Reproductive System (Practice Mode)

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Reproductive System Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following is the location where fertilization occurs? 

    • A.

      Ovaries

    • B.

      Vagina

    • C.

      Uterus

    • D.

      Fallopian Tubes

    Correct Answer
    D. Fallopian Tubes
    Explanation
    Fertilization occurs in the fallopian tubes. This is where the sperm and egg meet and combine to form a fertilized egg, also known as a zygote. The fallopian tubes provide a pathway for the egg to travel from the ovaries to the uterus.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following terms correspond with the phrase: a woman that is pregnant? 

    • A.

      Gravida

    • B.

      Parity

    • C.

      Spermatogonia

    • D.

      Zona pellucida

    Correct Answer
    A. Gravida
    Explanation
    The term "gravida" refers to a woman who is pregnant. It is a medical term used to describe the number of times a woman has been pregnant, regardless of the outcome (whether the pregnancies resulted in live births, stillbirths, or abortions). It does not take into account the duration of the pregnancies or the number of fetuses. Therefore, "gravida" is the correct term that corresponds with the phrase "a woman that is pregnant."

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following sign's may indicate pregnancy? 

    • A.

      Chadwick's sign

    • B.

      Turner's sign

    • C.

      Virchow's sign

    • D.

      Kock's sign

    Correct Answer
    A. Chadwick's sign
    Explanation
    Chadwick's sign is a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and vulva that can occur during pregnancy. This is caused by increased blood flow to the area due to hormonal changes. Turner's sign refers to the presence of a bluish color in the flank area, which is not related to pregnancy. Virchow's sign refers to the presence of enlarged and palpable lymph nodes in the supraclavicular area, which is not specific to pregnancy. Kock's sign is not a recognized sign of pregnancy. Therefore, the presence of Chadwick's sign is the most likely indication of pregnancy among the given options.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is not an associated change during the antepartum period? 

    • A.

      Increased urination frequency

    • B.

      Increased respiratory requirements

    • C.

      Decreased basal metabolic rate

    • D.

      Goodell's sign

    Correct Answer
    C. Decreased basal metabolic rate
    Explanation
    During the antepartum period, the body undergoes various changes to accommodate the growing fetus. Increased urination frequency is a common change due to increased blood flow to the kidneys. Increased respiratory requirements occur as the body needs to supply oxygen to both the mother and the fetus. Goodell's sign refers to the softening of the cervix. However, the basal metabolic rate actually increases during pregnancy to support the increased energy needs of the mother and the fetus. Therefore, the correct answer is that decreased basal metabolic rate is not an associated change during the antepartum period.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following matches the definition: abnormal placenta development covering the cervix? 

    • A.

      Placenta Previa

    • B.

      Abruptio Placentae

    • C.

      Multigravida

    • D.

      Proliferative phase

    Correct Answer
    A. Placenta Previa
    Explanation
    Placenta Previa is the correct answer because it refers to the abnormal development of the placenta covering the cervix. This condition can cause bleeding during pregnancy and may require a cesarean section for delivery. Abruptio Placentae refers to the premature separation of the placenta from the uterus, Multigravida refers to a woman who has been pregnant more than once, and Proliferative phase refers to a stage of the menstrual cycle.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is not scored with the APGAR? 

    • A.

      0

    • B.

      Heart Rate

    • C.

      Color

    • D.

      Tone

    Correct Answer
    A. 0
    Explanation
    The APGAR score is a test used to assess the health of a newborn baby immediately after birth. It evaluates five factors: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. However, the number "0" is not a factor that is scored with the APGAR. The APGAR score ranges from 0 to 10, with a higher score indicating better health.

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  • 7. 

    Which of these is not considered a T.O.R.C.H. infection? 

    • A.

      Rubella

    • B.

      Herpes

    • C.

      Cytomegalovirus

    • D.

      Croup

    Correct Answer
    D. Croup
    Explanation
    Croup is not considered a T.O.R.C.H. infection because T.O.R.C.H. stands for a group of infections that can be transmitted from mother to fetus during pregnancy, and Croup is not caused by any of the pathogens associated with T.O.R.C.H. infections. Croup is a viral infection that affects the upper airway and causes inflammation, leading to symptoms like coughing, hoarseness, and difficulty breathing. It is commonly caused by the parainfluenza virus and is not related to T.O.R.C.H. infections such as Rubella, Herpes, or Cytomegalovirus.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following develops into the ejaculatory duct and ductus deferens? 

    • A.

      Paramesonephric duct

    • B.

      Mesonephric duct

    • C.

      Sympathetic duct

    • D.

      Parasympathetic duct

    Correct Answer
    B. MesonepHric duct
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the mesonephric duct. During embryonic development, the mesonephric duct forms in males and gives rise to the ejaculatory duct and ductus deferens, which are important structures in the male reproductive system. The paramesonephric duct, on the other hand, develops into the female reproductive structures. The sympathetic and parasympathetic ducts are not involved in the development of the ejaculatory duct and ductus deferens.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is the result of poor fusion between the paramesonephric ducts in females? 

    • A.

      Placenta Previa

    • B.

      Bicornuate uterus

    • C.

      Multigravida

    • D.

      Proliferative phase

    Correct Answer
    B. Bicornuate uterus
    Explanation
    The result of poor fusion between the paramesonephric ducts in females is a bicornuate uterus. The paramesonephric ducts are embryonic structures that give rise to the female reproductive system, including the uterus. If there is incomplete fusion of these ducts, it can lead to the formation of a bicornuate uterus, which is characterized by a heart-shaped uterus with a deep indentation in the middle. This condition can affect fertility and increase the risk of complications during pregnancy.

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  • 10. 

    Where does spermatogenesis occur? 

    • A.

      Seminiferous tubules

    • B.

      Corpus spongiosoma

    • C.

      Prostate gland

    • D.

      Scrotum

    Correct Answer
    A. Seminiferous tubules
    Explanation
    Spermatogenesis, the process of sperm production, occurs in the seminiferous tubules. These tubules are located within the testes, which are the male reproductive organs. The seminiferous tubules are responsible for the production and maturation of sperm cells. They are lined with specialized cells called Sertoli cells, which support and nourish the developing sperm cells. The other options listed, such as the corpus spongiosum, prostate gland, and scrotum, are not directly involved in spermatogenesis.

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  • 11. 

    The tip of the sperm is called the ____. 

    • A.

      Head

    • B.

      Acrosome

    • C.

      Tail

    • D.

      Nucleus

    Correct Answer
    B. Acrosome
    Explanation
    The acrosome is a structure located at the tip of the sperm. It contains enzymes that are essential for the sperm to penetrate and fertilize the egg. The head of the sperm contains the nucleus, which carries the genetic material, but the acrosome is specifically responsible for aiding in the fertilization process. The tail of the sperm, also known as the flagellum, helps the sperm to swim towards the egg. Therefore, the correct answer is acrosome.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following develops into: bone, connective tissue, blood, and the spleen? 

    • A.

      Notochord

    • B.

      Endoderm

    • C.

      Mesoderm

    • D.

      Ectoderm

    Correct Answer
    C. Mesoderm
    Explanation
    Mesoderm is the correct answer because it is one of the three primary germ layers in the developing embryo. It gives rise to various tissues and organs including bone, connective tissue, blood, and the spleen. The mesoderm layer is responsible for the formation of the musculoskeletal system, circulatory system, and several other structures in the body.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is not a germ layer during the 3rd week of development? 

    • A.

      Mesoderm

    • B.

      Ectoderm

    • C.

      Endoderm

    • D.

      Exoderm

    Correct Answer
    D. Exoderm
    Explanation
    During the 3rd week of development, the three primary germ layers that form in the early embryo are the ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. These germ layers give rise to different tissues and organs in the body. However, "exoderm" is not a recognized germ layer during this stage of development. It is likely a distractor option that is not relevant to embryonic development.

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  • 14. 

    The umbilical vein carries _____ blood. 

    • A.

      Deoxygenated

    • B.

      Oxygenated

    Correct Answer
    B. Oxygenated
    Explanation
    The umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood. This is because the umbilical vein connects the fetus to the placenta, where oxygen and nutrients are exchanged between the mother's blood and the fetus's blood. Oxygenated blood from the placenta is then carried back to the fetus through the umbilical vein, providing oxygen and nutrients for the developing fetus.

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  • 15. 

    Ovulation occurs during which of the following phases? 

    • A.

      Menstrual

    • B.

      Secretory

    • C.

      Proliferative

    • D.

      Follicle

    Correct Answer
    C. Proliferative
    Explanation
    During the proliferative phase, the lining of the uterus thickens in preparation for a potential pregnancy. This phase occurs after menstruation and before ovulation. Ovulation itself occurs during the follicular phase, when a mature egg is released from the ovary. The secretory phase follows ovulation and is characterized by the thickening of the uterine lining and the production of progesterone. Therefore, the correct answer is proliferative.

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  • 16. 

    Following fertilization the blastocyst secrets a hormone called? 

    • A.

      Human Chorionic Gonadotropin

    • B.

      Oxytocin

    • C.

      FSH

    • D.

      LH

    Correct Answer
    A. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
    Explanation
    After fertilization, the blastocyst secretes a hormone called Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG). HCG is produced by the developing placenta and plays a crucial role in maintaining pregnancy. It helps to support the corpus luteum in the ovary, which continues to produce progesterone and estrogen to sustain the pregnancy. HCG is also the hormone detected in pregnancy tests.

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  • 17. 

      Progesterone is secreted from a female's _____ to help the implanted embryo and continue the pregnancy. 

    • A.

      Corpus luteum

    • B.

      Mesoderm

    • C.

      Endoderm

    • D.

      Thyroid

    Correct Answer
    A. Corpus luteum
    Explanation
    Progesterone is secreted from a female's corpus luteum to help the implanted embryo and continue the pregnancy. The corpus luteum is a temporary gland that forms in the ovary after ovulation. It produces progesterone, which is essential for the maintenance of the uterine lining and the development of the embryo. Without sufficient levels of progesterone, the uterine lining may shed, leading to the termination of pregnancy. Therefore, the corpus luteum plays a crucial role in supporting early pregnancy by secreting progesterone.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is not appropriately matched with the term: Braxton Hicks contractions? 

    • A.

      Painless

    • B.

      Intermittent contractions

    • C.

      Edema

    • D.

      Irregular

    Correct Answer
    C. Edema
    Explanation
    Braxton Hicks contractions are a normal part of pregnancy, characterized by painless, intermittent, and irregular contractions. Edema, on the other hand, refers to the swelling caused by excess fluid in the body's tissues, which is not related to contractions. Therefore, edema is not appropriately matched with the term Braxton Hicks contractions.

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  • 19. 

    If a newborn exhibits a heart rate of 80 bpm the APGAR score should be? 

    • A.

      0

    • B.

      1

    • C.

      2

    • D.

      3

    Correct Answer
    B. 1
    Explanation
    A newborn with a heart rate of 80 bpm would receive an APGAR score of 1. The APGAR score is a quick assessment tool used to evaluate the overall health and well-being of a newborn immediately after birth. It evaluates five factors: Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, and Respiration. Each factor is assigned a score of 0, 1, or 2, with a maximum total score of 10. A heart rate of 80 bpm would fall under the category of a moderately low pulse, which corresponds to a score of 1 on the APGAR scale.

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  • 20. 

    If a newborn exhibits blue extremities and the body is pink the APGAR score should be? 

    • A.

      0

    • B.

      1

    • C.

      2

    • D.

      3

    Correct Answer
    B. 1
    Explanation
    A newborn exhibiting blue extremities and a pink body indicates that the baby may be experiencing some difficulty in breathing or circulation. This condition is known as acrocyanosis. A score of 1 on the APGAR scale is given when the baby has a slightly bluish color in the extremities but a pink body. This score suggests that the baby may require some medical attention and monitoring to ensure proper breathing and circulation.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 18, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    RNpedia.com
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