Airbus A320 System Practice Test!

The APU, or Auxiliary Power Unit, can be started throughout the normal flight envelope. This means that it can be started at any altitude and speed during a typical flight. This is important because the APU provides essential power to the aircraft when the main engines are not running, such as during ground operations or in the event of an engine failure. Having the ability to start the APU at any point during the flight allows for flexibility and ensures that the necessary power is always available when needed.

In Alternate Law, the indication on the speed scale changes when V ꜱᴛᴀʟʟ WARNING replaces Alpha prot. This change means that it is possible for the aircraft to stall.

In the event that Wing and Engine Anti-ice are lost, the failsafe situation would be to turn off Wing Anti-ice and turn on Engine anti-ice. This is because the primary concern is to prevent ice from forming on the engine, which could lead to engine damage or failure. The Wing Anti-ice can be turned off as it is not as critical as the Engine anti-ice for safe operation.

The correct statement regarding an AUTO START is that igniter operation alternates A/B at each start. This means that during each start, the igniter will switch between igniter A and igniter B. This alternating operation helps ensure that both igniters are functioning properly and reduces the risk of a failed start.

The limiting speed for selecting the gear down is 250 kt. This means that the maximum airspeed at which the pilot can safely lower the landing gear is 250 knots. Going beyond this speed could potentially cause damage to the landing gear or the aircraft. Therefore, it is important for pilots to adhere to this limit to ensure the safety of the aircraft and its occupants.

The maximum demonstrated crosswind for landing is 33 knots, with gusts up to 38 knots. This means that the aircraft has been tested and proven to be able to safely land in crosswinds of up to 33 knots, with occasional gusts reaching 38 knots. This information is important for pilots to know, as it helps them determine the maximum safe limits for landing in crosswind conditions.

To return cancelled cautions to the system, you need to press and hold the Recall (RCL) button on the ECAM control panel for more than 3 seconds. This action will bring back any previously cancelled caution messages, allowing the flight crew to review them again. This feature ensures that important cautions can be revisited if needed for safety and operational reasons.

The Electrical Flight Control System (EFCS) on the Airbus A320 is a fly-by-wire system that manages and optimizes the movement of flight control surfaces like ailerons, elevators, and rudders. This system interprets pilot inputs and sends electrical signals to hydraulic actuators, allowing precise control of the aircraft. The Environmental Control System (B) manages cabin air, the Hydraulic System (C) provides power to various components but is not directly involved in flight control optimization, and the Auxiliary Power Unit (D) is used to provide power when the engines are not running.

The pitch and roll limits in Normal Law configuration are +30° (+25° at low speed) for pitch, -15° for pitch, and 67° for roll. This means that the aircraft can pitch up to 30° (or 25° at low speed), pitch down to -15°, and roll up to 67°. These limits ensure that the aircraft stays within a safe range of maneuverability during normal flight operations.

The "F" speed at take-off on the IAS strip represents the minimum speed required to retract the flaps from FLAP 3 to FLAP 1. This indicates that once the aircraft reaches this speed, it is safe to retract the flaps from their current setting to the next stage.

If both centre booster pumps fail and there is fuel in the centre tank, the EWD (Engine Warning Display) will indicate a half amber box around the FOB (Fuel On Board) indication. This is because the half amber box signifies a cautionary indication, indicating that there is a potential issue with the fuel quantity in the centre tank.

When the BLUE switch is set to AUTO, the pump will operate after the first engine has been started. This implies that the pump is designed to start functioning once the initial engine is up and running. The other options do not specify the requirement of the first engine being started, making them incorrect choices.

After the first engine start, the Blue pump operates.

The correct answer is "Loss of the N2 grey background signifies end of the start sequence." This statement is correct because in an auto start, the N2 gauge displays the rotational speed of the engine's high-pressure compressor. During the start sequence, the N2 gauge shows a grey background, indicating that the engine is in the process of starting up. Once the start sequence is complete and the engine is running, the grey background disappears, indicating that the start sequence has ended. Therefore, the loss of the N2 grey background signifies the end of the start sequence.

The maximum speed for flight with the side window open is 200 kts. This is likely because flying at higher speeds with the window open can cause excessive drag and potentially damage the aircraft. Therefore, it is recommended to fly at a maximum speed of 200 kts with the side window open to ensure the safety and integrity of the aircraft.

Runway centre lighting is white until 900m remaining, indicating that the runway is clear for landing. At 300m remaining, the lighting changes to red and white, signaling caution to the pilot. Finally, at the end of the runway, the lighting turns red, indicating that the runway is no longer usable.

When the pack flow is set on LO (low), the actual pack flow may be higher (HI) due to the APU bleed supplying air. This means that even though the pack flow is set to a lower level, the APU bleed is providing additional air, resulting in a higher actual flow.

The correct answer is ATHR in blue - [ ARMED (actual thrust = TLA) ]. This means that when the A/THR indication on the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA) is in blue, it indicates that the Autothrust (A/THR) system is armed and the actual thrust is equal to the Thrust Lever Angle (TLA) set by the pilot.

Engine 1 anti-ice obtains its heat directly from its own bleed. The bleed air system in an aircraft engine is used to supply compressed air for various purposes, including anti-icing. In this case, Engine 1 uses its own bleed air to heat the anti-ice system, ensuring that ice does not form on critical components of the engine. This prevents any potential loss of performance or damage that could occur due to ice buildup.

During pushback with the steering selector in the TOWING position, if at least one engine is running, the amber N WHEEL STEERING DISC will appear. This indicates that the nose wheel steering is not available for use while in this position.

The maximum wind speed for door operation is 65 knots. This means that doors can safely operate in wind speeds up to 65 knots without any issues. Wind speeds higher than this may cause damage or instability to the doors, making it unsafe to operate them. Therefore, it is important to ensure that doors are not operated when the wind speed exceeds 65 knots to maintain safety and prevent any potential damage.

The correct answer is "the limiting speed for going from CONFIG1 to CONFIG2 in flight." VFE NEXT refers to the maximum speed at which the aircraft can transition from one configuration (CONFIG1) to another configuration (CONFIG2) during flight. This speed is important to ensure the safe operation of the aircraft and to prevent any structural or aerodynamic issues during the transition.

A sidestick deflection in normal flight demands load factor in pitch and rate of roll in roll. This means that when the sidestick is deflected, it will cause a change in the load factor (the force experienced by the aircraft) in the pitch axis, as well as a change in the rate of roll (the speed at which the aircraft rolls) in the roll axis. This allows the pilot to control the aircraft's pitch and roll movements during normal flight.

The correct answer is "One for clean, one for flaps extended (Aileron droop)." This is because when the flaps are extended, the ailerons droop downwards to compensate for the change in airflow over the wings. This drooping of the ailerons helps to maintain the balance and stability of the aircraft during takeoff and landing. Therefore, the FLT CTL SD displays two neutral indications for the ailerons to show the different positions when the flaps are clean and when they are extended.

When the MODE selector is in AUTO, the centre tank pumps will stop when the slats are extended. This is because the slats are used to increase the lift of the aircraft during takeoff and landing. When the slats are extended, it indicates that the aircraft is in a phase where additional lift is required. In order to prevent fuel imbalance and maintain proper balance, the centre tank pumps are automatically shut off to stop fuel transfer to the engines. This ensures that the fuel from the centre tank is used first before switching to the wing tanks.

The correct answer is "It will extinguish when the fluid has cooled to normal temperature." This means that when the pump FAULT light is illuminated due to the fluid being too hot, the light will automatically turn off once the fluid has cooled down to a normal temperature. This indicates that the issue has been resolved and no further maintenance action is required.

The gear lever cannot be moved due to an interlock with shock absorber compression. This means that when the aircraft is on the ground and the shock absorbers are compressed, the gear lever is locked and cannot be moved. This is a safety feature to prevent the gear from being retracted while the aircraft is on the ground, which could cause damage to the landing gear or the runway.

The red UNLK light indicates that the associated gear leg is not locked in the selected position, which means it is neither fully up nor fully down and locked, signifying a potential problem with the landing gear deployment or retraction.

The maximum altitude for APU to start on batteries only is 25,000 feet. This is because, at this altitude, the battery power is sufficient to handle the electrical load required to start the APU. Above this altitude, the air density decreases significantly, which affects the performance and reliability of the battery start system. Therefore, to maintain safety and ensure successful APU starts, this limitation is set at 25,000 feet.

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The correct answer is AP OFF : sidestick hard back : TOGA power. When a GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) alert is activated, it is important to disengage the autopilot (AP OFF) and quickly pull the sidestick hard back, which will command a pitch-up maneuver. This action, combined with engaging TOGA (Takeoff/Go-Around) power, will help the aircraft climb and avoid the potential ground proximity issue indicated by the alert. Following the pitch demands on the flight director (FD) may not be sufficient in this situation, as a more aggressive maneuver is needed to ensure the aircraft's safety.

Magenta LDG INHIBIT appears automatically on the E/WD (Engine/Warning Display) below 800 feet radio altitude. This means that below this altitude, the landing inhibit mode is activated, which prevents any warnings or cautions related to landing gear deployment from being displayed. This feature is likely implemented to reduce distractions during critical phases of flight, such as the final approach and landing.

If the ELECTRICS page appears automatically with no other caution or warning indications, it indicates that an advisory has occurred. The drifting parameter will be pulsing, which means that there is a minor issue or deviation from the normal operating condition. This advisory is not a critical failure but should be monitored closely to ensure the proper functioning of the system.

The APU starter engages when the FLAP is fully open and the start switch is pressed on. This means that the APU starter will only activate when the FLAP is in the correct position and the start switch is manually activated. The oil pressure and master switch do not directly affect the engagement of the APU starter.

An amber light on a Transmission Key indicates SELCAL operation or a call from maintenance or the cabin. This means that either the SELCAL system is being used to communicate with the aircraft or there is a request for communication from either maintenance or the cabin crew. It does not indicate a failure of the associated transmitter or receiver.

The correct answer is that the slats are locked in Config 1 due to a high angle of attack. In this situation, the angle of attack needs to be reduced in order to retract the slats.

The correct answer is Outboard wing L.E., and engine nacelles. This means that only the leading edge of the outboard wing and the engine nacelles are anti-iced. Anti-icing is a process used to prevent the formation of ice on critical parts of the aircraft, as ice accumulation can disrupt the airflow and affect the performance of the aircraft. By anti-icing the outboard wing leading edge and the engine nacelles, the aircraft can maintain safe and efficient operation during icy conditions.

EGPWS (Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System) uses the baro information from the Captain's barometric altimeter. This information is crucial for the system to accurately calculate the aircraft's altitude and provide timely warnings in case of potential ground proximity hazards. The Captain's baro information is considered the primary source for EGPWS because the Captain is typically responsible for the overall operation of the aircraft.

The FUEL USED indication on the SD is reset to zero during associated engine start. This means that when the engine is started, the fuel used value is reset to zero and starts counting from there. This is important for accurate fuel monitoring and management during flight.

During take-off, an amber EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indication may be ignored. EGT is a measure of the temperature of the exhaust gases, and an amber indication usually indicates that the temperature is approaching or exceeding the limits. However, during take-off, the engine operates at high power and temperatures can temporarily exceed the normal operating range. Therefore, an amber EGT indication during take-off is considered normal and does not require immediate action.

The ATHR (Autothrust) becomes ACTIVE at the Thrust Reduction altitude. This is the altitude at which the aircraft reduces thrust from takeoff power to climb power. It is typically set at 1500 feet above the airfield elevation or 1500 feet Radio Altimeter (R.A.). Once the ATHR becomes ACTIVE, it will automatically manage the thrust setting for the aircraft during climb and other phases of flight.

The maximum EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) at TOGA THR (Takeoff Go-Around Thrust) is 950℃. This is the highest temperature that the exhaust gases can reach during takeoff or go-around thrust operations. It is crucial to monitor and control the EGT to ensure the safe and efficient operation of the aircraft's engines.

If the brakes fail during an RTO (Rejected Takeoff), the correct action is to engage reverse thrust to the maximum, release the brake pedals, turn off the Anti-Skid and Nose Wheel Steering (N/W STRG) switches, and use the brakes at maximum pressure of 1000 psi. This response suggests that in the event of brake failure, the pilot should rely on reverse thrust and maximum brake pressure to bring the aircraft to a stop, while disengaging the Anti-Skid and N/W STRG systems to prevent any interference.

When a GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) alert occurs with the "PULL UP" warning, the correct initial action is to pull the sidestick fully aft, engage TOGA (Takeoff/Go-Around) thrust, and turn off the autopilot (A/P OFF). This action is necessary to increase the aircraft's pitch and initiate a climb to avoid the potential ground proximity hazard indicated by the alert. The answer choice "Sidestick fully aft: TOGA thrust: A/P OFF" accurately describes the correct sequence of actions to be taken in response to the GPWS alert.

When the aircraft is on the chocks and all sources (Engine, APU, and External Power) are ON, it means that all power sources are available and functioning. In this scenario, if the engines are shut down, the APU will not be supplying power to the network. Instead, the External Power will supply the network. This is because the engines are not running and therefore cannot generate power, while the External Power source is still connected and able to provide electrical power to the aircraft's network.

The correct answer is SQUIB when FIRE switch is pushed; DISCH when extinguisher bottle is depressurized. This means that the AGENT pushbutton lights will illuminate when the FIRE switch is pushed, indicating that the squib (a small explosive device) is activated. The DISCH (discharge) light will illuminate when the extinguisher bottle is depressurized, indicating that the fire suppression agent is being released.

The sidestick controls the aircraft's angle of attack (AOA) between neutral and full aft in alpha prot. The angle of attack refers to the angle between the oncoming airflow and a reference line on the aircraft's wing. Alpha prot is a mode that activates when the aircraft's angle of attack reaches a certain threshold, providing protection against stalling. Therefore, by controlling the sidestick, the pilot can adjust the angle of attack and maintain the desired level of protection.

The correct answer indicates that a SPEED BRK memo in amber on the EWD (Engine Warning Display) indicates that the speedbrakes are extended with more than 50% N1. This means that the speedbrakes, which are used to slow down the aircraft during descent or landing, are deployed while the engines are producing more than 50% of their maximum thrust. This could be a potential issue as it may indicate an incorrect deployment of the speedbrakes or a failure in the system.

The information given at the top right of the NAV Display in ARC mode is computed data concerning the TO Waypoint. This means that the display provides calculations and data related to the planned route and the specific waypoint the aircraft is heading towards. It could include information such as distance, estimated time of arrival, and other relevant data related to the waypoint.

When landing with Autobrake MED selected, braking starts 2 seconds after spoiler deployment. The spoilers are panels on the wings that are raised to disrupt the airflow and reduce lift, increasing the weight on the wheels. Once the spoilers are deployed, indicating that the aircraft has touched down, the autobrake system will initiate braking after a 2-second delay. This delay allows the aircraft to settle on the runway and ensures that the braking action is smooth and controlled.

In Airbus aircraft, pulling the altitude knob on the Flight Control Unit (FCU) disengages the managed climb mode and reverts to an Open Climb. This gives the pilot direct control over the vertical speed of the aircraft, allowing for more flexibility in adjusting the climb profile.

The correct answer is "IDLE" displayed between the EPR gauges. This indicates that the engines are spooled-down and running at idle power. The EPR gauges measure the engine pressure ratio, and when the engines are spooled-down, the displayed value will show "IDLE" to indicate the reduced power setting. This visual indication helps the crew to confirm that the engines are operating at the desired power level.

In this scenario, even though the weather is above CAT I limits, the Air Traffic Control (ATC) has reported that Low Visibility Procedures (LVP's) are in force. This means that there are specific procedures and protocols that need to be followed during low visibility conditions. Therefore, the correct statement is that "You must follow Low Visibility Procedures." This indicates that regardless of the weather being above CAT I limits, the LVP's take precedence and must be adhered to for safe operations.

During the takeoff roll, the SD (System Display) that is typically displayed is the Engine SD. This display provides important information about the engine's performance, including parameters such as thrust, temperature, fuel flow, and any abnormal indications. Monitoring the Engine SD during takeoff allows the pilot to ensure that the engines are operating within normal limits and to detect any potential issues that may affect the aircraft's performance. Therefore, the correct answer is Engine.

The speed bug automatically goes to a speed higher than Vᴀᴘᴘ indicated on the MCDU PERF page because the "local" (IRS) wind is giving a larger headwind component than that entered in the PERF page. This means that the aircraft is experiencing stronger headwinds than anticipated, which requires a higher speed to maintain the desired approach speed.

The transition from GROUND to FLIGHT occurs when the thrust is set for take-off. This means that when the pilot increases the engine power to the level required for take-off, the Avionics Vent System switches from the GROUND condition to the FLIGHT condition. This transition ensures that the avionics system is properly ventilated and cooled during flight, as the requirements for airflow and cooling are different when the aircraft is in the air compared to when it is on the ground.

If RMP 1 fails, the correct action is to switch it off and use either RMP 3 or RMP 2. This means that RMP 1 is no longer functional and should be turned off, while one of the remaining RMPs should be used as a backup. This ensures that the audio switching system remains operational even with the failure of RMP 1.

If, in flight, the hydraulic Blue System is inoperative and the MAN ON switch on the EMER ELEC PWR panel is pressed, the RAT (Ram Air Turbine) will extend. However, the Emergency Generator will not operate. This means that even though the RAT is deployed, it will not generate electrical power for the aircraft.

After selecting TOGA following a "WINDSHEAR" warning, the correct initial action is to follow the Flight Director (FD) pitch demand. This means that the pilot should follow the commands displayed on the FD to adjust the pitch of the aircraft. This is important in order to maintain the correct attitude and climb performance during the windshear encounter. The other actions mentioned, such as raising the gear (if down) and adjusting the slats/flaps, may be necessary depending on the specific situation, but the primary action is to follow the FD pitch demand.

In this scenario, the left EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System) has failed. The PFD (Primary Flight Display) is a crucial instrument that provides essential flight information to the pilot. In the case of a failure in the left EFIS, the PFD will automatically transfer to the right EFIS screen. Therefore, there is no need to take any action or push any buttons to display the PFD on the right EFIS screen.

When there is an amber line through the last two digits of a fuel figure on the S.D., it signifies an inaccurate quantity indication. This means that the displayed fuel figure is not accurate and should not be relied upon.

Pressing the DISC button on the Captain's steering handwheels disconnects all rudder pedal movement from the steering system. This means that when the DISC button is pressed, the rudder pedals will no longer have any effect on the steering system, allowing the Captain to control the steering solely through the handwheels.

A rapid alignment is carried out when the residual groundspeed is greater than 5 kts. In this case, the rotary selectors are set to OFF and then to NAV within 5 seconds. This process helps to quickly align the navigation system and ensure accurate positioning during transit stops.

The statement "It can be energised on ground by putting ENG MODE SEL to START" is true. FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) can be activated on the ground by selecting the engine mode selector (ENG MODE SEL) to START. This allows the FADEC system to control the engine's operation and monitor various parameters for optimal performance.

The "TO INHIBIT" memo on the ECAM E/WD suppresses non-critical alerts during take-off to minimize pilot distractions during this critical phase. It automatically disappears after the aircraft reaches either 1500 feet above ground level or 2 minutes after lift-off, whichever occurs first, ensuring normal alerting resumes once the initial climb phase is safely completed.

The correct answer is RED - immediate action : 2 DOTS "not used" part of switch. This color code indicates that the red push-button switch is used for immediate action, while the two dots on the switch represent a part that is not used.

The correct answer is "actual aircraft track." When joining an ILS on an intercept heading, the FPV (Flight Path Vector) will be lined up with the actual aircraft track. The aircraft track refers to the actual path that the aircraft is following through the air, taking into account any wind or other factors that may cause it to deviate from the planned course. Therefore, aligning the FPV with the actual aircraft track ensures that the aircraft is properly aligned with the ILS and on the correct path for a safe landing.

In the MEL "remarks or Exceptions" column, the signification of (0) indicates that a procedure needs to be carried out by the flight crew. This means that the flight crew is responsible for performing a specific action or task mentioned in the MEL in order to rectify or address an issue with the aircraft. It is not related to dispatch restrictions or the responsibility of maintenance personnel.

When airborne after receiving a "WINDSHEAR" warning, the correct initial action is to apply TOGA (Takeoff/Go-Around) power and follow the Flight Director (FD) pitch demand. This means that the pilot should increase the engine power to the TOGA setting and adjust the aircraft's pitch according to the guidance provided by the FD. This action is crucial in order to maintain the necessary climb performance and follow the recommended flight path despite the potential wind shear conditions.

If the ECAM Upper DU fails, the SD/Status page can be displayed on the lower ECAM DU by pressing and holding down the associated ECAM Control Panel push-button switch. This action allows the system to switch the display to the lower DU, allowing the pilot to access the necessary information.

To view the WHEEL S.D. when the upper ECAM screen fails, you need to push and hold the WHEEL button. This action will display the SD (System Display) for an extended period of time, allowing you to view the information you need. The other options mentioned, such as selecting the DMC switch to CAPT 3 or using the ALL button to scroll through systems, are not relevant to this specific task.

The FMA (Flight Mode Annunciator) immediately shows the G/A TRK, which refers to the actual track at the time of selecting TOGA (Takeoff/Go-Around) power. This means that when a go-around is initiated, the FMA will display the current track that the aircraft is on. This information is important for the pilot to maintain control and navigate the aircraft during the go-around procedure.

If the primary channel of the Zone Controller has failed, the COND S.D. (Status Display) will show "ALTN MODE". This indicates that the system has switched to an alternate mode of operation due to the failure.

When there is a loss of all FCCs (Flight Control Computers) and aircraft control with stab (stabilizer) and rudder, it means that the aircraft has lost its automated flight control system and the ability to control the aircraft's pitch and yaw. The stab and rudder are the primary control surfaces responsible for these movements. This situation would require the pilots to manually control the aircraft using alternative methods, such as mechanical backup systems or manual reversion.

The selected heading can be displayed as a triangle or digits on the PFD. This means that the pilot can choose to have the selected heading shown either as a triangle symbol or as numerical digits on the display. This gives the pilot flexibility in how they prefer to interpret and follow the selected heading information during the flight.

The correct answer is that the FADEC system is a dual channel unit that is self-powered with the engine running. This means that the FADEC system does not rely on external power and is able to operate independently once the engine is running. The dual channel design provides redundancy and ensures that the system can continue to function even if one channel fails. This allows for safe and reliable control of the engine's performance.

The flashing yellow lights on each side of the taxiway indicate that you are about to enter an active runway. This is an important signal to stop and ask ATC (Air Traffic Control) for instructions before proceeding further. It is crucial to ensure safety and avoid any potential conflicts with aircraft taking off or landing on the runway.

The green arrow on the Engine/Warning Display (EWD) at the bottom center indicates that there is additional information available on the System Display (S.D.). This symbol prompts the pilot to look at the S.D. for further details regarding the current alert or status message. The S.D. provides a more comprehensive view of the aircraft's systems and can help in diagnosing and addressing any issues indicated on the EWD.

The Fan Air Valve and pre-cooler are used to cool bleed air to a maximum temperature of 200℃. This is important because the bleed air, which is taken from the engine compressor, can reach high temperatures and needs to be cooled before being used for various purposes such as cabin air conditioning or pressurization. The Fan Air Valve and pre-cooler work together to ensure that the bleed air is cooled to a safe and suitable temperature before being utilized in the aircraft systems.

When the APU MASTER switch is selected to on, the APU Intake Flap opens. This allows air to enter the APU for combustion. The starter motor does not engage immediately or when the flap is fully open, and the APU Fuel Pump may or may not operate depending on the specific aircraft system. Therefore, the correct answer is that only the APU Intake Flap opens.

When the aircraft is being refuelled, the transfer valves close. This means that the fuel transfer from one fuel tank to another stops. This is a safety measure to prevent any fuel leakage or spillage during the refuelling process. Closing the transfer valves ensures that the fuel remains contained within the designated fuel tanks and does not flow unnecessarily between tanks.

The PTU (Power Transfer Unit) is a hydraulic system component in an aircraft. It is responsible for transferring hydraulic power between different systems. The correct answer states that the PTU is inhibited between engine starts. This means that the PTU is not operational during the period between starting one engine and starting the other engine. This could be because the PTU requires both engines to be running in order to function properly or because it is not needed during this specific phase of operation.

Typically, after three unsuccessful attempts to start the power plant, it is required to allow a cooling period (commonly 30 minutes) before further attempts to prevent damage and overheating of the starter and associated systems.

A red arrow may or may not be accompanied by a green light. This means that when a red arrow is illuminated on the sidestick priority lights, there is a possibility that a green light may or may not be illuminated at the same time. The presence of a red arrow indicates an unwanted input on the associated sidestick, but the presence of a green light is not always guaranteed.

If both booster pumps in the center tank of an Airbus A320 fail, the System Display (SD) will show amber = through the center tank (CTR) tank quantity indications. This indication warns the flight crew that there is a problem with the center tank's fuel quantity indications, and they should take appropriate actions and precautions related to fuel management.

The correct answer suggests that when immediate actions are required and speed indications are unreliable above THR RED ALT, the pilot should set the climb thrust (CLB THR) above FL 100 and set the pitch to +5°. Below FL 100, the pilot should set the pitch to +10°. This ensures that the aircraft maintains the correct thrust and pitch attitude for a climb, regardless of the unreliable speed indications.

In the event of an RTO (Rejected Takeoff), the standard procedure on an Airbus A320 is to advance the thrust levers to the REV (Reverse) MAX position. If the DECEL lights do not illuminate, this indicates that the automatic deceleration system is not functioning correctly, and in such cases, you would apply maximum foot braking. This procedure is designed to bring the aircraft to a stop as quickly and safely as possible during a rejected takeoff.

When there is a fire in the engine, the fire detection system will trigger a warning if both Loops A and B detect the fire within 7 seconds of each other. This indicates that there is a genuine fire situation and prompts the necessary actions to be taken to prevent further damage or danger.

The FMS is a centralized computer system that aids pilots in flight planning, navigation, and performance calculations. It does not directly control the engines. Engine control is managed by the Engine Control Units (ECUs) and the Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) system.

RMP No. 1 refers to the Radio Maintenance Panel No. 1, which is a system used to control and monitor radio communication equipment. The correct answer states that RMP No. 1 can be used to tune any radio communication equipment and outside radio aids. This means that the RMP No. 1 can adjust and optimize the settings of various radio devices and external radio aids, ensuring proper communication and functionality.

The correct answer is that the MAN START pushbutton opens the start valve, and the start valve will close automatically. This means that when the pushbutton is pressed, it allows fuel to flow into the engine and initiate the starting process. Once the engine starts running, the start valve will automatically close to regulate the fuel flow.

In the MEL "remarks or Exceptions" column, the (*) signifies that inoperative equipment must have a placard. This means that if any equipment on the aircraft is not functioning properly, it must be clearly marked with a placard indicating its inoperable status. This is important for the safety of the crew and passengers, as it ensures that everyone is aware of any non-functioning equipment on the aircraft.

SRS (Speed Reference System) mode on the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA) changes to CLB (Climb) mode when passing the thrust reduction altitude during takeoff. The thrust reduction altitude is the point where the engine thrust is reduced from takeoff thrust to climb thrust. At this point, the system automatically switches from SRS mode (which provides pitch guidance for takeoff) to CLB mode (which provides pitch guidance for climb). This ensures a smooth transition from takeoff to climb and optimizes engine performance and fuel efficiency.

The Airbus A320 is a popular narrow-body airliner designed for short to medium-haul flights. In a typical single-class configuration, it can accommodate approximately 150 to 180 passengers. The exact seating capacity may vary depending on the airline's specific layout and seat pitch. The A320 is known for its fuel efficiency, comfortable cabin, and versatility, making it a popular choice for airlines around the world.

A NAV ACCURACY check is carried out by comparing the VOR bearing and DME distance against the "BG and DIST to" information on the MCDU PROG page. This comparison ensures that the navigation system is accurately determining the aircraft's position and providing correct distance and bearing information.