supply can help prevent the fire from spreading through the hydraulic system. By isolating the fluid, the fire can be contained and extinguished more effectively.

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  • 30. 

    What is the limiting factor for opening the Ram Air Valve?

    • Aircraft altitude at or below 10,000 ft.

    • Cabin differential pressure at or below 1 psi.

    • Aircraft must be on ground.

    • Aircraft must be fully depressurised.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cabin differential pressure at or below 1 psi.
    Explanation
    The limiting factor for opening the Ram Air Valve is the cabin differential pressure at or below 1 psi. This means that the valve can only be opened when the pressure difference between the cabin and the outside air is 1 psi or less. This is important because opening the valve when the pressure difference is higher could cause damage to the aircraft's structure. By keeping the pressure within the safe range, the valve can be opened without risking any structural integrity issues.

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  • 31. 

    "The MAN V/S CTL switch is ...

    • ...operative at all times, and it controls the outflow valve."

    • ... operative in the MAN pressurisation mode: - hold up to OPEN the outflow valve."

    • ... operative in the MAN pressurisation mode: - hold up to OPEN the safety valve."

    • ... inoperative if the DITCHING switch is ON."

    Correct Answer
    A. ... operative in the MAN pressurisation mode: - hold up to OPEN the outflow valve."
    Explanation
    The MAN V/S CTL (Manual Vertical Speed Control) switch is used in the manual pressurisation mode of the Airbus aircraft. In this mode, the switch is used to manually control the cabin pressure by adjusting the outflow valve. By holding the switch up, the outflow valve is opened, which increases the cabin altitude (decreases the cabin pressure). This manual mode is typically used if the automatic pressurisation system fails.

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  • 32. 

    What is the duration of the Passenger Oxygen supply?

    • Between 15 and 20 minutes, depending on cabin altitude.

    • 20 minutes.

    • 15 minutes after the mask is pulled towards the passenger seat.

    • 15 minutes after oxygen compartment door activation.

    Correct Answer
    A. 15 minutes after the mask is pulled towards the passenger seat.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 15 minutes after the mask is pulled towards the passenger seat. This means that once the oxygen mask is activated and pulled towards the passenger's seat, it will provide oxygen for a duration of 15 minutes.

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  • 33. 

    During acceleration on initial climb-out (Config. 1 + F) with no movement of the flap handle, what will happen?

    • The FLAPS will auto-retract at 210 kts.

    • The SLATS will auto-retract at 210 kts.

    • The FLAPS and SLATS will retract at 210 kts.

    • An overspeed warning will be activated at 220 kts.

    Correct Answer
    A. The FLAPS will auto-retract at 210 kts.
    Explanation
    During acceleration on initial climb-out with no movement of the flap handle, the flaps will automatically retract at 210 kts. This is a safety feature designed to prevent the flaps from being damaged or causing excessive drag at higher speeds. Once the aircraft reaches the predetermined speed of 210 kts, the system will automatically retract the flaps to ensure optimal aerodynamic performance during the climb-out phase.

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  • 34. 

    When does the REFUELG memo appear?

    • When the END Light illuminates steady green.

    • When the refuel hose is connected to the coupling.

    • When the MODE SELECT switch is placed to REFUEL.

    • When the re-fuelling control panel door is open.

    Correct Answer
    A. When the re-fuelling control panel door is open.
    Explanation
    The REFUELG memo appears when the re-fuelling control panel door is open. This suggests that the memo is only visible or accessible when the door is open, indicating that it is related to the refuelling process. The other options, such as the END Light illuminating green or the refuel hose being connected, do not specifically mention the memo appearing. Therefore, the correct answer is when the re-fuelling control panel door is open.

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  • 35. 

    What automatically activates the igniters for take-off?

    • Extending the SLATS whilst taxying.

    • Extending the FLAPS whilst taxying.

    • Selecting FLX or TOGA.

    • Weight off wheels.

    Correct Answer
    A. Selecting FLX or TOGA.
    Explanation
    Selecting FLX or TOGA automatically activates the igniters for take-off. FLX and TOGA are two different modes used during take-off in aircraft. FLX (Flexible Thrust) mode allows the pilot to manually select a reduced thrust setting for take-off, while TOGA (Takeoff/Go-Around) mode provides maximum thrust for take-off. When either of these modes is selected, it signals the aircraft's systems to activate the igniters, which are responsible for igniting the fuel-air mixture in the engines, ensuring a successful take-off.

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  • 36. 

    What is the maximum speed for FLAP 3?

    • 177 kts.

    • 185 kts.

    • 200 kts.

    • 205 kts.

    Correct Answer
    A. 185 kts.
    Explanation
    The maximum speed for FLAP 3 is 185 kts. This means that when the aircraft is configured with FLAP 3, it should not exceed this speed to ensure safe operation. Going beyond this speed could potentially lead to aerodynamic instability or structural damage.

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  • 37. 

    What is the maximum cabin pressure differential?

    • Positive 8.4 psi., Negative 1.0 psi.

    • Positive 8.6 psi., Negative 1.2 psi.

    • Positive 8.5 psi., Negative 0.4 psi.

    • Positive 8.6 psi., Negative 1.0 psi.

    Correct Answer
    A. Positive 8.6 psi., Negative 1.0 psi.
    Explanation
    The maximum cabin pressure differential is the difference in pressure between the inside and outside of the cabin. In this case, the correct answer is Positive 8.6 psi, Negative 1.0 psi, which means that the maximum pressure inside the cabin can be 8.6 psi higher than the outside pressure, and the maximum pressure outside the cabin can be 1.0 psi higher than the inside pressure. This is important for maintaining a safe and comfortable cabin environment during flight.

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  • 38. 

    What is the limiting speed with the gear down locked?

    • 250 kts.

    • 280 kts.

    • 300 kts.

    • Green Dot

    Correct Answer
    A. 280 kts.
    Explanation
    The limiting speed with the gear down locked is 280 kts. This means that when the aircraft's landing gear is extended and locked in place, the maximum safe airspeed is 280 knots. Going beyond this speed could potentially put excessive stress on the landing gear and compromise its structural integrity, leading to a safety risk. Therefore, pilots must adhere to this limiting speed to ensure the safe operation of the aircraft during landing or takeoff with the gear down.

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  • 39. 

    What is the limiting groundspeed for the tyres?

    • 185 kts.

    • 190 kts.

    • 195 kts.

    • 198 kts.

    Correct Answer
    A. 195 kts.
    Explanation
    The limiting groundspeed for the tires is 195 kts. This means that the tires are designed to operate safely and effectively at speeds up to 195 knots. Going beyond this speed could potentially put excessive stress on the tires and compromise their performance and safety.

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  • 40. 

    When may the MEMO "N.W. STRG DISC" appear on the EWD?

    • When the Captain and / or First Officer are depressing their DISC buttons on the steering handle.

    • In green (only) during a pushback which includes engine start.

    • When the ANTISKID and NWS switch B placed to OFF.

    • In amber, during a pushback with an engine running.

    • Both options 2 and 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Both options 2 and 4
    Explanation
    The MEMO "N.W. STRG DISC" on the Engine/Warning Display (EWD) appears to indicate that the nosewheel steering is disconnected. It shows in green during a normal pushback procedure that includes engine start, ensuring safe maneuvering by the ground crew. In amber, it signifies a caution during pushback with an engine running, alerting the crew to a potential issue or required action regarding the nosewheel steering system.

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  • 41. 

    The Trim Air Valves:

    • Are electrically controlled by the zone controller.

    • Adjusts temperature by adding cold air.

    • Mix fresh air from the packs with recirculated cabin air.

    • Regulate pack flow depending on number of passengers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Are electrically controlled by the zone controller.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Are electrically controlled by the zone controller." This means that the trim air valves in the aircraft are controlled by the zone controller, which is an electrical device. The zone controller is responsible for regulating the temperature in different zones of the aircraft by controlling the flow of air through the trim air valves.

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  • 42. 

    With the PACK FLOW selector to NORM, what will the actual flow be?

    • LO or NORM or HI.

    • Always NORM.

    • NORM or HI.

    • NORM or LO.

    Correct Answer
    A. NORM or HI.
    Explanation
    When the PACK FLOW selector is set to NORM, the actual flow can be either NORM or HI. This means that the flow can either be normal or high, depending on the specific conditions and requirements. The option of LO is not included because when the selector is set to NORM, the flow will not be low. Therefore, the correct answer is NORM or HI.

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  • 43. 

    For the ACP, which is true?

    • The PA TRANSMISSION key operates like other transmission keys.

    • The ON VOICE key enables audio to be heard on the loudspeakers.

    • The RESET key transfers associated ACP (1 or 2) operation to ACP3

    • The RESET key cancels all CALL lights.

    Correct Answer
    A. The RESET key cancels all CALL lights.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the RESET key cancels all CALL lights. This means that when the RESET key is pressed, any active CALL lights on the ACP will be turned off or canceled. This is an important function as it allows the user to clear any previous calls or notifications on the ACP, ensuring that they are not overlooked or forgotten.

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  • 44. 

    What happens when the gear is selected down on the approach?

    • The WHEEL S.D. appears on the LOWER ECAM display.

    • The STS page appears on the LOWER ECAM display.

    • The STS page appears on the LOWER ECAM display if there is a malfunction showing on the STS page.

    • The WHEEL button on the ECAM control panel illuminates.

    Correct Answer
    A. The WHEEL S.D. appears on the LOWER ECAM display.
    Explanation
    When the gear is selected down on the approach, the WHEEL S.D. (System Display) appears on the LOWER ECAM (Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor) display. This indicates that the system is displaying information related to the wheels, such as their status, position, and any malfunctions.

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  • 45. 

    Regarding Gravity Extension, which of the following is true?

    • Only the nosewheel doors remain open.

    • Only the mainwheel doors remain open.

    • N'wheel steering is not available.

    • N'wheel steering is available if the Green hydraulic system is operating.

    Correct Answer
    A. N'wheel steering is available if the Green hydraulic system is operating.
    Explanation
    Gravity extension typically involves the use of gravity to lower the landing gear in the event of a hydraulic system failure. Depending on the aircraft's design and systems, nosewheel steering may or may not be available during gravity extension. In some aircraft, nosewheel steering may be hydraulically assisted and may still be available if a specific hydraulic system (like the Green hydraulic system) is operational during gravity extension. The other options mentioned are not necessarily true for all aircraft and can vary depending on the specific aircraft's design and systems.

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  • 46. 

    "The  APU may be started ...

    • ... at or below 35,000 feet only."

    • ... at or below 25,000 feet only."

    • ... at or below 300 knots only."

    • ...throughout the normal flight envelope."

    Correct Answer
    A. ...throughout the normal flight envelope."
    Explanation
    The APU, or Auxiliary Power Unit, can be started throughout the normal flight envelope. This means that it can be started at any altitude and speed during a typical flight. This is important because the APU provides essential power to the aircraft when the main engines are not running, such as during ground operations or in the event of an engine failure. Having the ability to start the APU at any point during the flight allows for flexibility and ensures that the necessary power is always available when needed.

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  • 47. 

    Why may the IRS ALIGN lights flash during a pre-flight check?

    • The IRS is using battery power.

    • Loss of all functions except ATT and HDG.

    • Failure to switch on the associated ADR.

    • The IRS is awaiting a position entry.

    Correct Answer
    A. The IRS is awaiting a position entry.
    Explanation
    During a pre-flight check, the IRS ALIGN lights may flash because the IRS (Inertial Reference System) is awaiting a position entry. The IRS needs to be initialized with the aircraft's current position before it can accurately provide navigation information. The flashing lights indicate that the IRS is ready to receive the position input and is waiting for the pilot to enter it. Once the position is entered, the IRS will align itself and the flashing lights will stop.

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  • 48. 

    What is the maximum runway slope?

    • +/-1%

    • +1% / -2%

    • +/-2%

    • +2% / -1%

    Correct Answer
    A. +/-2%
    Explanation
    The maximum runway slope is +/-2%. This means that the runway can have a slope of up to 2% either uphill or downhill. A slope of 2% indicates that for every 100 units of horizontal distance, there is a change in elevation of 2 units. This slope range allows for safe takeoffs and landings, ensuring that aircraft can maintain proper control and braking on the runway surface.

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  • 49. 

    Following a TCAS "CLIMB" message, what are the initial actions?

    • A/P OFF : TOGA power : VERT SPD to Green Band

    • ATHR OFF : VERT SPD to Green Band.

    • A/P OFF : FD's OFF : VERT SPD to Green Band.

    • V/S SELECT +1500 : CLM power.

    Correct Answer
    A. A/P OFF : FD's OFF : VERT SPD to Green Band.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A/P OFF : FD's OFF : VERT SPD to Green Band. Following a TCAS "CLIMB" message, the initial actions include turning off the autopilot (A/P OFF), turning off the flight directors (FD's OFF), and setting the vertical speed (VERT SPD) to the green band. This response ensures that the pilot takes manual control of the aircraft, disengages the autopilot and flight directors, and adjusts the vertical speed to maintain a safe climb.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jul 8, 2025 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jul 08, 2025
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 18, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Kiotoko
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