Volume 1 CDC's

100 Questions | Attempts: 640
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Volume Quizzes & Trivia

6F051 Upgrade Training


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    At what level is the Secretary of the Air Force for Financial Management and Comptroller (SAF/FM) responsible for proper performance of financial management functions?

    • A.

      Nonappropriated funds (NAF).

    • B.

      All levels.

    • C.

      MAJCOM.

    • D.

      Base or wing level.

    Correct Answer
    B. All levels.
  • 2. 

    Which Air Staff office serves as technical advisor in carrying out the Air Force’s financial management responsibilities?

    • A.

      SAF/FMB.

    • B.

      SAF/FME.

    • C.

      SAF/FMP.

    • D.

      SAF/AFAFO.

    Correct Answer
    A. SAF/FMB.
  • 3. 

    What kind of program does the Air Force Accounting and Finance Office (AFAFO) provide to ensure effective internal controls?

    • A.

      Fraud, Waste, and Abuse.

    • B.

      Management Control.

    • C.

      Quality Assurance.

    • D.

      Self-inspection.

    Correct Answer
    C. Quality Assurance.
  • 4. 

    The Defense Retiree and Annuitant System services retirees from all branches of service and is located in which Defense Finance and Accounting Service center?

    • A.

      Cleveland.

    • B.

      Columbus.

    • C.

      Indianapolis.

    • D.

      Kansas City.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cleveland.
  • 5. 

    How many divisions are in the Center of Expertise (CoE)?

    • A.

      One.

    • B.

      Two.

    • C.

      Three.

    • D.

      Four.

    Correct Answer
    C. Three.
  • 6. 

    What information is obtained from the Occupational Survey Report process?

    • A.

      Strawman task listing.

    • B.

      Functional area job tasks.

    • C.

      Specialty training standards.

    • D.

      Completed Career Field Education and Training Plan.

    Correct Answer
    B. Functional area job tasks.
  • 7. 

    Who creates the “strawman” task listing and submits it to the Utilization and Training Workshop membership?

    • A.

      SME (subject matter expert).

    • B.

      MAJCOM training managers.

    • C.

      MAJCOM functional managers.

    • D.

      Occupational measurement squadron.

    Correct Answer
    A. SME (subject matter expert).
  • 8. 

    Which section of part 2 in the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) contains the course objective list and training standards?

    • A.

      Section A.

    • B.

      Section B.

    • C.

      Section C.

    • D.

      Section D.

    Correct Answer
    B. Section B.
  • 9. 

    The success of an on-the-job training program is the direct result of a dedicated, focused effort by

    • A.

      Trainers and trainees.

    • B.

      Trainers and supervisors.

    • C.

      Management and trainees.

    • D.

      Management and the comptroller.

    Correct Answer
    A. Trainers and trainees.
  • 10. 

    Since it is mandatory for you to use on-the-job (OJT) training guides for core task certification, when should you download them from SAF/FM Web site?

    • A.

      The day you are ready to use them.

    • B.

      Two months in advance of need date.

    • C.

      One month in advance of need date.

    • D.

      One week in advance of need date.

    Correct Answer
    A. The day you are ready to use them.
  • 11. 

    Nominations for annual comptroller awards are submitted to

    • A.

      MAJCOM by 31 December.

    • B.

      SAF/FMPC by 31 December.

    • C.

      SAF/FMPWE by the first workday in January.

    • D.

      MAJCOM by the first workday in January.

    Correct Answer
    C. SAF/FMPWE by the first workday in January.
  • 12. 

    Which of the four categories for comptroller awards carries the most weight during the selection process?

    • A.

      Outstanding Achievement.

    • B.

      Leadership/Management Traits.

    • C.

      Job Knowledge and Duty Performance.

    • D.

      Professional/Community Accomplishments.

    Correct Answer
    A. Outstanding Achievement.
  • 13. 

    What format is used for the Aces High award?

    • A.

      Formatted per MAJCOM instructions.

    • B.

      Career background and accomplishments.

    • C.

      Outstanding achievement for previous year.

    • D.

      Leadership, job knowledge, community accomplishments.

    Correct Answer
    B. Career background and accomplishments.
  • 14. 

    What is actually more important than the underlying quality of the product or service you provide when providing customer service?

    • A.

      Accurate results.

    • B.

      Timely feedback.

    • C.

      Customer perception.

    • D.

      Customer satisfaction.

    Correct Answer
    C. Customer perception.
  • 15. 

    What is the first thing you should do when approached at the customer service desk?

    • A.

      Listen carefully to the customer.

    • B.

      Greet the person and introduce yourself.

    • C.

      Restate the problem back to the customer.

    • D.

      Ask if there is anything else you can assist them with?

    Correct Answer
    B. Greet the person and introduce yourself.
  • 16. 

    Which organization writes, revises, and negotiates with the contracted credit card company on all issues for the government travel charge card program?

    • A.

      DRU.

    • B.

      GSA.

    • C.

      SAF/FM.

    • D.

      MAJCOM.

    Correct Answer
    B. GSA.
  • 17. 

    Who is responsible for administering the travel charge card program at the base and unit levels?

    • A.

      Supervisor.

    • B.

      Wing commander.

    • C.

      Squadron commander.

    • D.

      Agency program coordinator.

    Correct Answer
    D. Agency program coordinator.
  • 18. 

    After how many days is a delinquent travel charge card cancelled?

    • A.

      45.

    • B.

      60.

    • C.

      90.

    • D.

      120.

    Correct Answer
    C. 90.
  • 19. 

    Who appoints the quality assurance manager to have the primary responsibility for administering the Quality Assurance Program?

    • A.

      FM.

    • B.

      FSO.

    • C.

      FMA officer.

    • D.

      Wing commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. FM.
  • 20. 

    Who is the comptroller focal point for MAJCOM/FM inspections?

    • A.

      IG.

    • B.

      FM.

    • C.

      FSO.

    • D.

      QAM.

    Correct Answer
    D. QAM.
  • 21. 

    At a minimum, how often should performance indicators be reviewed to determine their continued adequacy in relating mission performance to management?

    • A.

      Monthly.

    • B.

      Quarterly.

    • C.

      Annually.

    • D.

      Biannually.

    Correct Answer
    C. Annually.
  • 22. 

    Which process tool provides the comptroller with an independent review of a functional area?

    • A.

      Compliance Review.

    • B.

      Performance Indicator.

    • C.

      Quality Assurance Review.

    • D.

      Discrepancy Tracking Form.

    Correct Answer
    C. Quality Assurance Review.
  • 23. 

    Which Defense Joint Military Pay System transaction is processed to establish a Pay Record Accessibility indicator for members not appearing on the Off-line Reporting Control roster?

    • A.

      SC03.

    • B.

      SC04.

    • C.

      SG03.

    • D.

      SG04.

    Correct Answer
    B. SC04.
  • 24. 

    Which net change of a Master Military Pay Account requires a further Pay Record Accessibility audit?

    • A.

      $100 or an increase of 2.5 days of leave.

    • B.

      $50 or an increase of 2.5 days of leave.

    • C.

      $25 or an increase of over 2.5 days of leave.

    • D.

      $50 or an increase of over 2.5 days of leave.

    Correct Answer
    A. $100 or an increase of 2.5 days of leave.
  • 25. 

    A condition that has a significant negative impact on an organization’s management control objectives is known as

    • A.

      A risk.

    • B.

      An audit finding.

    • C.

      A control weakness.

    • D.

      A material weakness.

    Correct Answer
    D. A material weakness.
  • 26. 

    Who determines if a weakness is material enough to warrant reporting it to a higher level?

    • A.

      Auditors.

    • B.

      Subordinates.

    • C.

      Management.

    • D.

      Functional OPR.

    Correct Answer
    C. Management.
  • 27. 

    What is the preferred style for conflict resolution?

    • A.

      Avoiding.

    • B.

      Competing.

    • C.

      Collaborating.

    • D.

      Compromising.

    Correct Answer
    C. Collaborating.
  • 28. 

    Who ensures that two ISSOs are appointed at each field site?

    • A.

      Comptroller.

    • B.

      Chief, Customer Service.

    • C.

      Chief, Customer Support.

    • D.

      Financial services office.

    Correct Answer
    D. Financial services office.
  • 29. 

    How often should an ISSO ensure that USERID validations are completed?

    • A.

      Monthly.

    • B.

      Quarterly.

    • C.

      Semi-annually.

    • D.

      Annually.

    Correct Answer
    C. Semi-annually.
  • 30. 

    Which Defense Joint Military Pay System profile is used to verify electronic funds transfer payments?

    • A.

      JJUMPSR.

    • B.

      JPBBPpFL.

    • C.

      JPBXPFL.

    • D.

      JJINQFL.

    Correct Answer
    C. JPBXPFL.
  • 31. 

    Military pay information will be stored within the Immediate Access Storage in the Defense Joint Military Pay System within the current month and

    • A.

      6 prior months.

    • B.

      11 prior months.

    • C.

      12 prior months.

    • D.

      18 prior months.

    Correct Answer
    B. 11 prior months.
  • 32. 

    How are closed entries identified in Defense Joint Military Pay System?

    • A.

      A “c” follows the FID.

    • B.

      A hyphen follows the FID.

    • C.

      The word “closed” appears.

    • D.

      Closed entries are not in DJMS.

    Correct Answer
    B. A hyphen follows the FID.
  • 33. 

    Which of the following is not a type of inquiry request in Defense Joint Military Pay System?

    • A.

      FID.

    • B.

      Table.

    • C.

      Group.

    • D.

      Individual.

    Correct Answer
    D. Individual.
  • 34. 

    Which section of the leave and earning statement lists the member’s expiration term of service?

    • A.

      Pay data.

    • B.

      Remarks.

    • C.

      ID section.

    • D.

      Current pay information.

    Correct Answer
    C. ID section.
  • 35. 

    Which section of the leave and earnings statement lists total entitlements and total deductions year to date?

    • A.

      Taxes.

    • B.

      Remarks.

    • C.

      Pay Data.

    • D.

      Entitlements.

    Correct Answer
    B. Remarks.
  • 36. 

    Which of the following is NOT characterized as a Case Management System (CMS) case?

    • A.

      Documents.

    • B.

      Processes.

    • C.

      Problems.

    • D.

      Queries.

    Correct Answer
    A. Documents.
  • 37. 

    What would you do in CMS, after you enter a member’s social security number in the Enter/Upgrade/Request status on a case” section?

    • A.

      Click on the Add New Case button.

    • B.

      Read the comment sections section.

    • C.

      Select the applicable subject from the pull-down menu.

    • D.

      Determine if the individual is being paid through the normal DJMS system.

    Correct Answer
    C. Select the applicable subject from the pull-down menu.
  • 38. 

    How many days of pay would a member receive for the pay period if he or she entered active duty on 19 February in a non-leap year?

    • A.

      9.

    • B.

      10.

    • C.

      11.

    • D.

      12.

    Correct Answer
    D. 12.
  • 39. 

    A member who only serves on active duty from 15 March through 5 April receives how many days of basic pay?

    • A.

      20.

    • B.

      21.

    • C.

      22.

    • D.

      23.

    Correct Answer
    C. 22.
  • 40. 

    What is the minimum pay grade that can receive special duty assignment pay?

    • A.

      E–6.

    • B.

      E–5.

    • C.

      E–4.

    • D.

      E–3.

    Correct Answer
    D. E–3.
  • 41. 

    Who determines if a member is eligible to receive hazardous duty incentive pay (HDIP)?

    • A.

      FSO.

    • B.

      FMO.

    • C.

      MAJCOM.

    • D.

      Unit commander.

    Correct Answer
    B. FMO.
  • 42. 

     Hazardous duty incentive pay for flying is payable to

    • A.

      Officer crew members only.

    • B.

      Personnel on air weapons controller duty.

    • C.

      Officer and enlisted crew members and noncrew members.

    • D.

      Personnel designated by the secretary of the Air Force.

    Correct Answer
    C. Officer and enlisted crew members and noncrew members.
  • 43. 

    The rate payable to officers for aviation career incentive pay is based on

    • A.

      Years of aviation service only.

    • B.

      Grade and years of aviation service.

    • C.

      Type of aircraft and years of officer service.

    • D.

      Years of aviation service and officer service.

    Correct Answer
    A. Years of aviation service only.
  • 44. 

    How long must a member be subject to hostile actions before he or she is entitled to hostile fire pay?

    • A.

      One full month.

    • B.

      Any part of a month.

    • C.

      Eight consecutive days.

    • D.

      Two consecutive months.

    Correct Answer
    B. Any part of a month.
  • 45. 

    If all other qualifications are met, which pay must the member be entitled to in order to receive hostile fire pay?

    • A.

      Basic pay.

    • B.

      Foreign duty pay.

    • C.

      Special duty assignment pay.

    • D.

      Hazardous duty incentive pay.

    Correct Answer
    A. Basic pay.
  • 46. 

    What is the first step when processing hostile fire/imminent danger pay?

    • A.

      Log into DMO.

    • B.

      Verify country code.

    • C.

      Verify source document.

    • D.

      Ask member for social security number.

    Correct Answer
    C. Verify source document.
  • 47. 

    What code stops hardship duty pay?

    • A.

      1401.

    • B.

      1402.

    • C.

      2301.

    • D.

      2302.

    Correct Answer
    B. 1402.
  • 48. 

    To receive board certified pay, a physician must also be eligible for

    • A.

      PF.

    • B.

      VSP.

    • C.

      ISP.

    • D.

      ASP.

    Correct Answer
    B. VSP.
  • 49. 

    Which of the following receive incentive special pay when they agree to serve on active duty for at least one year from the effective date of the contract?

    • A.

      Dentists in grades 0–5 and above.

    • B.

      Dentists in grades 0–5 and below.

    • C.

      Physicians in grades 0–6 and above.

    • D.

      Physicians in grades 0–6 and below.

    Correct Answer
    D. Physicians in grades 0–6 and below.
  • 50. 

    The amount of basic allowance for housing paid is based upon

    • A.

      Rank and longevity.

    • B.

      Rank and number of dependents.

    • C.

      Rank, dependency status, and duty location.

    • D.

      Pay date, dependency status, and duty location.

    Correct Answer
    C. Rank, dependency status, and duty location.

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 14, 2012
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 13, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Jselig83
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