Wentwest Sgpe 1: Applied Knowledge Test Paper

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Wentwest Sgpe 1: Applied Knowledge Test Paper - Quiz

RACGP Applied Knowledge Test


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A 5 year old boy has been suffering from constipation and soiling for many months.  His mother is concerned that something needs to be done before starting school.  He was born after a normal delivery and had no problems until the age of 2.  On examination he is well with the only finding of note a loaded colon.  Which of the following statements about constipation is true?

    • A.

      A) Constipation in children may be a sign of systemic disease

    • B.

      B) The parents can be reassured that he will grow out of his symptoms

    • C.

      C) Hirshsprung’s disease always presents in the neonatal period

    • D.

      D) The parents should be trained in the use of enemas to treat any recurrence early

    • E.

      E) Stimulant laxatives are contraindicated in children

    Correct Answer
    A. A) Constipation in children may be a sign of systemic disease
    Explanation
    Constipation in children may be a sign of systemic disease. This means that the child's constipation could be a symptom of an underlying medical condition that affects the entire body. The fact that the child has been suffering from constipation and soiling for many months, along with the finding of a loaded colon on examination, suggests that there may be an underlying issue causing the constipation. It is important for the child to be evaluated by a healthcare professional to determine the cause of the constipation and to ensure appropriate management and treatment.

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  • 2. 

    A 4 year old girl is brought in by her mother who is concerned that she has stopped growing.  She was born at term after a normal pregnancy and her height and weight were on the 50th centile.  On examination she appears well but her height and weight are both now on the 9th centile.  Which of the following statements about failure to thrive is not true?

    • A.

      A) It always has an organic basis

    • B.

      B) If it is caused by coeliac disease, it is usually associated with diarrhoea

    • C.

      C) It may be caused by hyperthyroidism

    • D.

      D) It may be caused by a urinary tract infection

    • E.

      E) If it is caused by growth hormone deficiency, it is usually apparent only from 6 – 12 months

    Correct Answer
    A. A) It always has an organic basis
    Explanation
    Failure to thrive refers to inadequate growth or weight gain in children. While it is commonly associated with organic causes such as medical conditions or nutritional deficiencies, it can also be caused by psychosocial factors such as neglect or emotional deprivation. Therefore, statement a) is not true as failure to thrive does not always have an organic basis.

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  • 3. 

    Geoff is a 76 year old patient of yours with glaucoma.  Which of the following statements would you advise him?

    • A.

      A) Glaucoma is usually asymptomatic

    • B.

      B) If he has raised intraocular pressure but no signs of glaucoma, he may be reassured

    • C.

      C) It affects approximately 2% of the population

    • D.

      D) Geoff’s treatment should aim to reduce the intraocular pressure and reverse any loss of visual field

    • E.

      E) It is a disease of middle aged and elderly individuals

    Correct Answer
    C. C) It affects approximately 2% of the population
    Explanation
    Glaucoma is a common eye condition that affects approximately 2% of the population. This statement provides information about the prevalence of glaucoma in the general population.

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  • 4. 

    37 year old Sarah G2P1, 25 weeks gestation presents to you for a routine antenatal visit.  Which of the following medications is contraindicated in pregnancy?

    • A.

      A) Penicillin V

    • B.

      B) Codeine phosphate

    • C.

      C) Ondansetron

    • D.

      D) Insulin

    • E.

      E) Fluconazole

    Correct Answer
    E. E) Fluconazole
    Explanation
    Fluconazole is contraindicated in pregnancy because it is classified as a category D medication by the FDA. Category D medications have shown evidence of risk to the fetus in human studies. Fluconazole has been associated with an increased risk of birth defects, including skeletal abnormalities and craniofacial malformations, when used during the first trimester of pregnancy. Therefore, it should be avoided in pregnant women unless the potential benefits outweigh the risks.

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  • 5. 

    35 year old Amanda presents with a 5 year history of increasingly painful periods with a more recent onset of deep dyspareunia.  She and her male partner have been trying to conceive for the last 2 years without success.  Which of the following is the most appropriate advice for her?

    • A.

      A) She should be treated with a low dose of fluoxetine

    • B.

      B) She should keep a food diary to try to identify any possible triggers

    • C.

      C) Non steroidal agents may be effective during exacerbations of pain

    • D.

      D) Lack of specific signs on examination suggests that her dyspareunia is psychological

    • E.

      E) Laparoscopy is not indicated

    Correct Answer
    C. C) Non steroidal agents may be effective during exacerbations of pain
    Explanation
    The most appropriate advice for Amanda is to use nonsteroidal agents during exacerbations of pain. This suggestion is based on the information provided in the question, which states that Amanda has a 5-year history of increasingly painful periods and more recent deep dyspareunia. Nonsteroidal agents are commonly used to manage pain associated with conditions such as dysmenorrhea and endometriosis, which could be the underlying causes of Amanda's symptoms. This advice aims to provide relief during episodes of increased pain.

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  • 6. 

    24 year old Evangeline presents with a 2 day history of painful vesicular lesions on her labia.  You note that a routine STI screen done 3 months ago was normal for hepatitis B, hepatitis C, HIV, syphilis, Gonorrhoea and Chlamydia.  Which of the following advice would not be appropriate to give her?

    • A.

      A) The first attack of this condition is usually the most painful

    • B.

      B) It is unlikely to be an STI in view of her normal screen 3 months ago

    • C.

      C) She could be treated with Aciclovir to reduce the severity and duration of the attack

    • D.

      D) Aciclovir will not prevent future recurrence

    • E.

      E) She should remain abstinent or her male partner should use barrier contraception until the condition has resolved

    Correct Answer
    B. B) It is unlikely to be an STI in view of her normal screen 3 months ago
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b) It is unlikely to be an STI in view of her normal screen 3 months ago. This advice would not be appropriate because the absence of an STI on a previous screen does not rule out the possibility of acquiring an STI at a later time. It is important to consider that STIs can be acquired through sexual contact with an infected partner, and the absence of symptoms or positive results on a previous screen does not guarantee that the current symptoms are not due to an STI. Therefore, it is important to consider STIs as a potential cause and provide appropriate advice and treatment.

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  • 7. 

    72 year old Mary has been a regular patient of yours for 10 years.  You diagnosed her with metastatic bowel cancer 6 months ago and you have looked after her palliative care since then.  You receive a call from her daughter (who is a nurse) whilst you are in your morning session at the practice saying that she has peacefully passed away 20 minutes ago.  Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in your management?

    • A.

      A) Organise your registrar to attend and complete the death certificate as you have a fully booked morning session

    • B.

      B) Organise an immediate ambulance to transfer the body to the morgue

    • C.

      C) Attend to the body as soon as possible today and complete the death certificate

    • D.

      D) Advise the daughter to certify the body straight away

    • E.

      E) Advise the coroner of the death

    Correct Answer
    C. C) Attend to the body as soon as possible today and complete the death certificate
  • 8. 

    45 year old John has recently started a new relationship and presents with a compliant of low libido.  On further questioning, he admits to feeling lethargic, weak and has noticed that he has less stubble than previously.  He takes no regular medication and is otherwise well.  He does not experience headaches.  Which of the following would be the most appropriate next investigation to order?

    • A.

      A) MRI Brain

    • B.

      B) Semen Analysis

    • C.

      C) Depression screening

    • D.

      D) Short Synacthen test

    • E.

      E) FSH and testosterone levels

    Correct Answer
    E. E) FSH and testosterone levels
    Explanation
    The most appropriate next investigation to order would be to measure FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and testosterone levels. John's symptoms of low libido, lethargy, weakness, and decreased facial hair suggest possible hormonal imbalances. Measuring FSH and testosterone levels can help assess if there is an issue with the production or regulation of these hormones, which could be contributing to his symptoms. This investigation would provide valuable information for further evaluation and management of his condition.

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  • 9. 

    37 year old Corey presents with a lesion on her eyelid (see diagram below).  It is not painful.  What is the diagnosis?

    • A.

      A) Cellulitis

    • B.

      B) Conjunctivitis

    • C.

      C) Chalazion

    • D.

      D) Sebaceous cyst

    • E.

      E) Basal cell carcinoma

    Correct Answer
    C. C) Chalazion
    Explanation
    The correct diagnosis in this case is a chalazion. A chalazion is a painless bump or swelling on the eyelid that occurs when a meibomian gland becomes blocked or inflamed. It usually develops slowly and may be accompanied by redness and swelling. It is a benign condition and can often be treated with warm compresses and gentle massage. In some cases, it may require medical intervention such as steroid injections or surgical drainage.

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  • 10. 

    57 year old Mason presents with an acutely swollen knee and difficulty flexing the joint after a fall.  He takes no regular medication and is otherwise well but slightly overweight.  Which of the following is true?

    • A.

      A) He should be treated for a probable septic arthritis and reviewed in 1 week

    • B.

      B) He may have an intra-articular fracture with a haemarthrosis

    • C.

      C) He may have a haemarthrosis in which case he should be screened for haemophilia

    • D.

      D) The injury is unlikely to cause permanent joint damage

    • E.

      E) The joint should not be splinted because this prevents mobilisation

    Correct Answer
    B. B) He may have an intra-articular fracture with a haemarthrosis
    Explanation
    Given the patient's history of a fall and the acute swelling and difficulty flexing the knee, it suggests the possibility of an intra-articular fracture with a haemarthrosis. Haemarthrosis refers to bleeding into a joint cavity, which can occur with fractures. This is a likely explanation for the symptoms and should be considered as a possible diagnosis for this patient.

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  • 11. 

     12 year old Emma presents with her mother.  She is embarrassed that she still has occasional nocturnal enuresis.  This has been going on since she was potty trained and happens on average once or twice a week.  She has tried fluid restriction, frequent waking and the enuresis alarm but to no effect.  Which of the following would you advise?

    • A.

      A) The condition is more common in girls than boys

    • B.

      B) Emma may be reassured that no further tests or treatments are necessary and that she will grow out of the condition in time

    • C.

      C) She should have her urine tested

    • D.

      D) Desmopressin is an effective long term treatment

    • E.

      E) It is likely to settle with the onset of menarche

    Correct Answer
    C. C) She should have her urine tested
    Explanation
    Emma should have her urine tested because nocturnal enuresis that persists beyond the age of 6 years may be a sign of an underlying medical condition. Testing the urine can help identify any potential issues such as a urinary tract infection or diabetes. It is important to rule out any underlying causes before considering other treatment options.

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  • 12. 

    17 year old Joel presents with a 2 day history of dysuria and discharge from his penis.  He has no other significant past history.  Results of a urethral swab and MSU show a few pus cells but no growth on either specimen.  What is the most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      A) Gonorrhoea

    • B.

      B) Chronic prostatits

    • C.

      C) Non specific urethritis

    • D.

      D) Urinary tract infection

    • E.

      E) Balanitis xerotica obliterans

    Correct Answer
    C. C) Non specific urethritis
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, Joel presents with symptoms of dysuria and discharge from his penis. The results of the urethral swab and MSU show a few pus cells but no growth on either specimen. This suggests an infection in the urethra, but the specific cause cannot be identified. This is consistent with non-specific urethritis, which is an inflammation of the urethra that is not caused by a specific pathogen. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis in this case is non-specific urethritis.

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  • 13. 

    56 year old Josephine presents with a chronic rash on her face which she tends to cover with heavy applications of makeup.  She also describes recurrent conjunctivitis and itchy eyes.  On examination she has papules and pustules over her cheeks and forehead.  What is the most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      A) Systemic lupus erythematosus

    • B.

      B) Acne vulgaris

    • C.

      C) Rosacea

    • D.

      D) Dermatitis herpetiformis

    • E.

      E) Allergic contact dermatitis

    Correct Answer
    C. C) Rosacea
    Explanation
    The patient's symptoms of a chronic rash on the face, recurrent conjunctivitis, and itchy eyes, along with the presence of papules and pustules on the cheeks and forehead, are consistent with the diagnosis of rosacea. Rosacea is a chronic skin condition that primarily affects the face, causing redness, flushing, and the development of papules and pustules. The patient's use of heavy makeup to cover the rash suggests that she may be self-conscious about her appearance, which is a common concern for individuals with rosacea.

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  • 14. 

    61 year old Jacqui complains that her periods have started again after 4 years off HRT.  She has just finished a 5 day period.  She is otherwise well apart from well controlled type II diabetes and asthma.  Abdominal and pelvic examination is normal.  Which of the following is the next most appropriate step in management?

    • A.

      A) Refer urgently for a gynaecologist review

    • B.

      B) Advise a pelvic ultrasound after her next period

    • C.

      C) Refer for a colonoscopy to exclude bowel pathology as a cause of her symptoms

    • D.

      D) Perform a cervical smear with HPV typing

    • E.

      E) Perform an urgent FBE

    Correct Answer
    A. A) Refer urgently for a gynaecologist review
    Explanation
    Given the patient's age and history of starting periods again after being off HRT for 4 years, it is important to rule out any underlying gynecological pathology. Referring the patient for a gynecologist review is the most appropriate next step in management to assess and address any potential issues related to her menstrual cycle.

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  • 15. 

    41 year old James has a history of gallstones and recurrent episodes of biliary colic.  He is currently on the public hospital waiting list for a cholecystectomy.  He presents with a sudden onset of upper abdominal pain radiating through to the back and associated with vomiting.  He states that the pain is different to his usual biliary colic attacks.  Examination reveals upper abdominal tenderness.  Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      A) Acute pancreatitis

    • B.

      B) Hiatus hernia

    • C.

      C) Gastroenteritis

    • D.

      D) Abdominal aortic aneurysm

    • E.

      E) Coeliac disease

    Correct Answer
    A. A) Acute pancreatitis
    Explanation
    The most likely diagnosis in this case is acute pancreatitis. The patient's sudden onset of upper abdominal pain radiating through to the back, associated with vomiting, and different from his usual biliary colic attacks, along with upper abdominal tenderness on examination, are all consistent with acute pancreatitis. This condition is commonly associated with gallstones and can cause severe abdominal pain. Other options such as hiatus hernia, gastroenteritis, abdominal aortic aneurysm, and coeliac disease are less likely based on the given information.

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  • 16. 

    A 33 year old patient presents with a rash on her arms and trunk.  She is otherwise well and has no other symptoms.  She takes no regular medications.  On examination she has a target like rash with central pallor.  Which of the following is not a cause of this rash?

    • A.

      A) Aspirin

    • B.

      B) Vitamin deficiency

    • C.

      C) Mycoplasma infection

    • D.

      D) Ulcerative colitis

    • E.

      E) Herpes zoster

    Correct Answer
    E. E) Herpes zoster
    Explanation
    The patient's presentation of a target-like rash with central pallor is consistent with erythema multiforme, which can be caused by various factors such as medications (aspirin), vitamin deficiencies, infections (Mycoplasma), and autoimmune conditions (ulcerative colitis). However, herpes zoster, also known as shingles, typically presents as a painful, blistering rash that follows a dermatomal distribution, rather than a target-like rash. Therefore, herpes zoster is not a likely cause of the patient's rash.

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  • 17. 

    You receive a phonecall from a residential care facility which you look after stating that one of your patients 72 year old Max, has been unable to pass urine for the last 12 hours.  On arrival he has a tender bladder palpable to his umbilicus.  The nurse advises that Max was complaining of dysuria yesterday.  Which of the following is true of his diagnosis and management?

    • A.

      A) He has urinary retention precipitated by a UTI and should have an indwelling catheter inserted

    • B.

      B) He has urinary retention precipitated by acute prostatic obstruction and should have a suprapubic catheter inserted

    • C.

      C) He has urinary retention and should have a suprapubic catheter inserted due to the likely presence of a UTI

    • D.

      D) He has acute urinary retention most likely caused by constipation and should have a fleet enema

    • E.

      E) He has urinary retention secondary to neurogenic bladder and should have an urgent CT lumbosacral spine

    Correct Answer
    A. A) He has urinary retention precipitated by a UTI and should have an indwelling catheter inserted
    Explanation
    Max's symptoms, including the inability to pass urine, a tender bladder, and a history of dysuria, suggest urinary retention. The most likely cause of this is a urinary tract infection (UTI). The appropriate management in this case would be to insert an indwelling catheter to relieve the urinary retention. This would help to drain the bladder and treat the underlying UTI.

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  • 18. 

    23 year old Domengo is a foreign student from Italy who has recently arrived in Australia to pursue a university degree in hospitality.  He presents with a 1 week history of intense itching on fingers, wrists and arms.  He says that this is worse at night and after showering.  On examination he has extensive scratch marks and papules with raised white lines in the skin.  He has no previous history and takes no regular medications.  Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      A) Pemphigus

    • B.

      B) Pompholyx

    • C.

      C) Scabies

    • D.

      D) Dermatitis artefacta

    • E.

      E) IgE hypersensitivity

    Correct Answer
    C. C) Scabies
    Explanation
    The most likely diagnosis for Domengo's symptoms is scabies. Scabies is a contagious skin condition caused by a mite called Sarcoptes scabiei. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly at night, and the presence of scratch marks and papules with raised white lines on the skin. Domengo's recent arrival in Australia and his foreign student status may have exposed him to the mite in a new environment. The other options, such as Pemphigus, Pompholyx, Dermatitis artefacta, and IgE hypersensitivity, do not match the specific symptoms and presentation described.

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  • 19. 

    A 35 year old asylum seeker registers at your practice.  He presents with a 6 month history of weight loss, night sweats and cough with occasional haemoptysis.  On examination he has erythema nodosum and reduced air entry in his R mid zone, with dullness to percussion over this area.  He has no previous history of note and has no risk factors for HIV.  Which of the following is the likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      A) Tuberculosis

    • B.

      B) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

    • C.

      C) Bronchopneumonia

    • D.

      D) Lung cancer

    • E.

      E) Sarcoidosis

    Correct Answer
    A. A) Tuberculosis
    Explanation
    The patient's symptoms of weight loss, night sweats, cough with occasional haemoptysis, and physical examination findings of erythema nodosum, reduced air entry, and dullness to percussion suggest a diagnosis of tuberculosis. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis and commonly presents with these symptoms. The absence of risk factors for HIV and the specific findings on examination point towards tuberculosis as the likely diagnosis. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia is more commonly seen in immunocompromised individuals, bronchopneumonia does not explain the specific findings, lung cancer typically presents differently, and sarcoidosis may have similar symptoms but does not usually present with erythema nodosum.

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  • 20. 

    A 67 year old woman presents with a lump in front of her neck.  She thinks that this has been present for only a few months.  She has no other symptoms and does not take any regular medications.  Examination reveals a smooth non tender lump that moves on swallowing.  Which of the following is true?

    • A.

      A) TFTs should be performed. If they are normal no further action is necessary at this time. However TFTs should be repeated on a regular basis to detect hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism

    • B.

      B) If TFTs show a raised TSH, she should be started on Thyroxine and have TFTs repeated in 3 months to assess effect

    • C.

      C) She should be referred for specialist review

    • D.

      D) She is in the acute phase of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis and can be reassured

    • E.

      E) If she is clinically euthyroid this is most probably a physiological goitre

    Correct Answer
    C. C) She should be referred for specialist review
    Explanation
    The patient's presentation of a lump in front of her neck raises concern for a possible thyroid abnormality. The fact that the lump moves on swallowing suggests that it is likely a thyroid nodule. Given her age and the duration of the lump, it is important to refer her for specialist review. This is because thyroid nodules in older individuals have a higher risk of being malignant, and further evaluation is necessary to determine the nature of the lump and the need for further treatment.

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  • 21. 

    48 year old Tony has a history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes with sudden onset of visual loss.  You suspect a vitreous haemorrhage.  Which of the following examination findings would be consistent with this?

    • A.

      A) Loss of red reflex, reduced visual acuity in the affected eye, blood in the posterior chamber of the affected eye

    • B.

      B) Loss of pupillary reflex in contralateral eye, reduced visual acuity in the affected eye, blood in the posterior chamber of the affected eye

    • C.

      C) AV nipping, blot haemorrhages and flame haemorrhages

    • D.

      D) Reduced visual acuity in the affected eye, blood in the anterior chamber of the affected eye, loss of pupillary reflex in the contralateral eye

    • E.

      E) Splinter haemorrhages, loss of red reflex and blurring of the optic disc

    Correct Answer
    A. A) Loss of red reflex, reduced visual acuity in the affected eye, blood in the posterior chamber of the affected eye
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a) Loss of red reflex, reduced visual acuity in the affected eye, blood in the posterior chamber of the affected eye. These findings are consistent with a vitreous hemorrhage, which is a common complication of poorly controlled diabetes. Loss of red reflex indicates opacity in the vitreous humor, reduced visual acuity is a result of the hemorrhage obstructing light, and blood in the posterior chamber confirms the presence of bleeding.

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  • 22. 

    87 year old Richard presents for his 3rd ear syringe this year.  He complains that this is becoming too frequent an occurrence.  Which of the following statements would you advise him?

    • A.

      A) Repeated wax accumulation suggests local ear disease for which he should be actively investigated

    • B.

      B) Wax impaction is asymptomatic

    • C.

      C) Wax impaction may be the result of hearing aid use

    • D.

      D) Any patient presenting with ear wax should have ear syringing

    • E.

      E) Ear wax drops should be ceased at least 2 weeks prior to ear syringing

    Correct Answer
    C. C) Wax impaction may be the result of hearing aid use
    Explanation
    Wax impaction may be the result of hearing aid use. This is the most appropriate advice for Richard because hearing aids can contribute to the accumulation of earwax. The repeated need for ear syringing suggests that Richard may be experiencing wax impaction due to his hearing aids. Advising him that wax impaction may be the result of hearing aid use would help him understand the reason for his frequent ear syringing and potentially take steps to prevent it.

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  • 23. 

    74 year old Morton presents for his annual diabetic review.  He mentions that he has been getting increasing pain in his calves on walking over the last 6 months such that he can now only walk 50m without stopping.  Examination reveals poor peripheral pulses and sluggish capillary return.  Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      A) DVTs

    • B.

      B) Spinal canal stenosis

    • C.

      C) Multiple myeloma

    • D.

      D) Peripheral vascular disease

    • E.

      E) Age related changes

    Correct Answer
    D. D) Peripheral vascular disease
    Explanation
    Morton's symptoms of increasing pain in his calves on walking, poor peripheral pulses, and sluggish capillary return are consistent with peripheral vascular disease (PVD). PVD refers to the narrowing or blockage of blood vessels that supply blood to the legs and arms. This can cause pain, especially during physical activity, due to reduced blood flow to the muscles. The other options, such as DVTs, spinal canal stenosis, multiple myeloma, and age-related changes, are less likely to cause these specific symptoms.

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  • 24. 

    You are playing squash with your 55 year old senior partner when he yells out and collapses to the floor clutching his left ankle.  After some minutes he is able to stand but cannot easily move his foot.  Which of the following statements is true about his injury?

    • A.

      A) Achilles’ tendonitis usually presents in this way

    • B.

      B) A partial tear will usually show no signs on examination other than tenderness and a swelling in the mid tendon

    • C.

      C) MRI would be the investigation of 1st choice

    • D.

      D) Complete ruptures should always be treated surgically

    • E.

      E) Partial tears should always be treated because of the risk of developing a full tear

    Correct Answer
    B. B) A partial tear will usually show no signs on examination other than tenderness and a swelling in the mid tendon
    Explanation
    A partial tear in the Achilles tendon is likely the cause of the senior partner's injury based on the symptoms described. A partial tear often does not show any signs on examination other than tenderness and swelling in the mid tendon. This means that there may not be any visible deformity or obvious signs of a tear, making it difficult to diagnose without further investigation. Therefore, option b) is the correct statement about his injury.

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  • 25. 

    19 year old Sam presents with a 2 month history of cold fingers and toes.  She tells you that every time she gets this, her fingers go white, then purple and then return to normal.  She is otherwise well and takes no regular medications.  Which of the following is true?

    • A.

      A) She should be referred immediately to the rheumatologist

    • B.

      B) It is a contraindication to the COCP

    • C.

      C) It is more common in men

    • D.

      D) It may be associated with oesophageal disease

    • E.

      E) It is caused by nutritional vitamin D deficiency

    Correct Answer
    D. D) It may be associated with oesophageal disease
    Explanation
    The patient's symptoms of cold fingers and toes that turn white, then purple, and then return to normal are indicative of Raynaud's phenomenon. Raynaud's phenomenon is often associated with underlying connective tissue diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis or systemic lupus erythematosus, but it can also be associated with oesophageal disease. Therefore, option d) "It may be associated with oesophageal disease" is the correct answer.

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  • 26. 

    A 57 year old man who is a smoker presents with increasing shortness of breath over 4 weeks.  You diagnose him with a L pleural effusion.  Which of the following are you likely to find on examination?

    • A.

      A) Reduced air entry at the L base, dullness to percussion over the L base and bronchial breathing heard above the area

    • B.

      B) Reduced air entry at the L base, bronchial breathing over the L base and stony dull percussion above the area

    • C.

      C) Reduced air entry at the L base and wheeze over the L base

    • D.

      D) Normal air entry in the lung fields, dullness to percussion over the L base and increased vocal fremitus over the L base

    • E.

      E) Normal air entry in the lung fields, dullness to percussion over the L base and reduced vocal fremitus over the L base

    Correct Answer
    A. A) Reduced air entry at the L base, dullness to percussion over the L base and bronchial breathing heard above the area
    Explanation
    In a patient with a left pleural effusion, there is accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, leading to compression of the underlying lung tissue. This results in reduced air entry at the affected area, which in this case is the left base. Dullness to percussion is also expected over the left base due to the fluid-filled space. Bronchial breathing, which is the abnormal transmission of bronchial sounds to the periphery, is heard above the area of the effusion due to consolidation of lung tissue. Therefore, option a) is the correct answer as it includes all these findings.

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  • 27. 

     A 57 year old man who is a smoker presents with increasing shortness of breath over 4 weeks.  You diagnose him with a L pleural effusion.  Which of the following is false?

    • A.

      A) Unilateral pleural effusions may be an early sign of heart failure

    • B.

      B) It may result from ascites

    • C.

      C) It may result from liver disease

    • D.

      D) It may result from infection

    • E.

      E) Pleural effusions need to be > 10ml to be visible on CXR

    Correct Answer
    E. E) Pleural effusions need to be > 10ml to be visible on CXR
    Explanation
    Unilateral pleural effusions may be an early sign of heart failure, as fluid can accumulate in the pleural space due to increased pressure in the pulmonary circulation. Pleural effusions can also result from ascites, as fluid can migrate from the abdominal cavity to the pleural space. Liver disease can cause pleural effusions due to impaired liver function and increased pressure in the hepatic circulation. Infection can also lead to pleural effusions, as the body's immune response can cause fluid to accumulate in the pleural space. However, pleural effusions do not need to be > 10ml to be visible on CXR.

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  • 28. 

    37 year old Janine has come to discuss the recent diagnosis of Down syndrome in her newborn son.  She is particularly concerned about implications for future children.  Which of the following statements about Down syndrome is true?

    • A.

      A) Most Down syndrome infants are born to women over the age of 30

    • B.

      B) Down syndrome is an autosomal dominant trait

    • C.

      C) Nuchal translucency screening is best performed at 10 weeks gestation

    • D.

      D) All of the above

    • E.

      E) None of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. E) None of the above
  • 29. 

    A 34 year old man with a history of epilepsy since childhood who has had a seizure earlier in the day presents to you for review.  Whilst in the waiting room he has another seizure and subsequently develops status epilepticus.  Which of the following is not an appropriate action in this situation?

    • A.

      A) ABC of resuscitation

    • B.

      B) Check blood glucose

    • C.

      C) High flow oxygen

    • D.

      D) Intranasal midazolam

    • E.

      E) Intramuscular phenytoin

    Correct Answer
    E. E) Intramuscular phenytoin
    Explanation
    Intramuscular phenytoin is not an appropriate action in this situation. Status epilepticus is a medical emergency characterized by prolonged or repeated seizures, and immediate treatment is necessary to prevent further complications or damage. The correct actions in this situation would include ABC resuscitation (ensuring airway, breathing, and circulation), checking blood glucose to rule out hypoglycemia as a possible cause of the seizure, administering high flow oxygen to maintain oxygen saturation, and using intranasal midazolam as a first-line treatment for acute seizure cessation. Intramuscular phenytoin is not recommended for the immediate management of status epilepticus due to its slow onset of action.

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  • 30. 

    43 year old Casey presents with a history of a thickening in the palm of her hand over many months.  Examination reveals the following appearance of her hand (see picture).  What would you advise her?

    • A.

      A) Family history is not a risk factor

    • B.

      B) Chronic liver disease is not a risk factor

    • C.

      C) The 4th finger is commonly affected

    • D.

      D) It is unusual in people over the age of 40

    • E.

      E) Surgical fasciectomy is the only management option

    Correct Answer
    C. C) The 4th finger is commonly affected
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, Casey has a thickening in the palm of her hand. The picture shows the appearance of her hand. The correct answer, option c), states that the 4th finger is commonly affected. This suggests that Casey may be experiencing Dupuytren's contracture, a condition where the connective tissue in the hand thickens and forms nodules, causing the fingers to bend towards the palm. This condition commonly affects the 4th and 5th fingers. Therefore, advising Casey about the common involvement of the 4th finger would be appropriate in this case.

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  • 31. 

    54 year old Aziz has a longstanding history of varicose veins.  He complains of an acute onset of erythema, tenderness and swelling on the side of his calf.  He is afebrile.  What is the most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      A) Cellulitis

    • B.

      B) Chronic venous insufficiency

    • C.

      C) Deep vein thrombosis

    • D.

      D) Gout

    • E.

      E) Intermittent claudication

    • F.

      F) Lymphoedema

    • G.

      G) Raynaud’s phenomenon

    • H.

      H) Ruptured Baker’s cyst

    • I.

      I) Superficial thrombophlebitis

    • J.

      J) Thrombophlebitis obliterans

    • K.

      K) Sarcoma

    • L.

      L) Restless legs

    • M.

      M) Sciatica

    • N.

      N) Spinal canal stenosis

    • O.

      O) Osteoarthritis

    Correct Answer
    I. I) Superficial thrombophlebitis
    Explanation
    The most likely diagnosis for Aziz's symptoms is superficial thrombophlebitis. Superficial thrombophlebitis is characterized by inflammation and blood clot formation in a superficial vein, typically in the legs. Aziz's acute onset of erythema, tenderness, and swelling on the side of his calf are consistent with this condition. Other options such as cellulitis, deep vein thrombosis, and gout may present with similar symptoms, but given Aziz's history of varicose veins, superficial thrombophlebitis is the most likely cause.

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  • 32. 

    79 year old Colleen has a history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes.  She presents with calf pain which is worse on walking.  Examination reveals an erythematous leg when sitting but the leg blanches on elevation.  What is the most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      A) Cellulitis

    • B.

      B) Chronic venous insufficiency

    • C.

      C) Deep vein thrombosis

    • D.

      D) Gout

    • E.

      E) Intermittent claudication

    • F.

      F) Lymphoedema

    • G.

      G) Raynaud’s phenomenon

    • H.

      H) Ruptured Baker’s cyst

    • I.

      I) Superficial thrombophlebitis

    • J.

      J) Thrombophlebitis obliterans

    • K.

      K) Sarcoma

    • L.

      L) Restless legs

    • M.

      M) Sciatica

    • N.

      N) Spinal canal stenosis

    • O.

      O) Osteoarthritis

    Correct Answer
    E. E) Intermittent claudication
    Explanation
    The most likely diagnosis in this case is intermittent claudication. Intermittent claudication is a symptom of peripheral arterial disease (PAD) caused by atherosclerosis. The calf pain that worsens on walking is characteristic of intermittent claudication, as it is caused by inadequate blood flow to the muscles during exercise. The erythematous leg when sitting and blanching on elevation suggests poor blood circulation. Given the patient's history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes, which is a risk factor for PAD, intermittent claudication is the most likely diagnosis.

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  • 33. 

    56 year old Graham who has a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with a painful swelling behind his knee.  Examination shows a tenderness and erythema in the popliteal fossa.  What is the most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      A) Cellulitis

    • B.

      B) Chronic venous insufficiency

    • C.

      C) Deep vein thrombosis

    • D.

      D) Gout

    • E.

      E) Intermittent claudication

    • F.

      F) Lymphoedema

    • G.

      G) Raynaud’s phenomenon

    • H.

      H) Ruptured Baker’s cyst

    • I.

      I) Superficial thrombophlebitis

    • J.

      J) Thrombophlebitis obliterans

    • K.

      K) Sarcoma

    • L.

      L) Restless legs

    • M.

      M) Sciatica

    • N.

      N) Spinal canal stenosis

    • O.

      O) Osteoarthritis

    Correct Answer
    H. H) Ruptured Baker’s cyst
    Explanation
    The most likely diagnosis for Graham's painful swelling behind his knee is a ruptured Baker's cyst. This is supported by the tenderness and erythema in the popliteal fossa, which is the area where the Baker's cyst is located. A Baker's cyst is a fluid-filled sac that forms behind the knee due to excess synovial fluid from the knee joint. When the cyst ruptures, it can cause pain and swelling in the area.

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  • 34. 

    63 year old Jonathan presents with a ‘rash’ on his leg which has developed over the last 3 days.  Examination reveals the following on inspection (see picture below).  What is the most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      A) Cellulitis

    • B.

      B) Chronic venous insufficiency

    • C.

      C) Deep vein thrombosis

    • D.

      D) Gout

    • E.

      E) Intermittent claudication

    • F.

      F) Lymphoedema

    • G.

      G) Raynaud’s phenomenon

    • H.

      H) Ruptured Baker’s cyst

    • I.

      I) Superficial thrombophlebitis

    • J.

      J) Thrombophlebitis obliterans

    • K.

      K) Sarcoma

    • L.

      L) Restless legs

    • M.

      M) Sciatica

    • N.

      N) Spinal canal stenosis

    • O.

      O) Osteoarthritis

    Correct Answer
    A. A) Cellulitis
    Explanation
    The most likely diagnosis for Jonathan's rash on his leg is cellulitis. Cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection that typically presents with redness, warmth, swelling, and pain. It can develop over a few days and is often associated with a break in the skin, such as a cut or scratch. The picture below is not provided, but based on the given information of a rash that developed over the last 3 days, cellulitis is the most fitting diagnosis.

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  • 35. 

    Your patient Angelique presents to you for a checkup and is accompanied by her sister Evette who is visiting from overseas.  You notice that Evette has a characteristic facial appearance (see below).  Which of the following might you expect to see associated with this disease?

    • A.

      A) Cellulitis

    • B.

      B) Chronic venous insufficiency

    • C.

      C) Deep vein thrombosis

    • D.

      D) Gout

    • E.

      E) Intermittent claudication

    • F.

      F) Lymphoedema

    • G.

      G) Raynaud’s phenomenon

    • H.

      H) Ruptured Baker’s cyst

    • I.

      I) Superficial thrombophlebitis

    • J.

      J) Thrombophlebitis obliterans

    • K.

      K) Sarcoma

    • L.

      L) Restless legs

    • M.

      M) Sciatica

    • N.

      N) Spinal canal stenosis

    • O.

      O) Osteoarthritis

    Correct Answer
    G. G) Raynaud’s phenomenon
    Explanation
    Raynaud's phenomenon is a condition characterized by episodes of reduced blood flow to the fingers and toes, causing them to turn white, blue, and then red. It is often triggered by cold temperatures or emotional stress. The characteristic facial appearance seen in Evette may indicate that she has a connective tissue disorder such as systemic sclerosis, which is commonly associated with Raynaud's phenomenon. Therefore, it would be expected to see Raynaud's phenomenon associated with this disease.

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  • 36. 

    74 year old Martha presents after she has noticed ‘bubbles of air’ in her urine.  Her past history includes hypertension, type 2 diabetes, osteoporosis, osteoarthritis, diverticular disease and chronic glaucoma.  What is the most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      A) Cystocoele

    • B.

      B) Neurological incontinence

    • C.

      C) Overflow incontinence

    • D.

      D) Stress incontinence

    • E.

      E) Urethral caruncle

    • F.

      F) Urge incontinence

    • G.

      G) Urinary tract infection

    • H.

      H) Vesicocolic fistula

    • I.

      I) Vesicovaginal fistula

    • J.

      J) Urinary retention

    • K.

      K) Uterine fibroid

    • L.

      L) Bladder carcinoma

    • M.

      M) Enuresis

    Correct Answer
    H. H) Vesicocolic fistula
    Explanation
    Martha's presentation of "bubbles of air" in her urine suggests the presence of a vesicocolic fistula. A vesicocolic fistula is an abnormal connection between the bladder and the colon, allowing air and feces to pass from the colon into the bladder. This can result in symptoms such as pneumaturia (air in the urine) and fecaluria (feces in the urine). Given Martha's age and medical history, including diverticular disease, a vesicocolic fistula is the most likely diagnosis.

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  • 37. 

    56 year old Maggie presents with an embarrassing complaint.  Over the last few months she has experienced difficulty with urination.  She finds that she needs to go to the toilet very quickly and often ends up being incontinent as she does not make it to the toilet in time.  It is starting to interfere with her work.  What is the most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      A) Cystocoele

    • B.

      B) Neurological incontinence

    • C.

      C) Overflow incontinence

    • D.

      D) Stress incontinence

    • E.

      E) Urethral caruncle

    • F.

      F) Urge incontinence

    • G.

      G) Urinary tract infection

    • H.

      H) Vesicocolic fistula

    • I.

      I) Vesicovaginal fistula

    • J.

      J) Urinary retention

    • K.

      K) Uterine fibroid

    • L.

      L) Bladder carcinoma

    • M.

      M) Enuresis

    Correct Answer
    F. F) Urge incontinence
    Explanation
    Maggie's symptoms of needing to go to the toilet quickly and being incontinent suggest a loss of bladder control, which is characteristic of urge incontinence. This condition is often caused by an overactive bladder muscle, leading to sudden and strong urges to urinate. It can be disruptive to daily life and can interfere with work, as seen in Maggie's case. Other potential diagnoses, such as stress incontinence or urinary tract infection, may also cause similar symptoms, but the urgency and frequency of urination point towards urge incontinence as the most likely diagnosis.

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  • 38. 

    7 year old Jessica presents with her concerned mum.  She has previously been continent but has developed nocturnal enuresis and urinary incontinence in the last 1 week.  What is the most important diagnosis to consider?

    • A.

      A) Cystocoele

    • B.

      B) Neurological incontinence

    • C.

      C) Overflow incontinence

    • D.

      D) Stress incontinence

    • E.

      E) Urethral caruncle

    • F.

      F) Urge incontinence

    • G.

      G) Urinary tract infection

    • H.

      H) Vesicocolic fistula

    • I.

      I) Vesicovaginal fistula

    • J.

      J) Urinary retention

    • K.

      K) Uterine fibroid

    • L.

      L) Bladder carcinoma

    • M.

      M) Enuresis

    Correct Answer
    B. B) Neurological incontinence
    Explanation
    The most important diagnosis to consider in this case is neurological incontinence. This is because the patient, Jessica, has previously been continent but has recently developed nocturnal enuresis and urinary incontinence. This sudden onset of symptoms suggests a neurological cause, such as a spinal cord injury or nerve damage, which can disrupt the normal control of the bladder. Other potential causes, such as urinary tract infection or stress incontinence, may also be considered but are less likely given the presentation of new-onset incontinence in a previously continent individual.

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  • 39. 

    7 year old Jessica presents with her concerned mum.  She has previously been continent but has developed nocturnal enuresis and urinary incontinence in the last 1 week.  What is the most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      A) Cystocoele

    • B.

      B) Neurological incontinence

    • C.

      C) Overflow incontinence

    • D.

      D) Stress incontinence

    • E.

      E) Urethral caruncle

    • F.

      F) Urge incontinence

    • G.

      G) Urinary tract infection

    • H.

      H) Vesicocolic fistula

    • I.

      I) Vesicovaginal fistula

    • J.

      J) Urinary retention

    • K.

      K) Uterine fibroid

    • L.

      L) Bladder carcinoma

    • M.

      M) Enuresis

    Correct Answer
    G. G) Urinary tract infection
    Explanation
    The most likely diagnosis for a 7-year-old girl who has developed nocturnal enuresis and urinary incontinence in the last week is a urinary tract infection (UTI). UTIs can cause symptoms such as increased frequency of urination, urgency, and incontinence. In children, UTIs are more common in girls and can be caused by bacteria entering the urinary tract. This is a likely diagnosis given the symptoms presented and the age of the patient.

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  • 40. 

    81 year old Betty has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections.  She has recently noticed a ‘funny lump’ in her ‘private parts’.  Examination of her genitalia reveals the following (see picture below).  PV examination is normal.  What is the likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      A) Cystocoele

    • B.

      B) Neurological incontinence

    • C.

      C) Overflow incontinence

    • D.

      D) Stress incontinence

    • E.

      E) Urethral caruncle

    • F.

      F) Urge incontinence

    • G.

      G) Urinary tract infection

    • H.

      H) Vesicocolic fistula

    • I.

      I) Vesicovaginal fistula

    • J.

      J) Urinary retention

    • K.

      K) Uterine fibroid

    • L.

      L) Bladder carcinoma

    • M.

      M) Enuresis

    Correct Answer
    E. E) Urethral caruncle
    Explanation
    The picture shows a small, reddish, fleshy growth at the urethral opening. This is consistent with a urethral caruncle, which is a benign lesion commonly seen in postmenopausal women. It can cause symptoms such as urinary frequency, dysuria, and hematuria. Given Betty's age, history of urinary tract infections, and the appearance of the lesion, urethral caruncle is the most likely diagnosis.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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