PSW Practice Test: Cj Healthcare College

1. What is the most common accident in all settings?

Burns

Suffocation

Falls

Poisoning

Falls are the most common accident in all settings because they can occur in various environments such as homes, workplaces, and public spaces. Falls can happen due to hazards like slippery surfaces, uneven flooring, or lack of handrails. They can result in injuries ranging from minor cuts and bruises to more severe fractures or head trauma. Additionally, falls are particularly common among older adults, who may have reduced balance and mobility. Therefore, falls are the most frequent accident across different settings.

Explanation

Falls are the most common accident in all settings because they can occur in various environments such as homes, workplaces, and public spaces. Falls can happen due to hazards like slippery surfaces, uneven flooring, or lack of handrails. They can result in injuries ranging from minor cuts and bruises to more severe fractures or head trauma. Additionally, falls are particularly common among older adults, who may have reduced balance and mobility. Therefore, falls are the most frequent accident across different settings.

2. Which is a sign of physical abuse?

Criticism, Making fun of them

Hitting, punching, hair pulling

Stealing their money and belongings

The correct answer is hitting, punching, hair pulling. These actions involve physical force and aggression towards another person, which are clear signs of physical abuse. Criticism and making fun of someone can be emotionally abusive, while stealing someone's money and belongings can be considered as financial abuse. However, the question specifically asks for a sign of physical abuse, and hitting, punching, and hair pulling are direct acts of physical harm.

Explanation

The correct answer is hitting, punching, hair pulling. These actions involve physical force and aggression towards another person, which are clear signs of physical abuse. Criticism and making fun of someone can be emotionally abusive, while stealing someone's money and belongings can be considered as financial abuse. However, the question specifically asks for a sign of physical abuse, and hitting, punching, and hair pulling are direct acts of physical harm.

3. Adults of all ages often fear:

Dying Alone

Reincarnation

The five stages of grief

Advance Directives

Many adults of all ages often fear dying alone because it can be a deeply distressing and isolating experience. The fear stems from the idea of not having loved ones or support around during their final moments, leading to feelings of abandonment and loneliness. This fear is common as humans are social beings who crave connection and companionship, especially during vulnerable times. The fear of dying alone highlights the importance of relationships and the desire for a sense of belonging and comfort in the face of mortality.

Explanation

Many adults of all ages often fear dying alone because it can be a deeply distressing and isolating experience. The fear stems from the idea of not having loved ones or support around during their final moments, leading to feelings of abandonment and loneliness. This fear is common as humans are social beings who crave connection and companionship, especially during vulnerable times. The fear of dying alone highlights the importance of relationships and the desire for a sense of belonging and comfort in the face of mortality.

4. Mr. Lau has bipolar disorder. This means he:

Has delusions

Is Hostile

Is very suspicious

Has severe mood swings

Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition characterized by extreme mood swings. Individuals with bipolar disorder experience periods of intense highs, known as manic episodes, and periods of intense lows, known as depressive episodes. These mood swings can significantly impact a person's daily life and functioning. Therefore, the correct answer is "Has severe mood swings."

Explanation

Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition characterized by extreme mood swings. Individuals with bipolar disorder experience periods of intense highs, known as manic episodes, and periods of intense lows, known as depressive episodes. These mood swings can significantly impact a person's daily life and functioning. Therefore, the correct answer is "Has severe mood swings."

5. Post-operatively following a hip surgery, your patient's position should be changed:

Every shift

Every 2 hours

Every 3 hours

Every 4 hours

After a hip surgery, it is important to change the patient's position every 2 hours. This is necessary to prevent complications such as pressure ulcers, deep vein thrombosis, and pneumonia. By changing the patient's position regularly, it helps to redistribute pressure, improve blood circulation, and prevent the development of bedsores. Additionally, frequent position changes can also help with pain management and promote faster recovery. Therefore, changing the patient's position every 2 hours is the correct answer to ensure optimal post-operative care.

Explanation

After a hip surgery, it is important to change the patient's position every 2 hours. This is necessary to prevent complications such as pressure ulcers, deep vein thrombosis, and pneumonia. By changing the patient's position regularly, it helps to redistribute pressure, improve blood circulation, and prevent the development of bedsores. Additionally, frequent position changes can also help with pain management and promote faster recovery. Therefore, changing the patient's position every 2 hours is the correct answer to ensure optimal post-operative care.

6. When transferring a client to bed, a chair, or the toilet:

The client's strong side is moved first

The weak side is moved first

Pillows are used for support

The transfer belt cannot be used

When transferring a client to bed, a chair, or the toilet, it is important to move their strong side first. This is because the strong side provides more stability and support during the transfer. By moving the strong side first, the client is able to maintain their balance and reduce the risk of falls or injuries. Additionally, moving the strong side first allows the client to actively participate in the transfer and use their stronger muscles to assist in the movement.

Explanation

When transferring a client to bed, a chair, or the toilet, it is important to move their strong side first. This is because the strong side provides more stability and support during the transfer. By moving the strong side first, the client is able to maintain their balance and reduce the risk of falls or injuries. Additionally, moving the strong side first allows the client to actively participate in the transfer and use their stronger muscles to assist in the movement.

7. AIDS stands for:

Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome

Animal Immune Deficiency Syndrome

Anginal Immune Deficiency Syndrome

Alientated Immune Deficiency Syndrome

AIDS stands for Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome. This term is used to describe a condition where the immune system of an individual is weakened and unable to effectively fight off infections and diseases. It is acquired, meaning it is not present at birth but is acquired later in life. The term "immune deficiency" refers to the weakened immune system, which makes the individual more susceptible to various infections and illnesses.

Explanation

AIDS stands for Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome. This term is used to describe a condition where the immune system of an individual is weakened and unable to effectively fight off infections and diseases. It is acquired, meaning it is not present at birth but is acquired later in life. The term "immune deficiency" refers to the weakened immune system, which makes the individual more susceptible to various infections and illnesses.

8. All of the following refers to nutrition EXCEPT:

Ingestion

Digestion

Calories

Orthostatic Hypotension

Orthostatic hypotension is a medical condition characterized by a sudden drop in blood pressure when a person stands up from a sitting or lying position. It is not related to nutrition. In contrast, ingestion refers to the process of taking in food or drink, digestion is the process of breaking down food into smaller molecules, and calories are a unit of measurement for energy obtained from food.

Explanation

Orthostatic hypotension is a medical condition characterized by a sudden drop in blood pressure when a person stands up from a sitting or lying position. It is not related to nutrition. In contrast, ingestion refers to the process of taking in food or drink, digestion is the process of breaking down food into smaller molecules, and calories are a unit of measurement for energy obtained from food.

9. A "pathogen" :

Is a Disease-causing microbe.

Is An allergy.

Refers to the cell after it is swollen with water.

A substance that all human bodies need.

A pathogen refers to a disease-causing microbe. Pathogens are microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites that can cause diseases in humans, animals, or plants. They invade the body and multiply, leading to infection and illness. Understanding pathogens is crucial in preventing and treating diseases as it helps in identifying the specific microorganism responsible for the infection and developing appropriate treatments or preventive measures.

Explanation

A pathogen refers to a disease-causing microbe. Pathogens are microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites that can cause diseases in humans, animals, or plants. They invade the body and multiply, leading to infection and illness. Understanding pathogens is crucial in preventing and treating diseases as it helps in identifying the specific microorganism responsible for the infection and developing appropriate treatments or preventive measures.

10. Pre-operatively, your patient should be:

NPO

Allowed only water

Given a tube feeding

Given a big hearty breakfast

Pre-operatively, it is important for the patient to be NPO (nothing by mouth) to ensure that their stomach is empty during the surgery. This reduces the risk of aspiration, where stomach contents can enter the lungs, causing complications such as pneumonia. By not allowing the patient to eat or drink anything before the surgery, the chances of complications during anesthesia and surgery are minimized.

Explanation

Pre-operatively, it is important for the patient to be NPO (nothing by mouth) to ensure that their stomach is empty during the surgery. This reduces the risk of aspiration, where stomach contents can enter the lungs, causing complications such as pneumonia. By not allowing the patient to eat or drink anything before the surgery, the chances of complications during anesthesia and surgery are minimized.

11. In Trendelenburg Position:

The head of the bed is on a 90 degree angle

The head of the bed in on a 45 degree angle

The foot of the bed is higher than the head of the bed

The bed is completely flat

In Trendelenburg Position, the foot of the bed is higher than the head of the bed. This position is often used in medical settings to improve circulation and blood flow to vital organs. It can also help to reduce swelling and fluid buildup in the lower extremities. By elevating the feet, gravity helps to promote venous return and increase cardiac output. This position is commonly used during surgery, in cases of shock, or for patients with certain respiratory conditions.

Explanation

In Trendelenburg Position, the foot of the bed is higher than the head of the bed. This position is often used in medical settings to improve circulation and blood flow to vital organs. It can also help to reduce swelling and fluid buildup in the lower extremities. By elevating the feet, gravity helps to promote venous return and increase cardiac output. This position is commonly used during surgery, in cases of shock, or for patients with certain respiratory conditions.

12. Table sugar, fruit and fruit juices are examples of:

Starches

Fibres

Nutrients

Simple Sugars

Table sugar, fruit, and fruit juices are examples of simple sugars. Simple sugars, also known as monosaccharides and disaccharides, are the basic units of carbohydrates. They are easily digested and quickly absorbed into the bloodstream, providing a quick source of energy for the body. Table sugar, or sucrose, is a disaccharide made up of glucose and fructose. Fruits and fruit juices contain natural sugars such as fructose. While they do provide energy, it is important to consume simple sugars in moderation as excessive intake can lead to health issues like obesity and diabetes.

Explanation

Table sugar, fruit, and fruit juices are examples of simple sugars. Simple sugars, also known as monosaccharides and disaccharides, are the basic units of carbohydrates. They are easily digested and quickly absorbed into the bloodstream, providing a quick source of energy for the body. Table sugar, or sucrose, is a disaccharide made up of glucose and fructose. Fruits and fruit juices contain natural sugars such as fructose. While they do provide energy, it is important to consume simple sugars in moderation as excessive intake can lead to health issues like obesity and diabetes.

13. You find your unsteady patient on the ground, shaken and in pain. The documentation you would provide in this case is:

A flow sheet

A graphic sheet

An incident report

A living will

In this scenario, the correct documentation to provide for the unsteady patient who is on the ground, shaken, and in pain would be an incident report. An incident report is used to document any unexpected or adverse events that occur in a healthcare setting. It provides a detailed account of the incident, including the patient's condition, the circumstances surrounding the incident, and any actions taken by the healthcare provider. This documentation is important for legal and quality assurance purposes, as it helps to identify any potential risks or areas for improvement in patient care.

Explanation

In this scenario, the correct documentation to provide for the unsteady patient who is on the ground, shaken, and in pain would be an incident report. An incident report is used to document any unexpected or adverse events that occur in a healthcare setting. It provides a detailed account of the incident, including the patient's condition, the circumstances surrounding the incident, and any actions taken by the healthcare provider. This documentation is important for legal and quality assurance purposes, as it helps to identify any potential risks or areas for improvement in patient care.

14. White flakes on the scalp is known as:

Alopecia

Hirsuitism

Dandruff

Ingrown hair

Dandruff refers to the white flakes that appear on the scalp. It is a common condition characterized by the shedding of dead skin cells from the scalp. These flakes are often accompanied by itching and can be caused by various factors such as dry skin, oily scalp, fungal infection, or sensitivity to hair products. Treatment options for dandruff include using medicated shampoos, maintaining good scalp hygiene, and managing underlying causes such as stress or diet.

Explanation

Dandruff refers to the white flakes that appear on the scalp. It is a common condition characterized by the shedding of dead skin cells from the scalp. These flakes are often accompanied by itching and can be caused by various factors such as dry skin, oily scalp, fungal infection, or sensitivity to hair products. Treatment options for dandruff include using medicated shampoos, maintaining good scalp hygiene, and managing underlying causes such as stress or diet.

15. You need to do laundry, dust surfaces, and mop the floor. In which order should you do these tasks?

Do laundry, dust, and mop.

Dust, mop, do laundry.

Mop, do laundry, dust.

Do laundry, mop, dust.

The correct order to do these tasks is to first do laundry, then dust surfaces, and finally mop the floor. This order makes sense because doing laundry usually takes the longest time, so it is more efficient to start with it. Dusting should be done before mopping to avoid dust settling on the freshly mopped floor. Therefore, the correct answer is to do laundry, dust, and then mop.

Explanation

The correct order to do these tasks is to first do laundry, then dust surfaces, and finally mop the floor. This order makes sense because doing laundry usually takes the longest time, so it is more efficient to start with it. Dusting should be done before mopping to avoid dust settling on the freshly mopped floor. Therefore, the correct answer is to do laundry, dust, and then mop.

16. Your client in the home you work in asks for your home phone number. You should:

Give her your cellphone number only.

Give your supervisor's cellphone number so she can deal with the issue.

Explain that you cannot give your phone number out to clients.

Ignore her and ask the nurse to give her a sedative.

The correct answer is to explain that you cannot give your phone number out to clients. As a professional caregiver, it is important to maintain boundaries and protect your privacy. Sharing personal contact information with clients can blur the professional relationship and potentially lead to boundary violations. It is appropriate to politely explain to the client that you are unable to provide your phone number, but assure them that you are available during working hours to address any concerns or issues they may have.

Explanation

The correct answer is to explain that you cannot give your phone number out to clients. As a professional caregiver, it is important to maintain boundaries and protect your privacy. Sharing personal contact information with clients can blur the professional relationship and potentially lead to boundary violations. It is appropriate to politely explain to the client that you are unable to provide your phone number, but assure them that you are available during working hours to address any concerns or issues they may have.

17. A nonsocomial infection is:

An infection you get from staying in the hospital or healthcare facility

An infection you get from a household

An infection you get from insects

An infection you get from water

A nosocomial infection is an infection that is acquired while staying in a hospital or healthcare facility. This type of infection is typically caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi that are present in the healthcare environment. It can be spread through direct contact with contaminated surfaces, equipment, or healthcare personnel. Nosocomial infections are a significant concern in healthcare settings as they can lead to increased morbidity, mortality, and healthcare costs. Various preventive measures, such as hand hygiene, proper disinfection, and isolation precautions, are implemented to reduce the risk of nosocomial infections.

Explanation

A nosocomial infection is an infection that is acquired while staying in a hospital or healthcare facility. This type of infection is typically caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi that are present in the healthcare environment. It can be spread through direct contact with contaminated surfaces, equipment, or healthcare personnel. Nosocomial infections are a significant concern in healthcare settings as they can lead to increased morbidity, mortality, and healthcare costs. Various preventive measures, such as hand hygiene, proper disinfection, and isolation precautions, are implemented to reduce the risk of nosocomial infections.

18. A person who is able to transfer a pathogen to others without getting an active infection himself is:

A carrier

A sender

A reciever

A messenger

A carrier is a person who can transmit a pathogen to others without showing any symptoms or getting an active infection themselves. They may unknowingly spread the pathogen through various means such as physical contact, respiratory droplets, or contaminated objects. Carriers play a significant role in the transmission of infectious diseases as they can unknowingly infect others while remaining unaffected themselves.

Explanation

A carrier is a person who can transmit a pathogen to others without showing any symptoms or getting an active infection themselves. They may unknowingly spread the pathogen through various means such as physical contact, respiratory droplets, or contaminated objects. Carriers play a significant role in the transmission of infectious diseases as they can unknowingly infect others while remaining unaffected themselves.

19. A symptom of mastitis is:

Engorgement

Post-partum blues

Thirst while breastfeeding

Pain and redness in a breast

Mastitis is an infection of the breast tissue that commonly occurs in breastfeeding women. Pain and redness in a breast is a symptom of mastitis because the infection causes inflammation and swelling in the affected breast. This symptom is often accompanied by other signs such as warmth to the touch, tenderness, and a hard or lumpy area in the breast. It is important to seek medical attention if experiencing these symptoms as mastitis can lead to complications if left untreated.

Explanation

Mastitis is an infection of the breast tissue that commonly occurs in breastfeeding women. Pain and redness in a breast is a symptom of mastitis because the infection causes inflammation and swelling in the affected breast. This symptom is often accompanied by other signs such as warmth to the touch, tenderness, and a hard or lumpy area in the breast. It is important to seek medical attention if experiencing these symptoms as mastitis can lead to complications if left untreated.

20. Bronchitis is:

Inflammation of the Bronchi

Inflammation of the Gallbladder

Inflammation of the Pancreas

Inflammation of the Alveoli

Bronchitis is the inflammation of the bronchi, which are the air passages in the lungs. This condition is characterized by coughing, difficulty breathing, and production of excessive mucus. Inflammation of the bronchi can be caused by viral or bacterial infections, smoking, or exposure to irritants. It is a common respiratory condition that can be acute or chronic.

Explanation

Bronchitis is the inflammation of the bronchi, which are the air passages in the lungs. This condition is characterized by coughing, difficulty breathing, and production of excessive mucus. Inflammation of the bronchi can be caused by viral or bacterial infections, smoking, or exposure to irritants. It is a common respiratory condition that can be acute or chronic.

21. Which prevents permanent plantar flexion?

Bed Boards

A foot board

Trochanter rolls

Hand rolls

A foot board prevents permanent plantar flexion by providing support and keeping the foot in a neutral position. Plantar flexion refers to the downward movement of the foot, and if it becomes permanent, it can lead to muscle tightness and contractures. A foot board helps to maintain the correct alignment of the foot and prevent any excessive downward movement, thus preventing permanent plantar flexion.

Explanation

A foot board prevents permanent plantar flexion by providing support and keeping the foot in a neutral position. Plantar flexion refers to the downward movement of the foot, and if it becomes permanent, it can lead to muscle tightness and contractures. A foot board helps to maintain the correct alignment of the foot and prevent any excessive downward movement, thus preventing permanent plantar flexion.

22. Citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes and cabbage are excellent sources of:

Phosphorus

Calcium

Vitamin C

Vitamin B

Citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, and cabbage are all known to be excellent sources of vitamin C. Vitamin C is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in maintaining a healthy immune system, promoting the growth and repair of tissues, and acting as an antioxidant to protect cells from damage. These fruits and vegetables are particularly rich in vitamin C, making them great choices for boosting your intake of this important vitamin.

Explanation

Citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, and cabbage are all known to be excellent sources of vitamin C. Vitamin C is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in maintaining a healthy immune system, promoting the growth and repair of tissues, and acting as an antioxidant to protect cells from damage. These fruits and vegetables are particularly rich in vitamin C, making them great choices for boosting your intake of this important vitamin.

23. Which of the following is NOT one of the 8 rights of assisting with medications?

Right Expiry Date

Right Person

Right day

Right Doctor

The right doctor is not one of the 8 rights of assisting with medications. When assisting with medications, it is important to ensure that the medication is given to the right person, on the right day, at the right time, in the right dose, through the right route, with the right documentation, and with the right technique. The right doctor is not directly related to the administration of medications and is not included in the 8 rights.

Explanation

The right doctor is not one of the 8 rights of assisting with medications. When assisting with medications, it is important to ensure that the medication is given to the right person, on the right day, at the right time, in the right dose, through the right route, with the right documentation, and with the right technique. The right doctor is not directly related to the administration of medications and is not included in the 8 rights.

24. Rigor Mortis refers to:

The process of moving the dead body to the Morgue

A stage of the grief cycle

The stiffness or rigidity of skeletal muscles that occurs after death has occurred

A section of a person's advanced directive

Rigor Mortis refers to the stiffness or rigidity of skeletal muscles that occurs after death has occurred. This phenomenon is caused by a chemical reaction in the muscles that leads to the cross-linking of proteins, making the muscles stiff and difficult to move. It usually begins a few hours after death and reaches its peak within 24 hours. After that, the muscles gradually start to relax again. Rigor Mortis is a common characteristic of the early stages of decomposition and is used by forensic experts to estimate the time of death.

Explanation

Rigor Mortis refers to the stiffness or rigidity of skeletal muscles that occurs after death has occurred. This phenomenon is caused by a chemical reaction in the muscles that leads to the cross-linking of proteins, making the muscles stiff and difficult to move. It usually begins a few hours after death and reaches its peak within 24 hours. After that, the muscles gradually start to relax again. Rigor Mortis is a common characteristic of the early stages of decomposition and is used by forensic experts to estimate the time of death.

25. Producing and secreting milk from the breasts is called:

Menstruation

Menarche

Lochia Flow

Lactation

Lactation refers to the process of producing and secreting milk from the breasts. It is a natural physiological process that occurs in females after childbirth. During lactation, hormones such as prolactin and oxytocin are released, stimulating the mammary glands to produce and release milk. This process is essential for nourishing and feeding newborn babies. Menstruation, menarche, and lochia flow are unrelated to the production of milk and are not associated with lactation.

Explanation

Lactation refers to the process of producing and secreting milk from the breasts. It is a natural physiological process that occurs in females after childbirth. During lactation, hormones such as prolactin and oxytocin are released, stimulating the mammary glands to produce and release milk. This process is essential for nourishing and feeding newborn babies. Menstruation, menarche, and lochia flow are unrelated to the production of milk and are not associated with lactation.

26. Your patient requires a bed linen change. He is a bed-ridden client and need to change the bed while he is still in it. The kind of bed you are making is:

An open bed

An occupied bed

A closed-ended bed

A mitred bed

An occupied bed is the correct answer because the patient requires a bed linen change while still in the bed. This means that the bed needs to be made while the patient is occupying it. The term "occupied" refers to a bed that is being used by a patient, and in this case, it is being used by a bed-ridden client who cannot be moved. Therefore, an occupied bed is the appropriate kind of bed to make in this situation.

Explanation

An occupied bed is the correct answer because the patient requires a bed linen change while still in the bed. This means that the bed needs to be made while the patient is occupying it. The term "occupied" refers to a bed that is being used by a patient, and in this case, it is being used by a bed-ridden client who cannot be moved. Therefore, an occupied bed is the appropriate kind of bed to make in this situation.

27. Which of the following is not a factor affecting eating and nutrition?

Allergies

Food Intolerances

Culture

Gender

Gender is not a factor affecting eating and nutrition because it refers to the socially constructed roles, behaviors, and expectations associated with being male or female. While gender may influence certain aspects of food choices and eating behaviors, it does not directly impact the nutritional needs or requirements of individuals. Factors such as allergies, food intolerances, and culture, on the other hand, can significantly affect eating and nutrition by influencing food choices, dietary restrictions, and cultural food practices.

Explanation

Gender is not a factor affecting eating and nutrition because it refers to the socially constructed roles, behaviors, and expectations associated with being male or female. While gender may influence certain aspects of food choices and eating behaviors, it does not directly impact the nutritional needs or requirements of individuals. Factors such as allergies, food intolerances, and culture, on the other hand, can significantly affect eating and nutrition by influencing food choices, dietary restrictions, and cultural food practices.

28. All of the following are steps you should do when using a fire extinguisher, EXCEPT:

Pull the Pin Out

Aim the base of the fire

Squeeze the handle

Open the canister

When using a fire extinguisher, the steps you should do include pulling the pin out to unlock the extinguisher, aiming the base of the fire to effectively extinguish it, and squeezing the handle to release the extinguishing agent. However, you should not open the canister as it is not necessary and may even be dangerous. Opening the canister could potentially release the extinguishing agent prematurely or cause other malfunctions in the extinguisher.

Explanation

When using a fire extinguisher, the steps you should do include pulling the pin out to unlock the extinguisher, aiming the base of the fire to effectively extinguish it, and squeezing the handle to release the extinguishing agent. However, you should not open the canister as it is not necessary and may even be dangerous. Opening the canister could potentially release the extinguishing agent prematurely or cause other malfunctions in the extinguisher.

29. Your patient is "ambulating." This means:

He is getting transferred to another facility via ambulance.

He is walking.

He is in a wheelchair.

He is sitting in a walker.

The term "ambulating" refers to the act of walking. Therefore, if the patient is described as "ambulating," it means that they are walking.

Explanation

The term "ambulating" refers to the act of walking. Therefore, if the patient is described as "ambulating," it means that they are walking.

30. Mr. Lang is alert and oriented, but has not slept well for weeks, and has a decreased appetite. He most likely has:

Depression

Urinary Tract Infection

Bipolar Disorder

Dementia

Mr. Lang's symptoms of decreased appetite and lack of sleep for weeks are consistent with the common symptoms of depression. Depression often causes changes in sleep patterns and appetite, leading to decreased energy levels and feelings of sadness or hopelessness. While the other options cannot be completely ruled out without further information, depression is the most likely explanation based on the given symptoms.

Explanation

Mr. Lang's symptoms of decreased appetite and lack of sleep for weeks are consistent with the common symptoms of depression. Depression often causes changes in sleep patterns and appetite, leading to decreased energy levels and feelings of sadness or hopelessness. While the other options cannot be completely ruled out without further information, depression is the most likely explanation based on the given symptoms.

31. All of the following are good sources of calcium EXCEPT:

Milk and Milk Products

Iodized Salt

Leafy Green Vegetables

Beans

Iodized salt is not a good source of calcium because it is primarily fortified with iodine, not calcium. Milk and milk products, leafy green vegetables, and beans are all good sources of calcium as they contain high levels of this mineral.

Explanation

Iodized salt is not a good source of calcium because it is primarily fortified with iodine, not calcium. Milk and milk products, leafy green vegetables, and beans are all good sources of calcium as they contain high levels of this mineral.

32. Aspiration is a major complication of:

Hyperalimentation

IV therapy

Nasogastric and nasointestinal tubes

Central Venous Catheters

Aspiration is a major complication of nasogastric and nasointestinal tubes because these tubes are inserted into the nose or mouth and extend into the stomach or intestines. If the tube becomes dislodged or if there is a problem with the placement, stomach contents can reflux back up into the lungs, leading to aspiration pneumonia. This can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition.

Explanation

Aspiration is a major complication of nasogastric and nasointestinal tubes because these tubes are inserted into the nose or mouth and extend into the stomach or intestines. If the tube becomes dislodged or if there is a problem with the placement, stomach contents can reflux back up into the lungs, leading to aspiration pneumonia. This can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition.

33. Down Syndrome occurs:

At fertilization

During the first month of pregnancy

Any time before, during or after birth

From trauma

Down Syndrome occurs at fertilization because it is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. This additional genetic material is present in the fertilized egg and continues to replicate as the embryo develops. This extra chromosome disrupts the normal development and causes the physical and cognitive characteristics associated with Down Syndrome. It is not caused by trauma or occurring at any specific time during pregnancy or after birth.

Explanation

Down Syndrome occurs at fertilization because it is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. This additional genetic material is present in the fertilized egg and continues to replicate as the embryo develops. This extra chromosome disrupts the normal development and causes the physical and cognitive characteristics associated with Down Syndrome. It is not caused by trauma or occurring at any specific time during pregnancy or after birth.

34. Mr. Baldovino has to touch the doorknob three times before actually opening it. He probably has:

Panic Disorder

Obsessive Compulsive Disorder

Phobic Disorder

Post-traumatic Stress Disorder

Mr. Baldovino's repetitive behavior of touching the doorknob three times before opening it suggests that he may have Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD). OCD is characterized by unwanted, intrusive thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors (compulsions) performed to alleviate anxiety or distress caused by these thoughts. In this case, Mr. Baldovino's compulsion of touching the doorknob three times is a ritual he feels compelled to perform to reduce his anxiety. This behavior is a common symptom of OCD, indicating that he may have this disorder.

Explanation

Mr. Baldovino's repetitive behavior of touching the doorknob three times before opening it suggests that he may have Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD). OCD is characterized by unwanted, intrusive thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors (compulsions) performed to alleviate anxiety or distress caused by these thoughts. In this case, Mr. Baldovino's compulsion of touching the doorknob three times is a ritual he feels compelled to perform to reduce his anxiety. This behavior is a common symptom of OCD, indicating that he may have this disorder.

35. Down Syndrome and Spina Bifida are examples of:

Congenital Disorders

Fetal Alcohol Effects

A strand of Autism

Types of convulsions

Down Syndrome and Spina Bifida are examples of congenital disorders because they are conditions that are present at birth and are caused by abnormalities in the development of the fetus. Down Syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra chromosome 21, while Spina Bifida is a neural tube defect that occurs when the spine and spinal cord do not form properly. Both conditions are present from birth and are not acquired later in life.

Explanation

Down Syndrome and Spina Bifida are examples of congenital disorders because they are conditions that are present at birth and are caused by abnormalities in the development of the fetus. Down Syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra chromosome 21, while Spina Bifida is a neural tube defect that occurs when the spine and spinal cord do not form properly. Both conditions are present from birth and are not acquired later in life.

36. The back-lying position is called:

Fowler's Position

Supine Position

Lateral Position

Prone Position

The correct answer is Supine Position. The supine position refers to lying flat on the back with the face and torso facing upward. In this position, the body is in a straight alignment, and the arms and legs are relaxed. It is commonly used in medical settings for procedures, examinations, and surgeries, as it provides easy access to the front of the body and allows for proper breathing and circulation.

Explanation

The correct answer is Supine Position. The supine position refers to lying flat on the back with the face and torso facing upward. In this position, the body is in a straight alignment, and the arms and legs are relaxed. It is commonly used in medical settings for procedures, examinations, and surgeries, as it provides easy access to the front of the body and allows for proper breathing and circulation.

37. "Trochanter rolls" are used for:

A special bread served to diabetic patients.

Preventing the abdomen and arms from turning outward.

Preventing the hips and legs from turning outward.

A special bread served to people with Congestive heart failure.

Trochanter rolls are cylindrical pillows that are placed along the sides of a patient's hips and legs. They are used to prevent the hips and legs from turning outward, which can be beneficial for patients who have undergone hip surgery or have hip instability. The rolls help maintain proper alignment of the hip joint and prevent the legs from crossing over each other, reducing the risk of dislocation or strain.

Explanation

Trochanter rolls are cylindrical pillows that are placed along the sides of a patient's hips and legs. They are used to prevent the hips and legs from turning outward, which can be beneficial for patients who have undergone hip surgery or have hip instability. The rolls help maintain proper alignment of the hip joint and prevent the legs from crossing over each other, reducing the risk of dislocation or strain.

38. The environment where the pathogen lives before it infects a person is:

A portal of entry

A portal of exit

A Reservoir

A pandemic

A reservoir refers to the environment or source where a pathogen lives and multiplies before it infects a person. It can be a living organism, such as humans, animals, or insects, or non-living objects like contaminated water or soil. Reservoirs provide a continuous supply of the pathogen, allowing it to persist and potentially infect individuals. Therefore, the correct answer is A Reservoir.

Explanation

A reservoir refers to the environment or source where a pathogen lives and multiplies before it infects a person. It can be a living organism, such as humans, animals, or insects, or non-living objects like contaminated water or soil. Reservoirs provide a continuous supply of the pathogen, allowing it to persist and potentially infect individuals. Therefore, the correct answer is A Reservoir.

39. Which of the following is the first sign of a pressure ulcer?

White or reddened skin

Bone is protruding from the wound

Blisters are apparent

Skin tears

The first sign of a pressure ulcer is typically white or reddened skin. This discoloration occurs due to prolonged pressure on a particular area of the body, which restricts blood flow and causes tissue damage. The affected skin may appear pale or red, indicating the initial stages of a pressure ulcer. If left untreated, the condition can progress and lead to more severe symptoms such as blisters, skin tears, and even bone protrusion. However, the initial sign is usually the discoloration of the skin.

Explanation

The first sign of a pressure ulcer is typically white or reddened skin. This discoloration occurs due to prolonged pressure on a particular area of the body, which restricts blood flow and causes tissue damage. The affected skin may appear pale or red, indicating the initial stages of a pressure ulcer. If left untreated, the condition can progress and lead to more severe symptoms such as blisters, skin tears, and even bone protrusion. However, the initial sign is usually the discoloration of the skin.

40. Agatha has major depression. You should avoid:

Telling her how lucky she is.

Encouraging periods of rest.

Encourage social activities.

Reporting to your supervisor for unusual behaviour.

Telling someone with major depression how lucky they are can be harmful because it minimizes their feelings and invalidates their experience. Depression is a serious mental health condition that cannot be solved by simply being grateful or lucky. It is important to offer support and understanding instead of dismissing their emotions.

Explanation

Telling someone with major depression how lucky they are can be harmful because it minimizes their feelings and invalidates their experience. Depression is a serious mental health condition that cannot be solved by simply being grateful or lucky. It is important to offer support and understanding instead of dismissing their emotions.

41. Mr. Long must do coughing and deep breathing exercises after surgery to prevent:

Bleeding

A pulmonary embolus

Respiratory complications

Pain and discomfort

After surgery, Mr. Long must do coughing and deep breathing exercises to prevent respiratory complications. These exercises help to clear the airways, improve lung function, and prevent the buildup of mucus or fluid in the lungs. By doing these exercises, Mr. Long can reduce the risk of developing conditions such as pneumonia or atelectasis, which are common respiratory complications after surgery. Therefore, it is important for Mr. Long to perform these exercises to ensure proper respiratory function and minimize any potential complications.

Explanation

After surgery, Mr. Long must do coughing and deep breathing exercises to prevent respiratory complications. These exercises help to clear the airways, improve lung function, and prevent the buildup of mucus or fluid in the lungs. By doing these exercises, Mr. Long can reduce the risk of developing conditions such as pneumonia or atelectasis, which are common respiratory complications after surgery. Therefore, it is important for Mr. Long to perform these exercises to ensure proper respiratory function and minimize any potential complications.

42. A bacterium that causes diarrhea and colitis is called:

C. Difficile

ESBL

VRE

Hepatitis A

C. Difficile is the correct answer because it is a bacterium known to cause diarrhea and colitis. It is a common cause of healthcare-associated infections, especially in hospitals and long-term care facilities. C. Difficile infection can occur when the normal balance of bacteria in the intestines is disrupted, often due to the use of antibiotics. Symptoms may include watery diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever. Treatment usually involves antibiotics targeted specifically at C. Difficile.

Explanation

C. Difficile is the correct answer because it is a bacterium known to cause diarrhea and colitis. It is a common cause of healthcare-associated infections, especially in hospitals and long-term care facilities. C. Difficile infection can occur when the normal balance of bacteria in the intestines is disrupted, often due to the use of antibiotics. Symptoms may include watery diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever. Treatment usually involves antibiotics targeted specifically at C. Difficile.

43. How can spores be destroyed?

Cleaning-

Disinfection

Sterilization

Scrubbing

Sterilization is the correct answer because it is the process of completely eliminating or destroying all forms of microbial life, including spores. It involves the use of high heat, chemicals, or radiation to ensure that no microorganisms, including spores, are left alive. Cleaning and disinfection may not be sufficient to destroy spores completely, as they can be resistant to these methods. Scrubbing, on the other hand, is a physical action that can help in removing spores from surfaces, but it may not necessarily destroy them. Therefore, sterilization is the most effective method for destroying spores.

Explanation

Sterilization is the correct answer because it is the process of completely eliminating or destroying all forms of microbial life, including spores. It involves the use of high heat, chemicals, or radiation to ensure that no microorganisms, including spores, are left alive. Cleaning and disinfection may not be sufficient to destroy spores completely, as they can be resistant to these methods. Scrubbing, on the other hand, is a physical action that can help in removing spores from surfaces, but it may not necessarily destroy them. Therefore, sterilization is the most effective method for destroying spores.

44. Which is a common reason for tube feedings?

Cancer of the lung

Surgery to the mouth

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

Pneumonia

Tube feedings are commonly used for patients who are unable to consume food orally due to various reasons. One common reason for tube feedings is surgery to the mouth. After oral surgery, patients may experience difficulty in chewing or swallowing, making it necessary to provide nutrition through a feeding tube. Tube feedings ensure that the patient receives the necessary nutrients and hydration while their mouth heals.

Explanation

Tube feedings are commonly used for patients who are unable to consume food orally due to various reasons. One common reason for tube feedings is surgery to the mouth. After oral surgery, patients may experience difficulty in chewing or swallowing, making it necessary to provide nutrition through a feeding tube. Tube feedings ensure that the patient receives the necessary nutrients and hydration while their mouth heals.

45. A drawsheet is:

A small sheet placed over the middle of the bottom sheet

The top sheet draped over the client

A sheet you use to carry a client with a mechanical lift

A sheet you use to carry a client off the floor

A drawsheet is a small sheet that is placed over the middle of the bottom sheet. It serves as a protective layer to prevent the bottom sheet from getting soiled or wet. The drawsheet can be easily removed and replaced when necessary, without having to change the entire bedding. This is particularly useful in healthcare settings where patients may have limited mobility or may require frequent bedding changes. The drawsheet helps to maintain cleanliness and hygiene while also providing comfort to the patient.

Explanation

A drawsheet is a small sheet that is placed over the middle of the bottom sheet. It serves as a protective layer to prevent the bottom sheet from getting soiled or wet. The drawsheet can be easily removed and replaced when necessary, without having to change the entire bedding. This is particularly useful in healthcare settings where patients may have limited mobility or may require frequent bedding changes. The drawsheet helps to maintain cleanliness and hygiene while also providing comfort to the patient.

46. Calcium, Phosphorus, Zinc, and Iron are examples of:

Vitamins

Minerals

Fibres

Nutrients

Calcium, Phosphorus, Zinc, and Iron are examples of minerals. Minerals are inorganic substances that are essential for the proper functioning of the body. They play a vital role in maintaining healthy bones, teeth, and muscles, as well as in various metabolic processes. Unlike vitamins, minerals are not produced by the body and must be obtained through diet or supplementation.

Explanation

Calcium, Phosphorus, Zinc, and Iron are examples of minerals. Minerals are inorganic substances that are essential for the proper functioning of the body. They play a vital role in maintaining healthy bones, teeth, and muscles, as well as in various metabolic processes. Unlike vitamins, minerals are not produced by the body and must be obtained through diet or supplementation.

47. Mr. Heron has an abdominal binder. The binder is used to:

Prevent blood clots

Prevent wound infection

Provide support and hold dressings in place

Encourage peristalsis

The abdominal binder is used to provide support and hold dressings in place. It helps to keep the dressings secure and in the correct position, preventing them from shifting or coming off. Additionally, the binder provides support to the abdominal muscles, helping to reduce pain and discomfort. It may also help to provide gentle compression, which can aid in reducing swelling and promoting healing.

Explanation

The abdominal binder is used to provide support and hold dressings in place. It helps to keep the dressings secure and in the correct position, preventing them from shifting or coming off. Additionally, the binder provides support to the abdominal muscles, helping to reduce pain and discomfort. It may also help to provide gentle compression, which can aid in reducing swelling and promoting healing.

48. Clear, watery drainage from a wound. This drainage is called:

Purulent Drainage

Serous Drainage

Seropurulent drainage

Serosanguineous drainage

Serous drainage is a clear, watery fluid that is commonly seen in wounds. It is a normal part of the healing process and is composed of plasma, which is the liquid portion of blood, along with some white blood cells. This type of drainage indicates that the wound is in the early stages of healing and is not infected. It is important to monitor the drainage for any changes, as an increase in amount or a change in color may indicate an infection.

Explanation

Serous drainage is a clear, watery fluid that is commonly seen in wounds. It is a normal part of the healing process and is composed of plasma, which is the liquid portion of blood, along with some white blood cells. This type of drainage indicates that the wound is in the early stages of healing and is not infected. It is important to monitor the drainage for any changes, as an increase in amount or a change in color may indicate an infection.

49. Which of the following is used to hyperventilate the lungs?

Ambu Bag

Pulse Oximeter

Incentive Spirometer

Partial-rebreather mask

The Ambu Bag is used to hyperventilate the lungs. It is a handheld device that is manually operated to deliver breaths to a patient who is not breathing adequately or requires additional respiratory support. By squeezing the bag, it delivers a controlled amount of oxygen to the patient's lungs, increasing the oxygen levels and helping to improve ventilation.

Explanation

The Ambu Bag is used to hyperventilate the lungs. It is a handheld device that is manually operated to deliver breaths to a patient who is not breathing adequately or requires additional respiratory support. By squeezing the bag, it delivers a controlled amount of oxygen to the patient's lungs, increasing the oxygen levels and helping to improve ventilation.

50. Which of the following is a HINGE joint?

Shoulder

Hips

Skull

Elbow

The elbow is a hinge joint because it allows movement in only one plane, similar to a door hinge. It allows for flexion and extension, which means bending and straightening of the arm. The other options, such as the shoulder, hips, and skull, are not hinge joints as they allow movement in multiple directions and planes.

Explanation

The elbow is a hinge joint because it allows movement in only one plane, similar to a door hinge. It allows for flexion and extension, which means bending and straightening of the arm. The other options, such as the shoulder, hips, and skull, are not hinge joints as they allow movement in multiple directions and planes.

51. The device used to measure oxygen concentration in arterial blood flow is called:

Pulse Oximeter

Oxygen Thermometer

Blood Pressure Cuff

Oxygen Humidifier

A pulse oximeter is a device used to measure the oxygen concentration in arterial blood flow. It works by emitting light through the skin and measuring the amount of light absorbed by the oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. This information is then used to calculate the oxygen saturation level in the blood. The other options, oxygen thermometer, blood pressure cuff, and oxygen humidifier, are not designed or used for measuring oxygen concentration in arterial blood flow.

Explanation

A pulse oximeter is a device used to measure the oxygen concentration in arterial blood flow. It works by emitting light through the skin and measuring the amount of light absorbed by the oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. This information is then used to calculate the oxygen saturation level in the blood. The other options, oxygen thermometer, blood pressure cuff, and oxygen humidifier, are not designed or used for measuring oxygen concentration in arterial blood flow.

52. Exploring the unconscious conflicts and underlying reasons for a client's problems refers to:

Recreational Therapy

Occupational Therapy

Psychoanalysis

Behavioural Therapy

Psychoanalysis is a therapeutic approach that aims to uncover and explore the unconscious conflicts and underlying reasons for a client's problems. It involves delving into a person's past experiences, childhood memories, and unconscious thoughts and desires to gain insight into their current difficulties. By understanding these hidden factors, psychoanalysis seeks to bring about lasting change and resolution to the client's issues. Recreational therapy focuses on using recreational activities for therapeutic purposes, occupational therapy focuses on helping individuals regain independence in daily activities, and behavioral therapy focuses on modifying behavior patterns.

Explanation

Psychoanalysis is a therapeutic approach that aims to uncover and explore the unconscious conflicts and underlying reasons for a client's problems. It involves delving into a person's past experiences, childhood memories, and unconscious thoughts and desires to gain insight into their current difficulties. By understanding these hidden factors, psychoanalysis seeks to bring about lasting change and resolution to the client's issues. Recreational therapy focuses on using recreational activities for therapeutic purposes, occupational therapy focuses on helping individuals regain independence in daily activities, and behavioral therapy focuses on modifying behavior patterns.

53. The first phase in the healing process of wounds is:

Inflammatory Phase

Proliferative Phase

Maturation Phase

Trauma Phase

The first phase in the healing process of wounds is the inflammatory phase. During this phase, blood vessels constrict to minimize bleeding, and then dilate to increase blood flow to the area. This increased blood flow brings white blood cells, nutrients, and oxygen to the wound, initiating the body's immune response. The inflammatory phase is characterized by redness, swelling, heat, and pain around the wound as the body works to remove debris and prevent infection.

Explanation

The first phase in the healing process of wounds is the inflammatory phase. During this phase, blood vessels constrict to minimize bleeding, and then dilate to increase blood flow to the area. This increased blood flow brings white blood cells, nutrients, and oxygen to the wound, initiating the body's immune response. The inflammatory phase is characterized by redness, swelling, heat, and pain around the wound as the body works to remove debris and prevent infection.

54. All of the following are types of Anesthesia except:

General Anesthesia

Local Anesthesia

Regional Anesthesia

Dorsal Recumbant Anesthesia

Dorsal Recumbant Anesthesia is not a type of anesthesia. The term "dorsal recumbant" refers to a position in which the patient lies on their back with their face up. It is not a specific type of anesthesia, but rather a position that may be used during certain procedures. General anesthesia, local anesthesia, and regional anesthesia are all legitimate types of anesthesia used to numb pain or induce unconsciousness during medical procedures.

Explanation

Dorsal Recumbant Anesthesia is not a type of anesthesia. The term "dorsal recumbant" refers to a position in which the patient lies on their back with their face up. It is not a specific type of anesthesia, but rather a position that may be used during certain procedures. General anesthesia, local anesthesia, and regional anesthesia are all legitimate types of anesthesia used to numb pain or induce unconsciousness during medical procedures.

55. Your patient Mr. Jones, recently got his arm amputated. He states he feels pain in that missing body part. He has:

Chronic Pain

Acute Pain

Radiating Pain

Phantom Pain

Phantom pain refers to the sensation of pain in a body part that has been amputated. It is believed to occur due to the brain's inability to adjust to the loss of sensory input from the missing limb. In this case, Mr. Jones is experiencing pain in his amputated arm, which aligns with the symptoms of phantom pain. Chronic pain refers to persistent pain lasting for an extended period, acute pain is short-term and typically a response to injury, and radiating pain refers to pain that spreads from one area to another.

Explanation

Phantom pain refers to the sensation of pain in a body part that has been amputated. It is believed to occur due to the brain's inability to adjust to the loss of sensory input from the missing limb. In this case, Mr. Jones is experiencing pain in his amputated arm, which aligns with the symptoms of phantom pain. Chronic pain refers to persistent pain lasting for an extended period, acute pain is short-term and typically a response to injury, and radiating pain refers to pain that spreads from one area to another.

56. "Biofilm" is:

A type of dressing applied to wounds and pressure ulcers

A thin film that sticks to teeth, containing saliva and microbes

A type of solution provided for people with tube feeds

A film showed at Long Term care centers regarding WHMIS

A biofilm is a thin film that forms on surfaces, including teeth, and contains a combination of saliva and microbes. It is a common occurrence in the oral cavity and can contribute to dental plaque and other oral health issues. Biofilms are formed when microorganisms adhere to a surface and produce a protective matrix that allows them to survive and thrive. In the case of teeth, the biofilm, commonly known as dental plaque, can lead to tooth decay and gum disease if not properly removed through regular brushing and flossing.

Explanation

A biofilm is a thin film that forms on surfaces, including teeth, and contains a combination of saliva and microbes. It is a common occurrence in the oral cavity and can contribute to dental plaque and other oral health issues. Biofilms are formed when microorganisms adhere to a surface and produce a protective matrix that allows them to survive and thrive. In the case of teeth, the biofilm, commonly known as dental plaque, can lead to tooth decay and gum disease if not properly removed through regular brushing and flossing.

57. Cognitive function relates to:

Memory loss and personality

Thinking and reasoning

Ability to toilet oneself

How emotional a person can get

Cognitive function refers to the mental processes involved in thinking, reasoning, and problem-solving. It encompasses the ability to process information, make decisions, and understand concepts. Memory loss and personality are not directly related to cognitive function, as they are separate aspects of brain function. The ability to toilet oneself and emotional reactions are also not directly related to cognitive function, as they are more related to physical abilities and emotional regulation, respectively.

Explanation

Cognitive function refers to the mental processes involved in thinking, reasoning, and problem-solving. It encompasses the ability to process information, make decisions, and understand concepts. Memory loss and personality are not directly related to cognitive function, as they are separate aspects of brain function. The ability to toilet oneself and emotional reactions are also not directly related to cognitive function, as they are more related to physical abilities and emotional regulation, respectively.

58. Who is responsible for protecting employees from injuries and accidents in the workplace?

Occupational Health and Safety Act

Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System

Material Safety Data Sheet

Ontario Ministry of Health

The Occupational Health and Safety Act is responsible for protecting employees from injuries and accidents in the workplace. This act sets out the rights and responsibilities of both employers and employees to ensure a safe and healthy working environment. It outlines various safety standards, procedures, and regulations that employers must follow to prevent workplace injuries and accidents. By enforcing this act, the government aims to promote the well-being and safety of workers across various industries in Ontario.

Explanation

The Occupational Health and Safety Act is responsible for protecting employees from injuries and accidents in the workplace. This act sets out the rights and responsibilities of both employers and employees to ensure a safe and healthy working environment. It outlines various safety standards, procedures, and regulations that employers must follow to prevent workplace injuries and accidents. By enforcing this act, the government aims to promote the well-being and safety of workers across various industries in Ontario.

59. Your client has an abnormally high blood sugar. This is called:

Hypoglycemia

Hyperglycemia

Multiglucose

Diabetes Meillutus

Hyperglycemia is the correct answer because it refers to a condition where the blood sugar levels are abnormally high. It is commonly associated with diabetes and can lead to various symptoms such as increased thirst, frequent urination, fatigue, and blurred vision. Hypoglycemia, on the other hand, refers to low blood sugar levels. Multiglucose and Diabetes Meillutus are not recognized medical terms and do not accurately describe the condition of high blood sugar.

Explanation

Hyperglycemia is the correct answer because it refers to a condition where the blood sugar levels are abnormally high. It is commonly associated with diabetes and can lead to various symptoms such as increased thirst, frequent urination, fatigue, and blurred vision. Hypoglycemia, on the other hand, refers to low blood sugar levels. Multiglucose and Diabetes Meillutus are not recognized medical terms and do not accurately describe the condition of high blood sugar.

60. The major function for Vitamin K is:

Fat Expulsion

Hair Repair

Skin Repair

Blood Clotting

Vitamin K is primarily responsible for blood clotting. It plays a crucial role in the production of certain proteins that are necessary for the clotting process. Without sufficient vitamin K, blood clotting would be impaired, leading to excessive bleeding. While it is true that vitamin K also has other functions, such as supporting skin and hair repair, its main function is indeed blood clotting.

Explanation

Vitamin K is primarily responsible for blood clotting. It plays a crucial role in the production of certain proteins that are necessary for the clotting process. Without sufficient vitamin K, blood clotting would be impaired, leading to excessive bleeding. While it is true that vitamin K also has other functions, such as supporting skin and hair repair, its main function is indeed blood clotting.

61. At 1300 hrs, Your RN supervisor tells you that a urine specimen has to be collected for analysis. She tells you to collect at whenever you can. The type of specimen you are collecting is a:

24 Hour Urine Specimen

Random Urine Specimen

Midstream Specimen

Ketone Specimen

Based on the given information, the correct answer is a Random Urine Specimen. The supervisor's instruction to collect the specimen whenever possible indicates that it is not a timed or scheduled collection like a 24 Hour Urine Specimen. It is also not a Midstream Specimen, which requires specific instructions for cleaning the genital area and collecting a midstream portion of the urine. Additionally, there is no mention of collecting a Ketone Specimen, making it an irrelevant option. Therefore, the most appropriate choice is a Random Urine Specimen, which can be collected at any time without specific instructions or preparation.

Explanation

Based on the given information, the correct answer is a Random Urine Specimen. The supervisor's instruction to collect the specimen whenever possible indicates that it is not a timed or scheduled collection like a 24 Hour Urine Specimen. It is also not a Midstream Specimen, which requires specific instructions for cleaning the genital area and collecting a midstream portion of the urine. Additionally, there is no mention of collecting a Ketone Specimen, making it an irrelevant option. Therefore, the most appropriate choice is a Random Urine Specimen, which can be collected at any time without specific instructions or preparation.

62. The best position for using a bedpan is:

Fowler's position

The supine position

The prone position

The side-lying position

Fowler's position is the best position for using a bedpan because it allows the patient to sit up at a 45-60 degree angle, which promotes ease of use and prevents spillage or discomfort. This position also helps with maintaining proper body alignment and reducing the risk of pressure ulcers. The supine position (lying flat on the back), the prone position (lying flat on the stomach), and the side-lying position may not provide the same level of comfort and accessibility for using a bedpan.

Explanation

Fowler's position is the best position for using a bedpan because it allows the patient to sit up at a 45-60 degree angle, which promotes ease of use and prevents spillage or discomfort. This position also helps with maintaining proper body alignment and reducing the risk of pressure ulcers. The supine position (lying flat on the back), the prone position (lying flat on the stomach), and the side-lying position may not provide the same level of comfort and accessibility for using a bedpan.

63. Mr. Dunn has Alzheimer's Disease. He is heard screaming in the hallway. You know that this is:

An agitated reaction

His style of singing

Caused by a delusion

A repetitive behaviour

Mr. Dunn's screaming in the hallway is likely an agitated reaction. This can be a common symptom of Alzheimer's Disease, as individuals with the condition may experience confusion, frustration, or fear, leading to agitated behaviors. The screaming could be a result of Mr. Dunn feeling overwhelmed, anxious, or unable to communicate his needs effectively. It is important to provide a calm and supportive environment for individuals with Alzheimer's to help manage and minimize these agitated reactions.

Explanation

Mr. Dunn's screaming in the hallway is likely an agitated reaction. This can be a common symptom of Alzheimer's Disease, as individuals with the condition may experience confusion, frustration, or fear, leading to agitated behaviors. The screaming could be a result of Mr. Dunn feeling overwhelmed, anxious, or unable to communicate his needs effectively. It is important to provide a calm and supportive environment for individuals with Alzheimer's to help manage and minimize these agitated reactions.

64. You attend a dinner party and have a drink of water from the host. A few days later, you as well as many of the guests get very sick with diarrhea. The transmission route for this case is:

Vectorborne Transmission

Vehicle Transmission

Contact Transmission

Droplet Transmission

In this scenario, the transmission route for the illness is likely "Vehicle Transmission." Vehicle transmission refers to the spread of disease through contaminated food, water, or other inanimate objects. Since the guests fell sick after consuming water from the host, it suggests that the water was contaminated with a pathogen, leading to the illness.

Explanation

In this scenario, the transmission route for the illness is likely "Vehicle Transmission." Vehicle transmission refers to the spread of disease through contaminated food, water, or other inanimate objects. Since the guests fell sick after consuming water from the host, it suggests that the water was contaminated with a pathogen, leading to the illness.

65. The term to describe "difficulty breathing" is:

Bradypnea

Dysuria

Orthopnea

Dyspnea

Dyspnea is the correct answer because it is the medical term used to describe difficulty breathing. It is a symptom commonly associated with various respiratory conditions such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and heart failure. Dyspnea can manifest as shortness of breath, labored breathing, or a feeling of suffocation. It is important to identify and address the underlying cause of dyspnea to ensure proper treatment and management of the condition.

Explanation

Dyspnea is the correct answer because it is the medical term used to describe difficulty breathing. It is a symptom commonly associated with various respiratory conditions such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and heart failure. Dyspnea can manifest as shortness of breath, labored breathing, or a feeling of suffocation. It is important to identify and address the underlying cause of dyspnea to ensure proper treatment and management of the condition.

66. "Orthostatic hypotension" refers to:

A drop in blood pressure when the client stands up or sits up.

A raise in blood pressure when the client stands up or sits up.

Blood pressure dropping in the joint areas.

A loss of calcium in orthotics.

Orthostatic hypotension refers to a drop in blood pressure when the client stands up or sits up. This condition occurs due to a sudden change in position, causing blood to pool in the lower extremities and leading to a temporary decrease in blood flow to the brain. Symptoms may include dizziness, lightheadedness, blurred vision, and fainting. It can be caused by various factors such as dehydration, medications, neurological disorders, or cardiovascular conditions. Treatment options include lifestyle modifications, medication adjustments, and wearing compression stockings to improve blood flow.

Explanation

Orthostatic hypotension refers to a drop in blood pressure when the client stands up or sits up. This condition occurs due to a sudden change in position, causing blood to pool in the lower extremities and leading to a temporary decrease in blood flow to the brain. Symptoms may include dizziness, lightheadedness, blurred vision, and fainting. It can be caused by various factors such as dehydration, medications, neurological disorders, or cardiovascular conditions. Treatment options include lifestyle modifications, medication adjustments, and wearing compression stockings to improve blood flow.

67. Urinary Incontinence:

Is permanent

Requires Urine tests

Requires good skin care

Is always treated with an indwelling catheter

Urinary incontinence refers to the inability to control urine flow, which can lead to leakage or involuntary urination. This condition does not indicate permanence, as it can be temporary or treatable depending on the underlying cause. While urine tests may be conducted to diagnose the condition and determine the appropriate treatment, they are not a requirement for all cases of urinary incontinence. Good skin care is necessary because prolonged exposure to urine can cause skin irritation and infection. The use of an indwelling catheter is not always the treatment for urinary incontinence, as it depends on the individual's specific condition and needs.

Explanation

Urinary incontinence refers to the inability to control urine flow, which can lead to leakage or involuntary urination. This condition does not indicate permanence, as it can be temporary or treatable depending on the underlying cause. While urine tests may be conducted to diagnose the condition and determine the appropriate treatment, they are not a requirement for all cases of urinary incontinence. Good skin care is necessary because prolonged exposure to urine can cause skin irritation and infection. The use of an indwelling catheter is not always the treatment for urinary incontinence, as it depends on the individual's specific condition and needs.

68. Your patient joins an exercise group at the long term care center. He tells you that when he makes sudden movements, a little pee comes out. This is called:

Stress Incontinence

Reflex Incontinence

Overflow Incontinence

Functional Incontinence

Stress incontinence is the correct answer. Stress incontinence refers to the involuntary leakage of urine during activities that put pressure on the bladder, such as coughing, sneezing, laughing, or exercising. In this case, the patient experiences urine leakage when making sudden movements, which is characteristic of stress incontinence. Reflex incontinence is the involuntary loss of urine due to a neurologic condition or spinal cord injury. Overflow incontinence occurs when the bladder doesn't empty completely, leading to constant dribbling of urine. Functional incontinence is when a person has physical or cognitive impairments that prevent them from reaching the bathroom in time.

Explanation

Stress incontinence is the correct answer. Stress incontinence refers to the involuntary leakage of urine during activities that put pressure on the bladder, such as coughing, sneezing, laughing, or exercising. In this case, the patient experiences urine leakage when making sudden movements, which is characteristic of stress incontinence. Reflex incontinence is the involuntary loss of urine due to a neurologic condition or spinal cord injury. Overflow incontinence occurs when the bladder doesn't empty completely, leading to constant dribbling of urine. Functional incontinence is when a person has physical or cognitive impairments that prevent them from reaching the bathroom in time.

69. Mrs. White has bitten off her intravenous line and has fallen several times out of bed. The nurse gives her a sedative. What kind of restraint is this?

Environmental Restraint

Physical Restraint

Chemical Restraint

Medical Restraint

The nurse giving Mrs. White a sedative in response to her biting off her intravenous line and falling out of bed suggests that the restraint being used is a chemical restraint. Chemical restraints involve the use of medication to control a person's behavior or restrict their movement. In this case, the sedative is being used to calm Mrs. White and prevent further harm to herself.

Explanation

The nurse giving Mrs. White a sedative in response to her biting off her intravenous line and falling out of bed suggests that the restraint being used is a chemical restraint. Chemical restraints involve the use of medication to control a person's behavior or restrict their movement. In this case, the sedative is being used to calm Mrs. White and prevent further harm to herself.

70. All of the following terms mean "peeing" EXCEPT for:

Voiding

Urinating

Micturition

Impaction

Impaction does not mean "peeing". It refers to a condition where there is a blockage or obstruction in the digestive system, typically in the bowels. This can result in difficulty in passing stool rather than urine. Voiding, urinating, and micturition, on the other hand, all refer to the act of releasing urine from the body.

Explanation

Impaction does not mean "peeing". It refers to a condition where there is a blockage or obstruction in the digestive system, typically in the bowels. This can result in difficulty in passing stool rather than urine. Voiding, urinating, and micturition, on the other hand, all refer to the act of releasing urine from the body.

71. The doctor rushes into your patient's room and inserts an artificial airway into the trachea. This is called:

Intratracheostomy

Intubation

Inner Cannula

Nasal Prongs

Intubation refers to the process of inserting an artificial airway, such as an endotracheal tube, into the trachea to establish a clear passage for air to reach the lungs. This procedure is commonly performed in emergency situations, when a patient is unable to breathe adequately on their own or requires mechanical ventilation. It is a critical intervention that allows for the delivery of oxygen and the removal of carbon dioxide from the body.

Explanation

Intubation refers to the process of inserting an artificial airway, such as an endotracheal tube, into the trachea to establish a clear passage for air to reach the lungs. This procedure is commonly performed in emergency situations, when a patient is unable to breathe adequately on their own or requires mechanical ventilation. It is a critical intervention that allows for the delivery of oxygen and the removal of carbon dioxide from the body.

72. Meat, butter, milk and cheeses are examples of:

Saturated fats

Unsaturated fats

Trans Fats

Minerals

Meat, butter, milk, and cheeses are examples of saturated fats. Saturated fats are typically solid at room temperature and are mainly found in animal products. They are known to raise cholesterol levels and increase the risk of heart disease when consumed in excess. Therefore, it is important to limit the intake of saturated fats and opt for healthier alternatives such as unsaturated fats, which are typically found in plant-based oils and are known to have beneficial effects on heart health.

Explanation

Meat, butter, milk, and cheeses are examples of saturated fats. Saturated fats are typically solid at room temperature and are mainly found in animal products. They are known to raise cholesterol levels and increase the risk of heart disease when consumed in excess. Therefore, it is important to limit the intake of saturated fats and opt for healthier alternatives such as unsaturated fats, which are typically found in plant-based oils and are known to have beneficial effects on heart health.

73. The heart of a person is contraction. The heart :

Has tachycardia

Has bradycardia

Is in Systole

Will now be measured in diastolic pressure

The heart is in systole refers to the phase of the cardiac cycle where the heart muscle contracts and pumps blood out of the chambers into the arteries. This is the active phase of the heartbeat. During systole, the heart is not in tachycardia or bradycardia, which refer to abnormal heart rates. Additionally, measuring the heart in diastolic pressure would not be accurate as diastole is the phase of the cardiac cycle where the heart muscle relaxes and fills with blood, not the phase of contraction.

Explanation

The heart is in systole refers to the phase of the cardiac cycle where the heart muscle contracts and pumps blood out of the chambers into the arteries. This is the active phase of the heartbeat. During systole, the heart is not in tachycardia or bradycardia, which refer to abnormal heart rates. Additionally, measuring the heart in diastolic pressure would not be accurate as diastole is the phase of the cardiac cycle where the heart muscle relaxes and fills with blood, not the phase of contraction.

74. All of the following are complications of wounds EXCEPT:

Shock

Hemorrhage

Dehiscence

Hypertension

Hypertension is not a complication of wounds. Shock, hemorrhage, and dehiscence are all potential complications that can occur after a wound. Shock refers to a condition where the body's organs and tissues do not receive enough blood flow, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. Hemorrhage is the excessive bleeding from a wound. Dehiscence is the reopening of a previously closed wound. However, hypertension is a separate medical condition characterized by high blood pressure and is not directly related to wounds.

Explanation

Hypertension is not a complication of wounds. Shock, hemorrhage, and dehiscence are all potential complications that can occur after a wound. Shock refers to a condition where the body's organs and tissues do not receive enough blood flow, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. Hemorrhage is the excessive bleeding from a wound. Dehiscence is the reopening of a previously closed wound. However, hypertension is a separate medical condition characterized by high blood pressure and is not directly related to wounds.

75. Lice infestation of the scalp is known as:

Pediculosis Capitis

Pediculosis Corporis

Conjunctivis Pinkus

Hirsutism

Pediculosis Capitis refers to lice infestation of the scalp. This condition is commonly known as head lice. It is characterized by the presence of lice eggs, called nits, and adult lice on the scalp and hair. Pediculosis Capitis is a contagious condition that is commonly seen in children, as lice spread easily in close quarters such as schools. It causes itching and discomfort and can be treated with over-the-counter or prescription medications specifically designed to kill lice and their eggs.

Explanation

Pediculosis Capitis refers to lice infestation of the scalp. This condition is commonly known as head lice. It is characterized by the presence of lice eggs, called nits, and adult lice on the scalp and hair. Pediculosis Capitis is a contagious condition that is commonly seen in children, as lice spread easily in close quarters such as schools. It causes itching and discomfort and can be treated with over-the-counter or prescription medications specifically designed to kill lice and their eggs.

76. Polyuria is:

Scant amount of urine

Painful or difficulty urinating

Abnormally large amounts of urine

Frequent Urination at night

Polyuria is the condition characterized by the production of abnormally large amounts of urine. This means that the individual is urinating more than the average person, often exceeding the normal daily urine output. Polyuria can be caused by various factors such as diabetes, excessive fluid intake, certain medications, or kidney problems. It is important to identify the underlying cause of polyuria in order to determine the appropriate treatment.

Explanation

Polyuria is the condition characterized by the production of abnormally large amounts of urine. This means that the individual is urinating more than the average person, often exceeding the normal daily urine output. Polyuria can be caused by various factors such as diabetes, excessive fluid intake, certain medications, or kidney problems. It is important to identify the underlying cause of polyuria in order to determine the appropriate treatment.

77. Urine would be tested for the following things EXCEPT:

Testing of PH level

Testing for Ketones and Glucose

Testing for Antigens

Testing for blood

The urine is tested for various substances to determine the presence of certain conditions or diseases. Testing for pH level, ketones, glucose, and blood are common tests performed on urine samples. However, testing for antigens is not typically done in routine urine analysis. Antigen testing is usually conducted for specific infections or diseases, such as urinary tract infections caused by certain bacteria. Therefore, testing for antigens is not included in the list of things that urine would be tested for.

Explanation

The urine is tested for various substances to determine the presence of certain conditions or diseases. Testing for pH level, ketones, glucose, and blood are common tests performed on urine samples. However, testing for antigens is not typically done in routine urine analysis. Antigen testing is usually conducted for specific infections or diseases, such as urinary tract infections caused by certain bacteria. Therefore, testing for antigens is not included in the list of things that urine would be tested for.

78. Which of the following is NOT a pulse site?

Temporal Pulse

Apical Pulse

Femoral Pulse

Occipital Pulse

The occipital pulse is not a pulse site because it refers to the pulse on the occipital artery located at the back of the head. However, there is no pulse present at this site. The temporal pulse refers to the pulse on the temporal artery in front of the ear. The apical pulse is the pulse heard through a stethoscope at the apex of the heart. The femoral pulse is located in the groin area.

Explanation

The occipital pulse is not a pulse site because it refers to the pulse on the occipital artery located at the back of the head. However, there is no pulse present at this site. The temporal pulse refers to the pulse on the temporal artery in front of the ear. The apical pulse is the pulse heard through a stethoscope at the apex of the heart. The femoral pulse is located in the groin area.

79. When heat is applied to the skin, the blood vessels will:

Vasoconstrict

Vasodilate

Hypertense

Hypotense

When heat is applied to the skin, the blood vessels vasodilate. This means that the blood vessels expand or widen, allowing more blood to flow through them. Vasodilation helps to increase blood flow to the skin, which can help to dissipate heat and regulate body temperature. It also allows for increased delivery of oxygen and nutrients to the tissues.

Explanation

When heat is applied to the skin, the blood vessels vasodilate. This means that the blood vessels expand or widen, allowing more blood to flow through them. Vasodilation helps to increase blood flow to the skin, which can help to dissipate heat and regulate body temperature. It also allows for increased delivery of oxygen and nutrients to the tissues.

80. You are preparing Mrs. Janz for an exam. You should do the following:

Do not tell her any details of the exam, as it is not part of your role.

Ask her to undress

Take her vital signs

Leave her alone while you tell the nurse that Mrs. Janz is ready

Asking Mrs. Janz to undress is a necessary step in preparing her for the exam. It is important for the healthcare provider to visually assess her body and examine any areas of concern. Undressing allows for a thorough examination and ensures that no clothing interferes with the accuracy of the assessment. Additionally, it is important to respect Mrs. Janz's privacy and dignity throughout the process, so it is appropriate to ask her to undress in a private area.

Explanation

Asking Mrs. Janz to undress is a necessary step in preparing her for the exam. It is important for the healthcare provider to visually assess her body and examine any areas of concern. Undressing allows for a thorough examination and ensures that no clothing interferes with the accuracy of the assessment. Additionally, it is important to respect Mrs. Janz's privacy and dignity throughout the process, so it is appropriate to ask her to undress in a private area.

81. Your client has "muscle atrophy". This means:

The loss of muscle strength from inactivity.

Moving a body part toward the midline of the body.

Excessive straightening of a body part.

A decrease in size or a wasting away of muscle.

Muscle atrophy refers to a decrease in size or wasting away of muscle. This condition occurs when muscles are not used or exercised enough, leading to a loss of muscle strength and mass. Inactivity and lack of exercise can cause muscles to weaken and shrink, resulting in muscle atrophy. This can happen due to various reasons such as immobilization, prolonged bed rest, or certain medical conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is a decrease in size or a wasting away of muscle.

Explanation

Muscle atrophy refers to a decrease in size or wasting away of muscle. This condition occurs when muscles are not used or exercised enough, leading to a loss of muscle strength and mass. Inactivity and lack of exercise can cause muscles to weaken and shrink, resulting in muscle atrophy. This can happen due to various reasons such as immobilization, prolonged bed rest, or certain medical conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is a decrease in size or a wasting away of muscle.

82. All of the following are from Erik Ericson's stages of psychosocial development EXCEPT:

Autonomy Versus Shame and Doubt

Generativity versus Stagnation

Intimacy Versus Isolation

Bargaining Versus Grief

The correct answer is "Bargaining Versus Grief." This is not one of Erik Erikson's stages of psychosocial development. Erikson's stages include Autonomy Versus Shame and Doubt, Generativity versus Stagnation, and Intimacy Versus Isolation, but Bargaining Versus Grief is not one of them.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Bargaining Versus Grief." This is not one of Erik Erikson's stages of psychosocial development. Erikson's stages include Autonomy Versus Shame and Doubt, Generativity versus Stagnation, and Intimacy Versus Isolation, but Bargaining Versus Grief is not one of them.

83. Canola oil and olive oil are examples of:

Saturated Fats

Unsaturated Fats

Trans Fats

Starches

Canola oil and olive oil are examples of unsaturated fats because they are predominantly composed of monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fats. These types of fats have been shown to have health benefits, such as reducing the risk of heart disease, when consumed in moderation. Unsaturated fats are typically liquid at room temperature and come from plant sources, whereas saturated fats are solid at room temperature and come from animal sources. Trans fats, on the other hand, are artificially created through a process called hydrogenation and are known to be unhealthy. Starches, on the other hand, are carbohydrates and not related to the types of fats mentioned.

Explanation

Canola oil and olive oil are examples of unsaturated fats because they are predominantly composed of monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fats. These types of fats have been shown to have health benefits, such as reducing the risk of heart disease, when consumed in moderation. Unsaturated fats are typically liquid at room temperature and come from plant sources, whereas saturated fats are solid at room temperature and come from animal sources. Trans fats, on the other hand, are artificially created through a process called hydrogenation and are known to be unhealthy. Starches, on the other hand, are carbohydrates and not related to the types of fats mentioned.

84. A partial-thickness wound caused by the scraping away or rubbing of the skin is called:

Abrasion

Laceration

Ulcer

Dehiscence

An abrasion is a partial-thickness wound caused by the scraping away or rubbing of the skin. It occurs when the top layer of skin is removed, exposing the underlying layers. This type of wound is commonly seen in cases of falls or accidents where the skin comes into contact with a rough surface. Unlike a laceration, which is a cut or tear in the skin, an abrasion is characterized by superficial damage to the skin without deep penetration. An ulcer is a different type of wound caused by tissue breakdown, and dehiscence refers to the separation of previously closed surgical incisions.

Explanation

An abrasion is a partial-thickness wound caused by the scraping away or rubbing of the skin. It occurs when the top layer of skin is removed, exposing the underlying layers. This type of wound is commonly seen in cases of falls or accidents where the skin comes into contact with a rough surface. Unlike a laceration, which is a cut or tear in the skin, an abrasion is characterized by superficial damage to the skin without deep penetration. An ulcer is a different type of wound caused by tissue breakdown, and dehiscence refers to the separation of previously closed surgical incisions.

85. A "contusion" is:

Another word for "concussion"

An open wound with torn tissue and jagged edges

A closed wound caused by a blow to the body (bruise)

An open wound made by a sharp object

A "contusion" refers to a closed wound caused by a blow to the body, commonly known as a bruise. It occurs when small blood vessels under the skin rupture, leading to discoloration, pain, and swelling in the affected area. Unlike an open wound with torn tissue and jagged edges or an open wound made by a sharp object, a contusion does not involve any tearing or cutting of the skin. Therefore, the correct answer is a closed wound caused by a blow to the body.

Explanation

A "contusion" refers to a closed wound caused by a blow to the body, commonly known as a bruise. It occurs when small blood vessels under the skin rupture, leading to discoloration, pain, and swelling in the affected area. Unlike an open wound with torn tissue and jagged edges or an open wound made by a sharp object, a contusion does not involve any tearing or cutting of the skin. Therefore, the correct answer is a closed wound caused by a blow to the body.

86. Dorsal Recumbent Position is also known as:

Prone Position

Supine Position

Semi-Fowler's Position

Fowler's Position

The correct answer is Supine Position. The dorsal recumbent position refers to lying on the back with the face up. This position is also known as the supine position. In this position, the patient's legs are extended and their arms may be at their sides or crossed over their chest. The supine position is commonly used for various medical procedures, examinations, and surgeries as it allows easy access to the patient's chest, abdomen, and lower extremities.

Explanation

The correct answer is Supine Position. The dorsal recumbent position refers to lying on the back with the face up. This position is also known as the supine position. In this position, the patient's legs are extended and their arms may be at their sides or crossed over their chest. The supine position is commonly used for various medical procedures, examinations, and surgeries as it allows easy access to the patient's chest, abdomen, and lower extremities.

87. The movement of and contraction of muscles of the digestive tract refers to:

Indigestion

Atrophy

Edema

Peristalsis

Peristalsis refers to the movement and contraction of muscles in the digestive tract. This movement helps propel food through the digestive system, allowing for the process of digestion and absorption to occur. It is responsible for pushing food from the esophagus to the stomach, and then through the intestines, ultimately leading to the elimination of waste. Therefore, peristalsis is the correct answer for the given question.

Explanation

Peristalsis refers to the movement and contraction of muscles in the digestive tract. This movement helps propel food through the digestive system, allowing for the process of digestion and absorption to occur. It is responsible for pushing food from the esophagus to the stomach, and then through the intestines, ultimately leading to the elimination of waste. Therefore, peristalsis is the correct answer for the given question.

88. All of the following refer to positions and locations of the body EXCEPT:

Distal

Proximal

Brachial

Dorsal

The term "brachial" refers to the upper arm or the arm in general. It is not a term that specifically refers to positions and locations of the body. On the other hand, "distal" refers to a position farther away from the center of the body or a specific point of reference, "proximal" refers to a position closer to the center of the body or a specific point of reference, and "dorsal" refers to the back or the posterior side of the body. Therefore, "brachial" is the only option that does not refer to positions and locations of the body.

Explanation

The term "brachial" refers to the upper arm or the arm in general. It is not a term that specifically refers to positions and locations of the body. On the other hand, "distal" refers to a position farther away from the center of the body or a specific point of reference, "proximal" refers to a position closer to the center of the body or a specific point of reference, and "dorsal" refers to the back or the posterior side of the body. Therefore, "brachial" is the only option that does not refer to positions and locations of the body.

89. Chest tubes are inserted to remove:

Fluid, Air, & Blood

Mucous Secretions, Air & Blood

Alveoli, Bronchi and Trachea

Air, Fluid and Mucous

Chest tubes are inserted to remove fluid, air, and blood from the chest cavity. These tubes are used to drain any excess fluid or air that may accumulate in the pleural space, which is the space between the chest wall and the lungs. Additionally, chest tubes can also be used to remove blood that may collect in the chest cavity due to trauma or surgery. By removing these substances, chest tubes help to relieve pressure and prevent complications such as collapsed lung or infection.

Explanation

Chest tubes are inserted to remove fluid, air, and blood from the chest cavity. These tubes are used to drain any excess fluid or air that may accumulate in the pleural space, which is the space between the chest wall and the lungs. Additionally, chest tubes can also be used to remove blood that may collect in the chest cavity due to trauma or surgery. By removing these substances, chest tubes help to relieve pressure and prevent complications such as collapsed lung or infection.

90. Phlebitis is:

Inflammation of the Vein

Inflammation of Phlegm

Inflammation of the Gall Bladder

Inflammation of the Pancreas

Phlebitis refers to the inflammation of a vein. This condition occurs when a blood clot forms in a vein, causing swelling, redness, and pain. It commonly affects the legs, but can also occur in other parts of the body. The inflammation can be caused by various factors such as injury, infection, or prolonged inactivity. Treatment for phlebitis usually involves medications to reduce inflammation and prevent blood clots, as well as lifestyle changes to promote blood flow and prevent complications.

Explanation

Phlebitis refers to the inflammation of a vein. This condition occurs when a blood clot forms in a vein, causing swelling, redness, and pain. It commonly affects the legs, but can also occur in other parts of the body. The inflammation can be caused by various factors such as injury, infection, or prolonged inactivity. Treatment for phlebitis usually involves medications to reduce inflammation and prevent blood clots, as well as lifestyle changes to promote blood flow and prevent complications.

91. Another word for "red blood cells" is:

Erythrocytes

Hemoglobin

Platelets

Phagocytes

Erythrocytes are another term for red blood cells. These cells are responsible for carrying oxygen throughout the body and contain a protein called hemoglobin. Platelets are responsible for blood clotting, while phagocytes are a type of white blood cell that helps to fight off infections. Hemoglobin, on the other hand, is the protein found in red blood cells that binds to oxygen and transports it to the body's tissues. Therefore, the correct answer for another word for "red blood cells" is erythrocytes.

Explanation

Erythrocytes are another term for red blood cells. These cells are responsible for carrying oxygen throughout the body and contain a protein called hemoglobin. Platelets are responsible for blood clotting, while phagocytes are a type of white blood cell that helps to fight off infections. Hemoglobin, on the other hand, is the protein found in red blood cells that binds to oxygen and transports it to the body's tissues. Therefore, the correct answer for another word for "red blood cells" is erythrocytes.

92. The period between exposure to the pathogen and the onset of illness is called:

Intubation Period

Communicable Phase

Flora Phase

Pathogen phase

The period between exposure to the pathogen and the onset of illness is called the "Intubation Period". During this time, the pathogen starts to replicate and multiply within the body, but the individual does not yet show any symptoms of the illness. It is during this phase that the pathogen establishes itself and begins to cause damage to the host's cells and tissues. Once the incubation period is over, the individual starts to experience symptoms and enters the communicable phase, where they can transmit the pathogen to others.

Explanation

The period between exposure to the pathogen and the onset of illness is called the "Intubation Period". During this time, the pathogen starts to replicate and multiply within the body, but the individual does not yet show any symptoms of the illness. It is during this phase that the pathogen establishes itself and begins to cause damage to the host's cells and tissues. Once the incubation period is over, the individual starts to experience symptoms and enters the communicable phase, where they can transmit the pathogen to others.

93. Your patient appears very sedated after taking two different kinds of sedatives. He is experiencing:

Drug Antagonism

Drug Synergism

Anaphylaxis

Adverse Effects

Drug synergism occurs when two or more drugs interact with each other to produce a greater effect than what would be expected if each drug were administered individually. In this case, the patient took two different kinds of sedatives, which have a similar mechanism of action. The combination of these sedatives leads to a synergistic effect, resulting in excessive sedation and the patient appearing very sedated.

Explanation

Drug synergism occurs when two or more drugs interact with each other to produce a greater effect than what would be expected if each drug were administered individually. In this case, the patient took two different kinds of sedatives, which have a similar mechanism of action. The combination of these sedatives leads to a synergistic effect, resulting in excessive sedation and the patient appearing very sedated.

94. Suctioning requires:

Chest Tubes

Sterile Technique

An artificial airway

Mechanical ventilation

Suctioning requires sterile technique to prevent infection. When suctioning, a sterile suction catheter is inserted into the airway to remove secretions and maintain airway patency. Sterile technique involves using sterile gloves, sterile suction catheter, and maintaining a clean environment to minimize the risk of introducing pathogens into the airway. This is especially important in patients with compromised immune systems or those who are at a higher risk of infection. By using sterile technique during suctioning, healthcare providers can minimize the risk of complications and promote patient safety.

Explanation

Suctioning requires sterile technique to prevent infection. When suctioning, a sterile suction catheter is inserted into the airway to remove secretions and maintain airway patency. Sterile technique involves using sterile gloves, sterile suction catheter, and maintaining a clean environment to minimize the risk of introducing pathogens into the airway. This is especially important in patients with compromised immune systems or those who are at a higher risk of infection. By using sterile technique during suctioning, healthcare providers can minimize the risk of complications and promote patient safety.

95. Fluid in the pleural space is known as:

Pneumothorax

Hemothorax

Pleural Effusion

Fluid Effusion

Pleural effusion refers to the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, the area between the layers of tissue that line the lungs and chest cavity. This condition can be caused by various factors, such as infections, congestive heart failure, cancer, or trauma. It can lead to symptoms like shortness of breath, chest pain, and coughing. Pneumothorax refers to the presence of air in the pleural space, hemothorax refers to the presence of blood, and "Fluid Effusion" is not a recognized medical term.

Explanation

Pleural effusion refers to the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, the area between the layers of tissue that line the lungs and chest cavity. This condition can be caused by various factors, such as infections, congestive heart failure, cancer, or trauma. It can lead to symptoms like shortness of breath, chest pain, and coughing. Pneumothorax refers to the presence of air in the pleural space, hemothorax refers to the presence of blood, and "Fluid Effusion" is not a recognized medical term.

96. A blood clot, an air bubble, or a fat clot that travels through the vascular system and finally lodges in a distant blood vessel is called:

Thrombus

Embolus

Anesthesia

Enema

An embolus refers to a blood clot, air bubble, or fat clot that travels through the vascular system and eventually gets lodged in a distant blood vessel. It can obstruct blood flow and cause various complications depending on the location where it gets lodged.

Explanation

An embolus refers to a blood clot, air bubble, or fat clot that travels through the vascular system and eventually gets lodged in a distant blood vessel. It can obstruct blood flow and cause various complications depending on the location where it gets lodged.

97. Your patient is SOB with chest pain and is able to sit at the edge of the bed. The best position to put him in is:

Orthopneic Position

Semi-Fowler's Position

Supine Position

Trendlenburg Position

The orthopneic position is the best position to put the patient in. This position allows the patient to sit upright and lean forward, which helps to relieve dyspnea (shortness of breath) and improve lung expansion. It also allows the patient to support their upper body with their arms, reducing strain on the respiratory muscles. This position is commonly used for patients with respiratory conditions such as congestive heart failure or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The semi-Fowler's position, supine position, and Trendelenburg position are not as effective in relieving dyspnea in this case.

Explanation

The orthopneic position is the best position to put the patient in. This position allows the patient to sit upright and lean forward, which helps to relieve dyspnea (shortness of breath) and improve lung expansion. It also allows the patient to support their upper body with their arms, reducing strain on the respiratory muscles. This position is commonly used for patients with respiratory conditions such as congestive heart failure or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The semi-Fowler's position, supine position, and Trendelenburg position are not as effective in relieving dyspnea in this case.

98. A collection of blood under the skin and tissues, forms and the area appears swollen and is reddish- blue in colour is called:

Hematoma

Bruising

Contusion

Abrasion

A hematoma is a collection of blood that accumulates under the skin and surrounding tissues. This causes the affected area to appear swollen and have a reddish-blue color. Bruising refers to the discoloration of the skin caused by bleeding underneath, but it does not necessarily involve a collection of blood. Contusion is another term for a bruise, so it is not the correct answer. Abrasion refers to a superficial injury where the skin is scraped or rubbed off, which is different from a hematoma. Therefore, the correct answer is Hematoma.

Explanation

A hematoma is a collection of blood that accumulates under the skin and surrounding tissues. This causes the affected area to appear swollen and have a reddish-blue color. Bruising refers to the discoloration of the skin caused by bleeding underneath, but it does not necessarily involve a collection of blood. Contusion is another term for a bruise, so it is not the correct answer. Abrasion refers to a superficial injury where the skin is scraped or rubbed off, which is different from a hematoma. Therefore, the correct answer is Hematoma.

99. The two main respiratory complications that can follow after surgery are:

Pneumonia and Atelectasis

Pneumonia and Asthma

Bronchitis and Pneumothorax

Pneumonia and Bronchitis

After surgery, patients are at risk of developing respiratory complications such as pneumonia and atelectasis. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs that can occur due to the suppression of the immune system during surgery or the use of a ventilator. Atelectasis, on the other hand, is the collapse or partial collapse of a lung or lobe, often caused by shallow breathing or not fully expanding the lungs after surgery. Both pneumonia and atelectasis can lead to breathing difficulties, decreased oxygen levels, and prolonged hospital stays.

Explanation

After surgery, patients are at risk of developing respiratory complications such as pneumonia and atelectasis. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs that can occur due to the suppression of the immune system during surgery or the use of a ventilator. Atelectasis, on the other hand, is the collapse or partial collapse of a lung or lobe, often caused by shallow breathing or not fully expanding the lungs after surgery. Both pneumonia and atelectasis can lead to breathing difficulties, decreased oxygen levels, and prolonged hospital stays.

100. A client has a pneumathorax. This is the collection of:

Air in the pleural space

Blood in the pleural space

Fluid in the pleural space

Respiratory secretions in the pleural space

A pneumothorax is a condition characterized by the presence of air in the pleural space, which is the space between the lungs and the chest wall. When air accumulates in this space, it can cause the lung to collapse, leading to symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, and decreased oxygen levels. The accumulation of blood, fluid, or respiratory secretions in the pleural space is not indicative of a pneumothorax.

Explanation

A pneumothorax is a condition characterized by the presence of air in the pleural space, which is the space between the lungs and the chest wall. When air accumulates in this space, it can cause the lung to collapse, leading to symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, and decreased oxygen levels. The accumulation of blood, fluid, or respiratory secretions in the pleural space is not indicative of a pneumothorax.