Volume 1 CDC's

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 565

SettingsSettingsSettings
Please wait...
Volume Quizzes & Trivia

6F051 Upgrade Training


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    At what level is the Secretary of the Air Force for Financial Management and Comptroller (SAF/FM) responsible for proper performance of financial management functions?
    • A. 

      Nonappropriated funds (NAF).

    • B. 

      All levels.

    • C. 

      MAJCOM.

    • D. 

      Base or wing level.

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      SAF/FMB.

    • B. 

      SAF/FME.

    • C. 

      SAF/FMP.

    • D. 

      SAF/AFAFO.

  • 3. 
    • A. 

      Fraud, Waste, and Abuse.

    • B. 

      Management Control.

    • C. 

      Quality Assurance.

    • D. 

      Self-inspection.

  • 4. 
    The Defense Retiree and Annuitant System services retirees from all branches of service and is located in which Defense Finance and Accounting Service center?
    • A. 

      Cleveland.

    • B. 

      Columbus.

    • C. 

      Indianapolis.

    • D. 

      Kansas City.

  • 5. 
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 6. 
    • A. 

      Strawman task listing.

    • B. 

      Functional area job tasks.

    • C. 

      Specialty training standards.

    • D. 

      Completed Career Field Education and Training Plan.

  • 7. 
    Who creates the “strawman” task listing and submits it to the Utilization and Training Workshop membership?
    • A. 

      SME (subject matter expert).

    • B. 

      MAJCOM training managers.

    • C. 

      MAJCOM functional managers.

    • D. 

      Occupational measurement squadron.

  • 8. 
    • A. 

      Section A.

    • B. 

      Section B.

    • C. 

      Section C.

    • D. 

      Section D.

  • 9. 
    The success of an on-the-job training program is the direct result of a dedicated, focused effort by
    • A. 

      Trainers and trainees.

    • B. 

      Trainers and supervisors.

    • C. 

      Management and trainees.

    • D. 

      Management and the comptroller.

  • 10. 
    Since it is mandatory for you to use on-the-job (OJT) training guides for core task certification, when should you download them from SAF/FM Web site?
    • A. 

      The day you are ready to use them.

    • B. 

      Two months in advance of need date.

    • C. 

      One month in advance of need date.

    • D. 

      One week in advance of need date.

  • 11. 
    Nominations for annual comptroller awards are submitted to
    • A. 

      MAJCOM by 31 December.

    • B. 

      SAF/FMPC by 31 December.

    • C. 

      SAF/FMPWE by the first workday in January.

    • D. 

      MAJCOM by the first workday in January.

  • 12. 
    • A. 

      Outstanding Achievement.

    • B. 

      Leadership/Management Traits.

    • C. 

      Job Knowledge and Duty Performance.

    • D. 

      Professional/Community Accomplishments.

  • 13. 
    • A. 

      Formatted per MAJCOM instructions.

    • B. 

      Career background and accomplishments.

    • C. 

      Outstanding achievement for previous year.

    • D. 

      Leadership, job knowledge, community accomplishments.

  • 14. 
    What is actually more important than the underlying quality of the product or service you provide when providing customer service?
    • A. 

      Accurate results.

    • B. 

      Timely feedback.

    • C. 

      Customer perception.

    • D. 

      Customer satisfaction.

  • 15. 
    • A. 

      Listen carefully to the customer.

    • B. 

      Greet the person and introduce yourself.

    • C. 

      Restate the problem back to the customer.

    • D. 

      Ask if there is anything else you can assist them with?

  • 16. 
    • A. 

      DRU.

    • B. 

      GSA.

    • C. 

      SAF/FM.

    • D. 

      MAJCOM.

  • 17. 
    • A. 

      Supervisor.

    • B. 

      Wing commander.

    • C. 

      Squadron commander.

    • D. 

      Agency program coordinator.

  • 18. 
    After how many days is a delinquent travel charge card cancelled?
    • A. 

      45.

    • B. 

      60.

    • C. 

      90.

    • D. 

      120.

  • 19. 
    Who appoints the quality assurance manager to have the primary responsibility for administering the Quality Assurance Program?
    • A. 

      FM.

    • B. 

      FSO.

    • C. 

      FMA officer.

    • D. 

      Wing commander.

  • 20. 
    • A. 

      IG.

    • B. 

      FM.

    • C. 

      FSO.

    • D. 

      QAM.

  • 21. 
    At a minimum, how often should performance indicators be reviewed to determine their continued adequacy in relating mission performance to management?
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Annually.

    • D. 

      Biannually.

  • 22. 
    • A. 

      Compliance Review.

    • B. 

      Performance Indicator.

    • C. 

      Quality Assurance Review.

    • D. 

      Discrepancy Tracking Form.

  • 23. 
    • A. 

      SC03.

    • B. 

      SC04.

    • C. 

      SG03.

    • D. 

      SG04.

  • 24. 
    • A. 

      $100 or an increase of 2.5 days of leave.

    • B. 

      $50 or an increase of 2.5 days of leave.

    • C. 

      $25 or an increase of over 2.5 days of leave.

    • D. 

      $50 or an increase of over 2.5 days of leave.

  • 25. 
    A condition that has a significant negative impact on an organization’s management control objectives is known as
    • A. 

      A risk.

    • B. 

      An audit finding.

    • C. 

      A control weakness.

    • D. 

      A material weakness.

  • 26. 
    • A. 

      Auditors.

    • B. 

      Subordinates.

    • C. 

      Management.

    • D. 

      Functional OPR.

  • 27. 
    What is the preferred style for conflict resolution?
    • A. 

      Avoiding.

    • B. 

      Competing.

    • C. 

      Collaborating.

    • D. 

      Compromising.

  • 28. 
    • A. 

      Comptroller.

    • B. 

      Chief, Customer Service.

    • C. 

      Chief, Customer Support.

    • D. 

      Financial services office.

  • 29. 
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Semi-annually.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 30. 
    • A. 

      JJUMPSR.

    • B. 

      JPBBPpFL.

    • C. 

      JPBXPFL.

    • D. 

      JJINQFL.

  • 31. 
    Military pay information will be stored within the Immediate Access Storage in the Defense Joint Military Pay System within the current month and
    • A. 

      6 prior months.

    • B. 

      11 prior months.

    • C. 

      12 prior months.

    • D. 

      18 prior months.

  • 32. 
    • A. 

      A “c” follows the FID.

    • B. 

      A hyphen follows the FID.

    • C. 

      The word “closed” appears.

    • D. 

      Closed entries are not in DJMS.

  • 33. 
    • A. 

      FID.

    • B. 

      Table.

    • C. 

      Group.

    • D. 

      Individual.

  • 34. 
    Which section of the leave and earning statement lists the member’s expiration term of service?
    • A. 

      Pay data.

    • B. 

      Remarks.

    • C. 

      ID section.

    • D. 

      Current pay information.

  • 35. 
    • A. 

      Taxes.

    • B. 

      Remarks.

    • C. 

      Pay Data.

    • D. 

      Entitlements.

  • 36. 
    • A. 

      Documents.

    • B. 

      Processes.

    • C. 

      Problems.

    • D. 

      Queries.

  • 37. 
    • A. 

      Click on the Add New Case button.

    • B. 

      Read the comment sections section.

    • C. 

      Select the applicable subject from the pull-down menu.

    • D. 

      Determine if the individual is being paid through the normal DJMS system.

  • 38. 
    How many days of pay would a member receive for the pay period if he or she entered active duty on 19 February in a non-leap year?
    • A. 

      9.

    • B. 

      10.

    • C. 

      11.

    • D. 

      12.

  • 39. 
    A member who only serves on active duty from 15 March through 5 April receives how many days of basic pay?
    • A. 

      20.

    • B. 

      21.

    • C. 

      22.

    • D. 

      23.

  • 40. 
    • A. 

      E–6.

    • B. 

      E–5.

    • C. 

      E–4.

    • D. 

      E–3.

  • 41. 
    Who determines if a member is eligible to receive hazardous duty incentive pay (HDIP)?
    • A. 

      FSO.

    • B. 

      FMO.

    • C. 

      MAJCOM.

    • D. 

      Unit commander.

  • 42. 
     Hazardous duty incentive pay for flying is payable to
    • A. 

      Officer crew members only.

    • B. 

      Personnel on air weapons controller duty.

    • C. 

      Officer and enlisted crew members and noncrew members.

    • D. 

      Personnel designated by the secretary of the Air Force.

  • 43. 
    The rate payable to officers for aviation career incentive pay is based on
    • A. 

      Years of aviation service only.

    • B. 

      Grade and years of aviation service.

    • C. 

      Type of aircraft and years of officer service.

    • D. 

      Years of aviation service and officer service.

  • 44. 
    • A. 

      One full month.

    • B. 

      Any part of a month.

    • C. 

      Eight consecutive days.

    • D. 

      Two consecutive months.

  • 45. 
    If all other qualifications are met, which pay must the member be entitled to in order to receive hostile fire pay?
    • A. 

      Basic pay.

    • B. 

      Foreign duty pay.

    • C. 

      Special duty assignment pay.

    • D. 

      Hazardous duty incentive pay.

  • 46. 
    • A. 

      Log into DMO.

    • B. 

      Verify country code.

    • C. 

      Verify source document.

    • D. 

      Ask member for social security number.

  • 47. 
    • A. 

      1401.

    • B. 

      1402.

    • C. 

      2301.

    • D. 

      2302.

  • 48. 
    To receive board certified pay, a physician must also be eligible for
    • A. 

      PF.

    • B. 

      VSP.

    • C. 

      ISP.

    • D. 

      ASP.

  • 49. 
    • A. 

      Dentists in grades 0–5 and above.

    • B. 

      Dentists in grades 0–5 and below.

    • C. 

      Physicians in grades 0–6 and above.

    • D. 

      Physicians in grades 0–6 and below.

  • 50. 
    The amount of basic allowance for housing paid is based upon
    • A. 

      Rank and longevity.

    • B. 

      Rank and number of dependents.

    • C. 

      Rank, dependency status, and duty location.

    • D. 

      Pay date, dependency status, and duty location.

  • 51. 
    • A. 

      DD Form 2AF.

    • B. 

      Final adoption decree.

    • C. 

      Court decree for child support.

    • D. 

      In-fact determination.

  • 52. 
    The financial services office can process dependency determinations for
    • A. 

      Air Force sponsors only.

    • B. 

      Retired Air Force and Army sponsors.

    • C. 

      Active duty Air Force and Army sponsors.

    • D. 

      Sponsors from all branches of service regardless of status.

  • 53. 
    • A. 

      Spouse.

    • B. 

      Parent.

    • C. 

      Stepchild under 21 years of age.

    • D. 

      Child born out of wedlock whose paternity is established.

  • 54. 
    Personnel in what grade are authorized separate rations based solely on their responsibilities?
    • A. 

      E–5.

    • B. 

      E–6.

    • C. 

      E–7.

    • D. 

      Officers.

  • 55. 
    Any maneuver, war game, field exercise, or similar operation in excess of 180 days where members subsist in a government mess is called
    • A. 

      Field duty.

    • B. 

      Temporary field assignment.

    • C. 

      Operational field assignment.

    • D. 

      Permanent change of assignment.

  • 56. 
    Basic allowance for subsistence is not authorized when a member is
    • A. 

      In a PCS move.

    • B. 

      In field duty status.

    • C. 

      On permissive TDY.

    • D. 

      In an excess travel status.

  • 57. 
    How many options are there for accomplishing retroactive collections?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 58. 
    Additional uniform and equipment allowance is paid to officers at the rate of
    • A. 

      $100 annually.

    • B. 

      $150 upon entry on active duty.

    • C. 

      $200 upon each entry on active duty.

    • D. 

      $250 upon each entry on active duty.

  • 59. 
    A member enters the Air Force in January 1997. When will the first payment of standard clothing maintenance allowance be paid?
    • A. 

      EOM January 2000.

    • B. 

      EOM December 2000.

    • C. 

      EOM January 2001.

    • D. 

      EOM December 2001.

  • 60. 
    Duties such as Security Forces and the Air Force Band are authorized which clothing allowance?
    • A. 

      Civilian.

    • B. 

      Standard.

    • C. 

      Supplemental.

    • D. 

      Special continuing.

  • 61. 
    When determining eligibility for family separation allowance-II (FSA-II), you should
    • A. 

      Never include the 31st day of the month.

    • B. 

      Always include the 31st day of the month.

    • C. 

      Include the departure date, but not the return date.

    • D. 

      Include the return date, but not the departure date.

  • 62. 
    The maximum number of days you can reimburse a member for temporary lodging expense for a CONUS to CONUS PCS and a CONUS to overseas PCS, respectively is
    • A. 

      4 and 8.

    • B. 

      5 and 8.

    • C. 

      10 and 8.

    • D. 

      10 and 5.

  • 63. 
    The maximum number of days authorized for temporary lodging allowance is
    • A. 

      TLA-I is 60 days; TLA-D is 20 days.

    • B. 

      TLA-I is 20 days; TLA-D is 60 days.

    • C. 

      TLA-I is 10 days; TLA-D is 60 days.

    • D. 

      TLA-I is 60 days; TLA-D is 10 days.

  • 64. 
    Who can access the temporary lodging allowance system?
    • A. 

      FSO.

    • B. 

      HMO.

    • C. 

      FMO.

    • D. 

      DFAS-DE.

  • 65. 
    When cooking facilities are available, computation for TLA is based on what percentage of MI&E rate
    • A. 

      25.

    • B. 

      46.

    • C. 

      50.

    • D. 

      66.

  • 66. 
    • A. 

      90.

    • B. 

      75.

    • C. 

      65.

    • D. 

      50.

  • 67. 
    • A. 

      60 percent.

    • B. 

      57 percent.

    • C. 

      47 percent.

    • D. 

      43 percent.

  • 68. 
    • A. 

      Starts it the day of arrival at the OCONUS locations.

    • B. 

      Starts it the day after arrival date in the OCONUS location.

    • C. 

      Stops it one day prior to the departure date/OCONUS to CONUS.

    • D. 

      Stops it one day prior to the departure date/CONUS to OCONUS.

  • 69. 
    The Savings Deposit Program offers members a way to invest money into an interest bearing account while serving in
    • A. 

      The CONUS.

    • B. 

      An OCONUS country.

    • C. 

      A conflict or contingency operation.

    • D. 

      Special operations OCONUS.

  • 70. 
    To be eligible to deposit funds into the Savings Deposit Program, a person must be in the area of responsibility for at least
    • A. 

      90 days.

    • B. 

      More than 90 days.

    • C. 

      4 consecutive months.

    • D. 

      6 consecutive months.

  • 71. 
    Interest accrual from the Savings Deposit Program continues up to
    • A. 

      The day after the departure date.

    • B. 

      120 days after departing the area.

    • C. 

      The date the account is closed by DFAS-CL.

    • D. 

      90 days after departing the area of responsibility.

  • 72. 
    What is the maximum number of discretionary allotments authorized?
    • A. 

      Four.

    • B. 

      Five.

    • C. 

      Six.

    • D. 

      Seven.

  • 73. 
    The maximum number of discretionary allotments allowed to any financial institution is
    • A. 

      Six.

    • B. 

      Five

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      One.

  • 74. 
    Which allotment class is for voluntarily liquidating delinquent federal income taxes?
    • A. 

      B.

    • B. 

      S.

    • C. 

      T.

    • D. 

      X.

  • 75. 
    • A. 

      Bond.

    • B. 

      Savings allotment.

    • C. 

      Dependent allotment.

    • D. 

      Combined Federal Campaign.

  • 76. 
    The Thrift Savings Plan is operated solely for the benefit of the participants and their beneficiaries by the
    • A. 

      DFAS-DE.

    • B. 

      National Thrift Board.

    • C. 

      Financial services office.

    • D. 

      Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board.

  • 77. 
    In the financial services office, you will not
    • A. 

      Answer TSP related questions.

    • B. 

      Process enrollment forms in DJMS

    • C. 

      Forward original TSP–1 to HQ AFPC for filing.

    • D. 

      Forward TSP contributions to National Finance Center.

  • 78. 
    • A. 

      BAQ, BAS, and FDP.

    • B. 

      FDP, BP, and BAQ.

    • C. 

      All items of pay.

    • D. 

      All allowances.

  • 79. 
    • A. 

      6.5

    • B. 

      6.4.

    • C. 

      6.3.

    • D. 

      6.2.

  • 80. 
    • A. 

      Same as FITW.

    • B. 

      Same as FICA.

    • C. 

      One-time payments only.

    • D. 

      Varies from state to state.

  • 81. 
    When are residents of Arizona exempt from State Income Tax Withholding?
    • A. 

      While serving inside the state.

    • B. 

      While serving outside the state.

    • C. 

      While assigned overseas.

    • D. 

      Never, Arizona residents must pay SITW.

  • 82. 
    When a member changes his or her state of legal residence to Idaho, process an FK04 to
    • A. 

      Change additional withholding.

    • B. 

      Start state income tax withholding.

    • C. 

      Stop state income tax withholding.

    • D. 

      Change the number of exemptions.

  • 83. 
    You should brief anyone claiming Puerto Rico for state income tax purposes of their liability since
    • A. 

      Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS) does not withhold State Income Tax Withholding (SITW) and the member is liable.

    • B. 

      Most members will receive refunds for all amounts withheld.

    • C. 

      the laws of Puerto Rico are subject to federal interpretation.

    • D. 

      Tax withholding is inadequate due to changing tax laws.

  • 84. 
    An officer serving in a qualified hazardous duty area without entitlement to hostile fire pay is entitled to a tax exclusion equal to
    • A. 

      There is no exclusion.

    • B. 

      $500 per month while in the area.

    • C. 

      All items of pay and any taxable allowances.

    • D. 

      The pay of the highest ranking enlisted person.

  • 85. 
    If a member has been overpaid basic allowance for housing and is separating within 30 days, you need to
    • A. 

      Call the member into your office for an immediate cash collection.

    • B. 

      Contact MPF to extend the member’s active duty to ensure no debt at separation.

    • C. 

      Notify the member that the two-thirds rule does not apply and collect as much as possible.

    • D. 

      Verify the reenlistment transaction has not been received and begin collection action immediately.

  • 86. 
    How do members reimburse the government for cost charge transportation requests?
    • A. 

      Cash collection.

    • B. 

      As a casual payment.

    • C. 

      Prorated as any other debt.

    • D. 

      There is no reimbursement; they are purchased before travel.

  • 87. 
    After contacting a member concerning a tax levy, within how many workdays must the member report to the financial services office to be briefed on resolving the debt?
    • A. 

      10.

    • B. 

      7.

    • C. 

      5.

    • D. 

      3.

  • 88. 
    When a member has a tax levy deducted, what happens to future tax returns?
    • A. 

      Tax returns are not affected.

    • B. 

      The deduction for the tax levy is reduced.

    • C. 

      Only a portion of the return is applied to the levy.

    • D. 

      If there is a refund due, the IRS applies it to the levy.

  • 89. 
    The member or the member’s commander can apply for this type of indebtedness relief.
    • A. 

      Appeal.

    • B. 

      Waiver.

    • C. 

      Remission.

    • D. 

      Rebuttal of household goods.

  • 90. 
    If a member believes that charges (debt) incurred from excess cost for the shipment of household goods is incorrect, the member must submit a letter of rebuttal to the local travel management office within
    • A. 

      30 days after notification.

    • B. 

      30 days after adjudication.

    • C. 

      45 days after notification.

    • D. 

      45 days after adjudication.

  • 91. 
    If a financial services officer denies a member’s request for a repayment period of 12 months, who can approve the repayment request?
    • A. 

      DFAS-DE.

    • B. 

      Base comptroller.

    • C. 

      Wing commander.

    • D. 

      Member’s unit commander.

  • 92. 
    If allotments must be stopped to satisfy the two-thirds rule for deductions, how do you determine the allotments to stop?
    • A. 

      Nondiscretionary allotments only.

    • B. 

      The member chooses the allotments to stop.

    • C. 

      Stop all voluntary allotments without consent.

    • D. 

      Stop as few as possible to satisfy the amount.

  • 93. 
    Dishonored commissary checks are
    • A. 

      Prorated if approved.

    • B. 

      Not subject to the two-thirds rule.

    • C. 

      Processed directly by HQ AAFES.

    • D. 

      Subject to the same repayment options as other debts.

  • 94. 
    The Open or Suspended Questionable Indebtedness Listing is produced in
    • A. 

      March and September.

    • B. 

      April and October.

    • C. 

      March only.

    • D. 

      April only.

  • 95. 
    Within how many days must the Open or Suspended Questionable Indebtedness Listing be completed?
    • A. 

      90.

    • B. 

      60.

    • C. 

      45.

    • D. 

      30.

  • 96. 
    When are allowances forfeited?
    • A. 

      Allowances are never forfeited.

    • B. 

      When the appellate review process is complete.

    • C. 

      Anytime nonjudicial punishment is administered

    • D. 

      When a general court-martial includes them in the sentence.

  • 97. 
    Fines are deducted after
    • A. 

      Involuntary allotments.

    • B. 

      All other debts are deducted.

    • C. 

      Dependent support allotments.

    • D. 

      All allowances are processed on the MMPA.

  • 98. 
    Direct deposit of funds is mandatory for all civilian employees except
    • A. 

      Summer hires.

    • B. 

      GS–12 and above.

    • C. 

      GS–05 and below.

    • D. 

      Wage grade employees.

  • 99. 
    • A. 

      Contact the Federal Reserve Bank (FRB) that services that particular institution for assistance.

    • B. 

      Request reimbursement of check charges from the treasury through the local FRB.

    • C. 

      Reimburse the employee and provide letters of explanation to any holder of dishonored checks.

    • D. 

      Request reimbursement of check charges from the FRB with assistance from the employee’s union.

  • 100. 
    • A. 

      Total net pay for each pay period.

    • B. 

      Total gross pay for each pay period.

    • C. 

      Net pay and any entitlement not subject to federal tax.

    • D. 

      Gross pay and any entitlement not subject to federal