Security Forces Journeyman CDC Volume 4

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1. Which agency is the most notable integovernmental organization?

Explanation

The United Nations is the most notable intergovernmental organization because it serves as a platform for countries to come together and address global issues such as peace and security, human rights, and sustainable development. It has a wide range of member states and plays a crucial role in promoting international cooperation and resolving conflicts through diplomatic means. Additionally, the United Nations has various specialized agencies and programs that work towards specific goals, making it a prominent and influential organization on the global stage.

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About This Quiz
Security Forces Journeyman CDC Volume 4 - Quiz

In this security centred quiz, we’ll be looking at the protocols of security force journeymen in their role of nailing their target and defending their employer. How much do you know about the actions needed to be undertaken?

Personalize your quiz and earn a certificate with your name on it!
2. After the threat has been neutralized which integrated defense effect is implemented to consolidate and reorganize friendly forces and restore operations?

Explanation

After the threat has been neutralized, the integrated defense effect of recovery is implemented to consolidate and reorganize friendly forces and restore operations. This involves the process of recovering from the impact of the threat, regaining control, and returning to normal operations. It includes activities such as casualty management, equipment repair, resupply, and restoring communication and infrastructure. The goal of recovery is to quickly and efficiently restore the operational capability of friendly forces and ensure they are ready to respond to any future threats.

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3. The tactic terrorist groups use most commonly is?

Explanation

Terrorist groups most commonly use bombing as a tactic. This involves the deliberate use of explosives to cause destruction, death, and fear among the targeted population. Bombings can be carried out in various ways, such as suicide bombings, car bombings, or attacks on public places. This tactic allows terrorist groups to inflict maximum damage and casualties, attract media attention, and instill fear in the population.

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4. Which force is the Air Force enterprise leader for integrated defense operations?

Explanation

The correct answer is Security forces. The Security forces in the Air Force are responsible for ensuring the security and protection of Air Force personnel, assets, and operations. They are the force that leads and coordinates integrated defense operations, working together with other branches of the military and agencies to defend against threats and maintain the security of the Air Force enterprise.

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5. Which of the following results from the measures taken by commanders to protect their forces?

Explanation

Commanders take measures to protect their forces in order to ensure their security. Security refers to the state of being free from danger or threat. By implementing various measures such as establishing defensive positions, implementing security protocols, and conducting regular patrols, commanders aim to safeguard their forces from potential harm or attacks. This allows them to maintain control over their operations and minimize risks to their personnel and resources.

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6. Which individual/groups promote their cause by and means and are ideologically inspired?

Explanation

Crusaders are individuals or groups who promote their cause by any means and are ideologically inspired. They are driven by a strong belief in their cause and are willing to take action to further it. This term is often associated with historical religious movements, such as the medieval Christian Crusades, but can also be applied to any group or individual who passionately advocates for a particular cause or belief system.

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7. What may be the most dangerous type of improved explosive devise?

Explanation

A vehicle-borne explosive device refers to a bomb that is concealed within or attached to a vehicle. This type of explosive device is considered highly dangerous because it allows for a large amount of explosives to be transported and detonated in a targeted location, causing significant damage and casualties. Vehicle-borne explosives have been used in numerous terrorist attacks around the world, such as the bombings in Oklahoma City in 1995 and the London bombings in 2005. Their ability to blend in with everyday vehicles makes them difficult to detect and prevent, making them a significant threat.

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8. Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?

Explanation

A penetration attack refers to a type of attack where an unauthorized individual gains access to a system or network by exploiting vulnerabilities. This can involve an insider threat, which means that the attack is carried out by someone who already has authorized access to the system or network. The insider may misuse their privileges to gain unauthorized access, steal sensitive information, or cause damage to the system. In this case, the correct answer is penetration attack because it specifically mentions the involvement of an insider threat.

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9. The level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 depends upon the level of?

Explanation

The level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 depends on the level of light. This means that the device's ability to function and provide clear images is directly influenced by the amount of light available in its surroundings. A higher level of light would result in better performance, while a lower level of light might affect the device's effectiveness. Other factors such as atmosphere pressure, terrain, and air may have some impact on the overall performance, but the level of light is the most crucial determinant.

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10. Who directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crises either unilaterlly or as part of an interagency and/or multinational effort?

Explanation

The president or secretary of defense directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crises either unilaterally or as part of an interagency and/or multinational effort. As the highest-ranking officials in the US government responsible for national security and military operations, they have the authority to make decisions regarding the deployment and use of military forces in response to crises. This authority allows them to take swift action and coordinate efforts with other agencies or countries when necessary.

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11. Which principle of war is the most effective and decisive way to attain a clearly defined objective and is the means by which a military force seizes and holds the initiative while maintaining freedom of action and achieving decisive results?

Explanation

The principle of war that is the most effective and decisive way to attain a clearly defined objective, seize and hold the initiative, maintain freedom of action, and achieve decisive results is the offensive. The offensive strategy involves actively attacking and taking the initiative against the enemy, putting them on the defensive and forcing them to react to your actions. By maintaining the offensive, a military force can control the pace and direction of the battle, exploit enemy weaknesses, and ultimately achieve their objectives.

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12. A force can dominate an area, place direct or indirect fire on critical resources by capturing?

Explanation

Key terrain refers to specific areas on the battlefield that have strategic importance and can provide a significant advantage to the force that controls it. By capturing key terrain, a force can establish a dominant position and have better control over the surrounding area. This allows them to place direct or indirect fire on critical resources, such as supply routes or enemy positions, and potentially disrupt or neutralize them. Therefore, capturing key terrain enables a force to exert its influence and potentially dominate an area.

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13. The Elec 864M1E long-range passive infrared sensors detection capability can be degraded in?

Explanation

The Elec 864M1E long-range passive infrared sensors detection capability can be degraded in dense fog. This is because dense fog reduces visibility and can obstruct the infrared waves emitted by the sensors. As a result, the sensors may struggle to accurately detect and track objects in such conditions.

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14. Which operation is principally conducted to evacuate US citizens

Explanation

Noncombatant evacuation is the operation principally conducted to evacuate US citizens in times of crisis or conflict. This operation focuses on the safe and efficient evacuation of civilians, including American citizens, from a potentially dangerous or hostile environment. It is specifically designed to protect and evacuate noncombatants, such as civilians, embassy personnel, and other individuals who may be at risk. This operation aims to ensure the safety and well-being of US citizens by relocating them to a secure location until the situation stabilizes or they can be repatriated to their home country.

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15. Which intelligence collection often may provide the most useful source of information

Explanation

HUMINT, or Human Intelligence, often provides the most useful source of information in intelligence collection. This is because HUMINT involves gathering information through direct interaction with individuals, such as through interviews, debriefings, or espionage. This type of intelligence collection allows for a deeper understanding of the human element, motivations, intentions, and insider knowledge, which can be crucial in obtaining accurate and actionable intelligence. Additionally, HUMINT can provide real-time information and insights that may not be available through other methods.

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16. An effective tool to control integrated defense operation is?

Explanation

Base sectorization is an effective tool to control integrated defense operations. It involves dividing a defense base into sectors, each with specific responsibilities and tasks. This allows for better coordination and control of resources, personnel, and operations. By assigning sectors, the defense base can ensure that all areas are adequately covered and that there is clear communication and command structure in place. Base sectorization helps in managing and organizing the defense operation effectively, ensuring that all aspects of the operation are well-coordinated and controlled.

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17. Force protection measures will be planned according with

Explanation

Force protection measures will be planned according to the risk to the force. This means that the level of protection and security measures will be determined based on the potential threats and hazards that may pose a risk to the force. Factors such as the nature of the mission, the operating environment, and the likelihood of encountering hostile forces or dangerous situations will be taken into consideration when planning force protection measures. By assessing the risk to the force, appropriate measures can be put in place to mitigate potential threats and ensure the safety and security of the personnel and assets involved.

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18. Why is speed essential when processing captives, detainees, and prisoners?

Explanation

Speed is essential when processing captives, detainees, and prisoners because the intelligence they provide is time-sensitive. This means that the information they possess may become outdated or lose its value if not acted upon quickly. Therefore, processing them quickly allows for the timely extraction of valuable intelligence that can be used for various purposes, such as ensuring the safety of defectors and deserters or tagging CDPs before evacuating to the rear.

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19. During base defense operations what does the DFC use staff control tools for?

Explanation

The DFC (Defense Force Commander) uses staff control tools during base defense operations to disseminate his or her orders and manage the base defense operations plan. These tools help the DFC effectively communicate their orders to the staff and ensure that everyone is on the same page. By using these tools, the DFC can coordinate and manage the various aspects of base defense operations, including assigning tasks, monitoring progress, and making necessary adjustments to the plan. This helps maintain a cohesive and efficient defense strategy.

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20. Active terrorist groups are organized into cells that can be as small as two people or as large as?

Explanation

Active terrorist groups are organized into cells that can be as small as two people or as large as 25-30 individuals. This means that these groups can have a relatively small number of members, as small as two people, or a larger number of members, ranging from 25 to 30 individuals. The size of these cells can vary depending on various factors such as the goals of the group, the nature of their operations, and the level of security they aim to maintain.

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21. What part of the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle does the sacrificial window protect

Explanation

The sacrificial window on the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle protects the glass lens. The glass lens is a crucial component of the night vision goggle, as it allows the user to see in low light conditions. The sacrificial window acts as a protective barrier for the glass lens, shielding it from potential damage or scratches that could impair its functionality. By preserving the integrity of the glass lens, the sacrificial window ensures that the night vision goggle remains effective and reliable in providing enhanced vision in darkness.

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22. Personnel assigned to the priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?

Explanation

Personnel assigned to the priority III routine category should be evacuated within 24 hours. This means that in the event of an emergency or crisis, these individuals should be moved to a safe location within a maximum time frame of 24 hours. Evacuating them promptly ensures their safety and well-being, as well as allows for appropriate medical care or other necessary support to be provided in a timely manner.

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23. To avoid detection by the government how wil insurgents operate?

Explanation

Insurgents may choose to operate in small bands to avoid detection by the government. By working in smaller groups, they can minimize their presence and reduce the chances of being noticed or tracked by authorities. Operating in small bands also allows for better coordination and communication among members, making it easier to carry out covert activities without drawing attention. This strategy helps insurgents maintain a low profile and enhances their ability to carry out their objectives without being detected or easily targeted by government forces.

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24. How does the observore use off center vision when viewing an object during limited visibility?

Explanation

The observer uses off-center vision by looking 10 degrees above, below, or to either side of the object rather than directly at it. This allows the observer to utilize their peripheral vision, which is more sensitive to detecting objects in limited visibility conditions. By looking slightly off-center, the observer can enhance their ability to perceive the object and gather more information about its surroundings.

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25. Which base is austerely manned but is capable of expanding into a full scale air base operations?

Explanation

A limited base is a base that is minimally staffed but has the ability to expand into a full-scale air base operations. This means that initially, the base may have a small number of personnel and resources, but it has the capability to quickly and efficiently increase its capacity and capabilities when needed. This allows for flexibility and adaptability in military operations, as the limited base can be scaled up to meet the demands of a larger operation if required.

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26. Which function provides transmission of data between the TASS sensors and annunciators?

Explanation

The function that provides transmission of data between the TASS sensors and annunciators is communications. This function is responsible for establishing a connection and facilitating the exchange of information between these two components. It enables the sensors to send their data to the annunciators, which then display the relevant information to the user. Without the communications function, the sensors and annunciators would not be able to communicate with each other, rendering the system ineffective.

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27. Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?

Explanation

The Department of State is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US because it is responsible for the foreign policy and international relations of the United States. This includes coordinating efforts with other countries to combat terrorism and providing support to US citizens and interests abroad in the event of a terrorist incident. The Department of State works closely with other agencies such as the Department of Defense and the Federal Bureau of Investigation, but it takes the lead in dealing with terrorist incidents outside the US.

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28. COIN operations require leaders to exhibit?

Explanation

COIN operations refer to Counterinsurgency operations, which involve combating insurgent groups and winning the support of the local population. In such operations, leaders need to demonstrate patience in dealing with complex situations and the slow progress often associated with counterinsurgency. They also need persistence to continue their efforts despite setbacks and challenges. Lastly, presence is crucial for leaders to establish trust and build relationships with the local population, as well as to maintain a visible and active role in the operation.

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29. To avoid receiving an electrical shock when disconnecting the battery from the electronic security system(ESS)?

Explanation

Removing the positive lead first is the correct answer because it helps to minimize the risk of electrical shock. By removing the positive lead first, you are disconnecting the power source and reducing the likelihood of accidentally creating a circuit with a tool or other metal object. This reduces the risk of electrical shock because the negative lead is still connected to the ground, which helps to dissipate any residual charge.

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30. The key distinction between an insurgency and other types of movements is the decision to use?

Explanation

An insurgency is characterized by the deliberate use of violence to achieve political goals. This sets it apart from other types of movements that may use non-violent means or have different objectives, such as religious or ideological goals. Insurgencies typically involve armed conflict, guerrilla warfare, and acts of terrorism as tactics to challenge or overthrow established authorities and gain political power or autonomy. The decision to resort to violence distinguishes insurgencies from peaceful political movements or other forms of activism.

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31. On the AN/PVS-14 night vision device what enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular?

Explanation

The correct answer is compass. The compass on the AN/PVS-14 night vision device allows the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular. This feature helps the operator determine their direction and navigate accurately in low-light or nighttime conditions. The compass provides essential information for situational awareness and ensures the operator can maintain their bearings while using the night vision device.

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32. If you adapted to the dark before donning goggles, you will gain full dark adaption within how many minutes after removing the goggles?

Explanation

If you adapted to the dark before donning goggles, it means that your eyes have already adjusted to the low light conditions. When you remove the goggles, your eyes will not need much time to readjust to the darkness because they were already adapted to it. Therefore, it will take only 2 minutes for you to gain full dark adaption after removing the goggles.

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33. The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapons?

Explanation

The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component can be considered as an accident because it refers to an unintended or unplanned event involving the release or disposal of a nuclear weapon or its components. This implies that it was not a deliberate action or part of any planned operation, but rather a result of an unforeseen circumstance or error.

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34. Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings and seaports af debarkation are all examples of key

Explanation

Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation are all examples of locations that involve the entry and exit of people and goods into a country. These locations are crucial for a nation to exercise control over its borders and assert its sovereignty. Therefore, they can be considered as examples of sovereignty issues.

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35. What security system consists of a variety of sensors, repeaters, and a hand held display monitor?

Explanation

The correct answer is TMS. TMS stands for Training Management System, which is a security system that includes a variety of sensors, repeaters, and a handheld display monitor. This system is commonly used in military training exercises to track and monitor the movement and actions of troops and vehicles. The sensors detect simulated enemy fire and communicate this information to the handheld display monitor, allowing the trainees to assess the situation and respond accordingly. The repeaters help to extend the range of the system and ensure reliable communication between the sensors and the display monitor.

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36. The hand held thermal imager powers on in what mode?

Explanation

The correct answer is "auto." When the hand-held thermal imager powers on in auto mode, it means that it automatically selects the appropriate settings and functions based on the surrounding conditions. This allows for efficient and convenient operation without the need for manual adjustments.

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37. What do peacetime or contingency operations require when planning how and where to use security forces unit UTC?

Explanation

Peacetime or contingency operations require flexibility when planning how and where to use security forces unit UTC. This is because the circumstances and requirements of these operations can change rapidly, and the ability to adapt and adjust the deployment of security forces is crucial. Flexibility allows for efficient allocation of resources, quick response to emerging threats or situations, and the ability to effectively address evolving security needs. It enables the security forces to be agile and responsive, ensuring the success of the operations.

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38. Which agency was created by a formal agreement between two or more governments?

Explanation

An intergovernmental organization is a type of agency that is created through a formal agreement between two or more governments. These organizations are established to facilitate cooperation and coordination between member states on various issues of common interest, such as international security, economic development, and environmental protection. Examples of intergovernmental organizations include the United Nations (UN), World Health Organization (WHO), and World Trade Organization (WTO).

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39. The safe operating distance of radio frequency transmitters around refueling locations is?

Explanation

The safe operating distance of radio frequency transmitters around refueling locations is 50 meters. This distance is necessary to prevent any potential interference or sparks that could ignite flammable gases or liquids present during refueling. Maintaining a safe distance ensures the safety of both the refueling process and the individuals involved.

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40. On the AN/PVS-14 night vision device what adjusts the distance between your eye and the monocular?

Explanation

The eye relief adjustment on the AN/PVS-14 night vision device allows the user to adjust the distance between their eye and the monocular. This is important because it ensures that the user can achieve a comfortable and clear view through the device. By adjusting the eye relief, users can customize the device to their individual needs, ensuring optimal visibility and minimizing eye strain.

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41. During offensive and defensive operations, what determines when you should change your camouflage?

Explanation

The correct answer is the weather and type of material used. When engaging in offensive and defensive operations, it is crucial to adapt your camouflage to the prevailing weather conditions and the type of material you are using. Different weather conditions require different camouflage patterns to blend effectively with the surroundings. Additionally, the type of material used for camouflage can also impact its effectiveness in various environments. Therefore, considering the weather and type of material is essential for determining when to change your camouflage.

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42. In what year did the Geneva Conventions become effective?

Explanation

The Geneva Conventions became effective in 1956. These international treaties were established to protect the rights and well-being of individuals during armed conflicts. They outline rules for the treatment of wounded and sick soldiers, prisoners of war, and civilians. The conventions have been ratified by numerous countries and are considered a cornerstone of humanitarian law.

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43. When burying the TMS magnetic sensor, how deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach must you bury the magnetic sensor head?

Explanation

The TMS magnetic sensor should be buried 6 to 8 inches deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach. This depth ensures that the sensor is properly positioned to detect and measure the magnetic field. Burying it too shallow may result in inaccurate readings, while burying it too deep may reduce its sensitivity to magnetic fluctuations. Therefore, burying the sensor at a depth of 6 to 8 inches is the optimal range for accurate and reliable measurements.

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44. What should a flight sector sketch show?

Explanation

A flight sector sketch should show flight and squadron identifications. This information is important for identifying and tracking the different flights and squadrons operating within a specific sector. It helps in maintaining communication, coordination, and situational awareness among the different units involved in the flight operations.

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45. A scanning method known as the self preservation method of search lasts approximately?

Explanation

The self-preservation method of search is a scanning method that aims to protect the system being scanned. It is designed to minimize the impact on the system's performance and resources. Therefore, it is expected to last for a shorter duration compared to other scanning methods. Among the given options, the shortest duration mentioned is 30 seconds, which aligns with the objective of the self-preservation method.

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46. When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is?

Explanation

The correct answer is "aining point". An aiming point refers to a specific target or area that a shooter focuses on when delivering accurate fire. By aiming at a specific point, the shooter can ensure precise targeting and increase the effectiveness of their fire. This allows for better accuracy and increases the chances of hitting the intended target.

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47. What is the WSTI used for?

Explanation

The WSTI (Wireless Sensor Technology Interface) is used to assess the alarms of a sensor activation. This means that it is responsible for analyzing and evaluating the alarms triggered by the activation of a sensor. It helps in determining the severity and urgency of the alarm, allowing appropriate actions to be taken in response. The WSTI plays a crucial role in ensuring effective monitoring and response to sensor activations.

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48. Which operation may be clandestine, covery, or overt depending on whether the operational environment is hostile, uncertain, or permissive?

Explanation

Recovery operations may be clandestine, covert, or overt depending on the operational environment. In a hostile environment, recovery operations may need to be conducted clandestinely to avoid detection and potential interference. In an uncertain environment, recovery operations may be covert to maintain a level of secrecy and minimize potential risks. In a permissive environment, recovery operations can be overt, openly conducted without the need for secrecy or concealment. The nature of the operational environment determines the level of visibility and discretion required for recovery operations.

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49. Which major component on the AN/PVS-4 is adjusted for variations in the user's eyesight?

Explanation

The eyepiece assembly on the AN/PVS-4 is adjusted for variations in the user's eyesight. This component allows the user to focus the image to their specific vision, ensuring that they can see clearly through the device. By adjusting the eyepiece assembly, the user can compensate for any nearsightedness or farsightedness they may have, resulting in a more accurate and comfortable viewing experience.

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50. What are the components of the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle?

Explanation

The correct answer is "facemask and goggle." This suggests that the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle consists of a facemask and a goggle.

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51. What is the greatest limitation in using the 100 meters method of range determination?

Explanation

The greatest limitation in using the 100 meters method of range determination is that accuracy is directly related to the amount of terrain visible to the observer. This means that if the observer has a limited view of the terrain, it becomes difficult to accurately estimate the range. The more terrain that is visible, the easier it is to gauge the distance accurately.

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52. Which agency will the base defense operations center up-channel covered wagon reportable incidents through?

Explanation

The base defense operations center will reportable incidents through the higher headquarters. This means that any incidents or issues that occur at the base will be reported and escalated to the higher headquarters for further action and decision-making. The higher headquarters is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the operations and security of multiple bases or installations, making it the appropriate agency to handle these reports.

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53. What is achieved by the balanced employment of firepower and patrolling?

Explanation

The balanced employment of firepower and patrolling achieves aggressive defense. Aggressive defense involves actively engaging and attacking the enemy, rather than solely relying on passive defensive measures. By combining firepower, which refers to the use of weapons and artillery, with patrolling, which involves actively monitoring and securing the area, an aggressive defense strategy can be implemented. This approach aims to disrupt and deter the enemy's advances, maintaining control and dominance over the battlefield.

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54. How many people are required to set up the wide area surveillance thermal imager tripod?

Explanation

Three people are required to set up the wide area surveillance thermal imager tripod. This suggests that the setup process involves tasks that cannot be accomplished by a single person or a pair of individuals. The presence of three people may be necessary to ensure the stability and proper positioning of the tripod, as well as to handle any additional equipment or tools that may be required during the setup process.

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55. From where are do all operational command and controls performed from?

Explanation

The operational command and controls are performed from the JCU.

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56. The primary purpose of the LRTI-CCTV is to?

Explanation

The primary purpose of the LRTI-CCTV is to assess alarms annunciating from the TASS system. This means that the LRTI-CCTV is used to monitor and evaluate any alarms or alerts that are triggered by the TASS system. It is not primarily used for providing full color imagery and video, providing communication and data to the base defense operation center, or allowing you to view the enemy from long distances.

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57. What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation?

Explanation

The threat level assessment indicates that anti-US terrorists are operationally active and prefer to use large casualty-producing attacks. This suggests that there is a significant threat posed by these terrorists, as they are actively planning and carrying out attacks that have the potential to cause significant harm and loss of life.

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58. The components that make up the tactical miniature sensor active infrared detection sensor are?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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Which agency is the most notable integovernmental organization?
After the threat has been neutralized which integrated defense effect...
The tactic terrorist groups use most commonly is?
Which force is the Air Force enterprise leader for integrated defense...
Which of the following results from the measures taken by commanders...
Which individual/groups promote their cause by and means and are...
What may be the most dangerous type of improved explosive devise?
Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?
The level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 depends upon the level of?
Who directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crises either...
Which principle of war is the most effective and decisive way to...
A force can dominate an area, place direct or indirect fire on...
The Elec 864M1E long-range passive infrared sensors detection...
Which operation is principally conducted to evacuate US citizens
Which intelligence collection often may provide the most useful source...
An effective tool to control integrated defense operation is?
Force protection measures will be planned according with
Why is speed essential when processing captives, detainees, and...
During base defense operations what does the DFC use staff control...
Active terrorist groups are organized into cells that can be as small...
What part of the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle does the sacrificial...
Personnel assigned to the priority III routine category should be...
To avoid detection by the government how wil insurgents operate?
How does the observore use off center vision when viewing an object...
Which base is austerely manned but is capable of expanding into a full...
Which function provides transmission of data between the TASS sensors...
Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside...
COIN operations require leaders to exhibit?
To avoid receiving an electrical shock when disconnecting the battery...
The key distinction between an insurgency and other types of movements...
On the AN/PVS-14 night vision device what enables the operator to see...
If you adapted to the dark before donning goggles, you will gain full...
The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example...
Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings and seaports af...
What security system consists of a variety of sensors, repeaters, and...
The hand held thermal imager powers on in what mode?
What do peacetime or contingency operations require when planning how...
Which agency was created by a formal agreement between two or more...
The safe operating distance of radio frequency transmitters around...
On the AN/PVS-14 night vision device what adjusts the distance between...
During offensive and defensive operations, what determines when you...
In what year did the Geneva Conventions become effective?
When burying the TMS magnetic sensor, how deep perpendicular to the...
What should a flight sector sketch show?
A scanning method known as the self preservation method of search...
When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate...
What is the WSTI used for?
Which operation may be clandestine, covery, or overt depending on...
Which major component on the AN/PVS-4 is adjusted for variations in...
What are the components of the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle?
What is the greatest limitation in using the 100 meters method of...
Which agency will the base defense operations center up-channel...
What is achieved by the balanced employment of firepower and...
How many people are required to set up the wide area surveillance...
From where are do all operational command and controls performed from?
The primary purpose of the LRTI-CCTV is to?
What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists are...
The components that make up the tactical miniature sensor active...
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