Medical Law And Ethics Final Exam

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1. _____ is the voluntary agreement that a patient gives to allow a medically trained person permission to touch, examine, and perform a treatment.

Explanation

Consent is the voluntary agreement given by a patient to allow a medically trained person to touch, examine, and perform a treatment. It is an important aspect of medical ethics and ensures that patients have the autonomy to make decisions about their own bodies and healthcare. Without consent, medical professionals would not have the legal and ethical authority to provide treatment or perform procedures on patients.

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About This Quiz
Medical Law And Ethics Final Exam - Quiz

This final exam in Medical Law and Ethics tests understanding of due process, empathy, litigious behavior, Medical Practice Acts, and the concept of precedents. It prepares learners to... see morehandle legal and ethical scenarios in medical settings effectively. see less

2. A postmortem examination of organs and tissues to determine the cause of death is known as a(n) _____.

Explanation

An autopsy is a postmortem examination of organs and tissues to determine the cause of death. It involves a thorough examination of the body, including internal organs, to identify any injuries, diseases, or abnormalities that may have contributed to the individual's death. Autopsies are typically performed by medical professionals, such as pathologists, and are an important tool in forensic medicine and research. Necropsy is a synonym for autopsy, while biopsy refers to the removal and examination of a small sample of tissue for diagnostic purposes. Heteropsy is not a recognized medical term.

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3. _____ of contract is neglecting to uphold that contract.

Explanation

Breach of contract refers to the act of failing to fulfill the obligations stated in a contract. It occurs when one party neglects or violates the terms and conditions agreed upon in the contract. This breach can be in the form of non-performance, late performance, or inadequate performance. The other options, nullification, voiding, and dissolution, do not accurately capture the concept of neglecting to uphold a contract.

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4. A _____ is a crime that is punishable by death or imprisonment for more than one year.

Explanation

A felony is a crime that is punishable by death or imprisonment for more than one year. This type of crime is considered more serious than a misdemeanor, which typically carries a lesser punishment. Traffic violations and tax evasion are not necessarily classified as felonies, as they do not usually result in punishments of death or imprisonment for more than one year.

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5. The mortality rate is also called the _____ rate.

Explanation

The mortality rate refers to the number of deaths in a specific population over a given period of time. It is a measure of the frequency or probability of death within a population. Therefore, the correct answer is "death" as it accurately represents the concept of mortality rate.

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6. Man-made rules for the protection of society are called _____.

Explanation

Man-made rules that are established to protect society and maintain order are known as laws. Laws are a set of regulations and guidelines that are enforced by a governing authority to ensure the safety, rights, and well-being of individuals within a society. These laws help in maintaining social order, resolving disputes, and providing a framework for justice and equality. The repetition of "laws" and "law" in the answer options emphasizes the concept of multiple rules and regulations that collectively form the legal system.

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7. The Doctrine of professional discretion means that a _____ may determine, based on his or her best judgement, if a patient with mental or emotional problems should view the medical record.

Explanation

The Doctrine of professional discretion means that a physician may determine, based on his or her best judgement, if a patient with mental or emotional problems should view the medical record. This implies that the physician has the authority and expertise to assess the patient's condition and make a decision regarding their access to sensitive medical information. The physician's professional discretion in this matter is crucial in protecting the patient's well-being and ensuring that they receive appropriate care and support.

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8. _____  is the stiffnes that occurs in a dead body.

Explanation

Rigor mortis is the stiffening of muscles that occurs in a dead body. After death, the body's muscles gradually become rigid and stiff due to the biochemical changes that take place. This process starts within a few hours after death and peaks at around 12-24 hours. It is caused by the depletion of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) in the muscles, which is required for muscle relaxation. As a result, the muscles become fixed in position, leading to the characteristic stiffness of rigor mortis.

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9. _____ varies by state and defines what the "practice of medicine" is for that state.

Explanation

Medical Practice Acts vary by state and define what the "practice of medicine" is for that state. These acts outline the legal requirements and regulations that healthcare professionals must adhere to in order to practice medicine within a specific state. They define the scope of practice, licensing requirements, and disciplinary actions for healthcare professionals. Medical Practice Acts help protect the public by ensuring that healthcare providers are qualified and competent to provide medical care.

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10. A _____ is a less serious crime which is punishable by fines or imprisonment for less than one year.

Explanation

A misdemeanor is a less serious crime that carries a punishment of fines or imprisonment for less than one year. This type of offense is considered less severe than a felony, which typically involves more serious crimes and longer prison sentences. Examples of misdemeanors include petty theft, simple assault, and driving under the influence. Treason refers to betraying one's country, while tax evasion specifically refers to the illegal avoidance of paying taxes.

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11. Negative generalities concerning specific characteristics about a group that are applied to an entire population are called _____.

Explanation

Stating negative generalities about a group and applying them to the entire population is known as stereotyping. Stereotyping involves making assumptions or judgments about individuals based on their membership in a particular group, often leading to unfair and biased treatment. It is a form of generalization that overlooks individual differences and can perpetuate harmful stereotypes.

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12. An individual who stops at the scene of an accident cannot be successfully sued as long as he or she behaves as a reasonable, prudent person; this is the _____.

Explanation

The Good Samaritan Law protects individuals who stop at the scene of an accident from being successfully sued, as long as they behave in a reasonable and prudent manner. This law encourages people to provide assistance in emergency situations without fear of legal repercussions. It recognizes that individuals who voluntarily help others in need should not be penalized for any unintentional harm that may occur during their efforts to provide aid.

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13. _____ law involves one citizen vs. another citizen and usually results in monetary damages.

Explanation

Civil law involves disputes between individuals or entities, rather than crimes committed against society. It typically deals with private matters such as contracts, property, and personal injury. In civil cases, the plaintiff seeks monetary compensation or other forms of relief from the defendant for the harm caused. This is in contrast to criminal law, which involves offenses against the state and can result in penalties such as imprisonment. Administrative law pertains to the actions and decisions of government agencies, while contract law governs agreements between parties.

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14. The person being sued is called the _____.

Explanation

The person being sued is called the defendant.

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15. _____ is spoken false or malicious words that injur a reputation.

Explanation

Slander refers to the act of speaking false or malicious words that harm someone's reputation. It involves making false statements orally with the intention of damaging someone's character or reputation. Libel, on the other hand, refers to the act of spreading false or malicious information through written or printed words. Assault and battery are physical acts of violence and do not involve spoken words that harm reputation.

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16. Fraudulent is defined as the attempt to _____ another person.

Explanation

Fraudulent is an adjective that describes an action or behavior intended to deceive or trick someone. It involves dishonesty and the intention to mislead or cheat another person. Therefore, the correct answer is "deceive," as it accurately reflects the definition of fraudulent.

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17. The replacement of a defective or malfunctioning gen by splicing or connecting onto the DNA of body cells to control production of a particular substance is called _____.

Explanation

Gene therapy is the correct answer because it involves replacing a defective or malfunctioning gene by splicing or connecting it onto the DNA of body cells. This process allows for the control of the production of a particular substance, aiming to treat or prevent genetic disorders. In gene therapy, the corrected gene is introduced into the patient's cells, either directly or through a vector, to restore the normal function of the gene and potentially alleviate the symptoms of the disease.

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18. _____ ensures that no one branch of the government can have more power than another.

Explanation

The concept of checks and balances ensures that no one branch of the government can have more power than another. This system is designed to prevent any one branch from becoming too dominant and potentially abusing its power. It allows each branch to limit the actions of the other branches, creating a system of accountability and preventing any one branch from becoming too powerful. This system is a fundamental principle of democratic governance and helps to maintain a balance of power within the government.

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19. _____ is obligation or responsibility.

Explanation

Duty refers to an obligation or responsibility that one has towards a task, role, or relationship. It implies the moral or legal requirement to fulfill certain duties or perform specific actions. Duty often involves a sense of commitment, loyalty, and accountability towards fulfilling one's obligations and responsibilities. It is a term commonly used to describe the tasks or responsibilities that individuals have towards their job, family, community, or society as a whole.

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20. Disease producing microorganisms transmitted by means of blood and body fluids containing blood are called _____ pathogens.

Explanation

Bloodborne pathogens are disease-producing microorganisms that are transmitted through blood or body fluids containing blood. These pathogens can include viruses such as HIV and hepatitis B and C. Infection can occur through direct contact with infected blood or through contact with contaminated objects. Therefore, the correct answer is "bloodborne" as it accurately describes the transmission method of these microorganisms.

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21. Posthumous refers to after _____.

Explanation

Posthumous refers to something that happens or is published after a person's death. It is commonly used to describe works of art, books, or music that are released or become famous after the creator has passed away. In this context, "death" is the event that occurs before something is considered posthumous.

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22. _____ contracts are agreements that are shown by inference, by signs, inaction, or silence.

Explanation

Implied contracts are agreements that are not explicitly stated or written, but are instead understood or inferred from the actions, behavior, or circumstances of the parties involved. These contracts are based on the principle that parties should be held accountable for their actions and commitments, even if they are not explicitly stated in a formal contract. Implied contracts can be created through signs, inaction, or silence, where the parties involved demonstrate their intention to enter into a contractual relationship without explicitly stating it. Therefore, the correct answer is "implied, implied".

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23. A _____ is the predicition for the course of a disease.

Explanation

A prognosis is the prediction for the course of a disease. It refers to the expected outcome or forecast of how a disease will progress and the likelihood of recovery or worsening. Prognosis takes into account various factors such as the patient's medical history, symptoms, and response to treatment. It helps healthcare professionals and patients understand the potential outcomes and make informed decisions regarding treatment and management of the disease.

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24. Any individually indentifiable information that relates to the physical or mental condition of the provision of healthcare to an individual is called _____.

Explanation

Protected health information refers to any individually identifiable information that relates to the physical or mental condition of an individual and is used in the provision of healthcare. This includes information such as medical records, diagnoses, treatments, and any other information that can be used to identify an individual's health status. It is important to protect this information to ensure patient privacy and confidentiality.

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25. Written command to appear in court is known as a _____.

Explanation

A written command to appear in court is known as a subpoena. A subpoena is a legal document issued by a court that requires an individual to appear in court as a witness or to provide evidence. It is typically used to compel someone to testify or produce documents relevant to a legal proceeding. A subpoena is an important tool in the legal system to ensure the attendance of witnesses and the availability of evidence for a fair and just trial.

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26. _____ is the ability to understand someone without actually experiencing what they have experienced.

Explanation

Empathy is the ability to understand someone without actually experiencing what they have experienced. It involves putting oneself in another person's shoes and trying to understand their emotions and perspectives. Empathy allows individuals to connect with others on a deeper level and offer support and understanding. It is different from sympathy, which involves feeling sorry for someone without truly understanding their feelings. Integrity and beneficence are unrelated to the ability to understand others without experiencing their experiences.

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27. _____ consent is an agreement that is made through inference by signs, inaction, or silence.

Explanation

Implied consent refers to an agreement that is not explicitly stated or verbally expressed but is understood through signs, inaction, or silence. In this type of consent, the individual's actions or lack of action indicate their agreement or acceptance of a situation or proposal. Unlike informed consent, which requires explicit knowledge and understanding of the terms, implied consent is inferred from the circumstances. Similarly, it differs from expressed consent, which is given explicitly through words or written communication. Implied consent is a common concept in legal and ethical contexts, particularly in situations where explicit consent may not be feasible or necessary.

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28. Care for the terminally ill patients consisting of comfort measures and symptom control is called _____.

Explanation

Palliative care refers to the medical care provided to terminally ill patients, focusing on providing comfort measures and symptom control rather than attempting to cure the underlying condition. This type of care aims to improve the quality of life for patients, managing pain and other distressing symptoms. It is a holistic approach that addresses not only the physical aspects but also the emotional, social, and spiritual needs of patients and their families. Palliative care does not involve euthanasia or mercy killing, but rather aims to support patients throughout their end-of-life journey.

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29. Beyond a _____ doubt is a stricter standard by which criminal evidence is proved.

Explanation

The term "beyond a reasonable doubt" is a legal standard used in criminal cases to determine the level of proof required for a conviction. It means that the evidence presented must be so strong and convincing that there is no reasonable doubt in the minds of the jury or judge regarding the defendant's guilt. This standard is stricter than a mere "reasonable doubt," as it requires a higher level of certainty to establish guilt.

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30. _____ is legal responsibility for one's own actions.

Explanation

Liable is the correct answer because it means being legally responsible for one's own actions. It implies that an individual can be held accountable for the consequences of their behavior or decisions. Liable is often used in legal contexts to refer to someone who can be sued or held legally responsible for damages or wrongdoing.

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31. Res ipsa loquitur means the thing _____ for itself.

Explanation

The Latin phrase "res ipsa loquitur" translates to "the thing speaks for itself." This phrase is often used in legal contexts to refer to situations where the facts or evidence of a case are so clear and obvious that no further explanation or proof is needed. In these cases, the "thing" or evidence itself speaks volumes and is sufficient to establish liability or responsibility.

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32. An unborn child from the third month after conception until birth is called a(n) _____.

Explanation

During the third month after conception until birth, the developing human is referred to as a fetus. This is the stage when the major organs and body systems have formed and continue to grow and mature. The fetus is recognizable as a human and undergoes rapid growth and development during this time. The terms zygote and blastocyst refer to earlier stages of development, while embryo is used to describe the developing human from the time of implantation until the end of the second month of pregnancy.

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33. When an employee believes that the employer does not have a just-cause, or legal reason, for firing the employee, this is called _____.

Explanation

Wrongful discharge refers to the situation when an employee is terminated by their employer without a valid or legal reason. It occurs when an employee believes that their employer did not have a just-cause for firing them. Wrongful discharge can involve various factors such as breach of contract, violation of labor laws, discrimination, or retaliation. It is a legal concept that protects employees from unfair and unjust terminations.

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34. Medical coverage for >65 years old and certain disabled people, and ESRD patients is called _____.

Explanation

Medicare is the correct answer because it provides medical coverage for individuals who are over 65 years old, certain disabled people, and those with End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD). Tricare is a healthcare program for military personnel and their families. Medigap is a supplemental insurance plan that helps cover the gaps in Medicare coverage. Medicaid is a government assistance program that provides healthcare coverage for low-income individuals and families.

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35. Stare decisis means let the _____ stand.

Explanation

Stare decisis is a legal principle that means "to stand by things decided." It is the practice of following and adhering to previous court rulings and decisions. In this context, "decision" is the correct answer because stare decisis essentially means to let the previous decision stand and be binding on future cases with similar facts or legal issues. This principle ensures consistency, predictability, and stability in the legal system.

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36. Consent granted by a person after the patient has received knowledge and understanding of potential risks and benefits is known as expressed or _____ consent.

Explanation

Consent granted by a person after the patient has received knowledge and understanding of potential risks and benefits is known as informed consent. This type of consent is given when the individual has been provided with all the necessary information about the procedure, treatment, or intervention, including its potential risks and benefits. It ensures that the person is making an informed decision about their healthcare and allows them to actively participate in the decision-making process.

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37. A federal statute that regulates the manufacture and distribution of the drugs that are capable of causing depedency is the _____.

Explanation

The correct answer is the Controlled Substance Act of 1970. This federal statute regulates the manufacture and distribution of drugs that have the potential to cause dependency. It establishes schedules for different controlled substances based on their potential for abuse and medical use. The act also sets requirements for record-keeping, labeling, and handling of controlled substances, and provides penalties for illegal activities related to these drugs.

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38. The administration of a lethal agent by another person to a patient for the purpose of relieving intolderable and incurable suffering is called _____.

Explanation

Euthanasia refers to the act of administering a lethal agent to a patient by another person in order to relieve their intolerable and incurable suffering. This practice is often considered controversial and raises ethical and legal concerns. It is different from palliative care, which focuses on providing relief from symptoms and improving the quality of life for patients with serious illnesses. Lethal injections, on the other hand, specifically refer to the method of administering the lethal agent in euthanasia cases. Curative care involves treatments aimed at curing or alleviating a patient's condition rather than ending their life.

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39. The ordinary skill and care that must be used is called _____ of care.

Explanation

The ordinary skill and care that must be used is called "standard of care". This refers to the level of competence and caution that a reasonable person in a similar situation would exercise. It is the benchmark against which the actions of individuals are measured to determine whether they have met the expected level of care in a particular profession or situation.

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40. A written command to appear in court with appropriate documentation is called _____.

Explanation

A written command to appear in court with appropriate documentation is called a subpoena duces tecum. This legal term refers to a court order that requires an individual to bring specific documents or evidence to court for examination. It is commonly used in legal proceedings to ensure that all relevant information is presented and considered during a trial or hearing.

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41. "Let the master answer" is _____.

Explanation

"Respondeat superior" is a legal doctrine that holds employers liable for the actions of their employees when those actions occur within the scope of their employment. This means that if an employee causes harm or injury to someone while performing their job duties, the employer can be held responsible. The phrase "Let the master answer" is a loose translation of "respondeat superior" and reflects the principle that employers should be held accountable for the actions of their employees.

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42. A _____ is a civil injury.

Explanation

A tort is a civil injury, referring to a wrongful act or omission that causes harm or loss to another person. Unlike criminal offenses such as misdemeanors or felonies, which are prosecuted by the government, torts are typically resolved through civil lawsuits where the injured party seeks compensation for the damages suffered. Therefore, a tort can be considered a type of civil injury.

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43. Assumption of ______ is a legal defense that prevents a plaintiff from recovering damages if the plaintiff voluntarily accepts a risk associated with the activity.

Explanation

The assumption of risk is a legal defense that prevents a plaintiff from recovering damages if they voluntarily accept a risk associated with the activity. This means that if a person willingly participates in an activity knowing the potential risks involved, they cannot later sue for damages if they are injured. This defense is based on the idea that individuals should be responsible for their own choices and decisions, including accepting the risks that come with certain activities.

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44. _____ insemination is the injection of seminal fluid that contains male sperm into the female's vagina from her husband, partner, or donor by some means other than intercourse.

Explanation

Artificial insemination refers to the process of injecting semen containing male sperm into the female's vagina through methods other than sexual intercourse. This technique is used when couples face fertility issues or when a donor's sperm is used. It allows for the introduction of sperm into the reproductive system, increasing the chances of fertilization and pregnancy.

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45. Unfair or unequal treatment is known as _____.

Explanation

Unfair or unequal treatment based on factors such as race, gender, age, or disability is referred to as discrimination. This term encompasses the act of treating someone unjustly or differently due to their membership in a particular group. Discrimination can occur in various contexts, such as employment, education, housing, or public services, and it is widely recognized as a violation of human rights.

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46. Withdrawing medical care from a patient without providing sufficient notice to the patient is called _____.

Explanation

Abandonment refers to the act of withdrawing medical care from a patient without giving them adequate notice. This can occur when a healthcare provider terminates the patient-doctor relationship without providing the necessary time for the patient to find alternative care. Abandonment is considered unethical and can have serious consequences for both the patient and the healthcare provider.

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47. A legal reason, as for firing someone, is called _____.

Explanation

Just cause is the correct answer because it refers to a legally valid reason for firing someone. It implies that the termination was based on a legitimate and lawful cause, such as poor performance, misconduct, or violation of company policies. The term "just cause" is commonly used in employment law to ensure that employees are not wrongfully terminated and that there is a valid reason behind their dismissal.

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48. _____ law concerns promises and agreements.

Explanation

Contract law is the correct answer because it specifically deals with promises and agreements. This branch of law governs the formation and enforcement of contracts, which are legally binding agreements between two or more parties. It sets out the rights and obligations of the parties involved and provides remedies in case of a breach of contract. Contract law is essential in ensuring that parties can rely on the promises and agreements they make, and it provides a framework for resolving disputes that may arise from these agreements.

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49. You are _____ if you are of sound mind and body.

Explanation

If someone is "of sound mind and body," it means that they are mentally and physically healthy and capable. The word "competent" aligns perfectly with this meaning as it refers to someone who has the necessary abilities, skills, and knowledge to perform a particular task or fulfill a certain role. Therefore, "competent" is the correct answer in this context.

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50. Thread like structures withing the nuclus of a cell that transmit genetic information are called _____.

Explanation

Chromosomes are thread-like structures within the nucleus of a cell that carry and transmit genetic information. They are made up of DNA molecules that contain the genes, which are the units of heredity. Chromosomes play a crucial role in the inheritance and expression of traits, as they contain the instructions for the development and functioning of an organism.

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51. The time before birth during which the fetus is developing, usually nine months is called the _____.

Explanation

The correct answer is gestational period. This refers to the time before birth when the fetus is developing, typically lasting around nine months. During this period, the fetus undergoes significant growth and development in the mother's womb. The gestational period is crucial for the formation of organs, limbs, and other vital structures in the developing fetus.

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52. _____ is written, print, or pictures that injur a reputation.

Explanation

Libel refers to written, printed, or pictorial statements that harm someone's reputation. Unlike slander, which is spoken defamation, libel involves the dissemination of damaging information through written or printed media. Assault, on the other hand, refers to physical harm or the threat of physical harm, while usury refers to the illegal practice of charging excessive interest rates on loans. Therefore, libel is the correct answer as it specifically pertains to damaging statements made in written or printed form.

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53. Insurance companies, HMOs, and government policies are examples of _____.

Explanation

Insurance companies, HMOs, and government policies are examples of third-party payers. Third-party payers are entities or organizations that are not directly involved in the provision of healthcare services but instead pay for the healthcare services on behalf of the patient. In this case, insurance companies, HMOs, and government policies act as intermediaries between the patient and the healthcare provider, reimbursing the provider for the cost of the services rendered.

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54. _____ authority occurs when the state takes responsibility from the parents for the core and custody of minors under the age of 18.

Explanation

Parens patriae is the correct answer because it refers to the authority of the state to take responsibility for the care and custody of minors under the age of 18 when the parents are unable or unwilling to fulfill their role. This concept allows the state to act in the best interests of the child and protect their rights and well-being.

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55. A test for the presence of genetic defects in which a needle is used to withdraw a small amount of amniotic fluid that surrounds the fetus in the uterus is known as a(n) _____.

Explanation

Amniocentesis is a test used to detect genetic defects by withdrawing a small amount of amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus in the uterus. This procedure involves using a needle to collect the fluid, which contains fetal cells that can be analyzed for genetic abnormalities. Embryocentesis is not the correct answer as it refers to the sampling of cells from an embryo, not the amniotic fluid. "In utero" refers to something happening inside the uterus, but it does not specifically describe the test being performed. "In vitro" refers to procedures conducted outside the body, such as in a laboratory, and is not applicable to this test.

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56. A  method of documentation in medical records that focuses on the patient's problems, not just on the diagnosis is known as _____.

Explanation

The method of documentation in medical records that focuses on the patient's problems, not just on the diagnosis is known as POMR (Problem-Oriented Medical Record). This approach involves organizing the medical record around a list of the patient's problems, with each problem being clearly defined and addressed separately. The POMR system allows healthcare professionals to have a comprehensive view of the patient's health issues and facilitates effective communication and coordination among the healthcare team.

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57. The person bringing action into litigation is called the _____.

Explanation

In a legal context, the person who initiates a lawsuit by bringing a claim or complaint against another party is known as the plaintiff. The plaintiff is responsible for presenting their case and seeking a legal remedy or compensation for the alleged wrongdoing or harm caused by the defendant. They have the burden of proof to demonstrate that their claims are valid and should be addressed by the court. The term "plaintiff" is commonly used in civil law systems to refer to the party who files a lawsuit.

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58. A type of health care system that falls under managed care and uses capitation is called _____.

Explanation

A health maintenance organization (HMO) is a type of health care system that falls under managed care and uses capitation. In an HMO, individuals pay a fixed monthly fee and receive comprehensive health care services from a network of providers. The providers are paid a set amount per patient, regardless of the services provided. This encourages preventive care and cost-effective management of health care resources.

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59. _____ is neglect, as in neglect of duty.

Explanation

Dereliction refers to the act of neglecting one's duty or responsibility. It implies a failure to fulfill obligations or perform required tasks. In the context of the given question, dereliction is the appropriate term that conveys the meaning of neglect of duty.

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60. _____ cause is the continuous sequence of events, unbroken by any intervening cause, that produces an injury and without which the injury would not have occured.

Explanation

A direct cause is a continuous sequence of events that leads to an injury, without any intervening cause. In other words, it is the primary cause that directly results in the injury, and without it, the injury would not have occurred.

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61. When a noncompliant patient leaves a hospital without a physician's permission, it is known as _____.

Explanation

When a patient decides to leave a hospital without the permission of their physician, it is referred to as "against medical advice" (AMA). This means that the patient is choosing to disregard the recommendations and instructions of their healthcare provider, potentially putting their health at risk. This term is used to document and communicate the patient's decision to leave the hospital without following the prescribed course of treatment.

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62. Health care organizations covered under HIPAA are called _____.

Explanation

Health care organizations that are covered under HIPAA are referred to as covered entities. This term encompasses various entities such as health plans, health care providers, and health care clearinghouses. These covered entities are required to comply with HIPAA regulations to ensure the privacy and security of individuals' protected health information (PHI). By being designated as covered entities, these organizations are responsible for implementing safeguards and procedures to protect PHI and uphold the rights of individuals in relation to their health information.

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63. _____ (use only the initials) of 1996 regulates the privacy of patients' health information.

Explanation

HIPAA, which stands for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, is a legislation enacted in 1996 that regulates the privacy of patients' health information. It sets standards for the protection of sensitive medical records and personal health information, ensuring that healthcare providers, health plans, and other entities handle patient data securely and maintain confidentiality. HIPAA aims to safeguard individuals' privacy rights and prevent unauthorized access, use, or disclosure of their health information, promoting trust and confidence in the healthcare system.

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64. _____ is granting credentials based on another state's records.

Explanation

Reciprocity refers to the practice of granting credentials or licenses to individuals based on their qualifications or credentials from another state. This means that if someone has already been granted a license or certification in one state, they can apply for and potentially receive the same credentials in another state without having to go through the entire application process again. It is a way to acknowledge and accept the qualifications obtained in one state as valid in another state.

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65. Someone who is _____ is inclined to sue.

Explanation

A person who is litigious is inclined to sue. Litigious individuals are prone to initiating legal actions or lawsuits, often seeking legal resolutions for disputes or grievances. This trait suggests a tendency to resort to legal measures to settle conflicts, indicating a readiness to engage in legal proceedings.

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66. A _____ is a past case that serves as a future model.

Explanation

A precedent is a past case that serves as a future model. It means that when a court makes a decision on a particular legal issue, that decision becomes a precedent that other courts can follow in similar cases. Precedents provide guidance and establish a legal principle that should be followed in future cases with similar facts or legal issues. They help ensure consistency and predictability in the legal system.

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67. The rate of sick people or cases of a disease in relationship to a specific population is known as _____.

Explanation

The rate of sick people or cases of a disease in relationship to a specific population is known as morbidity rate. This term specifically refers to the frequency or proportion of individuals who have a particular disease within a given population. It helps in understanding the burden of a disease on a population and is often used in public health research and policy-making to track and monitor the occurrence and spread of diseases.

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68. In the case of a fetus, it is _____ when it has the ability to survive outside the uterus.

Explanation

The term "viable" refers to the ability of a fetus to survive outside the uterus. It suggests that the fetus has reached a stage of development where it has a reasonable chance of surviving with medical assistance. The other options, such as "realistic," "premature," and "full term," do not accurately capture the concept of viability in relation to a fetus.

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69. A division of the Department of Justice that enforces the Controlled Substances Act of 1970 is called the _____.

Explanation

The correct answer is DEA, which stands for Drug Enforcement Administration. It is a division of the Department of Justice responsible for enforcing the Controlled Substances Act of 1970. The DEA's main role is to combat the illegal drug trade, regulate the legal distribution of controlled substances, and investigate and prosecute individuals or organizations involved in drug trafficking.

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70. _____ is the study of good vs. evil.

Explanation

Ethics is the study of good vs. evil. It is the branch of philosophy that deals with moral principles and values, and seeks to determine what is right and wrong, good and bad. By examining ethical theories and concepts, individuals can gain a deeper understanding of the principles that guide human behavior and decision-making. The repetition of the word "ethics" and "ethic" in the answer options may be a typographical error or a deliberate attempt to confuse, but the correct answer is "Ethics."

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71. Malfeasance is performing a(n) _____ act.

Explanation

The word "malfeasance" itself implies the act of wrongdoing or misconduct. Therefore, it is clear that malfeasance refers to performing an illegal act.

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72. The legal obligation to a patient is known as _____ of care.

Explanation

The legal obligation to a patient is known as "duty" of care. This refers to the responsibility that healthcare professionals have to provide a certain standard of care to their patients. It includes providing treatment, advice, and support that is in the best interest of the patient, ensuring their safety and well-being. Failure to fulfill this duty can result in legal consequences, such as negligence claims.

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73. When a doctor gets paid for referrals, he is guilty of _____.

Explanation

When a doctor gets paid for referrals, he is guilty of fee splitting. Fee splitting refers to the practice of sharing fees or receiving compensation in exchange for referring patients to other healthcare providers or services. This is considered unethical and can compromise the doctor's professional judgment and the patient's best interests. It is important for doctors to prioritize patient care and make referrals based on medical necessity rather than financial gain.

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74. A person without funds is known as _____.

Explanation

The correct answer is "indigent." Indigent refers to a person who lacks funds or is in a state of extreme poverty. It is a term commonly used to describe individuals who are unable to meet their basic needs due to financial constraints.

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75. _____ is submitting a dispute for resolution to a person other than a judge.

Explanation

Arbitration is the correct answer because it refers to the process of submitting a dispute to a neutral third party, known as an arbitrator, who makes a final decision that is legally binding on both parties involved. This process is an alternative to going to court and having a judge make the final decision. Mediation, on the other hand, involves a mediator who helps facilitate communication and negotiation between the parties, but does not make a final decision. Capitation and application are unrelated terms and do not pertain to submitting a dispute for resolution.

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76. _____ are master cells in the body that can generate specialized cells.

Explanation

Stem cells are undifferentiated cells that have the ability to differentiate into specialized cells. They are considered master cells because they can generate various types of cells in the body, such as muscle cells, nerve cells, or blood cells. Stem cells play a crucial role in development, tissue repair, and regeneration. By dividing and differentiating, they can replenish damaged or lost cells and contribute to the overall functioning and maintenance of the body.

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77. An agreed fee due on DOS for managed care plans is called a _____.

Explanation

A copay is a fixed amount that a patient pays for a covered healthcare service, typically due at the time of service. In the context of managed care plans, a copay is an agreed fee that the patient is responsible for paying out of pocket. It is a form of cost-sharing between the patient and the insurance company, where the patient pays a set amount and the insurance company covers the remaining cost of the service. Therefore, a copay is the correct answer for the given question.

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78. _____ torts are injuries caused by not exercising due standard of care.

Explanation

Unintentional torts refer to injuries that occur as a result of negligence or failure to exercise a reasonable standard of care. These torts are unintentional because the harm caused was not intended, but rather a consequence of the defendant's careless actions. In contrast, intentional torts involve deliberate harm or wrongdoing, while illegal and unethical actions may or may not result in tort liability depending on the specific circumstances. Thus, the correct answer is "Unintentional" because it accurately describes torts caused by a lack of due care.

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79. To _____ is to find fault with, criticize, or condemn.

Explanation

To censure is to find fault with, criticize, or condemn. This word implies a strong disapproval or reprimand towards someone or something. It suggests that the action or behavior being criticized is considered unacceptable or deserving of punishment. Therefore, censure is the correct answer as it best aligns with the given definition.

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80. When the state is the plaintiff, we call this the _____.

Explanation

When the state is the plaintiff, it is referred to as the prosecution. This term is used in legal proceedings to describe the party that brings charges against an individual or entity accused of committing a crime. The prosecution represents the interests of the state and seeks to prove the guilt of the defendant.

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81. Medical coverage for indigent; especially pregnant women and children.

Explanation

Medicaid is the correct answer because it provides medical coverage specifically for indigent individuals, including pregnant women and children. Tricare is a health insurance program for military personnel and their families. Medicare is a federal health insurance program for individuals aged 65 and older. Medigap is a supplemental insurance plan that helps cover the gaps in Medicare coverage. Therefore, Medicaid is the most appropriate option for providing medical coverage for indigent individuals, particularly pregnant women and children.

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82. Preponderance of the _____ is the less stringent standard by which civil cases are held; it means that more likely than not the incident did occur.

Explanation

Preponderance of the evidence is the less stringent standard by which civil cases are held. This means that in order to prove a case, the evidence presented must show that it is more likely than not that the incident did occur. In other words, the evidence should tip the scales slightly in favor of one party's argument. This standard is different from the "beyond a reasonable doubt" standard used in criminal cases, where the evidence must be much stronger and leave no reasonable doubt in the minds of the jurors.

Submit
83. Functions that a healthcare provider can perform without authorization from the patient are called _____.

Explanation

TPO stands for "Treatment, Payment, and Operations." These are the functions that a healthcare provider can perform without explicit authorization from the patient. Treatment refers to providing medical care and services, payment refers to billing and insurance processes, and operations refer to the administrative and organizational aspects of healthcare delivery.

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84. The _____ Person Rule asks, "What would other reasonable people have done in the same situation?"

Explanation

The Prudent Person Rule asks individuals to consider what other reasonable people would have done in a similar situation. This implies making decisions and taking actions that are cautious, careful, and sensible, based on the standards and expectations of a reasonable person. The rule encourages individuals to act in a manner that is responsible and thoughtful, considering the potential risks and consequences of their actions.

Submit
85. The various methods by which a patient has the right to self-determination prior to a medical necessity is known as a(n) _____ directive.

Explanation

The term "advance directive" refers to the various methods that allow a patient to exercise their right to self-determination before a medical necessity arises. It enables individuals to express their healthcare preferences in advance, ensuring that their wishes regarding treatment and care are respected even if they become unable to communicate or make decisions in the future. Advance directives can include documents such as living wills, healthcare proxies, and do-not-resuscitate orders. These directives provide guidance to healthcare providers and ensure that patients' autonomy and preferences are honored.

Submit
86. A predetermined fee per member per period is known as _____.

Explanation

Capitation refers to a fixed fee that is charged for each member of a group or population over a specific time period. This fee is predetermined and remains the same regardless of the level of services provided. It is commonly used in healthcare systems where providers receive a set amount per patient regardless of the actual services rendered. The term capitation accurately describes this payment structure, making it the correct answer.

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87. An _____ contract is an agreement that clearly states all terms; oral or written.

Explanation

An expressed contract is an agreement that clearly states all terms, whether it is communicated orally or in writing. This means that both parties involved are fully aware of and understand the terms and conditions of the contract. Unlike an implied contract, which is based on the actions and conduct of the parties involved, an expressed contract explicitly outlines the rights and obligations of each party. Therefore, the correct answer is expressed.

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88. In loco parentis is a person assigned by a _____ to stand in place of the parents and possess their legal rights and responsibilities toward the child.

Explanation

In loco parentis refers to a person appointed by a court to assume the role and responsibilities of a parent for a child. This legal term grants the individual the authority and obligations typically held by the child's parents. They are expected to make decisions in the best interest of the child and provide care and guidance as a parent would.

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89. A public health officer who holds an investigation if a person's death is from an unknown or violent cause is a _____.

Explanation

A coroner is a public health officer who is responsible for conducting investigations into deaths that have unknown or violent causes. They are tasked with determining the cause and manner of death, which may involve performing autopsies, collecting evidence, and collaborating with law enforcement agencies. Unlike a homicide investigator who focuses specifically on criminal cases involving death, a coroner's role is broader and encompasses all types of deaths that require further investigation. A mortician, on the other hand, is responsible for preparing bodies for burial or cremation, while a medical examiner is a physician who performs autopsies and determines the cause of death in cases that require further medical expertise.

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90. An unborn child between the second and twelfth week after conception is _____.

Explanation

An unborn child between the second and twelfth week after conception is referred to as an embryo. During this stage of development, the fertilized egg undergoes rapid cell division and begins to form the basic structures and organs of the body. The embryo is still in the early stages of development and is not yet considered a fetus, which occurs after the twelfth week. The terms zygote and blastocyst are used to describe earlier stages of development, with the blastocyst being the stage immediately after fertilization.

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91. _____ is the expectation that your individual rights will be protected.

Explanation

Due process refers to the expectation that an individual's rights will be protected. It ensures that everyone is treated fairly and has the opportunity to present their case before a neutral decision-maker. This principle is fundamental to the legal system and aims to prevent arbitrary or unjust actions by the government or other authorities. It guarantees that individuals have the right to notice, a fair hearing, and the opportunity to defend themselves. Due process is a cornerstone of democratic societies and helps safeguard individual liberties and prevent abuse of power.

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92. _____ laws are rules that are supposed to protect the public.

Explanation

Criminal laws are rules that are supposed to protect the public by defining and prohibiting behavior that is considered harmful or dangerous to society. These laws are enforced by the government and violations can result in penalties such as fines, probation, or imprisonment. Criminal laws cover a wide range of offenses, including theft, assault, murder, and drug trafficking, with the aim of maintaining public safety and order.

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93. _____ is another term for voluntary euthanasia.

Explanation

Mercy killing is another term used to describe voluntary euthanasia. This refers to the act of intentionally ending someone's life, usually to alleviate their suffering or pain, with their consent. It is considered voluntary because the decision is made by the individual themselves or with their explicit consent. The term "mercy killing" emphasizes the compassionate motive behind the act, as it is done with the intention of providing relief and mercy to the individual.

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94. The illegal appropriation of property is called _____.

Explanation

Embezzlement refers to the illegal act of misappropriating or stealing someone else's property, usually funds or assets, that have been entrusted to the perpetrator. Unlike larceny, which involves the unlawful taking of someone else's property without permission, embezzlement occurs when a person who has been entrusted with someone else's property intentionally and fraudulently uses or converts it for personal gain. Grand larceny and petty theft are also forms of property theft, but they do not specifically involve the misappropriation of entrusted property like embezzlement does.

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95. A _____ is a decision made by a court when there is no need for a trial.

Explanation

A summary judgment is a decision made by a court when there is no need for a trial. This means that the court has determined that there are no disputed facts and that one party is entitled to judgment as a matter of law. In other words, the court can make a decision based on the evidence and legal arguments presented without the need for a full trial. This can save time and resources in cases where the outcome is clear and there is no genuine dispute.

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96. An adult who acts on behalf of a child in litigation is known as _____.

Explanation

A guardian ad litem is an adult who represents and acts on behalf of a child in legal proceedings. They are appointed by the court to protect the best interests of the child and ensure that their rights are upheld during litigation. This person is responsible for gathering information, conducting investigations, and making recommendations to the court regarding the child's welfare. The term "guardian ad litem" accurately describes this role and is the correct answer to the question.

Submit
97. The _____ means that the provider must make a reasonable effort to limit the disclosure of patient information to only the minimum amount that is necessary to accomplish the purpose of the request.

Explanation

The minimum necessary standard refers to the requirement for healthcare providers to limit the disclosure of patient information to only the minimum amount necessary to fulfill the purpose of the request. This means that healthcare professionals must make a reasonable effort to avoid sharing more patient information than is required for a specific task or situation. This standard helps protect patient privacy and ensures that healthcare providers handle patient information responsibly and securely.

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98. _____ is the failure to perform an action when it is necessary.

Explanation

Nonfeasance is the correct answer because it refers to the failure to perform an action when it is necessary. Misfeasance refers to the improper performance of an action, malfeasance refers to the intentional wrongdoing or illegal act, and feasance simply refers to the performance of an action.

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99. Res judicata means the thing has been _____.

Explanation

Res judicata is a legal principle that refers to a matter that has already been decided by a court and cannot be re-litigated. Once a court has made a final decision on a particular issue, it is considered "decided" and cannot be reopened or challenged again. This principle promotes finality and certainty in legal proceedings, preventing parties from continuously litigating the same issue. Therefore, "decided" is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the meaning of res judicata.

Submit
100. Groups of identical matching cells that came from a single common cell are called _____.

Explanation

Groups of identical matching cells that came from a single common cell are called clones. This term is used to describe the process of a single cell dividing and producing multiple identical copies. These clones can be used in various scientific and medical applications, such as studying genetic diseases, testing new drugs, or producing large quantities of specific cells for transplantation.

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101. _____ are themahor events or facts from a person's life, such as live births, deaths, marriages, and divorces.

Explanation

Vital statistics refer to the major events or facts from a person's life, such as live births, deaths, marriages, and divorces. These statistics are collected and recorded by government agencies and are considered public records. They are used for various purposes, including demographic analysis, public health planning, and legal documentation.

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102. The _____ approves all nonemergent services, hospitalization, or tests before they are provided.

Explanation

A gatekeeper is a person or entity that controls access to something. In this context, the gatekeeper approves all nonemergent services, hospitalization, or tests before they are provided. This means that they have the authority to determine whether or not these services or tests are necessary or appropriate. The other options, guardian, preapproval administrator, and specialist, do not necessarily have the same role or authority in approving these services or tests.

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103. Medical etiquette are standards of _____ behavior.

Explanation

Medical etiquette refers to the set of standards and guidelines that govern the professional behavior of healthcare professionals. These standards ensure that healthcare providers maintain a high level of professionalism in their interactions with patients, colleagues, and the broader healthcare community. Adhering to medical etiquette helps to establish trust, respect, and effective communication between healthcare providers and patients, ultimately enhancing the quality of care provided.

Submit
104. Consideration is something of _____.

Explanation

Consideration is something that holds worth or importance. It refers to the act of taking into account or giving attention to something. In this context, the word "value" aligns perfectly with the concept of consideration, as it signifies the worth or significance of something.

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105. To allege is to assert or declare without _____.

Explanation

To allege is to assert or declare without proof. An allegation is a claim or an accusation that someone has done something wrong or unlawful, typically made without presenting evidence to support it. The proof or evidence may or may not exist, but it has not yet been presented when the allegation is made.

Submit
106. Certain electronic operations of health care information that are mandated under HIPAA are known as ____.

Explanation

Covered transactions refer to certain electronic operations of health care information that are mandated under HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act). These transactions include the exchange of health information between health care providers, health plans, and clearinghouses. The purpose of covered transactions is to ensure the secure and standardized electronic transmission of health care data, such as claims, eligibility inquiries, and payment information, while maintaining patient privacy and security.

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107. When the state privacy laws are stricter that the privacy standards established by HIPAA, this is called state _____.

Explanation

When the state privacy laws are stricter than the privacy standards established by HIPAA, it means that the state laws take precedence over the federal standards. This concept is known as preemption, where the state law supersedes or overrides the federal law. In this case, the state privacy laws have preempted the HIPAA privacy standards, allowing for stricter regulations at the state level.

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108. _____ is genetic testing on embryos for genese that cause untreatable or severe diseases.

Explanation

Preimplanting genetic diagnosis is the correct answer because it involves the genetic testing of embryos before they are implanted into the uterus. This testing is done to identify any genes that may cause untreatable or severe diseases in the future. It allows parents to make informed decisions about which embryos to implant and can help prevent the transmission of genetic disorders to future generations. Gene therapy, gene splicing, and amniocentesis are not specifically related to testing embryos for genetic diseases.

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109. The _____ (use only the initials) monitors Title VII of the Civil Rights Act.

Explanation

The EEOC (Equal Employment Opportunity Commission) is the federal agency responsible for monitoring and enforcing Title VII of the Civil Rights Act. Title VII prohibits employment discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, and national origin. The EEOC investigates complaints of discrimination, provides guidance to employers and employees, and takes legal action against those who violate the law. By monitoring Title VII, the EEOC ensures that employers comply with the law and individuals are protected from discrimination in the workplace.

Submit
110. A _____ is a private or public healthcare entity that facilitates the process of standard electronic transactions into HIPAA transactions.

Explanation

A clearinghouse is a healthcare entity that plays a crucial role in the conversion of standard electronic transactions into HIPAA transactions. It acts as an intermediary, receiving electronic transactions from healthcare providers and then processing and transmitting them to the appropriate recipients, such as insurance companies or other healthcare entities. This ensures that the transactions are compliant with HIPAA regulations and allows for efficient and secure electronic communication within the healthcare industry.

Submit
111. An agency that oversees hospital accreditation standards is known as _____ (use only the initials).

Explanation

JCAHO stands for the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations. This agency is responsible for setting and enforcing standards for hospitals and other healthcare organizations to ensure quality and safety. They conduct regular inspections and evaluations to assess compliance with these standards, and accreditation by JCAHO is seen as a mark of excellence in healthcare.

Submit
112. _____ is the improper performance of an otherwise proper or lawful act.

Explanation

Malfeasance refers to the improper performance of an otherwise proper or lawful act. It involves the intentional wrongdoing or misconduct by a person in a position of authority or responsibility, such as a public official or corporate executive. This term is used to describe actions that are illegal, unethical, or in violation of the individual's duty or obligations. It implies that the act was deliberate and intentional, rather than accidental or unintentional.

Submit
113. The uniform Anatomical Gift Act is a _____ statute allowing persons 18 years and of sound mind to make a gift of any or all body parts to others or for research.

Explanation

The correct answer is state because the uniform Anatomical Gift Act is a state statute that allows individuals who are 18 years old and of sound mind to donate their body parts to others or for research purposes. This act is not a federal, constitutional, or administrative statute, as it pertains specifically to state laws regarding anatomical gifts.

Submit
114. _____ is any injury caused by the defendant; usually a monetary award is given as compensation.

Explanation

Damages refer to any injury caused by the defendant, which may include physical, emotional, or financial harm. In legal terms, damages are a form of compensation that is awarded to the plaintiff as a result of the defendant's actions. It is a monetary amount that is meant to help restore the plaintiff to the position they were in before the injury occurred. Damages can cover medical expenses, lost wages, pain and suffering, and other related costs.

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_____ is the voluntary agreement that a patient gives to allow a...
A postmortem examination of organs and tissues to determine the cause...
_____ of contract is neglecting to uphold that contract.
A _____ is a crime that is punishable by death or imprisonment for...
The mortality rate is also called the _____ rate.
Man-made rules for the protection of society are called _____.
The Doctrine of professional discretion means that a _____ may...
_____  is the stiffnes that occurs in a dead body.
_____ varies by state and defines what the "practice of medicine" is...
A _____ is a less serious crime which is punishable by fines or...
Negative generalities concerning specific characteristics about a...
An individual who stops at the scene of an accident cannot be...
_____ law involves one citizen vs. another citizen and usually results...
The person being sued is called the _____.
_____ is spoken false or malicious words that injur a reputation.
Fraudulent is defined as the attempt to _____ another person.
The replacement of a defective or malfunctioning gen by splicing or...
_____ ensures that no one branch of the government can have more power...
_____ is obligation or responsibility.
Disease producing microorganisms transmitted by means of blood and...
Posthumous refers to after _____.
_____ contracts are agreements that are shown by inference, by signs,...
A _____ is the predicition for the course of a disease.
Any individually indentifiable information that relates to the...
Written command to appear in court is known as a _____.
_____ is the ability to understand someone without actually...
_____ consent is an agreement that is made through inference by signs,...
Care for the terminally ill patients consisting of comfort measures...
Beyond a _____ doubt is a stricter standard by which criminal evidence...
_____ is legal responsibility for one's own actions.
Res ipsa loquitur means the thing _____ for itself.
An unborn child from the third month after conception until birth is...
When an employee believes that the employer does not have a...
Medical coverage for >65 years old and certain disabled people, and...
Stare decisis means let the _____ stand.
Consent granted by a person after the patient has received knowledge...
A federal statute that regulates the manufacture and distribution of...
The administration of a lethal agent by another person to a patient...
The ordinary skill and care that must be used is called _____ of care.
A written command to appear in court with appropriate documentation is...
"Let the master answer" is _____.
A _____ is a civil injury.
Assumption of ______ is a legal defense that prevents a plaintiff from...
_____ insemination is the injection of seminal fluid that contains...
Unfair or unequal treatment is known as _____.
Withdrawing medical care from a patient without providing sufficient...
A legal reason, as for firing someone, is called _____.
_____ law concerns promises and agreements.
You are _____ if you are of sound mind and body.
Thread like structures withing the nuclus of a cell that transmit...
The time before birth during which the fetus is developing, usually...
_____ is written, print, or pictures that injur a reputation.
Insurance companies, HMOs, and government policies are examples of...
_____ authority occurs when the state takes responsibility from the...
A test for the presence of genetic defects in which a needle is used...
A  method of documentation in medical records that focuses on the...
The person bringing action into litigation is called the _____.
A type of health care system that falls under managed care and uses...
_____ is neglect, as in neglect of duty.
_____ cause is the continuous sequence of events, unbroken by any...
When a noncompliant patient leaves a hospital without a physician's...
Health care organizations covered under HIPAA are called _____.
_____ (use only the initials) of 1996 regulates the privacy of...
_____ is granting credentials based on another state's records.
Someone who is _____ is inclined to sue.
A _____ is a past case that serves as a future model.
The rate of sick people or cases of a disease in relationship to a...
In the case of a fetus, it is _____ when it has the ability...
A division of the Department of Justice that enforces the Controlled...
_____ is the study of good vs. evil.
Malfeasance is performing a(n) _____ act.
The legal obligation to a patient is known as _____ of care.
When a doctor gets paid for referrals, he is guilty of _____.
A person without funds is known as _____.
_____ is submitting a dispute for resolution to a person other than a...
_____ are master cells in the body that can generate specialized...
An agreed fee due on DOS for managed care plans is called a _____.
_____ torts are injuries caused by not exercising due standard of...
To _____ is to find fault with, criticize, or condemn.
When the state is the plaintiff, we call this the _____.
Medical coverage for indigent; especially pregnant women and children.
Preponderance of the _____ is the less stringent standard by which...
Functions that a healthcare provider can perform without authorization...
The _____ Person Rule asks, "What would other reasonable people have...
The various methods by which a patient has the right to...
A predetermined fee per member per period is known as _____.
An _____ contract is an agreement that clearly states all terms; oral...
In loco parentis is a person assigned by a _____ to stand in place of...
A public health officer who holds an investigation if a person's death...
An unborn child between the second and twelfth week after conception...
_____ is the expectation that your individual rights will be...
_____ laws are rules that are supposed to protect the public.
_____ is another term for voluntary euthanasia.
The illegal appropriation of property is called _____.
A _____ is a decision made by a court when there is no need for a...
An adult who acts on behalf of a child in litigation is known as...
The _____ means that the provider must make a reasonable effort to...
_____ is the failure to perform an action when it is necessary.
Res judicata means the thing has been _____.
Groups of identical matching cells that came from a single common cell...
_____ are themahor events or facts from a person's life, such as live...
The _____ approves all nonemergent services, hospitalization, or tests...
Medical etiquette are standards of _____ behavior.
Consideration is something of _____.
To allege is to assert or declare without _____.
Certain electronic operations of health care information that are...
When the state privacy laws are stricter that the privacy standards...
_____ is genetic testing on embryos for genese that cause untreatable...
The _____ (use only the initials) monitors Title VII of the Civil...
A _____ is a private or public healthcare entity that facilitates the...
An agency that oversees hospital accreditation standards is known as...
_____ is the improper performance of an otherwise proper or lawful...
The uniform Anatomical Gift Act is a _____ statute allowing...
_____ is any injury caused by the defendant; usually a monetary award...
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