Airbus A320 SySTEM Practice Test!

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Airbus A320 System Practice Test! - Quiz

Get ready to test your knowledge with our Airbus A320 System Practice Test! This comprehensive quiz is designed to cover all critical areas of the Airbus A320, ensuring you're well-prepared for any challenge. Quiz areas include general questions and specific systems such as air conditioning and pressurization, automatic flight, auxiliary power units, communications, electrical, and energy equipment.

You'll also find questions on fire protection, flight controls, flight instruments, fuel, hydraulic power, ice and rain protection, and landing gear. This detailed practice test offers explanations and instant feedback to help you learn and improve. Start the Airbus A320 System Practice Read moreTest now and elevate your understanding of this advanced aircraft!


Airbus A320 System Questions and Answers

  • 1. 

    Which lights go off when the gear is retracted?

    • A.

      Nose and Turn Off

    • B.

      Turn Off and Wing

    • C.

      Nose and Land

    • D.

      Logo and Land

    Correct Answer
    A. Nose and Turn Off
    Explanation
    When the gear of an aircraft is retracted, the lights that go off are the nose light and the turn off lights. The nose light is typically located on the front of the aircraft and is used to provide illumination during taxiing. The turn off lights are positioned on the sides of the aircraft and are used to enhance visibility during turns on the ground.

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  • 2. 

    Which color code is correct for push-button switches?

    • A.

      AMBER - immediate action : BLUE - temporary operation

    • B.

      GREEN - temporary operation : WHITE - abnormal position

    • C.

      WHITE - temporary operation : GREEN - normal operation

    • D.

      RED - immediate action : 2 DOTS "not used" part of switch

    Correct Answer
    D. RED - immediate action : 2 DOTS "not used" part of switch
    Explanation
    The correct answer is RED - immediate action : 2 DOTS "not used" part of switch. This color code indicates that the red push-button switch is used for immediate action, while the two dots on the switch represent a part that is not used.

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  • 3. 

    "Below the passenger door-window is a red CABIN PRESSURE light which ...

    • A.

      ... flashes if there is residual cabin pressure."

    • B.

      ... is illuminated whenever the cabin pressure is greater than 2.5 mb."

    • C.

      ... flashes with residual pressure and slides armed."

    • D.

      ... cannot be seen from outside the aircraft."

    Correct Answer
    A. ... flashes if there is residual cabin pressure."
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "flashes if there is residual cabin pressure." This means that the red CABIN PRESSURE light will start flashing if there is any remaining pressure in the cabin. This could indicate a potential issue or malfunction with the cabin pressure system.

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  • 4. 

    "Set on LO, the actual pack flow may be ...

    • A.

      ... HI due to APU bleed supplying."

    • B.

      ... NORM due to APU bleed supplying."

    • C.

      ... HI due to air conditioning temperature demands."

    • D.

      ... NORM or HI due to single ack operation."

    Correct Answer
    A. ... HI due to APU bleed supplying."
    Explanation
    When the pack flow is set on LO (low), the actual pack flow may be higher (HI) due to the APU bleed supplying air. This means that even though the pack flow is set to a lower level, the APU bleed is providing additional air, resulting in a higher actual flow.

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  • 5. 

    "The MAN V/S CTL switch is ...

    • A.

      ...operative at all times, and it controls the outflow valve."

    • B.

      ... operative in the MAN pressurisation mode: - hold up to OPEN the outflow valve."

    • C.

      ... operative in the MAN pressurisation mode: - hold up to OPEN the safety valve."

    • D.

      ... inoperative if the DITCHING switch is ON."

    Correct Answer
    B. ... operative in the MAN pressurisation mode: - hold up to OPEN the outflow valve."
    Explanation
    The MAN V/S CTL (Manual Vertical Speed Control) switch is used in the manual pressurisation mode of the Airbus aircraft. In this mode, the switch is used to manually control the cabin pressure by adjusting the outflow valve. By holding the switch up, the outflow valve is opened, which increases the cabin altitude (decreases the cabin pressure). This manual mode is typically used if the automatic pressurisation system fails.

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  • 6. 

    What is displayed on the COND S.D. if the primary channel of the Zone  Controller has failed?

    • A.

      "ALTN MODE"

    • B.

      "PACK REG"

    • C.

      Double crosses ( XX )

    • D.

      "TRIM AIR VALVE FAULT"

    Correct Answer
    A. "ALTN MODE"
    Explanation
    If the primary channel of the Zone Controller has failed, the COND S.D. (Status Display) will show "ALTN MODE". This indicates that the system has switched to an alternate mode of operation due to the failure.

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  • 7. 

    What are the Fan Air Valve and pre-cooler used for?

    • A.

      Initial cooling of air after entering the pack.

    • B.

      Cooling H.P. air only.

    • C.

      Cooling bleed air in accordance with pack demands.

    • D.

      Cooling bleed air to a maximum of 200℃.

    Correct Answer
    D. Cooling bleed air to a maximum of 200℃.
    Explanation
    The Fan Air Valve and pre-cooler are used to cool bleed air to a maximum temperature of 200℃. This is important because the bleed air, which is taken from the engine compressor, can reach high temperatures and needs to be cooled before being used for various purposes such as cabin air conditioning or pressurization. The Fan Air Valve and pre-cooler work together to ensure that the bleed air is cooled to a safe and suitable temperature before being utilized in the aircraft systems.

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  • 8. 

    The Trim Air Valves:

    • A.

      Are electrically controlled by the zone controller.

    • B.

      Adjusts temperature by adding cold air.

    • C.

      Mix fresh air from the packs with recirculated cabin air.

    • D.

      Regulate pack flow depending on number of passengers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Are electrically controlled by the zone controller.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Are electrically controlled by the zone controller." This means that the trim air valves in the aircraft are controlled by the zone controller, which is an electrical device. The zone controller is responsible for regulating the temperature in different zones of the aircraft by controlling the flow of air through the trim air valves.

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  • 9. 

    With the PACK FLOW selector to NORM, what will the actual flow be?

    • A.

      LO or NORM or HI.

    • B.

      Always NORM.

    • C.

      NORM or HI.

    • D.

      NORM or LO.

    Correct Answer
    C. NORM or HI.
    Explanation
    When the PACK FLOW selector is set to NORM, the actual flow can be either NORM or HI. This means that the flow can either be normal or high, depending on the specific conditions and requirements. The option of LO is not included because when the selector is set to NORM, the flow will not be low. Therefore, the correct answer is NORM or HI.

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  • 10. 

    The Avionics Vent System has two "conditions" - GROUND  and FLIGHT.  When does the transition from GROUND to FLIGHT occur?

    • A.

      After second engine start.

    • B.

      At lift-off.

    • C.

      At 100 kts. on the take-off roll.

    • D.

      When the thrust is set for take-off.

    Correct Answer
    D. When the thrust is set for take-off.
    Explanation
    The transition from GROUND to FLIGHT occurs when the thrust is set for take-off. This means that when the pilot increases the engine power to the level required for take-off, the Avionics Vent System switches from the GROUND condition to the FLIGHT condition. This transition ensures that the avionics system is properly ventilated and cooled during flight, as the requirements for airflow and cooling are different when the aircraft is in the air compared to when it is on the ground.

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  • 11. 

    Regarding the A/THR indications on the FMA, which is true?

    • A.

      ATHR in blue - [ ARMED (actual thrust = TLA) ]

    • B.

      ATHR in white - [ ARMED (actual thrust = TLA) ]

    • C.

      ATHR in blue - [ ACTIVE (actual thrust is limited by TLA) ]

    • D.

      ATHR in white - [ ACTIVE (actual thrust is always less than TLA) ]

    Correct Answer
    A. ATHR in blue - [ ARMED (actual thrust = TLA) ]
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ATHR in blue - [ ARMED (actual thrust = TLA) ]. This means that when the A/THR indication on the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA) is in blue, it indicates that the Autothrust (A/THR) system is armed and the actual thrust is equal to the Thrust Lever Angle (TLA) set by the pilot.

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  • 12. 

    When can both Autopilots be engaged at the same time?

    • A.

      After the APPROACH PHASE is activated on the MCDU.

    • B.

      After APPR is armed on the FCU.

    • C.

      After LOC capture.

    • D.

      After G/S capture.

    Correct Answer
    B. After APPR is armed on the FCU.
    Explanation
    When the APPR (Approach) mode is armed on the Flight Control Unit (FCU), both Autopilots can be engaged at the same time. This means that the aircraft is ready to capture and follow the localizer (LOC) and glide slope (G/S) signals for landing. Once the APPR mode is armed, the Autopilots will be able to engage and assist in flying the aircraft during the approach phase.

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  • 13. 

    The APU has been switched off, but it has not stopped . Why is this?

    • A.

      The APU Fuel Pump continuing to run.

    • B.

      The Air Intake Flap failing to close.

    • C.

      A cooling period, which occurs on all APU shutdowns.

    • D.

      A cooling period (following use of APU Bleed).

    Correct Answer
    D. A cooling period (following use of APU Bleed).
    Explanation
    When the APU is shut down, there is often a cooling period that occurs, especially if the APU was used for its bleed air function. The cooling period allows the APU to gradually cool down before it completely stops running. During this time, it continues to operate at a reduced level, primarily for the purpose of cooling down critical components to ensure safe shutdown and to prevent damage due to abrupt temperature changes. This cooling period is a standard procedure and is designed to prolong the life of the APU and maintain its operational reliability.

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  • 14. 

    "The  APU may be started ...

    • A.

      ... at or below 35,000 feet only."

    • B.

      ... at or below 25,000 feet only."

    • C.

      ... at or below 300 knots only."

    • D.

      ...throughout the normal flight envelope."

    Correct Answer
    D. ...throughout the normal flight envelope."
    Explanation
    The APU, or Auxiliary Power Unit, can be started throughout the normal flight envelope. This means that it can be started at any altitude and speed during a typical flight. This is important because the APU provides essential power to the aircraft when the main engines are not running, such as during ground operations or in the event of an engine failure. Having the ability to start the APU at any point during the flight allows for flexibility and ensures that the necessary power is always available when needed.

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  • 15. 

    What happens when the APU MASTER switch is selected to on?

    • A.

      The APU Intake Flap opens and the starter motor engages immediately

    • B.

      The APU Intake Flap opens and the starter motor engages when the flap is fully open.

    • C.

      The APU Fuel Pump will operate.

    • D.

      The APU Intake Flap opens.

    Correct Answer
    D. The APU Intake Flap opens.
    Explanation
    When the APU MASTER switch is selected to on, the APU Intake Flap opens. This allows air to enter the APU for combustion. The starter motor does not engage immediately or when the flap is fully open, and the APU Fuel Pump may or may not operate depending on the specific aircraft system. Therefore, the correct answer is that only the APU Intake Flap opens.

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  • 16. 

    What does the AVAIL light on the START switch indicate?

    • A.

      APU starter disengagement.

    • B.

      APU electrical power can be used.

    • C.

      N speed greater than 75%

    • D.

      ECB power-up check is satisfactory.

    Correct Answer
    B. APU electrical power can be used.
    Explanation
    The AVAIL light on the START switch indicates that the APU electrical power can be used. This means that the auxiliary power unit (APU) is ready to provide electrical power to the aircraft systems.

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  • 17. 

    When does the APU starter engage?

    • A.

      When the FLAP is fully open and the start switch is pressed on.

    • B.

      When the Oil Pressure reaches 7 p.s.i.

    • C.

      When the MASTER SW is pressed on.

    • D.

      When the START SW is pressed on.

    Correct Answer
    A. When the FLAP is fully open and the start switch is pressed on.
    Explanation
    The APU starter engages when the FLAP is fully open and the start switch is pressed on. This means that the APU starter will only activate when the FLAP is in the correct position and the start switch is manually activated. The oil pressure and master switch do not directly affect the engagement of the APU starter.

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  • 18. 

    On the overhead, when should AUDIO SWITCHING be selected to CAPT 3?

    • A.

      The Captain is using RMP tuning of the NAVAIDS.

    • B.

      The Captain's ACP has failed.

    • C.

      The Captain's loudspeaker has failed.

    • D.

      Both RMPs have failed.

    Correct Answer
    B. The Captain's ACP has failed.
    Explanation
    When the Captain's ACP (Audio Control Panel) has failed, AUDIO SWITCHING should be selected to CAPT 3. This means that the audio signals from the aircraft's communication and navigation systems will be routed to the third audio control panel, allowing the Captain to continue receiving and transmitting audio communications.

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  • 19. 

    For the ACP, which is true?

    • A.

      The PA TRANSMISSION key operates like other transmission keys.

    • B.

      The ON VOICE key enables audio to be heard on the loudspeakers.

    • C.

      The RESET key transfers associated ACP (1 or 2) operation to ACP3

    • D.

      The RESET key cancels all CALL lights.

    Correct Answer
    D. The RESET key cancels all CALL lights.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the RESET key cancels all CALL lights. This means that when the RESET key is pressed, any active CALL lights on the ACP will be turned off or canceled. This is an important function as it allows the user to clear any previous calls or notifications on the ACP, ensuring that they are not overlooked or forgotten.

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  • 20. 

    On the ACP, what does an amber light on a Transmission Key indicate?

    • A.

      Failure of the associated transmitter.

    • B.

      Failure of the associated transmitter and receiver.

    • C.

      SELCAL operation only.

    • D.

      SELCAL operation or a call from maintenance or the cabin.

    Correct Answer
    D. SELCAL operation or a call from maintenance or the cabin.
    Explanation
    An amber light on a Transmission Key indicates SELCAL operation or a call from maintenance or the cabin. This means that either the SELCAL system is being used to communicate with the aircraft or there is a request for communication from either maintenance or the cabin crew. It does not indicate a failure of the associated transmitter or receiver.

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  • 21. 

    What are the correct actions if RMP 1 fails?

    • A.

      Switch it off : use ACP 2

    • B.

      Switch it off : use RMP 3 only.

    • C.

      Switch it off : use RMP 3 or RMP 2.

    • D.

      Use the AUDIO SWITCHING switch (on the overhead panel)

    Correct Answer
    C. Switch it off : use RMP 3 or RMP 2.
    Explanation
    If RMP 1 fails, the correct action is to switch it off and use either RMP 3 or RMP 2. This means that RMP 1 is no longer functional and should be turned off, while one of the remaining RMPs should be used as a backup. This ensures that the audio switching system remains operational even with the failure of RMP 1.

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  • 22. 

    Which is true of the AC ESS Bus in the event of an AC BUS 1 FAULT?

    • A.

      It cannot be powered.

    • B.

      It can be powered from AC BUS 2, if so selected.

    • C.

      It will be powered automatically from AC BUS 2.

    • D.

      It will be powered by the emergency generator.

    Correct Answer
    C. It will be powered automatically from AC BUS 2.
    Explanation
    AC BUS 1 supplies power to both the AC ESS BUS and, through Transformer Rectifier 1 (TR 1), the DC ESS BUS. However, if AC BUS 1 experiences a failure or fault, a crucial backup system comes into play. AC BUS 2 is designed to automatically supply power to the AC ESS BUS, ensuring continuity of critical electrical services. This automatic switchover from AC BUS 1 to AC BUS 2, along with the activation of the ESS TR, helps maintain the aircraft's essential electrical functions in the event of a failure, ensuring the safety and functionality of key systems during flight.

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  • 23. 

    What is the effect of selecting the GEN1 LINE to OFF?

    • A.

      Fuel pump operation is transferred to AC ESS BUS.

    • B.

      GEN 1 is fed directly onto the AC ESS BUS.

    • C.

      GEN 1 is de-energised.

    • D.

      GEN 1 is line contactor opens.

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. GEN 1 is de-energised.
    D. GEN 1 is line contactor opens.
    Explanation
    When the GEN1 LINE is selected to OFF, it means that the power supply to GEN 1 is cut off, resulting in GEN 1 being de-energized. Additionally, the line contactor for GEN 1 opens, which means that the electrical connection between the generator and the system is disconnected.

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  • 24. 

    What happens if, in flight, with the hydraulic Blue System inoperative (fluid loss), the MAN ON switch (on the EMER ELEC PWR panel) is pressed?

    • A.

      The Emergency Generator will be driven by the Blue Hydraulic System.

    • B.

      The Emergency Generator will be driven directly by the RAT.

    • C.

      The RAT will not deploy.

    • D.

      The RAT will extend, but the Emergency Generator will not operate.

    Correct Answer
    D. The RAT will extend, but the Emergency Generator will not operate.
    Explanation
    If, in flight, the hydraulic Blue System is inoperative and the MAN ON switch on the EMER ELEC PWR panel is pressed, the RAT (Ram Air Turbine) will extend. However, the Emergency Generator will not operate. This means that even though the RAT is deployed, it will not generate electrical power for the aircraft.

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  • 25. 

    The aircraft is on the chocks.  All sources (Engine, APU and External Power) are ON. Which of the following is true?

    • A.

      The External Power is supplying the network.

    • B.

      If the Engines are shut down, the APU will supply the network.

    • C.

      If the Engines are shut down, External Power will supply the network.

    • D.

      If the APU is shut down, the External Power will supply the network.

    Correct Answer
    C. If the Engines are shut down, External Power will supply the network.
    Explanation
    When the aircraft is on the chocks and all sources (Engine, APU, and External Power) are ON, it means that all power sources are available and functioning. In this scenario, if the engines are shut down, the APU will not be supplying power to the network. Instead, the External Power will supply the network. This is because the engines are not running and therefore cannot generate power, while the External Power source is still connected and able to provide electrical power to the aircraft's network.

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  • 26. 

    Which conditions will cause the Cabin Signs and Lighting to illuminate?

    • A.

      Above 11,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, regardless of the SEAT BELTS and NO SMOKING switch positions.

    • B.

      Above 11,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, provided the EMERGENCY EXIT light switch is at ARM or ON.

    • C.

      Above 10,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, provided the EMERGENCY EXIT light switch is at ARM.

    • D.

      If the cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet.

    Correct Answer
    A. Above 11,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, regardless of the SEAT BELTS and NO SMOKING switch positions.
    Explanation
    The Cabin Signs and Lighting will illuminate above 11,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, regardless of the SEAT BELTS and NO SMOKING switch positions. This means that regardless of whether the seat belts and no smoking signs are turned on or off, the cabin signs and lighting will still be illuminated when the cabin altitude reaches or exceeds 11,000 feet.

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  • 27. 

    What is the duration of the Passenger Oxygen supply?

    • A.

      Between 15 and 20 minutes, depending on cabin altitude.

    • B.

      20 minutes.

    • C.

      15 minutes after the mask is pulled towards the passenger seat.

    • D.

      15 minutes after oxygen compartment door activation.

    Correct Answer
    C. 15 minutes after the mask is pulled towards the passenger seat.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 15 minutes after the mask is pulled towards the passenger seat. This means that once the oxygen mask is activated and pulled towards the passenger's seat, it will provide oxygen for a duration of 15 minutes.

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  • 28. 

    If, on opening a door with the slide armed, the slide does not auto-inflate, what are the correct actions?

    • A.

      Close the door and use another exit.

    • B.

      Manually open the Air Valve.

    • C.

      Recycle the Door Control Handle.

    • D.

      Recycle the Slide Arming lever.

    Correct Answer
    B. Manually open the Air Valve.
    Explanation
    If the slide does not auto-inflate when opening a door with the slide armed, the correct action is to manually open the Air Valve. This is because the Air Valve controls the flow of air into the slide, and by manually opening it, the slide will inflate properly. Closing the door and using another exit, recycling the Door Control Handle, or recycling the Slide Arming lever are not the correct actions in this situation.

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  • 29. 

    What will trigger a fire warning?

    • A.

      Loops A and B failure within 7 seconds of each other (Engine).

    • B.

      Loops A and B failure within 7 seconds of each other (APU).

    • C.

      Fire detection by Loops A and B together (Engine).

    • D.

      Fire detection by Loops A or B (Engine).

    Correct Answer
    C. Fire detection by Loops A and B together (Engine).
    Explanation
    When there is a fire in the engine, the fire detection system will trigger a warning if both Loops A and B detect the fire within 7 seconds of each other. This indicates that there is a genuine fire situation and prompts the necessary actions to be taken to prevent further damage or danger.

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  • 30. 

    Following an engine fire, when will AGENT pushbutton lights illuminate?

    • A.

      SQUIB when FIRE switch is pushed; DISCH when squib has fired.

    • B.

      SQUIB when squib has failed; DISCH when squib has fired.

    • C.

      SQUIB as soon as the fire is detected.

    • D.

      SQUIB when FIRE switch is pushed; DISCH when extinguisher bottle is depressurised.

    Correct Answer
    D. SQUIB when FIRE switch is pushed; DISCH when extinguisher bottle is depressurised.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SQUIB when FIRE switch is pushed; DISCH when extinguisher bottle is depressurized. This means that the AGENT pushbutton lights will illuminate when the FIRE switch is pushed, indicating that the squib (a small explosive device) is activated. The DISCH (discharge) light will illuminate when the extinguisher bottle is depressurized, indicating that the fire suppression agent is being released.

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  • 31. 

    What are the pitch and roll limits in Normal Law configuration?

    • A.

      Pitch + 30° (+ 25° at low speed), - 15°, Roll : 67°

    • B.

      Pitch + 30° (+ 25° at low speed), - 10°, Roll : 67°

    • C.

      Pitch + 25° (+ 20° at low speed), - 15°, Roll : 67°

    • D.

      Pitch ± 30°. Roll 45°

    Correct Answer
    A. Pitch + 30° (+ 25° at low speed), - 15°, Roll : 67°
    Explanation
    The pitch and roll limits in Normal Law configuration are +30° (+25° at low speed) for pitch, -15° for pitch, and 67° for roll. This means that the aircraft can pitch up to 30° (or 25° at low speed), pitch down to -15°, and roll up to 67°. These limits ensure that the aircraft stays within a safe range of maneuverability during normal flight operations.

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  • 32. 

    What does the sidestick control between neutral and full aft in alpha prot?

    • A.

      Alpha.

    • B.

      Altitude.

    • C.

      Airspeed.

    • D.

      G.

    Correct Answer
    A. Alpha.
    Explanation
    The sidestick controls the aircraft's angle of attack (AOA) between neutral and full aft in alpha prot. The angle of attack refers to the angle between the oncoming airflow and a reference line on the aircraft's wing. Alpha prot is a mode that activates when the aircraft's angle of attack reaches a certain threshold, providing protection against stalling. Therefore, by controlling the sidestick, the pilot can adjust the angle of attack and maintain the desired level of protection.

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  • 33. 

    In Alternate Law, how do indications change on the speed scale?

    • A.

      Alpha protection is replaced by an extended Vʟꜱ.

    • B.

      There are no changes : it is possible to stall the aircraft.

    • C.

      V ꜱᴛᴀʟʟ WARNING replacesVʟꜱ.

    • D.

      V ꜱᴛᴀʟʟ WARNING replaces Alpha prot : it is possible to stall the aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    D. V ꜱᴛᴀʟʟ WARNING replaces Alpha prot : it is possible to stall the aircraft.
    Explanation
    In Alternate Law, the indication on the speed scale changes when V ꜱᴛᴀʟʟ WARNING replaces Alpha prot. This change means that it is possible for the aircraft to stall.

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  • 34. 

    What happens in the event of SFCC 1total failure?

    • A.

      SLATS will be inoperative.

    • B.

      FLAPS will be inoperative.

    • C.

      SLATS and FLAPS will be locked by the Wing Tip Brake.

    • D.

      SLATS and FLAPS will operate at half speed.

    Correct Answer
    D. SLATS and FLAPS will operate at half speed.
    Explanation
    In the event of SFCC 1 total failure, the SLATS and FLAPS will operate at half speed. This means that the SLATS and FLAPS will still be functional, but their operation will be slower than normal. The SFCC 1 is responsible for controlling the SLATS and FLAPS, so if it fails, the SLATS and FLAPS will still be able to move, but at a reduced speed. This allows for some level of control and maneuverability, although it may not be as effective as when the SFCC 1 is fully operational.

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  • 35. 

    When will MECH BACK-UP occur?

    • A.

      Loss of all FCCs and aircraft control with stab & rudder.

    • B.

      Loss of all FCCs and aircraft control with elevator & rudder.

    • C.

      Loss of G and Y hydraulics : aircraft control with stab and rudder.

    • D.

      Loss of all hydraulics.

    Correct Answer
    A. Loss of all FCCs and aircraft control with stab & rudder.
    Explanation
    When there is a loss of all FCCs (Flight Control Computers) and aircraft control with stab (stabilizer) and rudder, it means that the aircraft has lost its automated flight control system and the ability to control the aircraft's pitch and yaw. The stab and rudder are the primary control surfaces responsible for these movements. This situation would require the pilots to manually control the aircraft using alternative methods, such as mechanical backup systems or manual reversion.

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  • 36. 

    What does a SPEED BRK memo indicate On the EWD?

    • A.

      In green - normal operation. In amber, speedbrake auto-retraction.

    • B.

      In amber - speedbrakes extended with more than 50% N1.

    • C.

      In amber - partial or total speedbrake failure.

    • D.

      Extension of speedbrakes when in excess of Vᴍᴏ / Mᴍᴏ

    Correct Answer
    B. In amber - speedbrakes extended with more than 50% N1.
    Explanation
    The correct answer indicates that a SPEED BRK memo in amber on the EWD (Engine Warning Display) indicates that the speedbrakes are extended with more than 50% N1. This means that the speedbrakes, which are used to slow down the aircraft during descent or landing, are deployed while the engines are producing more than 50% of their maximum thrust. This could be a potential issue as it may indicate an incorrect deployment of the speedbrakes or a failure in the system.

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  • 37. 

    "VFE NEXT is ...

    • A.

      ... the limiting speed for going from CONFIG1 to CONFIG2 in flight."

    • B.

      ... the minimum speed for the present configuration."

    • C.

      ... the minimum FLAP / SLAAT retraction speed."

    • D.

      ... the maximum speed for the present configuration."

    Correct Answer
    A. ... the limiting speed for going from CONFIG1 to CONFIG2 in flight."
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the limiting speed for going from CONFIG1 to CONFIG2 in flight." VFE NEXT refers to the maximum speed at which the aircraft can transition from one configuration (CONFIG1) to another configuration (CONFIG2) during flight. This speed is important to ensure the safe operation of the aircraft and to prevent any structural or aerodynamic issues during the transition.

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  • 38. 

    Which part of the Airbus A320 is responsible for controlling the aircraft's pitch and roll movements? Options:

    • A.

      Landing Gear

    • B.

      Wing Flaps

    • C.

      Horizontal Stabilizer

    • D.

      Cabin Pressurization System

    Correct Answer
    C. Horizontal Stabilizer
    Explanation
    The horizontal stabilizer, located on the tail of the Airbus A320, controls the pitch (upward and downward) movements of the aircraft. It helps maintain the aircraft's balance and stability during flight.

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  • 39. 

    A-LOCK (alpha lock) appears below the slat / Flap indicator on the E/WD.  What causes this and how do you recover?

    • A.

      Flaps are locked in Config 1; reduce angle of attack to retract the flaps.

    • B.

      Slats and Flaps are locked in Config 1; recycle the flap lever to retract slats and flaps.

    • C.

      Slats are locked in Config 1 due to high angle of attack; recycle the flap lever to retract the slats.

    • D.

      Slats are locked in Config 1 due to high angle of attack; reduce the angle of attack to retract the slats.

    Correct Answer
    D. Slats are locked in Config 1 due to high angle of attack; reduce the angle of attack to retract the slats.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the slats are locked in Config 1 due to a high angle of attack. In this situation, the angle of attack needs to be reduced in order to retract the slats.

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  • 40. 

    In normal flight, what does sidestick deflection demand?

    • A.

      Load factor in pitch and rate of roll in roll.

    • B.

      Load factor in pitch, proportional aileron and spoiler deflection in roll.

    • C.

      Rate of pitch change, and 67° bank at full roll demand.

    • D.

      A pitch attitude, and a rate of roll up to 33° of bank.

    Correct Answer
    A. Load factor in pitch and rate of roll in roll.
    Explanation
    A sidestick deflection in normal flight demands load factor in pitch and rate of roll in roll. This means that when the sidestick is deflected, it will cause a change in the load factor (the force experienced by the aircraft) in the pitch axis, as well as a change in the rate of roll (the speed at which the aircraft rolls) in the roll axis. This allows the pilot to control the aircraft's pitch and roll movements during normal flight.

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  • 41. 

    A/C on GND - Flap Lever Position 1

    • A.

      SLATS are 2 FLAPS are 1

    • B.

      SLATS are 0 FLAPS are 1

    • C.

      SLATS are 1 FLAPS are 1

    • D.

      SLATS are 1 FLAPS are 0

    Correct Answer
    C. SLATS are 1 FLAPS are 1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SLATS are 1 FLAPS are 1. This means that the slats are extended by one position and the flaps are also extended by one position. The slats and flaps are aerodynamic devices on the wings of an aircraft that help to increase lift and control the aircraft during takeoff and landing. By extending both the slats and flaps, the aircraft can generate more lift at lower speeds, allowing for safer takeoffs and landings.

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  • 42. 

    In Alternate LAW, which of the following statements is true?

    • A.

      High Speed Protection will prevent an overspeed.

    • B.

      Alpha Floor will prevent the aircraft being stalled.

    • C.

      Low Speed Stability will prevent the aircraft being stalled.

    • D.

      It is possible to stall the aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    D. It is possible to stall the aircraft.
    Explanation
    In Alternate LAW, the statement "It is possible to stall the aircraft" is true. Alternate LAW is a flight control mode in an aircraft where some of the normal protections are lost. In this mode, the aircraft can be stalled if the pilot does not take appropriate action to prevent it. While High Speed Protection prevents overspeed and Alpha Floor prevents the aircraft from being stalled in Normal LAW, these protections are not available in Alternate LAW. Therefore, it is important for the pilot to be cautious and take necessary measures to avoid stalling the aircraft.

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  • 43. 

    During acceleration on initial climb-out (Config. 1 + F) with no movement of the flap handle, what will happen?

    • A.

      The FLAPS will auto-retract at 210 kts.

    • B.

      The SLATS will auto-retract at 210 kts.

    • C.

      The FLAPS and SLATS will retract at 210 kts.

    • D.

      An overspeed warning will be activated at 220 kts.

    Correct Answer
    A. The FLAPS will auto-retract at 210 kts.
    Explanation
    During acceleration on initial climb-out with no movement of the flap handle, the flaps will automatically retract at 210 kts. This is a safety feature designed to prevent the flaps from being damaged or causing excessive drag at higher speeds. Once the aircraft reaches the predetermined speed of 210 kts, the system will automatically retract the flaps to ensure optimal aerodynamic performance during the climb-out phase.

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  • 44. 

    If both pilots push and hold the take-over pushbuttons on the sidesticks, which of the following statements is true?

    • A.

      The last pilot to press a button has priority.

    • B.

      They cancel each other out, and the aircraft flies normally.

    • C.

      Sidestick priority is locked out until the end of the flight.

    • D.

      After 40 seconds, the first person to press a button loses use of sidestick.

    Correct Answer
    A. The last pilot to press a button has priority.
    Explanation
    When both pilots push and hold the take-over pushbuttons on the sidesticks, the last pilot to press a button is given priority. This means that the sidestick inputs of the last pilot to press the button will be recognized by the aircraft's control system. The priority is given to the last pilot to press the button to ensure that there is no confusion or conflicting inputs from both pilots, allowing for a smoother and more coordinated control of the aircraft.

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  • 45. 

    On the FLT CTL SD the ailerons have two neutral indications.  Why is this?

    • A.

      To show the tolerances when LAF is operating.

    • B.

      To show the tolerances when only one Aileron Jack is operative.

    • C.

      One for clean, one for slats extended (Aileron droop).

    • D.

      One for clean, one for flaps extended (Aileron droop).

    Correct Answer
    D. One for clean, one for flaps extended (Aileron droop).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "One for clean, one for flaps extended (Aileron droop)." This is because when the flaps are extended, the ailerons droop downwards to compensate for the change in airflow over the wings. This drooping of the ailerons helps to maintain the balance and stability of the aircraft during takeoff and landing. Therefore, the FLT CTL SD displays two neutral indications for the ailerons to show the different positions when the flaps are clean and when they are extended.

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  • 46. 

    If (autopilot / autothrust off) a bank angle of 45° is exceeded; what happens?

    • A.

      The Flight Director (only) is no longer displayed.

    • B.

      The FMA lateral and vertical modes (only) are no longer displayed.

    • C.

      The Flight Director and its associated FMAs are no longer displayed.

    • D.

      The aircraft goes into Alternate law.

    Correct Answer
    C. The Flight Director and its associated FMAs are no longer displayed.
    Explanation
    When the bank angle exceeds 45° with the autopilot or autothrust off, the Flight Director and its associated Flight Mode Annunciations (FMAs) are no longer displayed. The Flight Director provides guidance to the pilot on the desired aircraft attitude and flight path. The FMAs display the current lateral and vertical modes of the flight control system. Therefore, when the bank angle exceeds the limit, the pilot no longer has the visual guidance provided by the Flight Director or the information about the current flight control modes displayed by the FMAs.

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  • 47. 

    Regarding the Sidestick Priority Lights on the Glareshield, which is true?

    • A.

      A red arrow will always be accompanied by a green light.

    • B.

      A red arrow may or may not be accompanied by a green light.

    • C.

      A red arrow and a green light may be illuminated together on the Captain's side of the glareshield.

    • D.

      A red arrow indicates an unwanted input on the associated sidestick.

    Correct Answer
    B. A red arrow may or may not be accompanied by a green light.
    Explanation
    A red arrow may or may not be accompanied by a green light. This means that when a red arrow is illuminated on the sidestick priority lights, there is a possibility that a green light may or may not be illuminated at the same time. The presence of a red arrow indicates an unwanted input on the associated sidestick, but the presence of a green light is not always guaranteed.

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  • 48. 

    What does "F" speed represent at take-off on the IAS strip?

    • A.

      Minimum speed to retract flaps from FLAP 3 to FLAP 1.

    • B.

      Minimum speed to retract flaps from FLAP FULL to FLAP 3.

    • C.

      Minimum speed for present flap setting.

    • D.

      Minimum speed for selecting one more stage of flaps.

    Correct Answer
    A. Minimum speed to retract flaps from FLAP 3 to FLAP 1.
    Explanation
    The "F" speed at take-off on the IAS strip represents the minimum speed required to retract the flaps from FLAP 3 to FLAP 1. This indicates that once the aircraft reaches this speed, it is safe to retract the flaps from their current setting to the next stage.

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  • 49. 

    What information is given at top right of the NAV Display in ARC mode?

    • A.

      Raw Data from a tuned VOR.

    • B.

      Computed data concerning the TO Waypoint.

    • C.

      Flight plan TRACK to the TO Waypoint.

    • D.

      Track and Groundspeed.

    Correct Answer
    B. Computed data concerning the TO Waypoint.
    Explanation
    The information given at the top right of the NAV Display in ARC mode is computed data concerning the TO Waypoint. This means that the display provides calculations and data related to the planned route and the specific waypoint the aircraft is heading towards. It could include information such as distance, estimated time of arrival, and other relevant data related to the waypoint.

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  • 50. 

    After T/O, when does SRS (FMA) change to CLB?

    • A.

      When the thrust levers are placed in the climb detent.

    • B.

      After SLAT retraction.

    • C.

      When passing acceleration altitude.

    • D.

      When passing thrust reduction altitude.

    Correct Answer
    C. When passing acceleration altitude.
    Explanation
    When passing acceleration altitude, the SRS (Flight Mode Annunciator) changes to CLB (Climb). This is because acceleration altitude is the point at which the aircraft has gained enough speed to safely transition from takeoff to climb phase. At this altitude, the aircraft has reached the necessary performance parameters to climb efficiently, and the SRS system adjusts accordingly.

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  • Current Version
  • Jul 11, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 18, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Kiotoko
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