Security Forces Journeyman CDC Volume 4

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Security Forces Journeyman CDC Volume 4 - Quiz

In this security centred quiz, we’ll be looking at the protocols of security force journeymen in their role of nailing their target and defending their employer. How much do you know about the actions needed to be undertaken?


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which principle of war is the most effective and decisive way to attain a clearly defined objective and is the means by which a military force seizes and holds the initiative while maintaining freedom of action and achieving decisive results?

    • A.

      Mass

    • B.

      Offensive

    • C.

      Manuever

    • D.

      Economy of force

    Correct Answer
    B. Offensive
    Explanation
    The principle of war that is the most effective and decisive way to attain a clearly defined objective, seize and hold the initiative, maintain freedom of action, and achieve decisive results is the offensive. The offensive strategy involves actively attacking and taking the initiative against the enemy, putting them on the defensive and forcing them to react to your actions. By maintaining the offensive, a military force can control the pace and direction of the battle, exploit enemy weaknesses, and ultimately achieve their objectives.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following results from the measures taken by commanders to protect their forces?

    • A.

      Simplicity

    • B.

      Surprise

    • C.

      Security

    • D.

      Safety

    Correct Answer
    C. Security
    Explanation
    Commanders take measures to protect their forces in order to ensure their security. Security refers to the state of being free from danger or threat. By implementing various measures such as establishing defensive positions, implementing security protocols, and conducting regular patrols, commanders aim to safeguard their forces from potential harm or attacks. This allows them to maintain control over their operations and minimize risks to their personnel and resources.

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  • 3. 

    What is achieved by the balanced employment of firepower and patrolling?

    • A.

      Key terrain

    • B.

      Defense in depth

    • C.

      All around defense

    • D.

      Aggressive defense

    Correct Answer
    D. Aggressive defense
    Explanation
    The balanced employment of firepower and patrolling achieves aggressive defense. Aggressive defense involves actively engaging and attacking the enemy, rather than solely relying on passive defensive measures. By combining firepower, which refers to the use of weapons and artillery, with patrolling, which involves actively monitoring and securing the area, an aggressive defense strategy can be implemented. This approach aims to disrupt and deter the enemy's advances, maintaining control and dominance over the battlefield.

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  • 4. 

    A force can dominate an area, place direct or indirect fire on critical resources by capturing?

    • A.

      Key terrain

    • B.

      High grounds

    • C.

      Avenues of approach

    • D.

      Pockets of resistance

    Correct Answer
    A. Key terrain
    Explanation
    Key terrain refers to specific areas on the battlefield that have strategic importance and can provide a significant advantage to the force that controls it. By capturing key terrain, a force can establish a dominant position and have better control over the surrounding area. This allows them to place direct or indirect fire on critical resources, such as supply routes or enemy positions, and potentially disrupt or neutralize them. Therefore, capturing key terrain enables a force to exert its influence and potentially dominate an area.

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  • 5. 

    After the threat has been neutralized which integrated defense effect is implemented to consolidate and reorganize friendly forces and restore operations?

    • A.

      Warn

    • B.

      Assess

    • C.

      Recovery

    • D.

      Anticipate

    Correct Answer
    C. Recovery
    Explanation
    After the threat has been neutralized, the integrated defense effect of recovery is implemented to consolidate and reorganize friendly forces and restore operations. This involves the process of recovering from the impact of the threat, regaining control, and returning to normal operations. It includes activities such as casualty management, equipment repair, resupply, and restoring communication and infrastructure. The goal of recovery is to quickly and efficiently restore the operational capability of friendly forces and ensure they are ready to respond to any future threats.

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  • 6. 

    Which force is the Air Force enterprise leader for integrated defense operations?

    • A.

      Special force

    • B.

      Security forces

    • C.

      Joint forces

    • D.

      Air and Space forces

    Correct Answer
    B. Security forces
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Security forces. The Security forces in the Air Force are responsible for ensuring the security and protection of Air Force personnel, assets, and operations. They are the force that leads and coordinates integrated defense operations, working together with other branches of the military and agencies to defend against threats and maintain the security of the Air Force enterprise.

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  • 7. 

    Which agency will the base defense operations center up-channel covered wagon reportable incidents through?

    • A.

      Site security control

    • B.

      Security forces

    • C.

      Higher headquarters

    • D.

      Installation command post

    Correct Answer
    C. Higher headquarters
    Explanation
    The base defense operations center will reportable incidents through the higher headquarters. This means that any incidents or issues that occur at the base will be reported and escalated to the higher headquarters for further action and decision-making. The higher headquarters is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the operations and security of multiple bases or installations, making it the appropriate agency to handle these reports.

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  • 8. 

    The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapons?

    • A.

      Accident

    • B.

      Incident

    • C.

      Mistake

    • D.

      Mishap

    Correct Answer
    A. Accident
    Explanation
    The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component can be considered as an accident because it refers to an unintended or unplanned event involving the release or disposal of a nuclear weapon or its components. This implies that it was not a deliberate action or part of any planned operation, but rather a result of an unforeseen circumstance or error.

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  • 9. 

    Personnel assigned to the priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      12

    • D.

      24

    Correct Answer
    D. 24
    Explanation
    Personnel assigned to the priority III routine category should be evacuated within 24 hours. This means that in the event of an emergency or crisis, these individuals should be moved to a safe location within a maximum time frame of 24 hours. Evacuating them promptly ensures their safety and well-being, as well as allows for appropriate medical care or other necessary support to be provided in a timely manner.

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  • 10. 

    What may be the most dangerous type of improved explosive devise?

    • A.

      Static

    • B.

      Roadside

    • C.

      Vehicle-borne

    • D.

      Romote detonated

    Correct Answer
    C. Vehicle-borne
    Explanation
    A vehicle-borne explosive device refers to a bomb that is concealed within or attached to a vehicle. This type of explosive device is considered highly dangerous because it allows for a large amount of explosives to be transported and detonated in a targeted location, causing significant damage and casualties. Vehicle-borne explosives have been used in numerous terrorist attacks around the world, such as the bombings in Oklahoma City in 1995 and the London bombings in 2005. Their ability to blend in with everyday vehicles makes them difficult to detect and prevent, making them a significant threat.

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  • 11. 

    Who directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crises either unilaterlly or as part of an interagency and/or multinational effort?

    • A.

      President only

    • B.

      Secretary of defense only

    • C.

      President or secretary of defense

    • D.

      President or defense force commander

    Correct Answer
    C. President or secretary of defense
    Explanation
    The president or secretary of defense directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crises either unilaterally or as part of an interagency and/or multinational effort. As the highest-ranking officials in the US government responsible for national security and military operations, they have the authority to make decisions regarding the deployment and use of military forces in response to crises. This authority allows them to take swift action and coordinate efforts with other agencies or countries when necessary.

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  • 12. 

    Which operation is principally conducted to evacuate US citizens

    • A.

      Recovery

    • B.

      Peace

    • C.

      Peace enforcement

    • D.

      Noncompatant evacuation

    Correct Answer
    D. Noncompatant evacuation
    Explanation
    Noncombatant evacuation is the operation principally conducted to evacuate US citizens in times of crisis or conflict. This operation focuses on the safe and efficient evacuation of civilians, including American citizens, from a potentially dangerous or hostile environment. It is specifically designed to protect and evacuate noncombatants, such as civilians, embassy personnel, and other individuals who may be at risk. This operation aims to ensure the safety and well-being of US citizens by relocating them to a secure location until the situation stabilizes or they can be repatriated to their home country.

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  • 13. 

    Which operation may be clandestine, covery, or overt depending on whether the operational environment is hostile, uncertain, or permissive?

    • A.

      Foreign humanitarian assistance

    • B.

      Consequence management

    • C.

      Homeland defense

    • D.

      Recovery

    Correct Answer
    D. Recovery
    Explanation
    Recovery operations may be clandestine, covert, or overt depending on the operational environment. In a hostile environment, recovery operations may need to be conducted clandestinely to avoid detection and potential interference. In an uncertain environment, recovery operations may be covert to maintain a level of secrecy and minimize potential risks. In a permissive environment, recovery operations can be overt, openly conducted without the need for secrecy or concealment. The nature of the operational environment determines the level of visibility and discretion required for recovery operations.

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  • 14. 

    Which intelligence collection often may provide the most useful source of information

    • A.

      OSINT

    • B.

      COMINT

    • C.

      HUMINT

    • D.

      INFOMINT

    Correct Answer
    C. HUMINT
    Explanation
    HUMINT, or Human Intelligence, often provides the most useful source of information in intelligence collection. This is because HUMINT involves gathering information through direct interaction with individuals, such as through interviews, debriefings, or espionage. This type of intelligence collection allows for a deeper understanding of the human element, motivations, intentions, and insider knowledge, which can be crucial in obtaining accurate and actionable intelligence. Additionally, HUMINT can provide real-time information and insights that may not be available through other methods.

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  • 15. 

    Force protection measures will be planned according with

    • A.

      Determination of the force

    • B.

      The risk to the force

    • C.

      Location of the force

    • D.

      Size of the force

    Correct Answer
    B. The risk to the force
    Explanation
    Force protection measures will be planned according to the risk to the force. This means that the level of protection and security measures will be determined based on the potential threats and hazards that may pose a risk to the force. Factors such as the nature of the mission, the operating environment, and the likelihood of encountering hostile forces or dangerous situations will be taken into consideration when planning force protection measures. By assessing the risk to the force, appropriate measures can be put in place to mitigate potential threats and ensure the safety and security of the personnel and assets involved.

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  • 16. 

    Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?

    • A.

      Standoff attack

    • B.

      Penetration attack

    • C.

      Information operation

    • D.

      Chemical, biological attack

    Correct Answer
    B. Penetration attack
    Explanation
    A penetration attack refers to a type of attack where an unauthorized individual gains access to a system or network by exploiting vulnerabilities. This can involve an insider threat, which means that the attack is carried out by someone who already has authorized access to the system or network. The insider may misuse their privileges to gain unauthorized access, steal sensitive information, or cause damage to the system. In this case, the correct answer is penetration attack because it specifically mentions the involvement of an insider threat.

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  • 17. 

    Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?

    • A.

      Department of state

    • B.

      Department of justice

    • C.

      Department of defense

    • D.

      Federal bureau of investigation

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of state
    Explanation
    The Department of State is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US because it is responsible for the foreign policy and international relations of the United States. This includes coordinating efforts with other countries to combat terrorism and providing support to US citizens and interests abroad in the event of a terrorist incident. The Department of State works closely with other agencies such as the Department of Defense and the Federal Bureau of Investigation, but it takes the lead in dealing with terrorist incidents outside the US.

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  • 18. 

    The tactic terrorist groups use most commonly is?

    • A.

      Arson

    • B.

      Bombing

    • C.

      Highjacking

    • D.

      Kidnapping and hostage taking

    Correct Answer
    B. Bombing
    Explanation
    Terrorist groups most commonly use bombing as a tactic. This involves the deliberate use of explosives to cause destruction, death, and fear among the targeted population. Bombings can be carried out in various ways, such as suicide bombings, car bombings, or attacks on public places. This tactic allows terrorist groups to inflict maximum damage and casualties, attract media attention, and instill fear in the population.

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  • 19. 

    Active terrorist groups are organized into cells that can be as small as two people or as large as?

    • A.

      5-10

    • B.

      10-15

    • C.

      25-30

    • D.

      35-40

    Correct Answer
    C. 25-30
    Explanation
    Active terrorist groups are organized into cells that can be as small as two people or as large as 25-30 individuals. This means that these groups can have a relatively small number of members, as small as two people, or a larger number of members, ranging from 25 to 30 individuals. The size of these cells can vary depending on various factors such as the goals of the group, the nature of their operations, and the level of security they aim to maintain.

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  • 20. 

    Which individual/groups promote their cause by and means and are ideologically inspired?

    • A.

      Crimanals or professionals

    • B.

      Emotionally disturbed

    • C.

      Passive soldiers

    • D.

      Crusaders

    Correct Answer
    D. Crusaders
    Explanation
    Crusaders are individuals or groups who promote their cause by any means and are ideologically inspired. They are driven by a strong belief in their cause and are willing to take action to further it. This term is often associated with historical religious movements, such as the medieval Christian Crusades, but can also be applied to any group or individual who passionately advocates for a particular cause or belief system.

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  • 21. 

    What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation?

    • A.

      Moderate

    • B.

      Significant

    • C.

      High

    • D.

      Low

    Correct Answer
    B. Significant
    Explanation
    The threat level assessment indicates that anti-US terrorists are operationally active and prefer to use large casualty-producing attacks. This suggests that there is a significant threat posed by these terrorists, as they are actively planning and carrying out attacks that have the potential to cause significant harm and loss of life.

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  • 22. 

    The key distinction between an insurgency and other types of movements is the decision to use?

    • A.

      Violence to achieve political goals

    • B.

      Violence to achieve religious goals

    • C.

      Non-violence to achieve political goals

    • D.

      Use violence to achieve ideological goals

    Correct Answer
    A. Violence to achieve political goals
    Explanation
    An insurgency is characterized by the deliberate use of violence to achieve political goals. This sets it apart from other types of movements that may use non-violent means or have different objectives, such as religious or ideological goals. Insurgencies typically involve armed conflict, guerrilla warfare, and acts of terrorism as tactics to challenge or overthrow established authorities and gain political power or autonomy. The decision to resort to violence distinguishes insurgencies from peaceful political movements or other forms of activism.

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  • 23. 

    COIN operations require leaders to exhibit?

    • A.

      Fairness, firmness and fight

    • B.

      Logic, lotalty, and leadership

    • C.

      Patience, persistence, and presence

    • D.

      Cooperation, cohesiveness, and confidence

    Correct Answer
    C. Patience, persistence, and presence
    Explanation
    COIN operations refer to Counterinsurgency operations, which involve combating insurgent groups and winning the support of the local population. In such operations, leaders need to demonstrate patience in dealing with complex situations and the slow progress often associated with counterinsurgency. They also need persistence to continue their efforts despite setbacks and challenges. Lastly, presence is crucial for leaders to establish trust and build relationships with the local population, as well as to maintain a visible and active role in the operation.

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  • 24. 

    To avoid detection by the government how wil insurgents operate?

    • A.

      Underground

    • B.

      In disguise

    • C.

      In small bands

    • D.

      During the hours of darkness

    Correct Answer
    C. In small bands
    Explanation
    Insurgents may choose to operate in small bands to avoid detection by the government. By working in smaller groups, they can minimize their presence and reduce the chances of being noticed or tracked by authorities. Operating in small bands also allows for better coordination and communication among members, making it easier to carry out covert activities without drawing attention. This strategy helps insurgents maintain a low profile and enhances their ability to carry out their objectives without being detected or easily targeted by government forces.

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  • 25. 

    Which agency was created by a formal agreement between two or more governments?

    • A.

      Multinational corporation

    • B.

      Governmental organization

    • C.

      Host nation security council

    • D.

      Intergovernmental organization

    Correct Answer
    D. Intergovernmental organization
    Explanation
    An intergovernmental organization is a type of agency that is created through a formal agreement between two or more governments. These organizations are established to facilitate cooperation and coordination between member states on various issues of common interest, such as international security, economic development, and environmental protection. Examples of intergovernmental organizations include the United Nations (UN), World Health Organization (WHO), and World Trade Organization (WTO).

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  • 26. 

    Which agency is the most notable integovernmental organization?

    • A.

      The united nations

    • B.

      The world hunger league

    • C.

      United nations children fund

    • D.

      The american federation of labor and congress of industrial organizations

    Correct Answer
    A. The united nations
    Explanation
    The United Nations is the most notable intergovernmental organization because it serves as a platform for countries to come together and address global issues such as peace and security, human rights, and sustainable development. It has a wide range of member states and plays a crucial role in promoting international cooperation and resolving conflicts through diplomatic means. Additionally, the United Nations has various specialized agencies and programs that work towards specific goals, making it a prominent and influential organization on the global stage.

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  • 27. 

    Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings and seaports af debarkation are all examples of key

    • A.

      Terrain issues

    • B.

      Logistical issues

    • C.

      Sovereignty issues

    • D.

      Transportation issues

    Correct Answer
    C. Sovereignty issues
    Explanation
    Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation are all examples of locations that involve the entry and exit of people and goods into a country. These locations are crucial for a nation to exercise control over its borders and assert its sovereignty. Therefore, they can be considered as examples of sovereignty issues.

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  • 28. 

    Which base is austerely manned but is capable of expanding into a full scale air base operations?

    • A.

      Bare base

    • B.

      Limited base

    • C.

      Main operating base

    • D.

      Forward operating base

    Correct Answer
    B. Limited base
    Explanation
    A limited base is a base that is minimally staffed but has the ability to expand into a full-scale air base operations. This means that initially, the base may have a small number of personnel and resources, but it has the capability to quickly and efficiently increase its capacity and capabilities when needed. This allows for flexibility and adaptability in military operations, as the limited base can be scaled up to meet the demands of a larger operation if required.

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  • 29. 

    What do peacetime or contingency operations require when planning how and where to use security forces unit UTC?

    • A.

      Time

    • B.

      Money

    • C.

      Manning

    • D.

      Flexibility

    Correct Answer
    D. Flexibility
    Explanation
    Peacetime or contingency operations require flexibility when planning how and where to use security forces unit UTC. This is because the circumstances and requirements of these operations can change rapidly, and the ability to adapt and adjust the deployment of security forces is crucial. Flexibility allows for efficient allocation of resources, quick response to emerging threats or situations, and the ability to effectively address evolving security needs. It enables the security forces to be agile and responsive, ensuring the success of the operations.

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  • 30. 

    During base defense operations what does the DFC use staff control tools for?

    • A.

      Control the traffic flow plan

    • B.

      Ensure all equipment is functioning properly

    • C.

      Make sure the office is maintained and kept neat and orderly

    • D.

      Disseminate his or hre orders and manage the base defense opertaions plan

    Correct Answer
    D. Disseminate his or hre orders and manage the base defense opertaions plan
    Explanation
    The DFC (Defense Force Commander) uses staff control tools during base defense operations to disseminate his or her orders and manage the base defense operations plan. These tools help the DFC effectively communicate their orders to the staff and ensure that everyone is on the same page. By using these tools, the DFC can coordinate and manage the various aspects of base defense operations, including assigning tasks, monitoring progress, and making necessary adjustments to the plan. This helps maintain a cohesive and efficient defense strategy.

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  • 31. 

    An effective tool to control integrated defense operation is?

    • A.

      Charts and forms

    • B.

      Base sectorization

    • C.

      Staff control tools

    • D.

      Military symbology

    Correct Answer
    B. Base sectorization
    Explanation
    Base sectorization is an effective tool to control integrated defense operations. It involves dividing a defense base into sectors, each with specific responsibilities and tasks. This allows for better coordination and control of resources, personnel, and operations. By assigning sectors, the defense base can ensure that all areas are adequately covered and that there is clear communication and command structure in place. Base sectorization helps in managing and organizing the defense operation effectively, ensuring that all aspects of the operation are well-coordinated and controlled.

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  • 32. 

    What should a flight sector sketch show?

    • A.

      Main terrain feature in the sector of fire and the ranges to them

    • B.

      Flight and squadron identifications

    • C.

      Squad leader positions

    • D.

      True south

    Correct Answer
    B. Flight and squadron identifications
    Explanation
    A flight sector sketch should show flight and squadron identifications. This information is important for identifying and tracking the different flights and squadrons operating within a specific sector. It helps in maintaining communication, coordination, and situational awareness among the different units involved in the flight operations.

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  • 33. 

    In what year did the Geneva Conventions become effective?

    • A.

      1955

    • B.

      1956

    • C.

      1957

    • D.

      1958

    Correct Answer
    B. 1956
    Explanation
    The Geneva Conventions became effective in 1956. These international treaties were established to protect the rights and well-being of individuals during armed conflicts. They outline rules for the treatment of wounded and sick soldiers, prisoners of war, and civilians. The conventions have been ratified by numerous countries and are considered a cornerstone of humanitarian law.

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  • 34. 

    Why is speed essential when processing captives, detainees, and prisoners?

    • A.

      Keeping the prisoners silent is important

    • B.

      To ensure the safety of defectors and deserters

    • C.

      The intelligence a CDP brings is time sensitive

    • D.

      CDPs must be tagged before evacuating to the rear

    Correct Answer
    C. The intelligence a CDP brings is time sensitive
    Explanation
    Speed is essential when processing captives, detainees, and prisoners because the intelligence they provide is time-sensitive. This means that the information they possess may become outdated or lose its value if not acted upon quickly. Therefore, processing them quickly allows for the timely extraction of valuable intelligence that can be used for various purposes, such as ensuring the safety of defectors and deserters or tagging CDPs before evacuating to the rear.

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  • 35. 

    The safe operating distance of radio frequency transmitters around refueling locations is?

    • A.

      20 meters

    • B.

      30 meters

    • C.

      40 meters

    • D.

      50 meters

    Correct Answer
    D. 50 meters
    Explanation
    The safe operating distance of radio frequency transmitters around refueling locations is 50 meters. This distance is necessary to prevent any potential interference or sparks that could ignite flammable gases or liquids present during refueling. Maintaining a safe distance ensures the safety of both the refueling process and the individuals involved.

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  • 36. 

    To avoid receiving an electrical shock when disconnecting the battery from the electronic security system(ESS)?

    • A.

      Remove the negative lead first

    • B.

      Remove the positive lead first

    • C.

      It doesn't matter which lead you remove first

    • D.

      Secure the positive lead first and then the negative

    Correct Answer
    B. Remove the positive lead first
    Explanation
    Removing the positive lead first is the correct answer because it helps to minimize the risk of electrical shock. By removing the positive lead first, you are disconnecting the power source and reducing the likelihood of accidentally creating a circuit with a tool or other metal object. This reduces the risk of electrical shock because the negative lead is still connected to the ground, which helps to dissipate any residual charge.

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  • 37. 

    Which function provides transmission of data between the TASS sensors and annunciators?

    • A.

      Power

    • B.

      Annunciation

    • C.

      Communications

    • D.

      Response frequenct

    Correct Answer
    C. Communications
    Explanation
    The function that provides transmission of data between the TASS sensors and annunciators is communications. This function is responsible for establishing a connection and facilitating the exchange of information between these two components. It enables the sensors to send their data to the annunciators, which then display the relevant information to the user. Without the communications function, the sensors and annunciators would not be able to communicate with each other, rendering the system ineffective.

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  • 38. 

    What security system consists of a variety of sensors, repeaters, and a hand held display monitor?

    • A.

      MILES

    • B.

      TMS

    • C.

      ESS

    • D.

      BISS

    Correct Answer
    B. TMS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TMS. TMS stands for Training Management System, which is a security system that includes a variety of sensors, repeaters, and a handheld display monitor. This system is commonly used in military training exercises to track and monitor the movement and actions of troops and vehicles. The sensors detect simulated enemy fire and communicate this information to the handheld display monitor, allowing the trainees to assess the situation and respond accordingly. The repeaters help to extend the range of the system and ensure reliable communication between the sensors and the display monitor.

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  • 39. 

    A scanning method known as the self preservation method of search lasts approximately?

    • A.

      90Sec

    • B.

      60 Sec

    • C.

      45 Sec

    • D.

      30 Sec

    Correct Answer
    D. 30 Sec
    Explanation
    The self-preservation method of search is a scanning method that aims to protect the system being scanned. It is designed to minimize the impact on the system's performance and resources. Therefore, it is expected to last for a shorter duration compared to other scanning methods. Among the given options, the shortest duration mentioned is 30 seconds, which aligns with the objective of the self-preservation method.

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  • 40. 

    When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is?

    • A.

      Spacing

    • B.

      Aining point

    • C.

      Reference point

    • D.

      Range determination

    Correct Answer
    B. Aining point
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "aining point". An aiming point refers to a specific target or area that a shooter focuses on when delivering accurate fire. By aiming at a specific point, the shooter can ensure precise targeting and increase the effectiveness of their fire. This allows for better accuracy and increases the chances of hitting the intended target.

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  • 41. 

    What is the greatest limitation in using the 100 meters method of range determination?

    • A.

      Observer proficiency requires constant practice

    • B.

      SF member must pace the range to see if his estimation is correct

    • C.

      Underestimating sloping ground gives the illusion of a greater distance

    • D.

      Accuracy is directly related to amount of terrain visible to the observor

    Correct Answer
    D. Accuracy is directly related to amount of terrain visible to the observor
    Explanation
    The greatest limitation in using the 100 meters method of range determination is that accuracy is directly related to the amount of terrain visible to the observer. This means that if the observer has a limited view of the terrain, it becomes difficult to accurately estimate the range. The more terrain that is visible, the easier it is to gauge the distance accurately.

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  • 42. 

    How does the observore use off center vision when viewing an object during limited visibility?

    • A.

      Look 5 degrees above, below or to either side rather then directily at it

    • B.

      Look 10 degrees above, below or to either side rather then directily at it

    • C.

      Look 15 degrees above, below rather then directily at it

    • D.

      Look 20 degrees to either side rather then directily at it

    Correct Answer
    B. Look 10 degrees above, below or to either side rather then directily at it
    Explanation
    The observer uses off-center vision by looking 10 degrees above, below, or to either side of the object rather than directly at it. This allows the observer to utilize their peripheral vision, which is more sensitive to detecting objects in limited visibility conditions. By looking slightly off-center, the observer can enhance their ability to perceive the object and gather more information about its surroundings.

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  • 43. 

    If you adapted to the dark before donning goggles, you will gain full dark adaption within how many minutes after removing the goggles?

    • A.

      8

    • B.

      5

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      2

    Correct Answer
    D. 2
    Explanation
    If you adapted to the dark before donning goggles, it means that your eyes have already adjusted to the low light conditions. When you remove the goggles, your eyes will not need much time to readjust to the darkness because they were already adapted to it. Therefore, it will take only 2 minutes for you to gain full dark adaption after removing the goggles.

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  • 44. 

    When burying the TMS magnetic sensor, how deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach must you bury the magnetic sensor head?

    • A.

      2 to 4 inches

    • B.

      4 to 6 inches

    • C.

      6 to 8 inches

    • D.

      8 to 10 inches

    Correct Answer
    C. 6 to 8 inches
    Explanation
    The TMS magnetic sensor should be buried 6 to 8 inches deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach. This depth ensures that the sensor is properly positioned to detect and measure the magnetic field. Burying it too shallow may result in inaccurate readings, while burying it too deep may reduce its sensitivity to magnetic fluctuations. Therefore, burying the sensor at a depth of 6 to 8 inches is the optimal range for accurate and reliable measurements.

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  • 45. 

    The components that make up the tactical miniature sensor active infrared detection sensor are?

    • A.

      Ab enutter head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter

    • B.

      A seismic head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter

    • C.

      A transformer head, infrared sensor head and transmitter

    • D.

      An emission head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter

    Correct Answer
    A. Ab enutter head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter
  • 46. 

    The Elec 864M1E long-range passive infrared sensors detection capability can be degraded in?

    • A.

      In snowy conditions

    • B.

      Dense fog

    • C.

      Rainy weather

    • D.

      Bright sunlight

    Correct Answer
    B. Dense fog
    Explanation
    The Elec 864M1E long-range passive infrared sensors detection capability can be degraded in dense fog. This is because dense fog reduces visibility and can obstruct the infrared waves emitted by the sensors. As a result, the sensors may struggle to accurately detect and track objects in such conditions.

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  • 47. 

    What is the WSTI used for?

    • A.

      Alarm annunciation and visual inspection

    • B.

      Sensor identification and recognition

    • C.

      To assess the alarms of a sensor activation

    • D.

      Boundary protection

    Correct Answer
    C. To assess the alarms of a sensor activation
    Explanation
    The WSTI (Wireless Sensor Technology Interface) is used to assess the alarms of a sensor activation. This means that it is responsible for analyzing and evaluating the alarms triggered by the activation of a sensor. It helps in determining the severity and urgency of the alarm, allowing appropriate actions to be taken in response. The WSTI plays a crucial role in ensuring effective monitoring and response to sensor activations.

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  • 48. 

    How many people are required to set up the wide area surveillance thermal imager tripod?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    Three people are required to set up the wide area surveillance thermal imager tripod. This suggests that the setup process involves tasks that cannot be accomplished by a single person or a pair of individuals. The presence of three people may be necessary to ensure the stability and proper positioning of the tripod, as well as to handle any additional equipment or tools that may be required during the setup process.

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  • 49. 

    From where are do all operational command and controls performed from?

    • A.

      DCU

    • B.

      DCS

    • C.

      JCU

    • D.

      BDOC

    Correct Answer
    C. JCU
    Explanation
    The operational command and controls are performed from the JCU.

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  • 50. 

    The primary purpose of the LRTI-CCTV is to?

    • A.

      Provide full color imagery and video

    • B.

      Provide communication and data to the base defense operation center

    • C.

      Allow you to view the enemy from long distances

    • D.

      Assess alarms annunciating from the TASS system

    Correct Answer
    D. Assess alarms annunciating from the TASS system
    Explanation
    The primary purpose of the LRTI-CCTV is to assess alarms annunciating from the TASS system. This means that the LRTI-CCTV is used to monitor and evaluate any alarms or alerts that are triggered by the TASS system. It is not primarily used for providing full color imagery and video, providing communication and data to the base defense operation center, or allowing you to view the enemy from long distances.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 01, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Likawa8764
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