2A654 Volume 3 CDC

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Rdjvelasquez

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 498

Questions: 110 | Attempts: 498 | Updated: Mar 20, 2023

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2a654 volume 3 cdc

Questions and Answers

1.

What type of fuselage construction uses a fabric or thin metal covering, and may be found on small, lightweight aircraft?
- A.
  
  Truss
- B.
  
  Cantilever
- C.
  
  Monocoque
- D.
  
  Semimonoque
Correct Answer
A. Truss

Explanation
Truss construction is a type of fuselage construction that uses a fabric or thin metal covering and is commonly found on small, lightweight aircraft. In truss construction, the load-bearing structure consists of a series of interconnected triangular frames, which provide strength and support to the aircraft. This type of construction is lightweight, cost-effective, and relatively easy to repair, making it suitable for smaller aircraft where weight and simplicity are important factors.

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2.

In what type of aircraft fuselage construction does weight become a problem?
- A.
  
  Truss
- B.
  
  Cantilever
- C.
  
  Monocoque
- D.
  
  Semimonocoque
Correct Answer
C. Monocoque

Explanation
In monocoque aircraft fuselage construction, weight becomes a problem. Monocoque construction involves the use of a single shell or skin to bear the majority of the structural load, which means that the skin must be strong enough to support the entire weight of the aircraft. This can result in a heavier overall structure compared to other types of construction, such as truss or cantilever, where the load is distributed among multiple structural elements. Therefore, weight becomes a concern in monocoque construction.

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3.

Which assembly includes the aft end of the fuselage of conventionally designed aircraft?
- A.
  
  Fairing
- B.
  
  Ailerons
- C.
  
  Empennage
- D.
  
  Trailing edge
Correct Answer
C. Empennage

Explanation
The empennage is the assembly that includes the aft end of the fuselage of conventionally designed aircraft. It typically consists of the horizontal stabilizer, vertical stabilizer, and control surfaces such as the rudder and elevator. The empennage plays a crucial role in providing stability and control to the aircraft during flight. The other options, fairing, ailerons, and trailing edge, do not specifically refer to the aft end of the fuselage.

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4.

Which flight control surface controls the directional movement about the axis of an aircraft?
- A.
  
  Critical
- B.
  
  Primary
- C.
  
  Auxiliary
- D.
  
  Secondary
Correct Answer
B. Primary

Explanation
The primary flight control surface that controls the directional movement about the axis of an aircraft is the rudder. The rudder is located on the vertical stabilizer of the aircraft and is used to control the yawing motion of the aircraft. By deflecting the rudder, the pilot can make the aircraft turn left or right. The other options, critical, auxiliary, and secondary, are not specifically related to the control of directional movement.

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5.

Which of the following are examples of secondary flight controls?
- A.
  
  Ailerons
- B.
  
  Rudders
- C.
  
  Trim tabs
- D.
  
  Elevators
Correct Answer
C. Trim tabs

Explanation
Secondary flight controls are devices that are used to assist in controlling the aircraft's movement and stability. Ailerons, rudders, and elevators are primary flight controls, as they directly control the aircraft's roll, yaw, and pitch respectively. Trim tabs, on the other hand, are secondary flight controls. They are small surfaces attached to the primary flight controls and are used to fine-tune the aircraft's trim or balance during flight. By adjusting the trim tabs, pilots can reduce control forces and maintain the desired attitude of the aircraft, improving overall control and stability.

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6.

Which situation describes an ideal installation of a bolt on an aircraft component?
- A.
  
  The grip length of the bolt is slightly shorter than the thickness of the materials being joined.
- B.
  
  The grip length of the bolt is the same as the thickness of the materials being joined.
- C.
  
  The grip length of the bolt is is slightly longer than the thickness of the materials being joined.
- D.
  
  The grip length of the bolt is much longer than the thickness of the materials being joined.
Correct Answer
A. The grip length of the bolt is slightly shorter than the thickness of the materials being joined.

Explanation
In an ideal installation of a bolt on an aircraft component, the grip length of the bolt should be slightly shorter than the thickness of the materials being joined. This ensures that the bolt provides a secure and tight connection between the materials without protruding too far, which could cause interference or damage. Having the grip length slightly shorter also allows for proper tensioning of the bolt, ensuring that it can withstand the forces and vibrations experienced during aircraft operation.

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7.

The size of a bolt is generally stated in terms of its
- A.
  
  weight, diameter, and head size
- B.
  
  Head size, grip length, and weight
- C.
  
  Length, weight, and threads per inch
- D.
  
  Diameter, length, and threads per inch
Correct Answer
D. Diameter, length, and threads per inch

Explanation
The size of a bolt is generally stated in terms of its diameter, length, and threads per inch. These three factors are important in determining the compatibility and functionality of the bolt. The diameter refers to the thickness of the bolt, the length determines how far the bolt extends, and the threads per inch indicate the number of threads present on the bolt. Together, these measurements provide a comprehensive understanding of the bolt's size and specifications.

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8.

For which of the following aircraft applications should a self-locking nut not be installed?
- A.
  
  Attachment of a pulley
- B.
  
  Attachment of an antifriction bearing
- C.
  
  Mounting an accessory near the engine
- D.
  
  Connecting sections of a movable joint
Correct Answer
D. Connecting sections of a movable joint

Explanation
A self-locking nut should not be installed for connecting sections of a movable joint because these joints require the ability to move and adjust. A self-locking nut would prevent this movement and could cause damage or failure of the joint.

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9.

What item of hardware should be installed with scrrews and bolts whenever the self-locking or castellated nut is not used?
- A.
  
  Cotter pins
- B.
  
  Safety wire
- C.
  
  Lockwashers
- D.
  
  Plain washers
Correct Answer
C. Lockwashers

Explanation
Lockwashers should be installed with screws and bolts whenever the self-locking or castellated nut is not used. Lockwashers are designed to prevent loosening or rotation of the fastener by creating tension between the nut and the bolted surface. They provide a secure and reliable connection, reducing the risk of loosening due to vibrations or other external forces. By using lockwashers, the fasteners can maintain their tightness and keep the hardware in place, ensuring the stability and safety of the installation.

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10.

Which type of rivet is used on the top skin surface of an aircraft?
- A.
  
  Flathead
- B.
  
  Countersunk
- C.
  
  Roundhead
- D.
  
  Brazier head
Correct Answer
B. Countersunk

Explanation
Countersunk rivets are used on the top skin surface of an aircraft. These rivets have a conical shape with a flat head that sits flush with the surface, creating a smooth and aerodynamic surface. The countersunk shape allows the rivet to be recessed into the material, reducing drag and preventing interference with airflow over the aircraft's surface. This type of rivet is commonly used in aviation to ensure optimal aerodynamic performance and structural integrity.

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11.

What type of fastener is installed in an integral tank where access to only one side of the work is possible?
- A.
  
  Brazier head rivet
- B.
  
  Nut and bolt
- C.
  
  Jo-bolt
- D.
  
  Hi-lok
Correct Answer
C. Jo-bolt

Explanation
Jo-bolts are fasteners that are specifically designed to be installed in situations where access to only one side of the work is possible. They consist of a threaded rod with a specially designed head that can be installed from one side and secured with a nut on the other side. This makes them ideal for use in integral tanks where it may be difficult or impossible to access both sides of the work.

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12.

What type of tubing is used in high-pressure systems such as the landing gear system?
- A.
  
  Copper
- B.
  
  Stainless steel
- C.
  
  Titanium alloy
- D.
  
  Aluminum alloy
Correct Answer
B. Stainless steel

Explanation
Stainless steel is used in high-pressure systems such as the landing gear system because it has excellent corrosion resistance and can withstand high pressure and temperature conditions. It is also strong and durable, making it suitable for the demanding requirements of high-pressure systems. Copper, titanium alloy, and aluminum alloy may not have the same level of corrosion resistance and strength as stainless steel, making them less suitable for high-pressure systems.

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13.

For what reason is aluminum alloy tubing the most widely used?
- A.
  
  It can withstand high pressures
- B.
  
  It is easily flared with hand tools
- C.
  
  It is generally heavier than other types
- D.
  
  It resists dents better than other types
Correct Answer
B. It is easily flared with hand tools

Explanation
Aluminum alloy tubing is the most widely used because it can be easily flared with hand tools. This means that it can be easily shaped and manipulated to fit various applications and requirements.

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14.

What condition will likely result from the contact of tubing with a surrounding surface?
- A.
  
  Galling
- B.
  
  Chafing
- C.
  
  Scratching
- D.
  
  Delamination
Correct Answer
B. Chafing

Explanation
When tubing comes into contact with a surrounding surface, it can cause friction and rubbing, leading to the condition known as chafing. Chafing occurs when the tubing is continuously rubbed against another surface, causing wear and tear, and potentially leading to damage or failure of the tubing. Galling refers to the process of material transfer and adhesion between two surfaces, which is not directly related to tubing coming into contact with a surface. Scratching and delamination are also not likely conditions resulting from tubing contact with a surrounding surface.

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15.

Which type of tubing defect would be considered acceptable?
- A.
  
  A dent measuring 35% of the tubing diameter
- B.
  
  Several nicks measuring 15% of the tubing wall thickness
- C.
  
  A scratch that measures 25% of the tubing wall thickness
- D.
  
  A dent on the heel of a bend with less than the recommended radius
Correct Answer
B. Several nicks measuring 15% of the tubing wall thickness
16.

Which type of hose is a medium pressure Teflon hose with an operating temperature of 65 to 450* F?
- A.
  
  MIL-H-8794
- B.
  
  MIL-H-27267
- C.
  
  MIL-H-7938
- D.
  
  MIL-H-7061
Correct Answer
B. MIL-H-27267

Explanation
The correct answer is MIL-H-27267. This type of hose is a medium pressure Teflon hose with an operating temperature range of 65 to 450* F.

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17.

Which example is not acceptable regarding the installation of a flexible hose assembly?
- A.
  
  Install the hose so that it will not be subjected to twisting
- B.
  
  Use oil to aid the installation of a self-sealing hose
- C.
  
  Ensure clamps are not so tight that they restrict flow
- D.
  
  Support the hose at least every 24 inches of length
Correct Answer
B. Use oil to aid the installation of a self-sealing hose

Explanation
Using oil to aid the installation of a self-sealing hose is not an acceptable example. The use of oil can potentially compromise the integrity of the hose and cause it to leak or fail. It is important to follow the manufacturer's guidelines and recommendations for the installation of flexible hose assemblies to ensure proper functioning and safety.

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18.

What type of manifold coupling consists of a body, nut, split washers, o-rings, and a retainer?
- A.
  
  V-band
- B.
  
  Pneumatic
- C.
  
  Wiggins
- D.
  
  Quick-disconnect
Correct Answer
C. Wiggins

Explanation
A Wiggins manifold coupling consists of a body, nut, split washers, o-rings, and a retainer. This type of coupling is commonly used in various industries, including automotive and aerospace, to provide a secure and leak-free connection between two components. The split washers and o-rings help to create a tight seal, while the retainer ensures that the coupling remains securely fastened. Wiggins couplings are known for their reliability and ease of use, making them a popular choice in many applications.

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19.

What part of a Wiggins coupling provides the sealing action?
- A.
  
  O-ring
- B.
  
  Gasket
- C.
  
  Snap ring
- D.
  
  Split washer
Correct Answer
A. O-ring

Explanation
An O-ring provides the sealing action in a Wiggins coupling. O-rings are commonly used in mechanical applications to create a seal between two parts, preventing leakage of fluids or gases. In the case of a Wiggins coupling, the O-ring is placed between the two coupling halves to create a tight seal, ensuring that no fluid or gas can escape.

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20.

What minimum diameter safety wire should be installed on bolts having a .050-inch drilled hole?
- A.
  
  .032
- B.
  
  .020
- C.
  
  .045
- D.
  
  .028
Correct Answer
A. .032

Explanation
The minimum diameter safety wire that should be installed on bolts with a .050-inch drilled hole is .032. This means that the wire should have a diameter of .032 inches in order to properly secure the bolts.

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21.

Why is the use of cotter pins on aircraft systems favorable?
- A.
  
  They can be reused after removal
- B.
  
  They are stronger than safety wire
- C.
  
  They are less expensive than other pins
- D.
  
  They can be removed and installed quickly
Correct Answer
D. They can be removed and installed quickly

Explanation
Cotter pins are favorable in aircraft systems because they can be easily removed and installed quickly. This is important in aircraft maintenance and repairs as it allows for efficient and timely replacement or adjustment of components. Additionally, quick installation and removal of cotter pins can minimize aircraft downtime and reduce maintenance costs.

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22.

During an integral tank inspection, you discover an area at which the protective coating is scarred and the metal is discolored. Pitting has also occurred to a depth or one mil. What degree of corrosion has taken place?
- A.
  
  Light
- B.
  
  Severe
- C.
  
  Moderate
- D.
  
  Intermediate
Correct Answer
A. Light

Explanation
The given description indicates that there is some damage to the protective coating and the metal is discolored, but the pitting is only one mil deep. This suggests that the corrosion is not very extensive and is considered to be light.

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23.

Moderate corrosion is normally removed from an aircraft surface by
- A.
  
  Light hand scrubbing
- B.
  
  Scrubbing with steel wool
- C.
  
  Light mechanical sanding
- D.
  
  Brushing with a steel wire brush
Correct Answer
C. Light mechanical sanding

Explanation
Moderate corrosion on an aircraft surface is typically removed by light mechanical sanding. This process involves using sandpaper or a similar abrasive material to gently remove the corroded layer, without causing damage to the underlying surface. Light hand scrubbing, scrubbing with steel wool, and brushing with a steel wire brush may be too aggressive and could potentially cause further damage to the aircraft surface. Therefore, light mechanical sanding is the most appropriate method for removing moderate corrosion.

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24.

The extent of corrosion on an aircraft surface depends on which of the following factors?
- A.
  
  The methods used to wash or clean the area
- B.
  
  The type of metal affected by the corrosion
- C.
  
  The ambient temperature at which the aircraft is located
- D.
  
  The length of time electrolytes are in contact with the metals
Correct Answer
D. The length of time electrolytes are in contact with the metals

Explanation
The extent of corrosion on an aircraft surface depends on the length of time electrolytes are in contact with the metals. Electrolytes, such as water or saltwater, can accelerate the corrosion process by providing a medium for the transfer of ions between the metal and the environment. The longer the electrolytes are in contact with the metals, the more time they have to cause corrosion. Therefore, the length of time electrolytes are in contact with the metals is a crucial factor in determining the extent of corrosion on an aircraft surface.

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25.

Which area may be a prime location for fungus growth because of condensational buildup?
- A.
  
  Fuel manifold
- B.
  
  Landing area
- C.
  
  Integral tank
- D.
  
  Exhaust ducting
Correct Answer
C. Integral tank

Explanation
The integral tank may be a prime location for fungus growth because of condensational buildup. Condensation occurs when warm air comes into contact with a cold surface, causing moisture to form. In an integral tank, there may be areas where moisture can accumulate, such as corners or crevices. This moisture, combined with the dark and stagnant environment of the tank, creates a favorable condition for fungus to grow.

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26.

How can you prevent damage to a screw head?
- A.
  
  Replace screws frequently
- B.
  
  Use correct size screwdriver
- C.
  
  Use a chisel on overtorqued screws
- D.
  
  Use oversized screwdriver for a snug fit
Correct Answer
B. Use correct size screwdriver

Explanation
Using the correct size screwdriver is important to prevent damage to a screw head. If a screwdriver is too small or too large for the screw head, it can slip or strip the head, making it difficult to remove or tighten the screw properly. By using the correct size screwdriver, the force can be applied evenly and securely, reducing the risk of damage to the screw head.

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27.

Which punch is used to drive out pins that are too deep for a starting or drift punch?
- A.
  
  Pin
- B.
  
  Prick
- C.
  
  Straight
- D.
  
  Center
Correct Answer
A. Pin

Explanation
A pin punch is used to drive out pins that are too deep for a starting or drift punch. A pin punch has a long, slender design with a pointed tip that allows it to reach into tight spaces and apply force to the pin. It is specifically designed for removing pins and can effectively drive them out without causing damage to the surrounding material.

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28.

Which type of wrench should you use to tighten an internal wrenching nut?
- A.
  
  Socket
- B.
  
  Adjustable jaw
- C.
  
  Allen
- D.
  
  Recessed
Correct Answer
C. Allen

Explanation
An internal wrenching nut typically has a hexagonal shape, which means it requires a wrench with a corresponding hexagonal shape to tighten it properly. An Allen wrench, also known as a hex key or hex wrench, is designed specifically for this purpose. It has a hexagonal-shaped end that fits into the nut's hexagonal recess, allowing for effective tightening. Therefore, an Allen wrench is the appropriate tool to use in this situation.

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29.

What should you use to clean tools that are extremely greasy and grimy?
- A.
  
  JP-4 or gasoline
- B.
  
  MEK
- C.
  
  Approved cleaning solvent
- D.
  
  Aluminum oxide abrasive cloth
Correct Answer
C. Approved cleaning solvent

Explanation
To clean tools that are extremely greasy and grimy, it is recommended to use an approved cleaning solvent. This is because an approved cleaning solvent is specifically designed to effectively remove grease and grime without causing damage to the tools. JP-4 or gasoline may be flammable and pose safety risks, while MEK (methyl ethyl ketone) is a strong solvent that may be too harsh for certain tools. Aluminum oxide abrasive cloth is used for abrasive cleaning and may not be suitable for removing grease and grime.

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30.

Which is a feature of a T-handle type torque qrench?
- A.
  
  Is difficult to use
- B.
  
  Can be adjusted in small increments
- C.
  
  Has a preset torque
- D.
  
  Can possibly over-tighten a fastener
Correct Answer
C. Has a preset torque

Explanation
A T-handle type torque wrench has a preset torque, meaning that it is designed to tighten a fastener to a specific torque value. This feature ensures that the fastener is tightened to the correct level, preventing under or over-tightening. The preset torque allows for precise and consistent tightening, making it a reliable tool for various applications.

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31.

What powered tool is often used to remove access door screws?
- A.
  
  Impact wrench
- B.
  
  Speed handle
- C.
  
  Air hammer
- D.
  
  Electric drill with adapter
Correct Answer
A. Impact wrench

Explanation
An impact wrench is often used to remove access door screws because it provides a high torque output that allows for quick and efficient removal of screws. It is designed to deliver strong rotational force, making it ideal for tasks that require a lot of power. This tool is commonly used in automotive and construction industries where there is a need to remove screws quickly and easily.

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32.

Which tool is used to repair a fuel cell fitting?
- A.
  
  Air chisel
- B.
  
  Bench grinder
- C.
  
  Torque wrench
- D.
  
  Pneumatic buffer
Correct Answer
D. Pneumatic buffer

Explanation
A pneumatic buffer is a tool used to repair a fuel cell fitting. It is a type of power tool that uses compressed air to rotate a buffing wheel or pad. This tool is commonly used in automotive and industrial applications to smooth and polish surfaces. In the context of repairing a fuel cell fitting, a pneumatic buffer can be used to remove any imperfections or corrosion on the fitting, ensuring a proper seal and preventing leaks.

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33.

Which type of attachment should you use on the fuel cell pneumatic buffer to buff bladder cells and flanges?
- A.
  
  Buffing arbor
- B.
  
  Buffing pad
- C.
  
  Buffing band
- D.
  
  Buffing stone
Correct Answer
D. Buffing stone

Explanation
A buffing stone is the appropriate attachment to use on the fuel cell pneumatic buffer for buffing bladder cells and flanges. A buffing stone is a hard abrasive stone that is capable of removing surface imperfections and smoothing out rough areas. It is commonly used in automotive and aerospace industries for polishing and finishing metal surfaces. The other options, such as buffing arbor, buffing pad, and buffing band, are not suitable for buffing bladder cells and flanges.

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34.

The ratio of output pressure to input pressure of a two-part sealant high-pressure injection gun is
- A.
  
  10 to 1
- B.
  
  25 to 1
- C.
  
  50 to 1
- D.
  
  125 to 1
Correct Answer
C. 50 to 1

Explanation
The ratio of output pressure to input pressure of a two-part sealant high-pressure injection gun is 50 to 1. This means that for every unit of input pressure, the gun produces 50 units of output pressure. This high ratio indicates that the gun is capable of generating a significant amount of pressure, making it suitable for applications that require a strong sealant bond.

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35.

The one-part sealant gun is used to inject sealant into
- A.
  
  Prepacks
- B.
  
  Loose rivet holes
- C.
  
  Voids inside the tank
- D.
  
  Channels under the wing skin
Correct Answer
D. Channels under the wing skin

Explanation
The one-part sealant gun is used to inject sealant into channels under the wing skin. This is likely because channels under the wing skin can be difficult to access and seal manually, so a sealant gun is used to inject the sealant directly into these channels. This ensures a proper and thorough seal, preventing any leaks or damage to the wing structure.

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36.

What is the pressure ratio for the high-pressure injection gun?
- A.
  
  50 to 1
- B.
  
  60 to 1
- C.
  
  70 to 1
- D.
  
  80 to 1
Correct Answer
C. 70 to 1

Explanation
The pressure ratio for the high-pressure injection gun is 70 to 1. This means that the pressure of the gun is 70 times higher than the initial pressure. This high pressure allows for efficient and effective injection of substances into the desired target.

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37.

Under what condition would an air hose be more likely to crack when bent too sharply?
- A.
  
  During cold weather
- B.
  
  During hot weather
- C.
  
  Immediately after use
- D.
  
  When the hose has collected dirt
Correct Answer
A. During cold weather

Explanation
During cold weather, the air hose is more likely to crack when bent too sharply because the cold temperatures cause the rubber to become more rigid and less flexible. This lack of flexibility makes the hose more susceptible to cracking and breaking when bent at extreme angles.

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38.

Which material should never be used to make a sealant scraper?
- A.
  
  Phenolic block
- B.
  
  Aluminum
- C.
  
  Hardwood
- D.
  
  Brass
Correct Answer
D. Brass

Explanation
Brass should never be used to make a sealant scraper because it is a relatively soft material compared to other options like phenolic block, aluminum, and hardwood. The purpose of a sealant scraper is to effectively remove sealant or adhesive residue from surfaces, and a soft material like brass would not be able to provide the necessary strength and durability for this task. It could easily wear down or deform, making it ineffective for scraping. Therefore, brass is not a suitable material for a sealant scraper.

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39.

Low-pressure injection seals are applied with a
- A.
  
  Prepack spatula
- B.
  
  Seallant filleting gun
- C.
  
  Low-pressure injection gun
- D.
  
  Hig-pressure injection gun equipped with low-pressure nozzles
Correct Answer
B. Seallant filleting gun

Explanation
A sealant filleting gun is used for low-pressure injection seals. This type of gun is specifically designed for applying sealant in a precise and controlled manner along the edges or fillets of a joint. It allows for accurate placement of the sealant, ensuring a proper seal without any excess or wastage. This method is commonly used in various industries such as construction, automotive, and aerospace, where a reliable and efficient seal is required.

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40.

The size of the applied fillet on the filleting gun is determined by the
- A.
  
  Width of the nozzle
- B.
  
  Length of the nozzle
- C.
  
  Amount of air pressure
- D.
  
  Size and cut of the nozzle
Correct Answer
D. Size and cut of the nozzle

Explanation
The size and cut of the nozzle determine the size of the applied fillet on the filleting gun. The nozzle controls the flow of material, and its size and shape directly affect the amount and shape of the fillet being applied. A larger or differently shaped nozzle will result in a different size or shape of the fillet, while a smaller or differently cut nozzle will produce a smaller or differently cut fillet. Therefore, the size and cut of the nozzle are crucial factors in determining the size of the applied fillet.

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41.

What component is used to locate a leak source by forcing dye solution through the leak exit point?
- A.
  
  Vacuum cup
- B.
  
  Hollow bolt
- C.
  
  Control box
- D.
  
  Double cup assembly
Correct Answer
D. Double cup assembly

Explanation
A double cup assembly is used to locate a leak source by forcing dye solution through the leak exit point. This assembly consists of two cups that create a seal around the leak area, allowing the dye solution to be injected under pressure. The pressure forces the dye solution to flow through the leak exit point, making it easier to identify the source of the leak.

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42.

When you use the water manometer, you should
- A.
  
  Relieve tan pressure by disconnecting the manometer hose
- B.
  
  Ensure that the amnometer safety relief valves are calibrated
- C.
  
  Unplug the negative pressure connection when the fuel tank is given a positive test.
- D.
  
  Ensure the positive pressure connection is plugged when the fuel tank is under negative pressure
Correct Answer
C. Unplug the negative pressure connection when the fuel tank is given a positive test.
43.

The proper reading on an oxygen analyzer for a fuel tank that has been siphon inerted is
- A.
  
  9 percent
- B.
  
  15 percent
- C.
  
  20 percent
- D.
  
  23 percent
Correct Answer
A. 9 percent

Explanation
When a fuel tank is siphon inerted, it means that the oxygen has been removed from the tank to prevent combustion. Therefore, the proper reading on an oxygen analyzer for such a tank would be low or close to zero percent. Among the given options, the closest value to zero percent is 9 percent, making it the correct answer.

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44.

The proper reading on an oxygen analyzer for a fuel tank that has been pressure inerted is
- A.
  
  4 percent
- B.
  
  9 percent
- C.
  
  19.5 percent
- D.
  
  21.5 percent
Correct Answer
A. 4 percent

Explanation
The proper reading on an oxygen analyzer for a fuel tank that has been pressure inerted is 4 percent. This means that the oxygen level inside the fuel tank is at 4 percent, indicating that the tank has been properly inerted to prevent the risk of fire or explosion.

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45.

The display on the T477W bonding meter is turned on by pressing the
- A.
  
  TEST button
- B.
  
  START buttong
- C.
  
  ILLUMINATE button
- D.
  
  LIGHT button
Correct Answer
A. TEST button

Explanation
The display on the T477W bonding meter is turned on by pressing the TEST button.

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46.

All values displayed on the T477W bonging meter are in
- A.
  
  Ohms
- B.
  
  Milliohms
- C.
  
  Volts
- D.
  
  Millivolts
Correct Answer
B. Milliohms

Explanation
The T477W bonging meter displays values in milliohms. This means that the meter measures electrical resistance in units of milliohms, which are equal to one thousandth of an ohm.

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0
47.

What support equipment item has both low- and high-air pressure system?
- A.
  
  MC-1A
- B.
  
  MC-2A
- C.
  
  MC-5
- D.
  
  MC-7
Correct Answer
A. MC-1A

Explanation
The MC-1A support equipment item has both low- and high-air pressure systems.

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48.

Which is a feature of the MC-7 Air compressor?
- A.
  
  Capable of delivering high volumes of air
- B.
  
  Delivers a maximum pressure of 200 psi
- C.
  
  Can be used as a source of breathing air
- D.
  
  Gas engine will run for one houre without refueling
Correct Answer
A. Capable of delivering high volumes of air

Explanation
The MC-7 Air compressor is capable of delivering high volumes of air. This means that it can produce a large amount of compressed air, making it suitable for applications that require a high flow rate. This feature makes the MC-7 Air compressor efficient and effective in tasks such as powering pneumatic tools, inflating tires, or operating machinery that relies on compressed air.

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49.

The temperature range of the HDU-13/M heater is
- A.
  
  0 to 170 F
- B.
  
  20 to 180 F
- C.
  
  30 to 190 F
- D.
  
  40 to 200 F
Correct Answer
D. 40 to 200 F

Explanation
The correct answer is 40 to 200 F. This means that the temperature range of the HDU-13/M heater is from a minimum of 40 degrees Fahrenheit to a maximum of 200 degrees Fahrenheit.

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50.

What equipment item must be used with the MC-1 heater to reduce the temperature of the air coming from the heater?
- A.
  
  A filter
- B.
  
  An ambient air blower
- C.
  
  A plenum chamber
- D.
  
  An exhaust director
Correct Answer
C. A plenum chamber

Explanation
A plenum chamber must be used with the MC-1 heater to reduce the temperature of the air coming from the heater. A plenum chamber is a device that helps distribute and mix the heated air evenly throughout a space. It allows for the air to cool down before being released into the area, ensuring that the temperature is suitable for the intended application.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

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Current Version
Mar 20, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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Apr 29, 2010

Quiz Created by
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2A654 Volume 3 CDC

What type of fuselage construction uses a fabric or thin metal covering, and may be found on small, lightweight aircraft?

In what type of aircraft fuselage construction does weight become a problem?

Which assembly includes the aft end of the fuselage of conventionally designed aircraft?

Which flight control surface controls the directional movement about the axis of an aircraft?

Which of the following are examples of secondary flight controls?

Which situation describes an ideal installation of a bolt on an aircraft component?

The size of a bolt is generally stated in terms of its

For which of the following aircraft applications should a self-locking nut not be installed?

What item of hardware should be installed with scrrews and bolts whenever the self-locking or castellated nut is not used?

Which type of rivet is used on the top skin surface of an aircraft?

What type of fastener is installed in an integral tank where access to only one side of the work is possible?

What type of tubing is used in high-pressure systems such as the landing gear system?

For what reason is aluminum alloy tubing the most widely used?

What condition will likely result from the contact of tubing with a surrounding surface?

Which type of tubing defect would be considered acceptable?

Which type of hose is a medium pressure Teflon hose with an operating temperature of 65 to 450* F?

Which example is not acceptable regarding the installation of a flexible hose assembly?

What type of manifold coupling consists of a body, nut, split washers, o-rings, and a retainer?

What part of a Wiggins coupling provides the sealing action?

What minimum diameter safety wire should be installed on bolts having a .050-inch drilled hole?

Why is the use of cotter pins on aircraft systems favorable?

During an integral tank inspection, you discover an area at which the protective coating is scarred and the metal is discolored. Pitting has also occurred to a depth or one mil. What degree of corrosion has taken place?

Moderate corrosion is normally removed from an aircraft surface by

The extent of corrosion on an aircraft surface depends on which of the following factors?

Which area may be a prime location for fungus growth because of condensational buildup?

How can you prevent damage to a screw head?

Which punch is used to drive out pins that are too deep for a starting or drift punch?

Which type of wrench should you use to tighten an internal wrenching nut?

What should you use to clean tools that are extremely greasy and grimy?

Which is a feature of a T-handle type torque qrench?

What powered tool is often used to remove access door screws?

Which tool is used to repair a fuel cell fitting?

Which type of attachment should you use on the fuel cell pneumatic buffer to buff bladder cells and flanges?

The ratio of output pressure to input pressure of a two-part sealant high-pressure injection gun is

The one-part sealant gun is used to inject sealant into

What is the pressure ratio for the high-pressure injection gun?

Under what condition would an air hose be more likely to crack when bent too sharply?

Which material should never be used to make a sealant scraper?

Low-pressure injection seals are applied with a

The size of the applied fillet on the filleting gun is determined by the

What component is used to locate a leak source by forcing dye solution through the leak exit point?

When you use the water manometer, you should

The proper reading on an oxygen analyzer for a fuel tank that has been siphon inerted is

The proper reading on an oxygen analyzer for a fuel tank that has been pressure inerted is

The display on the T477W bonding meter is turned on by pressing the

All values displayed on the T477W bonging meter are in

What support equipment item has both low- and high-air pressure system?

Which is a feature of the MC-7 Air compressor?

The temperature range of the HDU-13/M heater is

What equipment item must be used with the MC-1 heater to reduce the temperature of the air coming from the heater?