Airbus A320 System Practice Test!

186 Questions | Total Attempts: 16415

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Airbus A320 System Practice Test! - Quiz

Airbus A320 System Practice Test! Quiz areas include:- General questions; Air conditioning and pressurization; Automatic Flight; Auxiliary Power Unit; Communications; Electrical; Energy Equipment; Fire Protection; Flight Controls; Flight Instruments; Fuel; Hydraulic Power; Ice and Rain Protection; Landing Gear; Navigation; Pneumatics; Power Plant; Limitations; Minimum Equipment List; Emergency Procedures; Low Visibility; EIS and FMS.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What are the Fan Air Valve and pre-cooler used for?
    • A. 

      Initial cooling of air after entering the pack.

    • B. 

      Cooling H.P. air only.

    • C. 

      Cooling bleed air in accordance with pack demands.

    • D. 

      Cooling bleed air to a maximum of 200℃.

  • 2. 
    The Trim Air Valves:
    • A. 

      Are electrically controlled by the zone controller.

    • B. 

      Adjusts temperature by adding cold air.

    • C. 

      Mix fresh air from the packs with recirculated cabin air.

    • D. 

      Regulate pack flow depending on number of passengers.

  • 3. 
    With the PACK FLOW selector to NORM, what will the actual flow be?
    • A. 

      LO or NORM or HI.

    • B. 

      Always NORM.

    • C. 

      NORM or HI.

    • D. 

      NORM or LO.

  • 4. 
    The Avionics Vent System has two "conditions" - GROUND  and FLIGHT.  When does the transition from GROUND to FLIGHT occur?
    • A. 

      After second engine start.

    • B. 

      At lift-off.

    • C. 

      At 100 kts. on the take-off roll.

    • D. 

      When the thrust is set for take-off.

  • 5. 
    Regarding the A/THR indications on the FMA, which is true?
    • A. 

      ATHR in blue - [ ARMED (actual thrust = TLA) ]

    • B. 

      ATHR in white - [ ARMED (actual thrust = TLA) ]

    • C. 

      ATHR in blue - [ ACTIVE (actual thrust is limited by TLA) ]

    • D. 

      ATHR in white - [ ACTIVE (actual thrust is always less than TLA) ]

  • 6. 
    When can both Autopilots be engaged at the same time?
    • A. 

      After the APPROACH PHASE is activated on the MCDU.

    • B. 

      After APPR is armed on the FCU.

    • C. 

      After LOC capture.

    • D. 

      After G/S capture.

  • 7. 
    The APU has been switched off, but it has not stopped .  Why is this?
    • A. 

      The APU Fuel Pump continuing to run.

    • B. 

      The Air Intake Flap failing to close.

    • C. 

      A cooling period, which occurs on all APU shutdowns.

    • D. 

      A cooling period (following use of APU Bleed).

  • 8. 
    "The  APU may be started ...
    • A. 

      ... at or below 35,000 feet only."

    • B. 

      ... at or below 25,000 feet only."

    • C. 

      ... at or below 300 knots only."

    • D. 

      ...throughout the normal flight envelope."

  • 9. 
    What happens when the APU MASTER switch is selected to on?
    • A. 

      The APU Intake Flap opens and the starter motor engages immediately

    • B. 

      The APU Intake Flap opens and the starter motor engages when the flap is fully open.

    • C. 

      The APU Fuel Pump will operate.

    • D. 

      The APU Intake Flap opens.

  • 10. 
    What does the AVAIL light on the START switch indicate?
    • A. 

      APU starter disengagement.

    • B. 

      APU electrical power can be used.

    • C. 

      N speed greater than 75%

    • D. 

      ECB power-up check is satisfactory.

  • 11. 
    When does the APU starter engage?
    • A. 

      When the FLAP is fully open and the start switch is pressed on.

    • B. 

      When the Oil Pressure reaches 7 p.s.i.

    • C. 

      When the MASTER SW is pressed on.

    • D. 

      When the START SW is pressed on.

  • 12. 
    On the overhead, when should AUDIO SWITCHING be selected to CAPT 3?
    • A. 

      The Captain is using RMP tuning of the NAVAIDS.

    • B. 

      The Captain's ACP has failed.

    • C. 

      The Captain's loudspeaker has failed.

    • D. 

      Both RMPs have failed.

  • 13. 
    For the ACP, which is true?
    • A. 

      The PA TRANSMISSION key operates like other transmission keys.

    • B. 

      The ON VOICE key enables audio to be heard on the loudspeakers.

    • C. 

      The RESET key transfers associated ACP (1 or 2) operation to ACP3

    • D. 

      The RESET key cancels all CALL lights.

  • 14. 
    On the ACP, what does an amber light on a Transmission Key indicate?
    • A. 

      Failure of the associated transmitter.

    • B. 

      Failure of the associated transmitter and receiver.

    • C. 

      SELCAL operation only.

    • D. 

      SELCAL operation or a call from maintenance or the cabin.

  • 15. 
    What are the correct actions if RMP 1 fails?
    • A. 

      Switch it off : use ACP 2

    • B. 

      Switch it off : use RMP 3 only.

    • C. 

      Switch it off : use RMP 3 or RMP 2.

    • D. 

      Use the AUDIO SWITCHING switch (on the overhead panel)

  • 16. 
    Which is true of the AC ESS Bus in the event of an AC BUS 1 FAULT?
    • A. 

      It cannot be powered.

    • B. 

      It can be powered from AC BUS 2, if so selected.

    • C. 

      It will be powered automatically from AC BUS 2.

    • D. 

      It will be powered by the emergency generator.

  • 17. 
    What happens if, in flight, with the hydraulic Blue System inoperative (fluid loss), the MAN ON switch (on the EMER ELEC PWR panel) is pressed?
    • A. 

      The Emergency Generator will be driven by the Blue Hydraulic System.

    • B. 

      The Emergency Generator will be driven directly by the RAT.

    • C. 

      The RAT will not deploy.

    • D. 

      The RAT will extend, but the Emergency Generator will not operate.

  • 18. 
    The aircraft is on the chocks.  All sources (Engine, APU and External Power) are ON. Which of the following is true?
    • A. 

      The External Power is supplying the network.

    • B. 

      If the Engines are shut down, the APU will supply the network.

    • C. 

      If the Engines are shut down, External Power will supply the network.

    • D. 

      If the APU is shut down, the External Power will supply the network.

  • 19. 
    Which conditions will cause the Cabin Signs and Lighting to illuminate?
    • A. 

      Above 11,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, regardless of the SEAT BELTS and NO SMOKING switch positions.

    • B. 

      Above 11,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, provided the EMERGENCY EXIT light switch is at ARM or ON.

    • C. 

      Above 10,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, provided the EMERGENCY EXIT light switch is at ARM.

    • D. 

      If the cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet.

  • 20. 
    What is the duration of the Passenger Oxygen supply?
    • A. 

      Between 15 and 20 minutes, depending on cabin altitude.

    • B. 

      20 minutes.

    • C. 

      15 minutes after the mask is pulled towards the passenger seat.

    • D. 

      15 minutes after oxygen compartment door activation.

  • 21. 
    If, on opening a door with the slide armed, the slide does not auto-inflate, what are the correct actions?
    • A. 

      Close the door and use another exit.

    • B. 

      Manually open the Air Valve.

    • C. 

      Recycle the Door Control Handle.

    • D. 

      Recycle the Slide Arming lever.

  • 22. 
    What will trigger a fire warning?
    • A. 

      Loops A and B failure within 7 seconds of each other (Engine).

    • B. 

      Loops A and B failure within 7 seconds of each other (APU).

    • C. 

      Fire detection by Loops A and B together (Engine).

    • D. 

      Fire detection by Loops A or B (Engine).

  • 23. 
    Following an engine fire, when will AGENT pushbutton lights illuminate?
    • A. 

      SQUIB when FIRE switch is pushed; DISCH when squib has fired.

    • B. 

      SQUIB when squib has failed; DISCH when squib has fired.

    • C. 

      SQUIB as soon as the fire is detected.

    • D. 

      SQUIB when FIRE switch is pushed; DISCH when extinguisher bottle is depressurised.

  • 24. 
    What are the pitch and roll limits in Normal Law configuration?
    • A. 

      Pitch + 30° (+ 25° at low speed), - 15°, Roll : 67°

    • B. 

      Pitch + 30° (+ 25° at low speed), - 10°, Roll : 67°

    • C. 

      Pitch + 25° (+ 20° at low speed), - 15°, Roll : 67°

    • D. 

      Pitch ± 30°. Roll 45°

  • 25. 
    What does the sidestick control between neutral and full aft in alpha prot?
    • A. 

      Alpha.

    • B. 

      Altitude.

    • C. 

      Airspeed.

    • D. 

      G.

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