Medical Law And Ethics Final Exam

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  • 1/114 Questions

    _____ is the voluntary agreement that a patient gives to allow a medically trained person permission to touch, examine, and perform a treatment.

    • Consent
    • Permission
    • Authority
    • Guardianship
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About This Quiz

This final exam in Medical Law and Ethics tests understanding of due process, empathy, litigious behavior, Medical Practice Acts, and the concept of precedents. It prepares learners to handle legal and ethical scenarios in medical settings effectively.

Medical Law And Ethics Final Exam - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    A postmortem examination of organs and tissues to determine the cause of death is known as a(n) _____.

    • Autopsy

    • Necropsy

    • Biopsy

    • Heteropsy

    Correct Answer
    A. Autopsy
    Explanation
    An autopsy is a postmortem examination of organs and tissues to determine the cause of death. It involves a thorough examination of the body, including internal organs, to identify any injuries, diseases, or abnormalities that may have contributed to the individual's death. Autopsies are typically performed by medical professionals, such as pathologists, and are an important tool in forensic medicine and research. Necropsy is a synonym for autopsy, while biopsy refers to the removal and examination of a small sample of tissue for diagnostic purposes. Heteropsy is not a recognized medical term.

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  • 3. 

    _____ of contract is neglecting to uphold that contract.

    • Breach

    • Nullification

    • Voiding

    • Dissolution

    Correct Answer
    A. Breach
    Explanation
    Breach of contract refers to the act of failing to fulfill the obligations stated in a contract. It occurs when one party neglects or violates the terms and conditions agreed upon in the contract. This breach can be in the form of non-performance, late performance, or inadequate performance. The other options, nullification, voiding, and dissolution, do not accurately capture the concept of neglecting to uphold a contract.

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  • 4. 

    A _____ is a crime that is punishable by death or imprisonment for more than one year.

    • Felony

    • Misdemeanor

    • Traffic violation

    • Tax evasion

    Correct Answer
    A. Felony
    Explanation
    A felony is a crime that is punishable by death or imprisonment for more than one year. This type of crime is considered more serious than a misdemeanor, which typically carries a lesser punishment. Traffic violations and tax evasion are not necessarily classified as felonies, as they do not usually result in punishments of death or imprisonment for more than one year.

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  • 5. 

    Man-made rules for the protection of society are called _____.

    Correct Answer
    Laws, laws, Law, law
    Explanation
    Man-made rules that are established to protect society and maintain order are known as laws. Laws are a set of regulations and guidelines that are enforced by a governing authority to ensure the safety, rights, and well-being of individuals within a society. These laws help in maintaining social order, resolving disputes, and providing a framework for justice and equality. The repetition of "laws" and "law" in the answer options emphasizes the concept of multiple rules and regulations that collectively form the legal system.

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  • 6. 

    The mortality rate is also called the _____ rate.

    • Sickness

    • Death

    • Recovery

    • Vaccination

    Correct Answer
    A. Death
    Explanation
    The mortality rate refers to the number of deaths in a specific population over a given period of time. It is a measure of the frequency or probability of death within a population. Therefore, the correct answer is "death" as it accurately represents the concept of mortality rate.

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  • 7. 

    _____ varies by state and defines what the "practice of medicine" is for that state.

    • Medical Practice Acts

    • Good Samaritan Laws

    • Vital statistics

    • Reciprocity

    Correct Answer
    A. Medical Practice Acts
    Explanation
    Medical Practice Acts vary by state and define what the "practice of medicine" is for that state. These acts outline the legal requirements and regulations that healthcare professionals must adhere to in order to practice medicine within a specific state. They define the scope of practice, licensing requirements, and disciplinary actions for healthcare professionals. Medical Practice Acts help protect the public by ensuring that healthcare providers are qualified and competent to provide medical care.

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  • 8. 

    A _____ is a less serious crime which is punishable by fines or imprisonment for less than one year.

    • Felony

    • Misdemeanor

    • Treason

    • Tax evasion

    Correct Answer
    A. Misdemeanor
    Explanation
    A misdemeanor is a less serious crime that carries a punishment of fines or imprisonment for less than one year. This type of offense is considered less severe than a felony, which typically involves more serious crimes and longer prison sentences. Examples of misdemeanors include petty theft, simple assault, and driving under the influence. Treason refers to betraying one's country, while tax evasion specifically refers to the illegal avoidance of paying taxes.

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  • 9. 

    The Doctrine of professional discretion means that a _____ may determine, based on his or her best judgement, if a patient with mental or emotional problems should view the medical record.

    • Patient

    • Physician

    • Clergyperson

    • Parent

    Correct Answer
    A. Physician
    Explanation
    The Doctrine of professional discretion means that a physician may determine, based on his or her best judgement, if a patient with mental or emotional problems should view the medical record. This implies that the physician has the authority and expertise to assess the patient's condition and make a decision regarding their access to sensitive medical information. The physician's professional discretion in this matter is crucial in protecting the patient's well-being and ensuring that they receive appropriate care and support.

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  • 10. 

    _____  is the stiffnes that occurs in a dead body.

    • Respondeat superior

    • Res judicata

    • Rigor mortis

    • Duces tecum

    Correct Answer
    A. Rigor mortis
    Explanation
    Rigor mortis is the stiffening of muscles that occurs in a dead body. After death, the body's muscles gradually become rigid and stiff due to the biochemical changes that take place. This process starts within a few hours after death and peaks at around 12-24 hours. It is caused by the depletion of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) in the muscles, which is required for muscle relaxation. As a result, the muscles become fixed in position, leading to the characteristic stiffness of rigor mortis.

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  • 11. 

    _____ law involves one citizen vs. another citizen and usually results in monetary damages.

    • Civil

    • Criminal

    • Administrative

    • Contract

    Correct Answer
    A. Civil
    Explanation
    Civil law involves disputes between individuals or entities, rather than crimes committed against society. It typically deals with private matters such as contracts, property, and personal injury. In civil cases, the plaintiff seeks monetary compensation or other forms of relief from the defendant for the harm caused. This is in contrast to criminal law, which involves offenses against the state and can result in penalties such as imprisonment. Administrative law pertains to the actions and decisions of government agencies, while contract law governs agreements between parties.

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  • 12. 

    Negative generalities concerning specific characteristics about a group that are applied to an entire population are called _____.

    • Stereotyping

    • Profiling

    • Prejudging

    • Intuitive

    Correct Answer
    A. Stereotyping
    Explanation
    Stating negative generalities about a group and applying them to the entire population is known as stereotyping. Stereotyping involves making assumptions or judgments about individuals based on their membership in a particular group, often leading to unfair and biased treatment. It is a form of generalization that overlooks individual differences and can perpetuate harmful stereotypes.

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  • 13. 

    An individual who stops at the scene of an accident cannot be successfully sued as long as he or she behaves as a reasonable, prudent person; this is the _____.

    • Good Samaritan Law

    • Good Citizen Law

    • Duty of care

    • Standard of care

    Correct Answer
    A. Good Samaritan Law
    Explanation
    The Good Samaritan Law protects individuals who stop at the scene of an accident from being successfully sued, as long as they behave in a reasonable and prudent manner. This law encourages people to provide assistance in emergency situations without fear of legal repercussions. It recognizes that individuals who voluntarily help others in need should not be penalized for any unintentional harm that may occur during their efforts to provide aid.

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  • 14. 

    Fraudulent is defined as the attempt to _____ another person.

    • Deceive

    • Help

    • Harm

    • Defy

    Correct Answer
    A. Deceive
    Explanation
    Fraudulent is an adjective that describes an action or behavior intended to deceive or trick someone. It involves dishonesty and the intention to mislead or cheat another person. Therefore, the correct answer is "deceive," as it accurately reflects the definition of fraudulent.

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  • 15. 

    _____ ensures that no one branch of the government can have more power than another.

    • Check and balances

    • Bipartisanship

    • The democratic party

    • The republican party

    Correct Answer
    A. Check and balances
    Explanation
    The concept of checks and balances ensures that no one branch of the government can have more power than another. This system is designed to prevent any one branch from becoming too dominant and potentially abusing its power. It allows each branch to limit the actions of the other branches, creating a system of accountability and preventing any one branch from becoming too powerful. This system is a fundamental principle of democratic governance and helps to maintain a balance of power within the government.

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  • 16. 

    _____ is spoken false or malicious words that injur a reputation.

    • Slander

    • Libel

    • Assault

    • Battery

    Correct Answer
    A. Slander
    Explanation
    Slander refers to the act of speaking false or malicious words that harm someone's reputation. It involves making false statements orally with the intention of damaging someone's character or reputation. Libel, on the other hand, refers to the act of spreading false or malicious information through written or printed words. Assault and battery are physical acts of violence and do not involve spoken words that harm reputation.

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  • 17. 

    _____ is obligation or responsibility.

    Correct Answer
    Duty
    Explanation
    Duty refers to an obligation or responsibility that one has towards a task, role, or relationship. It implies the moral or legal requirement to fulfill certain duties or perform specific actions. Duty often involves a sense of commitment, loyalty, and accountability towards fulfilling one's obligations and responsibilities. It is a term commonly used to describe the tasks or responsibilities that individuals have towards their job, family, community, or society as a whole.

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  • 18. 

    The replacement of a defective or malfunctioning gen by splicing or connecting onto the DNA of body cells to control production of a particular substance is called _____.

    • Gene therapy

    • In vitro repair

    • In utero repair

    • Neonatal repair

    Correct Answer
    A. Gene therapy
    Explanation
    Gene therapy is the correct answer because it involves replacing a defective or malfunctioning gene by splicing or connecting it onto the DNA of body cells. This process allows for the control of the production of a particular substance, aiming to treat or prevent genetic disorders. In gene therapy, the corrected gene is introduced into the patient's cells, either directly or through a vector, to restore the normal function of the gene and potentially alleviate the symptoms of the disease.

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  • 19. 

    The person being sued is called the _____.

    Correct Answer
    defendant, defendent
    Explanation
    The person being sued is called the defendant.

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  • 20. 

    _____ contracts are agreements that are shown by inference, by signs, inaction, or silence.

    Correct Answer
    Implied, implied
    Explanation
    Implied contracts are agreements that are not explicitly stated or written, but are instead understood or inferred from the actions, behavior, or circumstances of the parties involved. These contracts are based on the principle that parties should be held accountable for their actions and commitments, even if they are not explicitly stated in a formal contract. Implied contracts can be created through signs, inaction, or silence, where the parties involved demonstrate their intention to enter into a contractual relationship without explicitly stating it. Therefore, the correct answer is "implied, implied".

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  • 21. 

    A _____ is the predicition for the course of a disease.

    • Prognosis

    • Diagnosis

    • Assessment

    • Evaluation

    Correct Answer
    A. Prognosis
    Explanation
    A prognosis is the prediction for the course of a disease. It refers to the expected outcome or forecast of how a disease will progress and the likelihood of recovery or worsening. Prognosis takes into account various factors such as the patient's medical history, symptoms, and response to treatment. It helps healthcare professionals and patients understand the potential outcomes and make informed decisions regarding treatment and management of the disease.

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  • 22. 

    Disease producing microorganisms transmitted by means of blood and body fluids containing blood are called _____ pathogens.

    • Toxic

    • Sexually transmitted

    • Bloodborne

    • Deadly

    Correct Answer
    A. Bloodborne
    Explanation
    Bloodborne pathogens are disease-producing microorganisms that are transmitted through blood or body fluids containing blood. These pathogens can include viruses such as HIV and hepatitis B and C. Infection can occur through direct contact with infected blood or through contact with contaminated objects. Therefore, the correct answer is "bloodborne" as it accurately describes the transmission method of these microorganisms.

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  • 23. 

    Posthumous refers to after _____.

    Correct Answer
    death
    Explanation
    Posthumous refers to something that happens or is published after a person's death. It is commonly used to describe works of art, books, or music that are released or become famous after the creator has passed away. In this context, "death" is the event that occurs before something is considered posthumous.

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  • 24. 

    _____ is the ability to understand someone without actually experiencing what they have experienced.

    • Empathy

    • Sympathy

    • Integrity

    • Beneficence

    Correct Answer
    A. Empathy
    Explanation
    Empathy is the ability to understand someone without actually experiencing what they have experienced. It involves putting oneself in another person's shoes and trying to understand their emotions and perspectives. Empathy allows individuals to connect with others on a deeper level and offer support and understanding. It is different from sympathy, which involves feeling sorry for someone without truly understanding their feelings. Integrity and beneficence are unrelated to the ability to understand others without experiencing their experiences.

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  • 25. 

    _____ consent is an agreement that is made through inference by signs, inaction, or silence.

    • Implied

    • Informed

    • Expressed

    • Oral

    Correct Answer
    A. Implied
    Explanation
    Implied consent refers to an agreement that is not explicitly stated or verbally expressed but is understood through signs, inaction, or silence. In this type of consent, the individual's actions or lack of action indicate their agreement or acceptance of a situation or proposal. Unlike informed consent, which requires explicit knowledge and understanding of the terms, implied consent is inferred from the circumstances. Similarly, it differs from expressed consent, which is given explicitly through words or written communication. Implied consent is a common concept in legal and ethical contexts, particularly in situations where explicit consent may not be feasible or necessary.

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  • 26. 

    Any individually indentifiable information that relates to the physical or mental condition of the provision of healthcare to an individual is called _____.

    • Protected health information

    • Particular human information

    • Covered transaction

    • Covered entity

    Correct Answer
    A. Protected health information
    Explanation
    Protected health information refers to any individually identifiable information that relates to the physical or mental condition of an individual and is used in the provision of healthcare. This includes information such as medical records, diagnoses, treatments, and any other information that can be used to identify an individual's health status. It is important to protect this information to ensure patient privacy and confidentiality.

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  • 27. 

    Written command to appear in court is known as a _____.

    • Writ

    • Subpoena

    • Deposition

    • Testimony

    Correct Answer
    A. Subpoena
    Explanation
    A written command to appear in court is known as a subpoena. A subpoena is a legal document issued by a court that requires an individual to appear in court as a witness or to provide evidence. It is typically used to compel someone to testify or produce documents relevant to a legal proceeding. A subpoena is an important tool in the legal system to ensure the attendance of witnesses and the availability of evidence for a fair and just trial.

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  • 28. 

    Beyond a _____ doubt is a stricter standard by which criminal evidence is proved.

    Correct Answer
    reasonable
    Explanation
    The term "beyond a reasonable doubt" is a legal standard used in criminal cases to determine the level of proof required for a conviction. It means that the evidence presented must be so strong and convincing that there is no reasonable doubt in the minds of the jury or judge regarding the defendant's guilt. This standard is stricter than a mere "reasonable doubt," as it requires a higher level of certainty to establish guilt.

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  • 29. 

    _____ is legal responsibility for one's own actions.

    • Liable

    • Maturity

    • Culpable

    • Credit

    Correct Answer
    A. Liable
    Explanation
    Liable is the correct answer because it means being legally responsible for one's own actions. It implies that an individual can be held accountable for the consequences of their behavior or decisions. Liable is often used in legal contexts to refer to someone who can be sued or held legally responsible for damages or wrongdoing.

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  • 30. 

    Res ipsa loquitur means the thing _____ for itself.

    • Speaks

    • Acts

    • Is responsible

    • Is liable

    Correct Answer
    A. Speaks
    Explanation
    The Latin phrase "res ipsa loquitur" translates to "the thing speaks for itself." This phrase is often used in legal contexts to refer to situations where the facts or evidence of a case are so clear and obvious that no further explanation or proof is needed. In these cases, the "thing" or evidence itself speaks volumes and is sufficient to establish liability or responsibility.

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  • 31. 

    Care for the terminally ill patients consisting of comfort measures and symptom control is called _____.

    • Palliative care

    • Curative care

    • Euthanasia

    • Mercy killing

    Correct Answer
    A. Palliative care
    Explanation
    Palliative care refers to the medical care provided to terminally ill patients, focusing on providing comfort measures and symptom control rather than attempting to cure the underlying condition. This type of care aims to improve the quality of life for patients, managing pain and other distressing symptoms. It is a holistic approach that addresses not only the physical aspects but also the emotional, social, and spiritual needs of patients and their families. Palliative care does not involve euthanasia or mercy killing, but rather aims to support patients throughout their end-of-life journey.

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  • 32. 

    Stare decisis means let the _____ stand.

    Correct Answer
    decision
    Explanation
    Stare decisis is a legal principle that means "to stand by things decided." It is the practice of following and adhering to previous court rulings and decisions. In this context, "decision" is the correct answer because stare decisis essentially means to let the previous decision stand and be binding on future cases with similar facts or legal issues. This principle ensures consistency, predictability, and stability in the legal system.

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  • 33. 

    Consent granted by a person after the patient has received knowledge and understanding of potential risks and benefits is known as expressed or _____ consent.

    • Informed

    • Implied

    • Verbal

    • Written

    Correct Answer
    A. Informed
    Explanation
    Consent granted by a person after the patient has received knowledge and understanding of potential risks and benefits is known as informed consent. This type of consent is given when the individual has been provided with all the necessary information about the procedure, treatment, or intervention, including its potential risks and benefits. It ensures that the person is making an informed decision about their healthcare and allows them to actively participate in the decision-making process.

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  • 34. 

    An unborn child from the third month after conception until birth is called a(n) _____.

    • Zygote

    • Blastocyst

    • Fetus

    • Embryo

    Correct Answer
    A. Fetus
    Explanation
    During the third month after conception until birth, the developing human is referred to as a fetus. This is the stage when the major organs and body systems have formed and continue to grow and mature. The fetus is recognizable as a human and undergoes rapid growth and development during this time. The terms zygote and blastocyst refer to earlier stages of development, while embryo is used to describe the developing human from the time of implantation until the end of the second month of pregnancy.

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  • 35. 

    When an employee believes that the employer does not have a just-cause, or legal reason, for firing the employee, this is called _____.

    • Wrongful discharge

    • Ethical

    • Employer's rights

    • EEOC

    • Discrimination

    Correct Answer
    A. Wrongful discharge
    Explanation
    Wrongful discharge refers to the situation when an employee is terminated by their employer without a valid or legal reason. It occurs when an employee believes that their employer did not have a just-cause for firing them. Wrongful discharge can involve various factors such as breach of contract, violation of labor laws, discrimination, or retaliation. It is a legal concept that protects employees from unfair and unjust terminations.

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  • 36. 

    Medical coverage for >65 years old and certain disabled people, and ESRD patients is called _____.

    • Tricare

    • Medicare

    • Medigap

    • Medicaid

    Correct Answer
    A. Medicare
    Explanation
    Medicare is the correct answer because it provides medical coverage for individuals who are over 65 years old, certain disabled people, and those with End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD). Tricare is a healthcare program for military personnel and their families. Medigap is a supplemental insurance plan that helps cover the gaps in Medicare coverage. Medicaid is a government assistance program that provides healthcare coverage for low-income individuals and families.

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  • 37. 

    _____ insemination is the injection of seminal fluid that contains male sperm into the female's vagina from her husband, partner, or donor by some means other than intercourse.

    Correct Answer
    Artificial
    Explanation
    Artificial insemination refers to the process of injecting semen containing male sperm into the female's vagina through methods other than sexual intercourse. This technique is used when couples face fertility issues or when a donor's sperm is used. It allows for the introduction of sperm into the reproductive system, increasing the chances of fertilization and pregnancy.

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  • 38. 

    A federal statute that regulates the manufacture and distribution of the drugs that are capable of causing depedency is the _____.

    • Controlled Substance Act of 1970

    • Controlled Substance Act of 2010

    • Narcotic Dependency Act of 1970

    • Narcotic Dependency Act of 2010

    Correct Answer
    A. Controlled Substance Act of 1970
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Controlled Substance Act of 1970. This federal statute regulates the manufacture and distribution of drugs that have the potential to cause dependency. It establishes schedules for different controlled substances based on their potential for abuse and medical use. The act also sets requirements for record-keeping, labeling, and handling of controlled substances, and provides penalties for illegal activities related to these drugs.

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  • 39. 

    The administration of a lethal agent by another person to a patient for the purpose of relieving intolderable and incurable suffering is called _____.

    • Euthanasia

    • Lethal injections

    • Palliative care

    • Curative care

    Correct Answer
    A. Euthanasia
    Explanation
    Euthanasia refers to the act of administering a lethal agent to a patient by another person in order to relieve their intolerable and incurable suffering. This practice is often considered controversial and raises ethical and legal concerns. It is different from palliative care, which focuses on providing relief from symptoms and improving the quality of life for patients with serious illnesses. Lethal injections, on the other hand, specifically refer to the method of administering the lethal agent in euthanasia cases. Curative care involves treatments aimed at curing or alleviating a patient's condition rather than ending their life.

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  • 40. 

    The ordinary skill and care that must be used is called _____ of care.

    Correct Answer
    standard
    Explanation
    The ordinary skill and care that must be used is called "standard of care". This refers to the level of competence and caution that a reasonable person in a similar situation would exercise. It is the benchmark against which the actions of individuals are measured to determine whether they have met the expected level of care in a particular profession or situation.

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  • 41. 

    A _____ is a civil injury.

    • Tort

    • Misdemeanor

    • Felony

    • Blue collar crime

    Correct Answer
    A. Tort
    Explanation
    A tort is a civil injury, referring to a wrongful act or omission that causes harm or loss to another person. Unlike criminal offenses such as misdemeanors or felonies, which are prosecuted by the government, torts are typically resolved through civil lawsuits where the injured party seeks compensation for the damages suffered. Therefore, a tort can be considered a type of civil injury.

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  • 42. 

    Assumption of ______ is a legal defense that prevents a plaintiff from recovering damages if the plaintiff voluntarily accepts a risk associated with the activity.

    • Risk

    • Terms

    • Prognosis

    • Treatment

    Correct Answer
    A. Risk
    Explanation
    The assumption of risk is a legal defense that prevents a plaintiff from recovering damages if they voluntarily accept a risk associated with the activity. This means that if a person willingly participates in an activity knowing the potential risks involved, they cannot later sue for damages if they are injured. This defense is based on the idea that individuals should be responsible for their own choices and decisions, including accepting the risks that come with certain activities.

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  • 43. 

    A written command to appear in court with appropriate documentation is called _____.

    • Subpoena duces tecum

    • Subpoena dos equis

    • Deposition

    • Expert testimony

    Correct Answer
    A. Subpoena duces tecum
    Explanation
    A written command to appear in court with appropriate documentation is called a subpoena duces tecum. This legal term refers to a court order that requires an individual to bring specific documents or evidence to court for examination. It is commonly used in legal proceedings to ensure that all relevant information is presented and considered during a trial or hearing.

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  • 44. 

    "Let the master answer" is _____.

    • Respondeat superior

    • Res ipsa loquitur

    • Stare decisis

    • Mastrantonio fidele

    Correct Answer
    A. Respondeat superior
    Explanation
    "Respondeat superior" is a legal doctrine that holds employers liable for the actions of their employees when those actions occur within the scope of their employment. This means that if an employee causes harm or injury to someone while performing their job duties, the employer can be held responsible. The phrase "Let the master answer" is a loose translation of "respondeat superior" and reflects the principle that employers should be held accountable for the actions of their employees.

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  • 45. 

    Withdrawing medical care from a patient without providing sufficient notice to the patient is called _____.

    • Abandonment

    • Withdrawing from the patient/doctor contract

    • Felony withdrawal

    • Misdemeanor withdrawal

    Correct Answer
    A. Abandonment
    Explanation
    Abandonment refers to the act of withdrawing medical care from a patient without giving them adequate notice. This can occur when a healthcare provider terminates the patient-doctor relationship without providing the necessary time for the patient to find alternative care. Abandonment is considered unethical and can have serious consequences for both the patient and the healthcare provider.

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  • 46. 

    Unfair or unequal treatment is known as _____.

    Correct Answer
    discrimination
    Explanation
    Unfair or unequal treatment based on factors such as race, gender, age, or disability is referred to as discrimination. This term encompasses the act of treating someone unjustly or differently due to their membership in a particular group. Discrimination can occur in various contexts, such as employment, education, housing, or public services, and it is widely recognized as a violation of human rights.

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  • 47. 

    _____ law concerns promises and agreements.

    • Civil

    • Criminal

    • Contract

    • Good Samaritan

    Correct Answer
    A. Contract
    Explanation
    Contract law is the correct answer because it specifically deals with promises and agreements. This branch of law governs the formation and enforcement of contracts, which are legally binding agreements between two or more parties. It sets out the rights and obligations of the parties involved and provides remedies in case of a breach of contract. Contract law is essential in ensuring that parties can rely on the promises and agreements they make, and it provides a framework for resolving disputes that may arise from these agreements.

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  • 48. 

    A legal reason, as for firing someone, is called _____.

    • Just cause

    • Justified

    • Justifiable homicide

    • Justifiable insanity

    Correct Answer
    A. Just cause
    Explanation
    Just cause is the correct answer because it refers to a legally valid reason for firing someone. It implies that the termination was based on a legitimate and lawful cause, such as poor performance, misconduct, or violation of company policies. The term "just cause" is commonly used in employment law to ensure that employees are not wrongfully terminated and that there is a valid reason behind their dismissal.

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  • 49. 

    _____ is written, print, or pictures that injur a reputation.

    • Libel

    • Slander

    • Assault

    • Usery

    Correct Answer
    A. Libel
    Explanation
    Libel refers to written, printed, or pictorial statements that harm someone's reputation. Unlike slander, which is spoken defamation, libel involves the dissemination of damaging information through written or printed media. Assault, on the other hand, refers to physical harm or the threat of physical harm, while usury refers to the illegal practice of charging excessive interest rates on loans. Therefore, libel is the correct answer as it specifically pertains to damaging statements made in written or printed form.

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  • May 07, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Aug 31, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Melissa_earley
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