Void Agreements
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A void agreement is one which is
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Not enforceable by law.
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Enforceable at the option of both parties.
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Enforceable at the option of one party.
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Enforceable with permission of court.
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No. Of Questions to be Answered : Random 20 out of 86
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Quiz Preview
- 2.
Every agreement in restraint of marriage of any person other then a minor, is
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Voidable
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Void
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Valid
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None of these
Correct Answer
A. VoidExplanation
An agreement in restraint of marriage of any person other than a minor is considered void because it goes against the principles of freedom and individual choice in marriage. Restraining someone from getting married is seen as a violation of their rights and is therefore not legally enforceable.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following types of agreements have been expressly declared to be void?
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Agreements in restraint of legal proceedings [Section 28].
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Agreements with uncertain meanings [Section 29]
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Agreements to do impossible act [Section 56]
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All of the above
Correct Answer
A. All of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "All of the above." This means that all three types of agreements mentioned in the options (agreements in restraint of legal proceedings, agreements with uncertain meanings, and agreements to do impossible acts) have been expressly declared to be void. According to Section 28, agreements in restraint of legal proceedings are void. Section 29 states that agreements with uncertain meanings are also void. Finally, Section 56 declares agreements to do impossible acts as void. Therefore, all three types of agreements mentioned in the options have been expressly declared to be void.Rate this question:
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- 4.
An agreement the meaning of which is not capable of being made certain, is
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Void
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Valid
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Voidable
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Contingent
Correct Answer
A. VoidExplanation
An agreement the meaning of which is not capable of being made certain is considered void. This means that the agreement lacks clarity and cannot be enforced by law. Void agreements are essentially invalid from the beginning and hold no legal significance.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Certain types of agreements have been expressly declared to be void by the Indian Contract Act.
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True
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False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The Indian Contract Act explicitly declares certain types of agreements to be void. This means that these agreements are not legally enforceable and have no legal effect. The Act provides specific provisions that render these agreements void, such as agreements made under coercion, agreements with minors, agreements made under fraud or misrepresentation, and agreements that are against public policy. Therefore, the statement that certain types of agreements have been expressly declared to be void by the Indian Contract Act is true.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A contract of insurance is a wagering agreement, thus void.
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True,as its nature is that of wages
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False, as it is perfectly valid.
Correct Answer
A. False, as it is perfectly valid.Explanation
The statement is false because a contract of insurance is not a wagering agreement. While both involve a degree of risk, insurance contracts are based on the principle of indemnity and the transfer of risk from the insured to the insurer in exchange for a premium. Wagering agreements, on the other hand, involve placing bets on uncertain outcomes. Insurance contracts are legally recognized and enforceable, making them perfectly valid agreements.Rate this question:
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- 7.
An agreement in restraint of marriage i.e., which prevents a person from marrying, is
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Valid
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Voidable
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Void
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None of these
Correct Answer
A. VoidExplanation
An agreement in restraint of marriage is void because it goes against public policy and the principles of personal freedom. Marriage is a fundamental right and individuals should not be restricted or prevented from entering into it. Therefore, any agreement that attempts to restrain or prohibit marriage is considered invalid and unenforceable.Rate this question:
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- 8.
______________ are declared to be void under the Indian Contract Act.
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Quasi contracts
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Wagering agreements
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Contingent contracts
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Insurance contracts
Correct Answer
A. Wagering agreementsExplanation
Wagering agreements are declared to be void under the Indian Contract Act. This means that these agreements are not legally enforceable. Wagering agreements are those in which the parties involved make bets or wagers on uncertain events, such as the outcome of a game or a race. These agreements are considered to be against public policy and are therefore void. The Indian Contract Act aims to protect individuals from the potential harm and unfairness that can arise from such agreements, hence declaring them void.Rate this question:
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- 9.
When the good will of business is sold , the seller may be restrained from carrying on similar business within specified local limits.
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True, as it is the recognised exception under Section 27, which is necessary to protect the interest of purchaser of goodwill.
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False,as all agreements in restraint of trade are void.
Correct Answer
A. True, as it is the recognised exception under Section 27, which is necessary to protect the interest of purchaser of goodwill.Explanation
The statement is true because Section 27 recognizes an exception to the general rule that all agreements in restraint of trade are void. In the case of selling the goodwill of a business, the seller may be restrained from carrying on a similar business within specified local limits. This exception is necessary to protect the interest of the purchaser of the goodwill.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Regulations as to the opening and closing of business in the market, are
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Not legal
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Valid
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Void
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Illegal
Correct Answer
A. ValidExplanation
The regulations as to the opening and closing of business in the market are considered valid because they are legally binding and enforceable. These regulations are likely established by the relevant authorities to maintain order, ensure fair competition, and protect the interests of both businesses and consumers. As long as these regulations are in accordance with the law and are implemented fairly, they are considered valid and must be followed by businesses operating in the market.Rate this question:
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- 11.
A agrees to discover a treasure by magic and B agrees to pay Rs. 10,000 to A for his act. The agreement is
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Void
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Valid
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Voidable
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None of these
Correct Answer
A. VoidExplanation
The agreement between A and B to discover a treasure by magic and for B to pay Rs. 10,000 to A is void. This is because the objective of the agreement is impossible to achieve. Magic is not a real or practical means of discovering a treasure, and therefore the agreement lacks a lawful object. As a result, the agreement is considered void and has no legal validity.Rate this question:
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- 12.
A service agreement which prevents an employee from working anywhere else during the period covered by service agreement, is
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Void
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Valid
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Voidable
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Illegal
Correct Answer
A. ValidExplanation
A service agreement that restricts an employee from working elsewhere during the period covered by the agreement is considered valid. This is because employers have the right to protect their business interests and ensure that employees are fully committed to their job responsibilities. By limiting the employee's ability to work elsewhere, the employer can ensure that the employee's focus remains solely on their duties within the organization. However, it is important to note that such agreements must comply with applicable laws and regulations to be enforceable.Rate this question:
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- 13.
An agreement restraining the outgoing (.i.e., retiring) partner form carrying on business similar to that of the firm will be valid and enforceable if the restriction.
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Is reasonable
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Specifies the local limit
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Specifies the period for which it will remain in force
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All of these.
Correct Answer
A. All of these.Explanation
The correct answer is "All of these." An agreement restraining the outgoing partner from carrying on a similar business will be valid and enforceable if it is reasonable, specifies the local limit, and specifies the period for which it will remain in force. All three conditions need to be met for the agreement to be valid and enforceable.Rate this question:
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- 14.
An agreement which puts restriction on a person from marrying is void under Section 26 being an agreement in restraint of
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Liberty
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Marriage
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Legal right
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Social right.
Correct Answer
A. MarriageExplanation
An agreement that restricts a person from marrying is void under Section 26 because it goes against the principle of marriage as a fundamental right. Marriage is considered a personal choice and a basic liberty, and any agreement that attempts to restrict or interfere with this right is not legally enforceable. Therefore, such an agreement is void and has no legal validity.Rate this question:
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- 15.
An agreement which prevents a person from marrying a particular person., is valid
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True,as partial restraint is recognised try law.
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False,as both restraints, complete or partial, makes the agreement void
Correct Answer
A. False,as both restraints, complete or partial, makes the agreement voidExplanation
The given answer is false because both complete and partial restraints make the agreement void. This means that any agreement that prevents a person from marrying a particular person, whether it is a complete or partial restraint, would not be considered valid.Rate this question:
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- 16.
An agreement which restrains the seller of a good will from carrying on a similar business within specified local limits, is
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Void
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Voidable
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Valid
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Contingent
Correct Answer
A. ValidExplanation
An agreement which restrains the seller of a good from carrying on a similar business within specified local limits is considered valid. This means that such an agreement is legally enforceable and binding on the parties involved. The restriction placed on the seller is within reasonable limits and does not violate any laws or public policy. Therefore, the agreement is considered valid and can be upheld in a court of law.Rate this question:
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- 17.
As per Section 2(g) an agreement not enforceable by law is said to be __________
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Voidable
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Void
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Valid
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Invalid.
Correct Answer
A. VoidExplanation
An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be void. This means that the agreement is considered to have no legal effect from the beginning, as if it never existed. Void agreements are usually unenforceable because they lack the essential elements required for a valid contract, such as mutual consent or legality of the subject matter. Therefore, parties to a void agreement have no legal obligations towards each other and cannot seek remedies or enforce any rights arising from the agreement.Rate this question:
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- 18.
An agreement which prevents a person from marrying a particular person or a person of particular class ,is
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Void
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Voidable
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Valid
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Allowed with court permission
Correct Answer
A. VoidExplanation
An agreement that restricts a person from marrying a specific individual or someone from a particular class is considered void. This means that the agreement holds no legal force or effect and is therefore unenforceable. Such agreements are against public policy as they infringe upon an individual's freedom to choose their life partner. Consequently, any attempt to enforce or uphold such an agreement would be deemed invalid by the court.Rate this question:
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- 19.
An agreement which completely retrains a person from enforcing his legal rights, is
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Void
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Valid
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Voidable
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None of these
Correct Answer
A. VoidExplanation
An agreement which completely restrains a person from enforcing his legal rights is considered void. This means that the agreement is not legally binding and has no legal effect. Such agreements are against public policy as they restrict an individual's freedom to exercise their legal rights. Therefore, they are deemed invalid and unenforceable by the court.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Where an agreement in restraint of trade is not divisible, then the
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Whole agreement is valid and enforceable
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Whole agreement is void and unenforceable
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Unrestricted part is valid and enforceable
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None of these.
Correct Answer
A. Whole agreement is void and unenforceableExplanation
In cases where an agreement in restraint of trade is not divisible, it means that the agreement cannot be separated into different parts or clauses. In such situations, the entire agreement is considered as a whole and if it contains a restraint of trade clause, the entire agreement becomes void and unenforceable. This means that neither party can legally enforce the agreement or seek remedies for any breaches.Rate this question:
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- 21.
An agreement in restraint of legal proceedings is
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Valid
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Void
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Voidable
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None of these
Correct Answer
A. VoidExplanation
An agreement in restraint of legal proceedings is considered void because it goes against public policy and the principles of justice. Such agreements restrict a person's right to access the legal system and seek justice, which is deemed unacceptable. The law aims to ensure that individuals have the freedom to pursue legal remedies and protect their rights, and any agreement that attempts to limit or restrain this freedom is deemed void and unenforceable.Rate this question:
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- 22.
An agreement will be void as being of wagering nature, if it is dependent on the happening or non- happening of
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An uncertain event
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A certain event
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Controlled event
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None of these.
Correct Answer
A. An uncertain eventExplanation
An agreement will be void as being of wagering nature if it is dependent on the happening or non-happening of an uncertain event. This means that if the agreement is based on an event that is uncertain and unpredictable, it will be considered a wagering agreement and therefore void.Rate this question:
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- 23.
An agreement to do an impossible act, is
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Valid
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Void
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Voidable
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Contingent.
Correct Answer
A. VoidExplanation
An agreement to do an impossible act is void because it is not legally enforceable. In order for a contract to be valid, the parties involved must be capable of performing their obligations. If the act that is agreed upon is impossible to perform, the contract cannot be fulfilled and is therefore considered void.Rate this question:
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- 24.
An agreement which prevents a person from marrying for a fixed period only, is valid.
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True,as it is not regarded as an agreement in restraint of marriage
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False,as it also falls in the category of agreements in restraint of marriage
Correct Answer
A. False,as it also falls in the category of agreements in restraint of marriageExplanation
The given statement is false because an agreement that prevents a person from marrying for a fixed period is considered an agreement in restraint of marriage. Agreements in restraint of marriage are generally considered void and unenforceable because they are against public policy and restrict an individual's freedom to marry. Therefore, such an agreement would not be valid.Rate this question:
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- 25.
A __________ is one which provides that money or money's worth will be paid on the happening or non-happening of specified uncertain event.
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Contingent contract
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Wagering agreement
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Insurance contract
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Quasi- contract.
Correct Answer
A. Wagering agreementExplanation
A wagering agreement is a contract in which the parties agree to pay money or money's worth based on the outcome of a specified uncertain event. In a wagering agreement, the parties are essentially gambling on the outcome of the event, and the agreement is based on chance rather than a legitimate business transaction. Unlike other types of contracts, a wagering agreement is not enforceable by law as it is considered to be against public policy.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Agreements in restraint of trade have been expressly declared void under
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Section 26
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Section 27
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Section 28
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Section 29
Correct Answer
A. Section 27Explanation
Section 27 of the law declares agreements in restraint of trade as void. This means that any contract or agreement that restricts a person's freedom to carry on their trade or profession is not legally enforceable. The purpose of this provision is to promote fair competition and prevent monopolies or unfair business practices. By declaring such agreements void, Section 27 ensures that individuals have the freedom to engage in trade and pursue their chosen profession without unnecessary restrictions.Rate this question:
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- 27.
An agreement restraining the purchaser of goodwill from carrying on business will be valid and enforceable if the restriction.
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Is reasonable if the restriction
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Specifies the period for which it will remain in force
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Is form carrying on a similar business only
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All of the above conditions should be satisfied
Correct Answer
A. All of the above conditions should be satisfiedExplanation
For an agreement restraining the purchaser of goodwill from carrying on business to be valid and enforceable, all of the above conditions should be satisfied. This means that the restriction must be reasonable, it must specify the period for which it will remain in force, and it must only restrict the purchaser from carrying on a similar business. If any of these conditions are not met, the agreement may not be considered valid or enforceable.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of the following types of agreements have been expressly declared to be void ? (i) Agreements without consideration [Section 25]. (ii) Agreements in restraint of marriage [Section 26]. (iii) Agreements in restraint of trade [Section 27]. (iv) Agreements with inadequate consideration.
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(i), (ii),(iv)
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(ii), (iii), (iv)
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(i), (iii), (iv)
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(i), (ii), (iii)
Correct Answer
A. (i), (ii), (iii)Explanation
The correct answer is (i), (ii), (iii). According to the given sections of the law, agreements without consideration, agreements in restraint of marriage, and agreements in restraint of trade have been expressly declared to be void. This means that these types of agreements are not legally enforceable and hold no legal validity.Rate this question:
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- 29.
An agreement in restraint of marriage is void if the restraint is
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Complete only
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Partial only
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Compete or partial
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Approved by court.
Correct Answer
A. Compete or partialExplanation
An agreement in restraint of marriage is considered void if the restraint is either complete or partial. This means that any agreement that restricts or limits a person's freedom to marry, whether it is a complete prohibition or only a partial restriction, will be considered invalid. The law does not distinguish between complete or partial restraints when it comes to agreements in restraint of marriage. Therefore, both types of restraints are not enforceable and are deemed void.Rate this question:
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- 30.
An agreement by a producer to sell all his output to one distributor who in turn agrees not to buy his requirement from any other producer, is
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Valid
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Void
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Voidable
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Illegal
Correct Answer
A. ValidExplanation
In this scenario, the agreement between the producer and the distributor is considered valid. This is because both parties have willingly entered into a contract where the producer agrees to sell all of their output exclusively to the distributor, and the distributor agrees not to purchase from any other producer. As long as there are no illegal or unethical terms involved, such an agreement is legally binding and enforceable.Rate this question:
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- 31.
An agreement the meaning of which is capable of being made certain, is
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Valid
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Void
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Voidable
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Contingent
Correct Answer
A. ValidExplanation
An agreement the meaning of which is capable of being made certain refers to an agreement that can be clearly understood and determined. In other words, the terms and intentions of the agreement can be easily identified and agreed upon by the parties involved. Therefore, such an agreement is considered valid and legally enforceable.Rate this question:
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- 32.
An agreement to do an impossible act can be enforced with the permission of court.
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True
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False
Correct Answer
A. FalseExplanation
An agreement to do an impossible act cannot be enforced, even with the permission of a court. This is because it is not legally possible to perform an impossible act, and therefore, the court cannot enforce such an agreement.Rate this question:
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- 33.
An agreement to __________ where it is made to refer a future dispute to arbitration.
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Valid
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Void
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Voidable
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Illegal
Correct Answer
A. ValidExplanation
An agreement to refer a future dispute to arbitration is considered valid because arbitration is a recognized and accepted method of resolving conflicts. It is a legally binding process where parties voluntarily agree to have their dispute settled by an impartial third party. Therefore, an agreement to use arbitration as a means of resolving future disputes is considered valid and enforceable by law.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Wagering agreements have been declared to be void under
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Section 24
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Section 30
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Section 29
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None of these
Correct Answer
A. Section 30Explanation
Wagering agreements involve placing bets on uncertain events, such as gambling. Section 30 of the law declares such agreements as void, meaning they have no legal effect. This is because they are considered to be against public policy and encourage gambling, which is generally seen as a harmful activity. Therefore, any agreement made for the purpose of wagering is not enforceable by law.Rate this question:
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- 35.
A has the legal right to file a suit (legal case) against B either at Delhi or at Calcutta. A and B entered into an agreement, that A can enforce his rights at Delhi only and not in Calcutta. This agreement is
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Valid, as it puts a partial restraint only
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Void, as restraint, partial or absolute, renders an agreement void.
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A contingent contract as it depends upon A's sacrifice
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Illegal, as such restrictions are unlawful.
Correct Answer
A. Valid, as it puts a partial restraint onlyExplanation
The given answer is valid because the agreement between A and B restricts A from enforcing his rights in Calcutta, but allows him to do so in Delhi. This is considered a partial restraint, as it limits A's options but does not completely prevent him from taking legal action. Partial restraints are generally considered valid, whereas absolute restraints render an agreement void.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which of the following agreement is not void as being an agreement in restraint of legal proceedings?
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An agreement which extinguishes the right of a party.
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An agreement which discharges a party from liability.
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An agreement which provides for a reference to arbitration instead of court of law.
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An agreement which limits the time within a right may be enforced.
Correct Answer
A. An agreement which provides for a reference to arbitration instead of court of law.Explanation
An agreement which provides for a reference to arbitration instead of court of law is not void as being an agreement in restraint of legal proceedings. This is because arbitration is a recognized and accepted alternative to court proceedings for resolving disputes. It is a voluntary process where the parties agree to submit their dispute to a neutral third party, who will make a binding decision. Therefore, such an agreement does not restrict or restrain the parties' access to legal proceedings, but rather provides them with an alternative method of resolving their disputes.Rate this question:
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- 37.
An agreement between the parties to refer any future dispute which may arise between them to arbitration is
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Void
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Valid
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Voidable
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Illegal
Correct Answer
A. ValidExplanation
An agreement between the parties to refer any future dispute which may arise between them to arbitration is considered valid. Arbitration is a recognized method of resolving disputes outside of the court system, where a neutral third party (the arbitrator) is chosen by the parties to make a binding decision. By agreeing to refer any future disputes to arbitration, the parties are voluntarily choosing this alternative method of resolution, which is legally recognized and enforceable.Rate this question:
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- 38.
If in an agreement, one party may win and cannot lose, or he may lose and cannot win, then the agreement is not wagering agreement.
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True
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False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
This statement is true because a wagering agreement is a contract where two parties agree to gamble on an uncertain event, and the outcome is dependent on chance. In a wagering agreement, both parties have a chance of winning or losing. However, in the given scenario, one party is guaranteed to either win or lose, leaving no element of chance. Therefore, the agreement does not meet the criteria of a wagering agreement.Rate this question:
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- 39.
A agrees to sell to B all the production of his only factory situated in Okhla This agreement is
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Void, as there is no certainty about the product to be sold
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Valid, as all the production is agreed to be sold, there is no uncertainty in the agreement
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Voidable, at the option of B
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None of these
Correct Answer
A. Valid, as all the production is agreed to be sold, there is no uncertainty in the agreementExplanation
The correct answer is valid, as all the production is agreed to be sold, there is no uncertainty in the agreement. This means that A has agreed to sell all the products produced by their only factory in Okhla to B. Since there is no uncertainty or ambiguity in the agreement, it is considered valid.Rate this question:
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- 40.
An agreement which prevents a person from marrying altogether is
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Allowed
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Allowed with court permission
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Void
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Voidable
Correct Answer
A. VoidExplanation
An agreement which prevents a person from marrying altogether is considered void. This means that such an agreement is not legally enforceable and holds no legal validity. It goes against the principles of personal freedom and the right to marry, which are protected by law. Therefore, any agreement that restricts or prohibits marriage is deemed invalid and has no legal effect.Rate this question:
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- 41.
An agreement which prevents a person from carrying a lawful business, is _____________.
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Valid
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Void
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Voidable
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Contingent
Correct Answer
A. VoidExplanation
An agreement which prevents a person from carrying a lawful business is considered void. This means that such an agreement has no legal effect and is unenforceable. It goes against the principles of freedom to engage in lawful activities and restricts the individual's right to earn a livelihood. Therefore, any agreement that restricts a person from carrying out a lawful business is considered void.Rate this question:
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- 42.
A agrees to pay Rs. 500 B if it rains on Monday, and if does not rain on Monday then B will pay Rs. 500 to A . This is a
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Uncertain agreement
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Wagering agreement
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Contingent contract
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Quasi- contract
Correct Answer
A. Wagering agreementExplanation
A wagering agreement is a type of contract where the outcome depends on the occurrence or non-occurrence of an uncertain event. In this case, the agreement between A and B is based on whether it rains on Monday or not. If it rains, A will pay Rs. 500 to B, and if it does not rain, B will pay Rs. 500 to A. The outcome of the contract is uncertain and depends on the weather condition on Monday, making it a wagering agreement.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which of the following statements is correct?
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A wagering agreement is void but not illegal.
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In Gujarat and old Bombay wagering agreements have been declared to be illegal.
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Both (a) and (b)
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None of these.
Correct Answer
A. Both (a) and (b)Explanation
Both option (a) and (b) are correct. A wagering agreement is void, meaning it has no legal effect, but it is not necessarily illegal. In Gujarat and old Bombay, however, wagering agreements have been specifically declared to be illegal. Therefore, both statements are true.Rate this question:
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- 44.
All agreements in restraint of trade are void and there is no exception to this general rule.
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True,as the Indian Contract Act specifically provides that there will be no exception.
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False,as the Indian Contract Act and Partnership Act provides exceptions.
Correct Answer
A. False,as the Indian Contract Act and Partnership Act provides exceptions.Explanation
The correct answer is False because the Indian Contract Act and Partnership Act provide exceptions to the general rule that all agreements in restraint of trade are void. These acts allow for certain agreements that are reasonable and necessary for the protection of trade or business interests. Therefore, there are exceptions to the rule stated in the question.Rate this question:
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- 45.
In which of the following cases an agreement does not fall in the category of wagering agreement?
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Where either party has control over the happening or non-happening of event
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Where other then the stake money, a party has some other interest in the happening or non- happening of the event.
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Where there are no mutual changes of gain or loss.
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All of the above.
Correct Answer
A. All of the above.Explanation
An agreement does not fall in the category of wagering agreement when any of the following conditions are met: 1) Either party has control over the happening or non-happening of the event, meaning that the outcome is not solely dependent on chance. 2) Besides the stake money, a party has some other interest in the happening or non-happening of the event, indicating that there is a genuine purpose or motive beyond mere gambling. 3) There are no mutual changes of gain or loss, suggesting that the agreement does not involve a speculative element. Therefore, all of the above conditions must be satisfied for an agreement to not be considered a wagering agreement.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Agreements to do impossible acts have been declared void under
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Section 28
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Section 29
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Section 30
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Section 56
Correct Answer
A. Section 56Explanation
Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act states that agreements that are impossible to perform become void. This means that if the performance of an agreement becomes impossible due to the occurrence of an event that was not anticipated by the parties, the agreement is considered void. In other words, if an agreement becomes impossible to perform due to reasons beyond the control of the parties, it is no longer enforceable. Therefore, Section 56 is the correct answer as it specifically deals with agreements that are impossible to perform.Rate this question:
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- 47.
An agreement which puts absolute restraint on legal proceedings is void and there is no exception to this rule.
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True,as the Indian Contract Act specifically provides that there will be no exception.
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False,as the exception have been provided in Explanation I and II of Section 28 itself.
Correct Answer
A. False,as the exception have been provided in Explanation I and II of Section 28 itself.Explanation
The correct answer is False. The explanation for this answer is that there are exceptions to the rule that an agreement which puts absolute restraint on legal proceedings is void. These exceptions are provided in Explanation I and II of Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act.Rate this question:
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- 48.
An agreement is void if it restrains anyone from exercising
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A lawful profession, trade or business
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Any profession, trade or business
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An unlawful profession, trade or business
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None of these.
Correct Answer
A. A lawful profession, trade or businessExplanation
An agreement is considered void if it restrains anyone from exercising a lawful profession, trade, or business. This means that if an agreement restricts an individual from engaging in a legal occupation or business activity, it is not enforceable by law. However, if the agreement restricts an individual from engaging in an unlawful profession, trade, or business, it may still be valid. The answer indicates that only the restraint on a lawful profession, trade, or business renders the agreement void.Rate this question:
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- 49.
An agreement in a restraint of trade is void only it the restraint imposed, is ___________
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Complete
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Partial
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Conditional
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Any of these
Correct Answer
A. Any of theseExplanation
An agreement in a restraint of trade is void only if the restraint imposed is complete, partial, or conditional. This means that regardless of the extent or conditions of the restraint, if it is found to be in violation of trade laws or unfair competition regulations, the agreement becomes void. Therefore, any of these options can render the agreement void depending on the specific circumstances and legal considerations.Rate this question:
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Mar 14, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Aug 18, 2011Quiz Created by
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