Security Forces Journeyman CDC Volume 4

58 Questions

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Security Forces Journeyman CDC Volume 4

In this security centred quiz, we’ll be looking at the protocols of security force journeymen in their role of nailing their target and defending their employer. How much do you know about the actions needed to be undertaken?


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which principle of war is the most effective and decisive way to attain a clearly defined objective and is the means by which a military force seizes and holds the initiative while maintaining freedom of action and achieving decisive results?
    • A. 

      Mass

    • B. 

      Offensive

    • C. 

      Manuever

    • D. 

      Economy of force

  • 2. 
    Which of the following results from the measures taken by commanders to protect their forces?
    • A. 

      Simplicity

    • B. 

      Surprise

    • C. 

      Security

    • D. 

      Safety

  • 3. 
    What is achieved by the balanced employment of firepower and patrolling?
    • A. 

      Key terrain

    • B. 

      Defense in depth

    • C. 

      All around defense

    • D. 

      Aggressive defense

  • 4. 
    A force can dominate an area, place direct or indirect fire on critical resources by capturing?
    • A. 

      Key terrain

    • B. 

      High grounds

    • C. 

      Avenues of approach

    • D. 

      Pockets of resistance

  • 5. 
    After the threat has been neutralized which integrated defense effect is implemented to consolidate and reorganize friendly forces and restore operations?
    • A. 

      Warn

    • B. 

      Assess

    • C. 

      Recovery

    • D. 

      Anticipate

  • 6. 
    Which force is the Air Force enterprise leader for integrated defense operations?
    • A. 

      Special force

    • B. 

      Security forces

    • C. 

      Joint forces

    • D. 

      Air and Space forces

  • 7. 
    Which agency will the base defense operations center up-channel covered wagon reportable incidents through?
    • A. 

      Site security control

    • B. 

      Security forces

    • C. 

      Higher headquarters

    • D. 

      Installation command post

  • 8. 
    The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapons?
    • A. 

      Accident

    • B. 

      Incident

    • C. 

      Mistake

    • D. 

      Mishap

  • 9. 
    Personnel assigned to the priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      12

    • D. 

      24

  • 10. 
    What may be the most dangerous type of improved explosive devise?
    • A. 

      Static

    • B. 

      Roadside

    • C. 

      Vehicle-borne

    • D. 

      Romote detonated

  • 11. 
    Who directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crises either unilaterlly or as part of an interagency and/or multinational effort?
    • A. 

      President only

    • B. 

      Secretary of defense only

    • C. 

      President or secretary of defense

    • D. 

      President or defense force commander

  • 12. 
    Which operation is principally conducted to evacuate US citizens
    • A. 

      Recovery

    • B. 

      Peace

    • C. 

      Peace enforcement

    • D. 

      Noncompatant evacuation

  • 13. 
    Which operation may be clandestine, covery, or overt depending on whether the operational environment is hostile, uncertain, or permissive?
    • A. 

      Foreign humanitarian assistance

    • B. 

      Consequence management

    • C. 

      Homeland defense

    • D. 

      Recovery

  • 14. 
    Which intelligence collection often may provide the most useful source of information
    • A. 

      OSINT

    • B. 

      COMINT

    • C. 

      HUMINT

    • D. 

      INFOMINT

  • 15. 
    Force protection measures will be planned according with
    • A. 

      Determination of the force

    • B. 

      The risk to the force

    • C. 

      Location of the force

    • D. 

      Size of the force

  • 16. 
    Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?
    • A. 

      Standoff attack

    • B. 

      Penetration attack

    • C. 

      Information operation

    • D. 

      Chemical, biological attack

  • 17. 
    Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?
    • A. 

      Department of state

    • B. 

      Department of justice

    • C. 

      Department of defense

    • D. 

      Federal bureau of investigation

  • 18. 
    The tactic terrorist groups use most commonly is?
    • A. 

      Arson

    • B. 

      Bombing

    • C. 

      Highjacking

    • D. 

      Kidnapping and hostage taking

  • 19. 
    Active terrorist groups are organized into cells that can be as small as two people or as large as?
    • A. 

      5-10

    • B. 

      10-15

    • C. 

      25-30

    • D. 

      35-40

  • 20. 
    Which individual/groups promote their cause by and means and are ideologically inspired?
    • A. 

      Crimanals or professionals

    • B. 

      Emotionally disturbed

    • C. 

      Passive soldiers

    • D. 

      Crusaders

  • 21. 
    What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation?
    • A. 

      Moderate

    • B. 

      Significant

    • C. 

      High

    • D. 

      Low

  • 22. 
    The key distinction between an insurgency and other types of movements is the decision to use?
    • A. 

      Violence to achieve political goals

    • B. 

      Violence to achieve religious goals

    • C. 

      Non-violence to achieve political goals

    • D. 

      Use violence to achieve ideological goals

  • 23. 
    COIN operations require leaders to exhibit?
    • A. 

      Fairness, firmness and fight

    • B. 

      Logic, lotalty, and leadership

    • C. 

      Patience, persistence, and presence

    • D. 

      Cooperation, cohesiveness, and confidence

  • 24. 
    To avoid detection by the government how wil insurgents operate?
    • A. 

      Underground

    • B. 

      In disguise

    • C. 

      In small bands

    • D. 

      During the hours of darkness

  • 25. 
    Which agency was created by a formal agreement between two or more governments?
    • A. 

      Multinational corporation

    • B. 

      Governmental organization

    • C. 

      Host nation security council

    • D. 

      Intergovernmental organization

  • 26. 
    Which agency is the most notable integovernmental organization?
    • A. 

      The united nations

    • B. 

      The world hunger league

    • C. 

      United nations children fund

    • D. 

      The american federation of labor and congress of industrial organizations

  • 27. 
    Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings and seaports af debarkation are all examples of key
    • A. 

      Terrain issues

    • B. 

      Logistical issues

    • C. 

      Sovereignty issues

    • D. 

      Transportation issues

  • 28. 
    Which base is austerely manned but is capable of expanding into a full scale air base operations?
    • A. 

      Bare base

    • B. 

      Limited base

    • C. 

      Main operating base

    • D. 

      Forward operating base

  • 29. 
    What do peacetime or contingency operations require when planning how and where to use security forces unit UTC?
    • A. 

      Time

    • B. 

      Money

    • C. 

      Manning

    • D. 

      Flexibility

  • 30. 
    During base defense operations what does the DFC use staff control tools for?
    • A. 

      Control the traffic flow plan

    • B. 

      Ensure all equipment is functioning properly

    • C. 

      Make sure the office is maintained and kept neat and orderly

    • D. 

      Disseminate his or hre orders and manage the base defense opertaions plan

  • 31. 
    An effective tool to control integrated defense operation is?
    • A. 

      Charts and forms

    • B. 

      Base sectorization

    • C. 

      Staff control tools

    • D. 

      Military symbology

  • 32. 
    What should a flight sector sketch show?
    • A. 

      Main terrain feature in the sector of fire and the ranges to them

    • B. 

      Flight and squadron identifications

    • C. 

      Squad leader positions

    • D. 

      True south

  • 33. 
    In what year did the Geneva Conventions become effective?
    • A. 

      1955

    • B. 

      1956

    • C. 

      1957

    • D. 

      1958

  • 34. 
    Why is speed essential when processing captives, detainees, and prisoners?
    • A. 

      Keeping the prisoners silent is important

    • B. 

      To ensure the safety of defectors and deserters

    • C. 

      The intelligence a CDP brings is time sensitive

    • D. 

      CDPs must be tagged before evacuating to the rear

  • 35. 
    The safe operating distance of radio frequency transmitters around refueling locations is?
    • A. 

      20 meters

    • B. 

      30 meters

    • C. 

      40 meters

    • D. 

      50 meters

  • 36. 
    To avoid receiving an electrical shock when disconnecting the battery from the electronic security system(ESS)?
    • A. 

      Remove the negative lead first

    • B. 

      Remove the positive lead first

    • C. 

      It doesn't matter which lead you remove first

    • D. 

      Secure the positive lead first and then the negative

  • 37. 
    Which function provides transmission of data between the TASS sensors and annunciators?
    • A. 

      Power

    • B. 

      Annunciation

    • C. 

      Communications

    • D. 

      Response frequenct

  • 38. 
    What security system consists of a variety of sensors, repeaters, and a hand held display monitor?
    • A. 

      MILES

    • B. 

      TMS

    • C. 

      ESS

    • D. 

      BISS

  • 39. 
    A scanning method known as the self preservation method of search lasts approximately?
    • A. 

      90Sec

    • B. 

      60 Sec

    • C. 

      45 Sec

    • D. 

      30 Sec

  • 40. 
    When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is?
    • A. 

      Spacing

    • B. 

      Aining point

    • C. 

      Reference point

    • D. 

      Range determination

  • 41. 
    What is the greatest limitation in using the 100 meters method of range determination?
    • A. 

      Observer proficiency requires constant practice

    • B. 

      SF member must pace the range to see if his estimation is correct

    • C. 

      Underestimating sloping ground gives the illusion of a greater distance

    • D. 

      Accuracy is directly related to amount of terrain visible to the observor

  • 42. 
    How does the observore use off center vision when viewing an object during limited visibility?
    • A. 

      Look 5 degrees above, below or to either side rather then directily at it

    • B. 

      Look 10 degrees above, below or to either side rather then directily at it

    • C. 

      Look 15 degrees above, below rather then directily at it

    • D. 

      Look 20 degrees to either side rather then directily at it

  • 43. 
    If you adapted to the dark before donning goggles, you will gain full dark adaption within how many minutes after removing the goggles?
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      2

  • 44. 
    When burying the TMS magnetic sensor, how deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach must you bury the magnetic sensor head?
    • A. 

      2 to 4 inches

    • B. 

      4 to 6 inches

    • C. 

      6 to 8 inches

    • D. 

      8 to 10 inches

  • 45. 
    • A. 

      Ab enutter head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter

    • B. 

      A seismic head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter

    • C. 

      A transformer head, infrared sensor head and transmitter

    • D. 

      An emission head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter

  • 46. 
    The Elec 864M1E long-range passive infrared sensors detection capability can be degraded in?
    • A. 

      In snowy conditions

    • B. 

      Dense fog

    • C. 

      Rainy weather

    • D. 

      Bright sunlight

  • 47. 
    What is the WSTI used for?
    • A. 

      Alarm annunciation and visual inspection

    • B. 

      Sensor identification and recognition

    • C. 

      To assess the alarms of a sensor activation

    • D. 

      Boundary protection

  • 48. 
    How many people are required to set up the wide area surveillance thermal imager tripod?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 49. 
    From where are do all operational command and controls performed from?
    • A. 

      DCU

    • B. 

      DCS

    • C. 

      JCU

    • D. 

      BDOC

  • 50. 
    The primary purpose of the LRTI-CCTV is to?
    • A. 

      Provide full color imagery and video

    • B. 

      Provide communication and data to the base defense operation center

    • C. 

      Allow you to view the enemy from long distances

    • D. 

      Assess alarms annunciating from the TASS system

  • 51. 
    Which major component on the AN/PVS-4 is adjusted for variations in the user's eyesight?
    • A. 

      Objective lens assembly

    • B. 

      Eyepiece assemply

    • C. 

      Eye guard

    • D. 

      Optical lens

  • 52. 
    What are the components of the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle?
    • A. 

      Facemask and goggle

    • B. 

      Head assembly, de-mist shields, and goggle

    • C. 

      Head-mount assembly, sacrificial window and goggle

    • D. 

      Head mount assembly, sacrificial window,and de mist shields

  • 53. 
    What part of the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle does the sacrificial window protect
    • A. 

      Battery compartment

    • B. 

      Rubber eye cups

    • C. 

      Glass lens

    • D. 

      Sight lens

  • 54. 
    The level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 depends upon the level of?
    • A. 

      Atmosphere pressure

    • B. 

      Terrain

    • C. 

      Light

    • D. 

      Air

  • 55. 
    On the AN/PVS-14 night vision device what enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular?
    • A. 

      Compass

    • B. 

      De-mist shield

    • C. 

      Tethering cord

    • D. 

      Sacrigicial window

  • 56. 
    On the AN/PVS-14 night vision device what adjusts the distance between your eye and the monocular?
    • A. 

      Eye relief adjustment

    • B. 

      Diopter adjustment

    • C. 

      Gain control

    • D. 

      Optic knob

  • 57. 
    The hand held thermal imager powers on in what mode?
    • A. 

      Manuel override

    • B. 

      Manual

    • C. 

      Auto

    • D. 

      Sleep

  • 58. 
    During offensive and defensive operations, what determines when you should change your camouflage?
    • A. 

      The amount of artificial camouflage available

    • B. 

      The amount of natural camouflage available

    • C. 

      The weather and type of material used

    • D. 

      If the enemy has spotted your position