2A654 Volume 3 CDC

110 Questions | Total Attempts: 438

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2A654 Quizzes & Trivia

2a654 volume 3 cdc


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What type of fuselage construction uses a fabric or thin metal covering, and may be found on small, lightweight aircraft?
    • A. 

      Truss

    • B. 

      Cantilever

    • C. 

      Monocoque

    • D. 

      Semimonoque

  • 2. 
    In what type of aircraft fuselage construction does weight become a problem?
    • A. 

      Truss

    • B. 

      Cantilever

    • C. 

      Monocoque

    • D. 

      Semimonocoque

  • 3. 
    Which assembly includes the aft end of the fuselage of conventionally designed aircraft?
    • A. 

      Fairing

    • B. 

      Ailerons

    • C. 

      Empennage

    • D. 

      Trailing edge

  • 4. 
    Which flight control surface controls the directional movement about the axis of an aircraft?
    • A. 

      Critical

    • B. 

      Primary

    • C. 

      Auxiliary

    • D. 

      Secondary

  • 5. 
    Which of the following are examples of secondary flight controls?
    • A. 

      Ailerons

    • B. 

      Rudders

    • C. 

      Trim tabs

    • D. 

      Elevators

  • 6. 
    Which situation describes an ideal installation of a bolt on an aircraft component?
    • A. 

      The grip length of the bolt is slightly shorter than the thickness of the materials being joined.

    • B. 

      The grip length of the bolt is the same as the thickness of the materials being joined.

    • C. 

      The grip length of the bolt is is slightly longer than the thickness of the materials being joined.

    • D. 

      The grip length of the bolt is much longer than the thickness of the materials being joined.

  • 7. 
    The size of a bolt is generally stated in terms of its
    • A. 

      weight, diameter, and head size

    • B. 

      Head size, grip length, and weight

    • C. 

      Length, weight, and threads per inch

    • D. 

      Diameter, length, and threads per inch

  • 8. 
    For which of the following aircraft applications should a self-locking nut not be installed?
    • A. 

      Attachment of a pulley

    • B. 

      Attachment of an antifriction bearing

    • C. 

      Mounting an accessory near the engine

    • D. 

      Connecting sections of a movable joint

  • 9. 
    What item of hardware should be installed with scrrews and bolts whenever the self-locking or castellated nut is not used? 
    • A. 

      Cotter pins

    • B. 

      Safety wire

    • C. 

      Lockwashers

    • D. 

      Plain washers

  • 10. 
    Which type of rivet is used on the top skin surface of an aircraft?   
    • A. 

      Flathead

    • B. 

      Countersunk

    • C. 

      Roundhead

    • D. 

      Brazier head

  • 11. 
    What type of fastener is installed in an integral tank where access to only one side of the work is possible?   
    • A. 

      Brazier head rivet

    • B. 

      Nut and bolt

    • C. 

      Jo-bolt

    • D. 

      Hi-lok

  • 12. 
    What type of tubing is used in high-pressure systems such as the landing gear system? 
    • A. 

      Copper

    • B. 

      Stainless steel

    • C. 

      Titanium alloy

    • D. 

      Aluminum alloy

  • 13. 
    For what reason is aluminum alloy tubing the most widely used? 
    • A. 

      It can withstand high pressures

    • B. 

      It is easily flared with hand tools

    • C. 

      It is generally heavier than other types

    • D. 

      It resists dents better than other types

  • 14. 
    What condition will likely result from the contact of tubing with a surrounding surface?   
    • A. 

      Galling

    • B. 

      Chafing

    • C. 

      Scratching

    • D. 

      Delamination

  • 15. 
    Which type of tubing defect would be considered acceptable?
    • A. 

      A dent measuring 35% of the tubing diameter

    • B. 

      Several nicks measuring 15% of the tubing wall thickness

    • C. 

      A scratch that measures 25% of the tubing wall thickness

    • D. 

      A dent on the heel of a bend with less than the recommended radius

  • 16. 
    Which type of hose is a medium pressure Teflon hose with an operating temperature of 65 to 450* F?   
    • A. 

      MIL-H-8794

    • B. 

      MIL-H-27267

    • C. 

      MIL-H-7938

    • D. 

      MIL-H-7061

  • 17. 
    Which example is not acceptable regarding the installation of a flexible hose assembly? 
    • A. 

      Install the hose so that it will not be subjected to twisting

    • B. 

      Use oil to aid the installation of a self-sealing hose

    • C. 

      Ensure clamps are not so tight that they restrict flow

    • D. 

      Support the hose at least every 24 inches of length

  • 18. 
    What type of manifold coupling consists  of a body, nut, split washers, o-rings, and a retainer? 
    • A. 

      V-band

    • B. 

      Pneumatic

    • C. 

      Wiggins

    • D. 

      Quick-disconnect

  • 19. 
    What part of a Wiggins coupling provides the sealing action?   
    • A. 

      O-ring

    • B. 

      Gasket

    • C. 

      Snap ring

    • D. 

      Split washer

  • 20. 
    What minimum diameter safety wire should be installed on bolts having a .050-inch drilled hole?   
    • A. 

      .032

    • B. 

      .020

    • C. 

      .045

    • D. 

      .028

  • 21. 
    Why is the use of cotter pins on aircraft systems favorable? 
    • A. 

      They can be reused after removal

    • B. 

      They are stronger than safety wire

    • C. 

      They are less expensive than other pins

    • D. 

      They can be removed and installed quickly

  • 22. 
    During an integral tank inspection, you discover an area at which the protective coating is scarred and the metal is discolored. Pitting has also occurred to a depth or one mil. What degree of corrosion has taken place? 
    • A. 

      Light

    • B. 

      Severe

    • C. 

      Moderate

    • D. 

      Intermediate

  • 23. 
    Moderate corrosion is normally removed from an aircraft surface by 
    • A. 

      Light hand scrubbing

    • B. 

      Scrubbing with steel wool

    • C. 

      Light mechanical sanding

    • D. 

      Brushing with a steel wire brush

  • 24. 
    The extent of corrosion on an aircraft surface depends on which of the following factors?   
    • A. 

      The methods used to wash or clean the area

    • B. 

      The type of metal affected by the corrosion

    • C. 

      The ambient temperature at which the aircraft is located

    • D. 

      The length of time electrolytes are in contact with the metals

  • 25. 
    Which area may be a prime location for fungus growth because of condensational buildup? 
    • A. 

      Fuel manifold

    • B. 

      Landing area

    • C. 

      Integral tank

    • D. 

      Exhaust ducting

  • 26. 
    How can you prevent damage to a screw head?   
    • A. 

      Replace screws frequently

    • B. 

      Use correct size screwdriver

    • C. 

      Use a chisel on overtorqued screws

    • D. 

      Use oversized screwdriver for a snug fit

  • 27. 
    Which punch is used to drive out pins that are too deep for a starting or drift punch? 
    • A. 

      Pin

    • B. 

      Prick

    • C. 

      Straight

    • D. 

      Center

  • 28. 
    Which type of wrench should you use to tighten an internal wrenching nut?   
    • A. 

      Socket

    • B. 

      Adjustable jaw

    • C. 

      Allen

    • D. 

      Recessed

  • 29. 
    What should you use to clean tools that are extremely greasy and grimy? 
    • A. 

      JP-4 or gasoline

    • B. 

      MEK

    • C. 

      Approved cleaning solvent

    • D. 

      Aluminum oxide abrasive cloth

  • 30. 
    Which is a feature of a T-handle type torque qrench? 
    • A. 

      Is difficult to use

    • B. 

      Can be adjusted in small increments

    • C. 

      Has a preset torque

    • D. 

      Can possibly over-tighten a fastener

  • 31. 
    What powered tool is often used to remove access door screws?   
    • A. 

      Impact wrench

    • B. 

      Speed handle

    • C. 

      Air hammer

    • D. 

      Electric drill with adapter

  • 32. 
    Which tool is used to repair a fuel cell fitting?
    • A. 

      Air chisel

    • B. 

      Bench grinder

    • C. 

      Torque wrench

    • D. 

      Pneumatic buffer

  • 33. 
    Which type of attachment should you use on the fuel cell pneumatic buffer to buff bladder cells and flanges?
    • A. 

      Buffing arbor

    • B. 

      Buffing pad

    • C. 

      Buffing band

    • D. 

      Buffing stone

  • 34. 
    The ratio of output pressure to input pressure of a two-part sealant high-pressure injection gun is
    • A. 

      10 to 1

    • B. 

      25 to 1

    • C. 

      50 to 1

    • D. 

      125 to 1

  • 35. 
    The one-part sealant gun is  used to inject sealant into
    • A. 

      Prepacks

    • B. 

      Loose rivet holes

    • C. 

      Voids inside the tank

    • D. 

      Channels under the wing skin

  • 36. 
    What is the pressure ratio for the high-pressure injection gun?
    • A. 

      50 to 1

    • B. 

      60 to 1

    • C. 

      70 to 1

    • D. 

      80 to 1

  • 37. 
    Under what condition would an air hose be more likely to crack when bent too sharply?
    • A. 

      During cold weather

    • B. 

      During hot weather

    • C. 

      Immediately after use

    • D. 

      When the hose has collected dirt

  • 38. 
    Which material should never be used to make a sealant scraper?
    • A. 

      Phenolic block

    • B. 

      Aluminum

    • C. 

      Hardwood

    • D. 

      Brass

  • 39. 
    Low-pressure injection seals are applied with a
    • A. 

      Prepack spatula

    • B. 

      Seallant filleting gun

    • C. 

      Low-pressure injection gun

    • D. 

      Hig-pressure injection gun equipped with low-pressure nozzles

  • 40. 
    The size of the applied fillet on the filleting gun is determined by the
    • A. 

      Width of the nozzle

    • B. 

      Length of the nozzle

    • C. 

      Amount of air pressure

    • D. 

      Size and cut of the nozzle

  • 41. 
    What component is used to locate a leak source by forcing dye solution through the leak exit point?
    • A. 

      Vacuum cup

    • B. 

      Hollow bolt

    • C. 

      Control box

    • D. 

      Double cup assembly

  • 42. 
    When you use the water manometer, you should
    • A. 

      Relieve tan pressure by disconnecting the manometer hose

    • B. 

      Ensure that the amnometer safety relief valves are calibrated

    • C. 

      Unplug the negative pressure connection when the fuel tank is given a positive test.

    • D. 

      Ensure the positive pressure connection is plugged when the fuel tank is under negative pressure

  • 43. 
    The proper reading on an oxygen analyzer for a fuel tank that has been siphon inerted is
    • A. 

      9 percent

    • B. 

      15 percent

    • C. 

      20 percent

    • D. 

      23 percent

  • 44. 
    The proper reading on an oxygen analyzer for a fuel tank that has been pressure inerted is
    • A. 

      4 percent

    • B. 

      9 percent

    • C. 

      19.5 percent

    • D. 

      21.5 percent

  • 45. 
    The display on the T477W bonding meter is turned on by pressing the
    • A. 

      TEST button

    • B. 

      START buttong

    • C. 

      ILLUMINATE button

    • D. 

      LIGHT button

  • 46. 
    All values displayed on the T477W bonging meter are in
    • A. 

      Ohms

    • B. 

      Milliohms

    • C. 

      Volts

    • D. 

      Millivolts

  • 47. 
    What support equipment item has both low- and high-air pressure system?
    • A. 

      MC-1A

    • B. 

      MC-2A

    • C. 

      MC-5

    • D. 

      MC-7

  • 48. 
    Which is a feature of the MC-7 Air compressor?
    • A. 

      Capable of delivering high volumes of air

    • B. 

      Delivers a maximum pressure of 200 psi

    • C. 

      Can be used as a source of breathing air

    • D. 

      Gas engine will run for one houre without refueling

  • 49. 
    The temperature range of the HDU-13/M heater is
    • A. 

      0 to 170 F

    • B. 

      20 to 180 F

    • C. 

      30 to 190 F

    • D. 

      40 to 200 F

  • 50. 
    What equipment item must be used with the MC-1 heater to reduce the temperature of the air coming from the heater?
    • A. 

      A filter

    • B. 

      An ambient air blower

    • C. 

      A plenum chamber

    • D. 

      An exhaust director

  • 51. 
    You should add 1/2 oz. oil to pneumatic blower unit
    • A. 

      Every four hours during use

    • B. 

      After every day of use

    • C. 

      After every use

    • D. 

      Before use

  • 52. 
    Where should you position the fuel cell/tank servicing cart?
    • A. 

      Near the MA-1 blower

    • B. 

      Beside the HDU/13 heater

    • C. 

      Inside the fuel system repair area

    • D. 

      At least 10 feet from any vent or other tank opening

  • 53. 
    When must a safety guard be station at the fuel cell/tank servicing cart?
    • A. 

      Anytime the cart is in the repair area

    • B. 

      Each time the air supply system is used

    • C. 

      During access door removal and cell/tank purging

    • D. 

      Whenever two or more personnel are using respirators

  • 54. 
    An equipment item that provides rapid purging of fuel tanks and supplies breathing air is the
    • A. 

      Ventilation trailer

    • B. 

      Air/nitrogen servicing trailer

    • C. 

      Fuel cell/tank servicing cart

    • D. 

      Ambient breathing air pump

  • 55. 
    The minimum hose length from the ambient breathing air pump to the respirators is
    • A. 

      10 feet

    • B. 

      25 feet

    • C. 

      50 feet

    • D. 

      100 feet

  • 56. 
    Which support equipment item is equipped with a 110-volt AC power receptacle to permit the use of electrical equipment outside the repair area
    • A. 

      NF-2 light-all

    • B. 

      MB-2 nitrogen cart

    • C. 

      DIesel Generator

    • D. 

      HDU-13/M heater

  • 57. 
    Which maintenance stand is not adjustable?
    • A. 

      C-1

    • B. 

      B-1

    • C. 

      B-5

    • D. 

      B-2

  • 58. 
    Which maintenance stand can easily be moved by one person?
    • A. 

      B-1

    • B. 

      B-2

    • C. 

      C-1

    • D. 

      Mainlift

  • 59. 
    Maintenance stands useed specially for fuel system maintenance should be equipped with
    • A. 

      Static discharge plates

    • B. 

      Static discharge plates and handrail steps

    • C. 

      Wheel locks and bonding wire reels

    • D. 

      Handrail steps and wheel locks

  • 60. 
    What structure standard must the masonry fire restrictive construction of a new facility meet as a minimum?
    • A. 

      1 hour

    • B. 

      2 hour

    • C. 

      3 hour

    • D. 

      4 hour

  • 61. 
    Aircraft which are adjacent to an open fuel system repair area must not be operated under their own power within
    • A. 

      50 feet

    • B. 

      100 feet

    • C. 

      150 feet

    • D. 

      200 feet

  • 62. 
    During the preparation of an aircraft for fuel systems maintenance, AF form 979, Danger tag of AF form 1492, warning tag, must be placed on the aircraft's
    • A. 

      Fuel control panel only

    • B. 

      Fuel control panel and external power receptacle

    • C. 

      External power receptacle and grounding refuel receptacle

    • D. 

      Ground refuel receptacle and batteries

  • 63. 
    As part of a maintenance preparation checklist, you should ensure all support equipment used in a fuel system are is
    • A. 

      Bonded

    • B. 

      Grounded

    • C. 

      Placed upwind

    • D. 

      Placed downwind

  • 64. 
    Immediately after positioning an aircraft inside a fuel systems repair facility
    • A. 

      The aircraft must be grounded

    • B. 

      The aircraft must be defueled

    • C. 

      Emergency communications must be established

    • D. 

      Fire extinguishers must be inspected and ready for use

  • 65. 
    Open fuel system repair areas must be equipped with a minimum of
    • A. 

      One 150- pound Halon fire extinguisher or equivalent

    • B. 

      Two 150- pound Halon fire extinguisher or equivalent

    • C. 

      Thre dry chemical fire extinguishers with hose reels

    • D. 

      Two CO2 fire extinguishers or equivalent

  • 66. 
    What equipment in a fuel system repair facility is used to extract fuel vapors outside the facility during such operations as defueling and air purging?
    • A. 

      Installed exhaust fan

    • B. 

      Climate control unit

    • C. 

      Venturi air mover

    • D. 

      MA-1 blower

  • 67. 
    All "hot work" performed on an aircraft in a fuel systems repair facility must be approved by the
    • A. 

      Maintenance group commander

    • B. 

      Ground safety office

    • C. 

      Fuel tank entry chief

    • D. 

      Fire department

  • 68. 
    All installed vent plugs that will affect the venting of the aircraft must have
    • A. 

      An AFTO form 350, warning tag, attached.

    • B. 

      A red "REMOVE BEFORE FLIGHT" streamer attached

    • C. 

      A yellow "REMOVE BEFORE FUELING/DEFUELING" streamer attached

    • D. 

      A white "DO NOT LEAVE ON AIRCRAFT" streamer attached

  • 69. 
    Which of the follwoing would be allowed to operate inside the open fuel system repair area?
    • A. 

      Air purifier cart, HDU/13 heater, or BT-400 heater

    • B. 

      Defueling truck, tow vehicle, or MA-1 blower

    • C. 

      AGE tractor, BT-400 heater, or MA-1 blower

    • D. 

      Air purifier cart, HDU/13 hearter, or MA-1 blower

  • 70. 
    An air compressor operating outside the fuel system repair area
    • A. 

      Must be bonded

    • B. 

      Must be grounded

    • C. 

      Must be grounded and bonded

    • D. 

      Does not require grounding and bonding

  • 71. 
    Who signs the Master Entry Permit and ensures that all safety and health requirements are met?
    • A. 

      Entry authority

    • B. 

      Equipment monitor/runner

    • C. 

      Maintenance Group Commander

    • D. 

      Fuel System Element Chief

  • 72. 
    Who orders evacuation of a fuel tank in the event of an emergency situation?
    • A. 

      Entrant

    • B. 

      Attendant

    • C. 

      Entry authority

    • D. 

      Equipment monitor/ runner

  • 73. 
    Which of the following are not required elements of the written emergency response plan?
    • A. 

      Practice rescue

    • B. 

      Roles of emergency agencies

    • C. 

      Rescue from IDLH environments

    • D. 

      Rescue team training documentation

  • 74. 
    For what maximun perido of time may a field permit be issued?
    • A. 

      24 hours

    • B. 

      One month

    • C. 

      Six months

    • D. 

      One year

  • 75. 
    Which of the following changed conditions would requiere amendment of an entry permit by the entry authority?
    • A. 

      The task takes a few days longer than expected

    • B. 

      Authorized chemicals are brought into the tank

    • C. 

      The aircraft is moved from one repair location to another

    • D. 

      Previously permitted personnel require re-entry into the tank

  • 76. 
    What should the entry authority do with a canceled entry permit after task completion?
    • A. 

      Maintain it for one year

    • B. 

      Foward it to the BES office

    • C. 

      Foward it to the Ground Safety Office

    • D. 

      Foward it to the Logistics Group Commander

  • 77. 
    Which of the following atmospheric conditions are considered "entry-safe" in a fuel tank without foam
    • A. 

      10 percent LEL

    • B. 

      12 percent LEL

    • C. 

      16 percent LEL

    • D. 

      20 percent LEL

  • 78. 
    Which of the following items are acceptable for use in fluid purging an aircraft fuel tank
    • A. 

      JP-4

    • B. 

      JP-5

    • C. 

      MIL-C_38736

    • D. 

      P-D-680, Type II

  • 79. 
    When blow purging an aircraft fuel tank, what step should be taken immediately after removing the access door?
    • A. 

      Turn on the blower unit

    • B. 

      Bond the duct to the aircraft

    • C. 

      Place the duct in the tank opening

    • D. 

      Take a lower explosive limit reading of the tank atmosphere

  • 80. 
    An aircraft in a fuel systems hangar is being blow-purged.  The aircraft does not contain foam.  As a minimum, how often must a lower explosive limit (LEL) reading be taken?
    • A. 

      Every four hours

    • B. 

      Every eight hours

    • C. 

      At the beginning of each shift

    • D. 

      At the beginning of the workday

  • 81. 
    When using an MA-1 blower to exhaust purge a fuel tank, what blower component must be removed?
    • A. 

      Filter

    • B. 

      Air duct

    • C. 

      Inlet plug

    • D. 

      Bonding/grounding wire

  • 82. 
    If you were planning to cut small quantities of replacement foam for a fuel tank, you would use
    • A. 

      An Ontario knife

    • B. 

      A razor blade

    • C. 

      A hacksaw

    • D. 

      A sticher

  • 83. 
    Structural support members of an integral tank should never be removed until
    • A. 

      It is time to perform maintenance

    • B. 

      The load stress has been removed

    • C. 

      Replacement fasteners have been found

    • D. 

      Permission has been given by the system manager

  • 84. 
    The structural components that form the end boundaries of an integral tank are the
    • A. 

      Ribs

    • B. 

      Spars

    • C. 

      Stringers

    • D. 

      Stiffeners

  • 85. 
    The stringers in an integral tank
    • A. 

      Strengthen the spars

    • B. 

      Give shape to the wing

    • C. 

      Are primary structural members

    • D. 

      Provide attachment points for the skin

  • 86. 
    What is the first step in performing the talcum power method of leak detection?
    • A. 

      Wipe are dry

    • B. 

      Defuel the tank

    • C. 

      Strip exterior seals

    • D. 

      Dust area with powde

  • 87. 
    What step should be taken first when attempting to locate a leak exit point on or near a common tank boundary?
    • A. 

      Defuel both tanks

    • B. 

      Defuel the inboard tank

    • C. 

      Defuel the outboard tank

    • D. 

      Drain residual fuel from outboard tank

  • 88. 
    What factor(s) determine the appropiate condition/ action of an integral tank fuel leak?
    • A. 

      Location

    • B. 

      Classification

    • C. 

      Classification and Location

    • D. 

      Location and repair required

  • 89. 
    For what purpose is the AFTO form 427 used
    • A. 

      Historical records of leak repairs

    • B. 

      Temporary record of temporary repairs

    • C. 

      Temporary record of permanent repairs

    • D. 

      Historical record of component changes

  • 90. 
    Which of the following is an acceptable method of checking an integral tank sealant area for adhesion?
    • A. 

      Push on sealant with a blunt metal punch

    • B. 

      Pull sealant away from surface with a hooked wire

    • C. 

      Apply a maximum of 100 psi air pressure to sealant

    • D. 

      Insert aluminum spatula between sealant and structure

  • 91. 
    What component is used to locate a leak source by forcing dye solution through the leak exit point?
    • A. 

      Vacuum cup

    • B. 

      Hollow bolt

    • C. 

      Control box

    • D. 

      Double cup assembly

  • 92. 
    When should the hollow bolt method be used to isolate a leak source in an integral tank?
    • A. 

      When the double cup assembly was unsuccessful

    • B. 

      When the leak is at a common tank boundary

    • C. 

      Any time the leak is larger then class A

    • D. 

      In conjuction with the pressure box

  • 93. 
    What method of leak source detection should only be used after all other methods have failed to isolate the leak source?
    • A. 

      Vacuum dye

    • B. 

      Pressure box

    • C. 

      Dye injection

    • D. 

      Vacuum bubble

  • 94. 
    Whicf of the following high-adhesion sealants is designed for limited service life at temperature up to 360 F?
    • A. 

      MIL-S-8802

    • B. 

      MIL-S-83430

    • C. 

      MIL-S-81733

    • D. 

      MIL-S-83318

  • 95. 
    Which basic type of access door opens into the fuel tank, providing a tighter seal than other types?
    • A. 

      Plug

    • B. 

      O-ring

    • C. 

      Direct seal

    • D. 

      Interference fit

  • 96. 
    The injection of noncuring sealant on aircraft is generally limited to areas
    • A. 

      Where corrosion is likely to develop

    • B. 

      Which are exposed to the elements

    • C. 

      Where structural loading occurs

    • D. 

      Where access is difficult

  • 97. 
    If a leak develops between faying surfaces of an aircraft structure which was sealed with structural adhesive, how would you repair it?
    • A. 

      Apply a curing-type fillet or overcoat

    • B. 

      Pack curing-type sealant between the faying surfaces

    • C. 

      Disassemble the structure and apply structural adhesion

    • D. 

      Inject curing-type sealant into the void between mating surfaces

  • 98. 
    After the defective sealant has been removed, how far from the ends of the fillet should you abrade to prepare the surface for the new fillet?
    • A. 

      1/4 in

    • B. 

      1/2 in

    • C. 

      3/4 in

    • D. 

      1 in

  • 99. 
    An authorized sealant scraper may be made from
    • A. 

      Plastic

    • B. 

      Copper

    • C. 

      Titanium

    • D. 

      Brass

  • 100. 
    You should not apply sealant to an aircraft surface if the temperature is less than
    • A. 

      70 F

    • B. 

      60 F

    • C. 

      55 F

    • D. 

      50 F

  • 101. 
    A brush coat of sealant should be applied with?
    • A. 

      Spatula

    • B. 

      Acid brush

    • C. 

      Paint brush

    • D. 

      Fairing tool

  • 102. 
    As a precaution againts air bubbles, a first fillet seal should be
    • A. 

      Throroughly worked into the structure with an acid brush

    • B. 

      Applied with a filleting gun filled with class A sealant

    • C. 

      Thoroughly worked into the structure with a sealant spatula

    • D. 

      Applied with a sealant injection gun filled with class A sealant

  • 103. 
    You should apply final torque to a wet installed fastener
    • A. 

      Immediately

    • B. 

      After two hours

    • C. 

      Before the end of sealant application life

    • D. 

      Before the end of sealant tack free time

  • 104. 
    A noncuring sealant design is made up of
    • A. 

      Voids and gaps

    • B. 

      Grooves and channels

    • C. 

      Stringers and braces

    • D. 

      Fasteners and baffles

  • 105. 
    Which of the following conditions will cause a container of unmixed liquid base or accelerator sealant to be unserviceable?
    • A. 

      Skinning

    • B. 

      Uniform color

    • C. 

      Strong aroma

    • D. 

      Glossy appearance

  • 106. 
    Mixed sealant should be discared when it
    • A. 

      Will not wet the surface

    • B. 

      Is uniform in color

    • C. 

      Has a strong odor

    • D. 

      Flows too easily

  • 107. 
    What is used to test applied sealant for a tack-free condition?
    • A. 

      Blunt metal punch

    • B. 

      Bimetallic thermometer

    • C. 

      Plastic film

    • D. 

      Your Knuckle

  • 108. 
    Temporary repair made during the delivery preparation phase of depot maintenace must not exceed
    • A. 

      One per tank

    • B. 

      Two per tank

    • C. 

      One per aircraft

    • D. 

      Two per aircraft

  • 109. 
    The most preffered temporary repair method is the
    • A. 

      Hardman epoxy with aluminum foil patch

    • B. 

      Aluminum foil patch with sealant

    • C. 

      Oylite stick

    • D. 

      Epoxy tab

  • 110. 
    Which of the following temporary repair methods have an immediate cure time?
    • A. 

      Hardman epoxy

    • B. 

      Epoxy tab

    • C. 

      Oylite stik

    • D. 

      Comp air d236 injector