Volume 1 Aircraft Maintenance General Subjects

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Aircraft Maintenance Quizzes & Trivia

How much do you know about aircraft maintenance – a practice which concerns itself with the overhaul, repair, inspection and modification of an aircraft or a component of an aircraft? Find out today in this aircraft-themed quiz!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      8

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      2

    Correct Answer
    D. 2
    Explanation
    The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is 2. This means that only 2% of accidents are caused by natural factors such as weather conditions, natural disasters, or animal encounters. The majority of accidents are likely caused by human error, mechanical failures, or other non-natural factors.

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  • 2. 

    The safety training phase described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new airmen is

    • A.

      General

    • B.

      Initial

    • C.

      Supervisor's

    • D.

      Sustained job safety

    Correct Answer
    B. Initial
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Initial." The safety training phase that is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new airmen is the initial phase. This phase is crucial as it sets the foundation for airmen to understand and prioritize safety in their job roles. It helps them develop a strong safety mindset from the beginning, which is essential for their overall safety and the safety of others in the workplace.

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  • 3. 

    The responsibility for initiating a lost tool report belongs to the

    • A.

      Person issued the tool

    • B.

      CTK support section

    • C.

      Expediter or production supervisor

    • D.

      Flight chief or flight commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Person issued the tool
    Explanation
    The responsibility for initiating a lost tool report belongs to the person who was issued the tool. This is because they are the one who had possession of the tool and would be aware if it was lost or misplaced. They would need to report the loss so that appropriate actions can be taken to locate or replace the tool.

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  • 4. 

    The lowest person authorized to clear a red X when a lost tool cannot be located is the

    • A.

      Crew Chief

    • B.

      Wing commander

    • C.

      Maintenance superintendent

    • D.

      Aircraft engineer

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance superintendent
    Explanation
    The maintenance superintendent is the lowest person authorized to clear a red X when a lost tool cannot be located. This individual is responsible for overseeing and managing maintenance operations, ensuring that all necessary tools and equipment are accounted for. They have the authority to clear a red X, indicating that the aircraft is safe for flight even if a tool is missing. The crew chief may have limited authority and the wing commander and aircraft engineer are typically higher-ranking positions with different responsibilities.

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  • 5. 

    The optimum temperature to cool sealants mixed in an automatic mixing maching is

    • A.

      75 F

    • B.

      70 F

    • C.

      85 F

    • D.

      80 F

    Correct Answer
    B. 70 F
    Explanation
    The optimum temperature to cool sealants mixed in an automatic mixing machine is 70 F. This temperature is considered ideal because it allows the sealants to cool down sufficiently without being too cold, which could affect their performance. Cooling the sealants at this temperature ensures that they solidify and set properly, providing effective sealing properties when applied.

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  • 6. 

    Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed

    • A.

      120 days

    • B.

      60 days

    • C.

      30 days

    • D.

      90 days

    Correct Answer
    D. 90 days
    Explanation
    Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed 90 days. This time limit is crucial to ensure the safe handling and disposal of hazardous materials. Storing these materials for longer periods increases the risk of accidents, leaks, and environmental contamination. By limiting the storage duration to 90 days, the chances of mishandling or improper disposal are minimized, promoting safety and environmental protection.

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  • 7. 

    Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by

    • A.

      DOD

    • B.

      MAJCOM

    • C.

      US Air Force

    • D.

      The EPA

    Correct Answer
    D. The EPA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the EPA. The EPA, or the Environmental Protection Agency, is responsible for publishing the Hazardous Waste Management System rules. These rules help regulate the proper handling, storage, and disposal of hazardous waste to protect human health and the environment. The EPA sets guidelines and standards for hazardous waste management to ensure compliance and prevent pollution.

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  • 8. 

    Radiation hazards are affected by

    • A.

      Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather

    • B.

      Input power, weather, and number of personnel in the area

    • C.

      Time of exposure, amount of training, and number of operating units

    • D.

      Strength of emission, time of day, and input power

    Correct Answer
    A. Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather
    Explanation
    Radiation hazards are affected by the strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather. The strength of emission refers to the intensity or power of the radiation being emitted. A higher strength of emission can result in greater exposure and potential harm. The time of exposure refers to the duration of time that individuals are exposed to the radiation. Longer exposure times can increase the risk of health effects. Weather conditions can also play a role in radiation hazards as certain weather patterns can affect the dispersion and concentration of radiation in the environment.

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  • 9. 

    Normally, the safe distance behind an operating jet engine exhaust is

    • A.

      175 feet

    • B.

      125 feet

    • C.

      200 feet

    • D.

      150 feet

    Correct Answer
    C. 200 feet
    Explanation
    The safe distance behind an operating jet engine exhaust is 200 feet because jet engines produce extremely hot and powerful exhaust gases. These gases can reach extremely high temperatures and velocities, posing a significant risk to anyone standing too close. To ensure safety, it is recommended to maintain a distance of 200 feet to avoid potential burns or injuries from the jet engine exhaust.

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  • 10. 

    The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear at a

    • A.

      65 degree angle at either side

    • B.

      15 degree angle at either side

    • C.

      95 degree angle at either side

    • D.

      45 degree angle at either side

    Correct Answer
    D. 45 degree angle at either side
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 45 degree angle at either side. The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear at a 45 degree angle at either side. This is because the noise generated by a jet engine is primarily caused by the exhaust gases and the turbulence created by the high-speed exhaust flow. As the exhaust gases move away from the engine, they spread out and disperse, resulting in a decrease in noise intensity. Therefore, the noise is most intense at a 45 degree angle at either side, where the exhaust gases are still concentrated but have started to disperse.

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  • 11. 

    The symptom that is not a sign of noise fatigue is

    • A.

      Dizziness

    • B.

      A feeling of emptiness

    • C.

      Impairment of mental concentration

    • D.

      Emotional irratibilty

    Correct Answer
    B. A feeling of emptiness
    Explanation
    The symptom of "a feeling of emptiness" is not typically associated with noise fatigue. Noise fatigue is characterized by symptoms such as dizziness, impairment of mental concentration, and emotional irritability. However, a feeling of emptiness is more commonly associated with other conditions such as depression or a sense of purposelessness, rather than being directly linked to noise fatigue.

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  • 12. 

    A fire extinguisher's pressure is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the

    • A.

      Red markings

    • B.

      Green markings

    • C.

      Orange markings

    • D.

      Black markings

    Correct Answer
    B. Green markings
    Explanation
    When the gauge needle of a fire extinguisher is within the green markings, it indicates that the pressure is within a safe operating range. This means that the fire extinguisher is adequately pressurized and ready to be used effectively in case of a fire emergency. The green markings serve as a visual reference to ensure that the pressure is neither too high nor too low, providing assurance that the fire extinguisher is in optimal condition for use.

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  • 13. 

    Aircraft oxygen servicing or draining is prohibited within how many feet of hangars or structures?

    • A.

      50

    • B.

      25

    • C.

      75

    • D.

      100

    Correct Answer
    A. 50
    Explanation
    Aircraft oxygen servicing or draining is prohibited within 50 feet of hangars or structures. This restriction is in place to ensure safety and prevent potential hazards such as fire or explosion. Oxygen is highly flammable and can react violently with certain materials, so it is important to maintain a safe distance from any structures that could potentially ignite or be damaged by such a reaction. By enforcing this prohibition, the risk of accidents and damage is minimized.

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  • 14. 

    Individuals not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should be outside a

    • A.

      25 foot radius

    • B.

      15 foot radius

    • C.

      20 foot radius

    • D.

      50 foot radius

    Correct Answer
    C. 20 foot radius
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a 20 foot radius. This means that individuals who are not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should maintain a distance of 20 feet from the area where the servicing is taking place. This distance is necessary to ensure safety and prevent any potential accidents or injuries that could occur during the servicing process.

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  • 15. 

    Under ideal conditions, an aircraft is said to be operationally ready when

    • A.

      The required inspection and servicing are complete

    • B.

      It is released by production scheduling

    • C.

      All minor discrepancies are completely resolved

    • D.

      The aircraft forms are checked

    Correct Answer
    A. The required inspection and servicing are complete
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the required inspection and servicing are complete. This means that all necessary checks and maintenance tasks have been carried out on the aircraft, ensuring that it is in proper working condition and ready for operation. The other options mentioned, such as being released by production scheduling, resolving minor discrepancies, and checking aircraft forms, may also be important steps in the operational readiness process, but they are not the primary factor that determines if an aircraft is operationally ready.

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  • 16. 

    As fireguard, position yourself even with the

    • A.

      Tail of the aircraft and at a 30 degree angle inboard of the engine being started

    • B.

      Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started

    • C.

      Tail of the aircraft and at a 30 degree angle outboard of the engine being started

    • D.

      Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle inboard of the engine being started

    Correct Answer
    B. Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started." This position allows the fireguard to have a clear view of the engine being started while also maintaining a safe distance from the engine exhaust. Being at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine helps to minimize the risk of being exposed to any potential fire hazards or debris that may be expelled during the start-up process.

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  • 17. 

    The condition most likely to cause aircraft damage is

    • A.

      Predicted heavy storms

    • B.

      Hurricanes

    • C.

      Sudden local storms

    • D.

      Tornadoes

    Correct Answer
    C. Sudden local storms
    Explanation
    Sudden local storms are the most likely condition to cause aircraft damage. These storms can quickly develop and bring strong winds, heavy rain, and turbulence, which can pose a significant risk to aircraft. Unlike predicted heavy storms, hurricanes, or tornadoes, sudden local storms are more unpredictable and can catch pilots off guard, making them more dangerous in terms of potential aircraft damage.

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  • 18. 

    If no maximum wind velocity is specified in the aircraft technical order, the maximum wind velocity, as prescribed by Air Force Ocuupational Safety and Health Standard 91-100, Aircraft Flight Line - Ground Operations and Activites, allowed during aircraft jacking is

    • A.

      45 mph

    • B.

      35 mph

    • C.

      25 mph

    • D.

      15 mph

    Correct Answer
    D. 15 mph
    Explanation
    The maximum wind velocity allowed during aircraft jacking is 15 mph according to Air Force Occupational Safety and Health Standard 91-100.

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  • 19. 

    During desert operations, lubrication should be done

    • A.

      Only when necessary, and then sparingly

    • B.

      After every aircraft recovery or prior to every flight

    • C.

      As often as possible and as abundantly as possible

    • D.

      At least weekly and as liberally as possible

    Correct Answer
    A. Only when necessary, and then sparingly
    Explanation
    During desert operations, lubrication should be done only when necessary and then sparingly. This is because the desert environment is extremely dry and dusty, which can cause excessive wear and tear on aircraft components. Lubrication is necessary to reduce friction and prevent damage, but excessive lubrication can attract and trap dust particles, leading to further damage. Therefore, lubrication should be done only when necessary to ensure proper functioning of the aircraft, and it should be done sparingly to avoid excessive buildup of dust and debris.

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  • 20. 

    The F-2 lifting bag is designed to lift

    • A.

      22,000 lbs to a max height of 8'

    • B.

      24,000 lbs to a max height of 6'

    • C.

      22,000 lbs to a max height of 6'

    • D.

      24,000 lbs to a max height of 8'

    Correct Answer
    B. 24,000 lbs to a max height of 6'
    Explanation
    The F-2 lifting bag is designed to lift 24,000 lbs to a max height of 6'. This means that the bag is capable of lifting a maximum weight of 24,000 lbs and can raise it to a maximum height of 6 feet. The other options either have different weight limits or different maximum heights, which do not match the specifications of the F-2 lifting bag.

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  • 21. 

    A major drawback of using pneumatic lifting bags is

    • A.

      Time consumption

    • B.

      Training requirements

    • C.

      Manning requirements

    • D.

      Instability

    Correct Answer
    D. Instability
    Explanation
    The major drawback of using pneumatic lifting bags is instability. This means that the bags may not provide a stable lifting platform, which can be problematic when trying to lift heavy objects. Instability can lead to accidents or damage to the objects being lifted.

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  • 22. 

    The method of aircraft hoisting confined to emergencies when no other method is available is

    • A.

      Lifting bags

    • B.

      Crane hoisting

    • C.

      Cribbing

    • D.

      Aircraft jacking

    Correct Answer
    B. Crane hoisting
    Explanation
    Crane hoisting is a method of aircraft hoisting that is only used in emergencies when no other method is available. This implies that crane hoisting is not the preferred or commonly used method for lifting aircraft, but rather a last resort option. In emergency situations where other methods like lifting bags, cribbing, or aircraft jacking are not feasible or accessible, a crane can be used to lift the aircraft.

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  • 23. 

    The type of technical order library that does not need to maintain its currency is

    • A.

      Training

    • B.

      Reference

    • C.

      Operational

    • D.

      Aircraft

    Correct Answer
    B. Reference
    Explanation
    A reference technical order library does not need to maintain its currency because it is a collection of documents that provide information and guidance on specific topics. Unlike training, operational, or aircraft technical order libraries, the reference library is not used for day-to-day operations or maintenance. Instead, it serves as a resource for individuals to consult when they need information or clarification on a particular subject. Therefore, the reference library does not require regular updates or revisions to stay current.

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  • 24. 

    In the second grouping of a TO number, the alpha character in parentheses means the

    • A.

      Modified aircraft mission

    • B.

      Basic aircraft mission

    • C.

      Aircraft production series

    • D.

      Type of TO, instruction, or procedure

    Correct Answer
    A. Modified aircraft mission
    Explanation
    The alpha character in parentheses in the second grouping of a TO number indicates the modified aircraft mission. This means that the TO number is specifically related to instructions, procedures, or guidelines for a modified aircraft mission. It is used to differentiate this particular TO from others that may be related to basic aircraft missions, aircraft production series, or other types of TOs.

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  • 25. 

    The total number of Air Force TO catalogs is

    • A.

      Four

    • B.

      Three

    • C.

      Two

    • D.

      One

    Correct Answer
    D. One
    Explanation
    The question asks for the total number of Air Force TO catalogs. The answer "one" implies that there is only one Air Force TO catalog.

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  • 26. 

    The directional flow of the schematics in the troubleshooting manual is from the

    • A.

      Resulting action to the system initiating the action

    • B.

      Top of the diagram to the bottom of the diagram

    • C.

      Left side of the diagram to the right side of the diagram

    • D.

      Right side of the diagram to the left side of the diagram

    Correct Answer
    C. Left side of the diagram to the right side of the diagram
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Left side of the diagram to the right side of the diagram." In schematics, the flow of information or actions is typically represented from left to right. This means that the system initiating the action is usually located on the left side of the diagram, and the resulting action or outcome is shown on the right side. This directional flow helps users to follow the logical sequence of events and understand how different components or systems interact with each other.

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  • 27. 

    Inspection workcards are known as

    • A.

      Abbreviated TO

    • B.

      Scheduled inspection and maintenance requirements manuals

    • C.

      Technical manuals

    • D.

      Methods and procedure technical orders

    Correct Answer
    A. Abbreviated TO
    Explanation
    Inspection workcards are commonly referred to as abbreviated TO, which stands for abbreviated technical orders. These workcards serve as condensed versions of the scheduled inspection and maintenance requirements manuals, as well as the methods and procedure technical orders. They provide technicians with a concise and easily accessible guide for conducting inspections and maintenance tasks.

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  • 28. 

    Due to their potential for harm, commanders are required to ensure immediate action TCTO are distrbuted to all affected personnel within

    • A.

      72 hours after receipt

    • B.

      24 hours after receipt

    • C.

      2 hours after receipt

    • D.

      4 hours after receipt

    Correct Answer
    D. 4 hours after receipt
    Explanation
    Commanders are required to distribute immediate action TCTOs (Time Compliance Technical Orders) to all affected personnel within 4 hours after receipt. This is because immediate action TCTOs involve urgent and critical instructions that need to be implemented quickly to prevent potential harm or damage. Waiting for longer periods could lead to delays in addressing the issue, increasing the risk and impact of any potential harm. Therefore, a prompt distribution of these TCTOs within 4 hours is necessary to ensure the safety and well-being of the affected personnel.

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  • 29. 

    The type of TO improvement issued for all TCTO deficiencies is

    • A.

      Emergency

    • B.

      Urgent

    • C.

      Routine

    • D.

      Record

    Correct Answer
    B. Urgent
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "urgent." This type of TO improvement is issued for all TCTO deficiencies because they require immediate attention and action. Urgent TO improvements are meant to address critical issues that could potentially affect safety or operational effectiveness. These deficiencies need to be resolved promptly to ensure the continued safe and efficient operation of the system or equipment.

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  • 30. 

    The nondirective publication that may cite forms and provide guidance on completing them but can't enfoce what's on the form is

    • A.

      Directory

    • B.

      Instruction

    • C.

      Pamplet

    • D.

      Supplement

    Correct Answer
    C. Pamplet
    Explanation
    A pamphlet is a non-directive publication that can provide guidance on completing forms, but it does not have the authority to enforce what is written on the form. It is a informative resource that can cite forms and offer instructions, but it does not have the power to enforce compliance or dictate what should be included on the form.

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  • 31. 

    In order of increasing capability, the Air Force's varying degrees of maintenance capabilities are

    • A.

      Organizational, intermediate, or depot

    • B.

      Departmental, organizational, or depot

    • C.

      Organizational, field, or intermediate

    • D.

      Departmental, intermediate, or field

    Correct Answer
    A. Organizational, intermediate, or depot
    Explanation
    The correct answer is organizational, intermediate, or depot. This is because the Air Force's maintenance capabilities are categorized into three levels: organizational, intermediate, and depot. The organizational level refers to maintenance performed by the unit itself, such as basic repairs and inspections. The intermediate level involves more complex repairs and overhauls that are typically performed at specialized maintenance facilities. The depot level is the highest level of maintenance capability, involving extensive repairs, modifications, and overhauls performed at dedicated depot facilities.

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  • 32. 

    The type of maintenance that ensures equipment is ready and available at the time of need is

    • A.

      Corrective

    • B.

      Unscheduled

    • C.

      Preventive

    • D.

      Protective

    Correct Answer
    C. Preventive
    Explanation
    Preventive maintenance refers to the proactive measures taken to prevent equipment failure and ensure its readiness and availability when needed. It involves regular inspections, cleaning, lubrication, and replacement of worn-out parts to keep the equipment in optimal working condition. By identifying and addressing potential issues beforehand, preventive maintenance reduces the risk of unexpected breakdowns and minimizes downtime. This type of maintenance is crucial for maximizing equipment lifespan, optimizing performance, and avoiding costly repairs or replacements.

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  • 33. 

    The most common excuse for taking short cuts is

    • A.

      People shortage

    • B.

      Parts availability

    • C.

      Money shortage

    • D.

      Time restraints

    Correct Answer
    D. Time restraints
    Explanation
    The most common excuse for taking shortcuts is time restraints. When people are under pressure to complete a task within a limited timeframe, they may feel compelled to take shortcuts in order to save time. This could involve skipping certain steps, neglecting quality control, or rushing through the process. Time restraints can create a sense of urgency and make it difficult for individuals to prioritize thoroughness and attention to detail.

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  • 34. 

    The prime contributors to dropped objects are

    • A.

      Chaff/flare discharges

    • B.

      Hung weapons

    • C.

      Jettisoned fuel tanks

    • D.

      Latches and fasteners

    Correct Answer
    D. Latches and fasteners
    Explanation
    Latches and fasteners are the correct answer because they are the main causes of dropped objects. When latches and fasteners are not properly secured or maintained, they can become loose or fail, causing objects to fall or detach. This is especially common in industries such as construction, manufacturing, and aviation, where equipment and tools are frequently used and moved. Proper inspection and maintenance of latches and fasteners are crucial to prevent accidents and ensure workplace safety.

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  • 35. 

    In most units, the responsibility for investigatin dropped objects rests with

    • A.

      The operations commander

    • B.

      The flight safety officer

    • C.

      Quality assurance

    • D.

      The FOD prevention office

    Correct Answer
    C. Quality assurance
    Explanation
    Quality assurance is responsible for investigating dropped objects in most units. Quality assurance is a department or function within an organization that is responsible for ensuring that products or services meet specified requirements and standards. This includes investigating incidents or issues such as dropped objects to identify the root cause, implement corrective actions, and prevent future occurrences. Quality assurance personnel are trained in identifying potential hazards, conducting investigations, and implementing safety measures to prevent accidents and maintain a safe working environment.

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  • 36. 

    The first step in developing an effective FOD prevention program is to

    • A.

      Follow MAJCOM guidelines

    • B.

      Identify all possible sources of FOD

    • C.

      Educate all personnel

    • D.

      Ensure the tool control program is functioning properly

    Correct Answer
    B. Identify all possible sources of FOD
    Explanation
    To develop an effective FOD (Foreign Object Debris) prevention program, the first step is to identify all possible sources of FOD. This is crucial as it helps in understanding where the debris may come from and how it can be prevented. By identifying all potential sources, such as loose hardware, maintenance equipment, or even wildlife, the program can be tailored to address these specific areas. This step lays the foundation for creating preventive measures and implementing necessary actions to minimize FOD risks effectively.

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  • 37. 

    The responsibility for FOD prevention belongs to

    • A.

      Everyone

    • B.

      The logistics and operations group commanders

    • C.

      The immediate supervisor

    • D.

      The wing commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Everyone
    Explanation
    The responsibility for FOD (Foreign Object Debris) prevention belongs to everyone. This means that it is the duty of all individuals within an organization or facility to be aware of and take actions to prevent FOD. FOD can cause damage to equipment, pose safety risks, and lead to costly repairs. By emphasizing that everyone is responsible for FOD prevention, it promotes a culture of awareness and accountability throughout the organization. This ensures that all individuals are actively involved in identifying and mitigating potential FOD hazards.

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  • 38. 

    The method that cannot be used to search for lost tools is

    • A.

      X-ray

    • B.

      Magnetic particle

    • C.

      Visual search

    • D.

      Depaneling

    Correct Answer
    B. Magnetic particle
    Explanation
    Magnetic particle inspection is a non-destructive testing method used to detect surface and near-surface defects in materials. It involves applying a magnetic field to the object and then applying iron particles to the surface. If there are any defects present, the particles will be attracted to them and create a visible indication. However, this method is not suitable for searching for lost tools as it requires direct contact with the surface being inspected, which would not be possible if the tool is lost or hidden.

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  • 39. 

    The information that the configuration management subsystem ensures is loaded properly into the maintenance information system database is

    • A.

      Recurring and repeat replacement items

    • B.

      Damaged and spare items

    • C.

      Expired and outdated items

    • D.

      Select serially controlled and time change items

    Correct Answer
    D. Select serially controlled and time change items
    Explanation
    The configuration management subsystem ensures that select serially controlled and time change items are loaded properly into the maintenance information system database. This means that the system tracks and manages items that are serialized or have specific time-based maintenance requirements. It ensures that these items are properly recorded and updated in the database, allowing for accurate tracking and scheduling of maintenance activities.

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  • 40. 

    The IMDS is the production-oriented, automated maintenance management system at the

    • A.

      Base level

    • B.

      MAJCOM level

    • C.

      Unit level

    • D.

      Wing level

    Correct Answer
    A. Base level
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "base level" because the IMDS (Integrated Maintenance Data System) is a production-oriented, automated maintenance management system that is primarily used at the base level. It is designed to support the maintenance operations and processes carried out at the base level, including tracking and managing maintenance activities, inventory control, and generating reports. The system is typically utilized by the maintenance personnel and staff working directly at the base to ensure efficient and effective maintenance operations.

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  • 41. 

    The IMDS subsystem that provides information about jobs performed by maintenance activities is the

    • A.

      Reliability and maintainability system

    • B.

      Maintenance Information System

    • C.

      Job Data Documentation

    • D.

      Maintenance data collection

    Correct Answer
    C. Job Data Documentation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Job Data Documentation. Job Data Documentation is the subsystem in the IMDS (Integrated Maintenance Data System) that provides information about jobs performed by maintenance activities. This documentation includes details such as the type of maintenance performed, the date and time of the maintenance, the personnel involved, and any relevant notes or comments. It serves as a record of the maintenance activities and can be used for tracking and analyzing maintenance performance. The other options, reliability and maintainability system, Maintenance Information System, and maintenance data collection, do not specifically refer to the subsystem that provides information about jobs performed by maintenance activities.

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  • 42. 

    The GAS is normally sent out

    • A.

      Within 10 calendar days after graduation

    • B.

      90 days after graduation

    • C.

      Six months after graduation

    • D.

      Within 10 work days after graduation

    Correct Answer
    B. 90 days after graduation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 90 days after graduation. This means that the GAS (presumably referring to some kind of document or form) is typically sent out to individuals within 90 days after they have graduated. This timeframe allows for a reasonable amount of time for processing and administrative tasks to be completed before sending out the document.

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  • 43. 

    A list of training courses available for an AFSC can be found in the

    • A.

      CFETP, Part II

    • B.

      Command JQS

    • C.

      CFETP, Part I

    • D.

      AFJQS

    Correct Answer
    A. CFETP, Part II
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CFETP, Part II. The CFETP (Career Field Education and Training Plan) is a document that outlines the training requirements and career progression for a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC). Part II of the CFETP specifically lists the training courses available for that AFSC. Therefore, if someone is looking for a list of training courses available for an AFSC, they would find it in CFETP, Part II.

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  • 44. 

    Tasks that a person is expected to perform in a duty position or WC but are not included in the CFETP, Part II or AFJQS are listed

    • A.

      In the AFJQS

    • B.

      In the CFETP, Part I

    • C.

      In the AF IMT 623A, On-th-job Training Record Continuation Sheet

    • D.

      On an AF form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS

    Correct Answer
    D. On an AF form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS
    Explanation
    The tasks that a person is expected to perform in a duty position or WC but are not included in the CFETP, Part II or AFJQS are listed on an AF form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS. This form serves as a continuation of the Job Qualification Standard (JQS) and includes any additional tasks that are specific to the duty position or work center. It ensures that all necessary tasks are documented and provides a comprehensive overview of the job requirements beyond what is listed in the CFETP or AFJQS.

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  • 45. 

    The first step taken when reviewing an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 244 is to

    • A.

      Match the ID number on the form with the ID number on the unit

    • B.

      Check the operational status of the unit

    • C.

      Check the inspection status of the unit

    • D.

      Ensure all TCTOs have been done

    Correct Answer
    A. Match the ID number on the form with the ID number on the unit
    Explanation
    The first step taken when reviewing an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 244 is to match the ID number on the form with the ID number on the unit. This ensures that the correct form is being reviewed for the specific unit, as each unit will have its own unique ID number. By matching the ID numbers, any discrepancies or errors can be identified and corrected before proceeding with the review process.

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  • 46. 

    The two maintenance stands on which C-1 maintenance stand can be installed as an extension are the

    • A.

      B-1 and B-4

    • B.

      B-1 and B-2

    • C.

      B-4 and B-5

    • D.

      B-2 and B-4

    Correct Answer
    B. B-1 and B-2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B-1 and B-2. This means that the C-1 maintenance stand can be installed as an extension on both the B-1 and B-2 maintenance stands.

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  • 47. 

    The maintenance stand that has an adjustable height of 13'- 20' is the

    • A.

      B-5

    • B.

      B-2

    • C.

      B-4

    • D.

      B-1

    Correct Answer
    B. B-2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B-2 because it is the only option that falls within the given height range of 13'-20'. The other options do not have an adjustable height or do not fall within the specified range.

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  • 48. 

    The maintenance stand that is a scissor-type is the

    • A.

      B-2

    • B.

      C-1

    • C.

      B-1

    • D.

      B-4

    Correct Answer
    D. B-4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B-4 because a scissor-type maintenance stand is typically used for working on aircraft. The scissor-type stand is designed to provide stability and height adjustment, making it easier for mechanics to access different areas of the aircraft during maintenance and repair tasks.

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  • 49. 

    The lifting of an aircraft jack is called a

    • A.

      Hand pump

    • B.

      Plunger

    • C.

      Ram

    • D.

      Release valve

    Correct Answer
    C. Ram
    Explanation
    The lifting of an aircraft jack is called a "ram" because a ram is a hydraulic device that converts hydraulic pressure into mechanical force, allowing for the lifting or pushing of heavy objects. In the context of an aircraft jack, a ram is used to provide the necessary force to raise the aircraft off the ground for maintenance or other purposes.

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  • 50. 

    The low and high pressure capabilites, in psig, of the NSU-L75 nitrogen servicing unit are

    • A.

      05-350; 350-3,600

    • B.

      05-350; 350-3,500

    • C.

      0-300; 300-3,500

    • D.

      0-300; 300-3,600

    Correct Answer
    A. 05-350; 350-3,600
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 05-350; 350-3,600. This means that the low pressure capability of the NSU-L75 nitrogen servicing unit is 5 to 350 psig, and the high pressure capability is 350 to 3,600 psig.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 28, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Mike872208
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