Principles Of Supervision DSST Part 1

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Quizzes Created: 6 | Total Attempts: 1,436
Questions: 25 | Attempts: 270

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DSST Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following defines the primary role of a supervisor?

    • A.

      Directs the work of others

    • B.

      Produces goods and services

    • C.

      Answers customers' questions

    • D.

      Repairs malfunctioning equipment

    Correct Answer
    A. Directs the work of others
    Explanation
    The primary role of a supervisor is to direct the work of others. This means that they are responsible for overseeing and guiding the activities of their subordinates, ensuring that tasks are completed efficiently and effectively. Supervisors provide instructions, assign tasks, set goals, and monitor progress to ensure that work is being done according to the organization's standards and objectives. They also provide feedback, guidance, and support to their team members, helping them to develop their skills and achieve their full potential. Overall, the main focus of a supervisor is to lead and manage a team to ensure that work is carried out successfully.

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  • 2. 

    Supervisors generally have responsibility for all of the following types of duties EXCEPT  

    • A.

      Making hiring decisions.

    • B.

      Recommending individuals for promotions.

    • C.

      Authorizing employee transfers.

    • D.

      Providing clerical assistance.

    Correct Answer
    D. Providing clerical assistance.
    Explanation
    Supervisors are responsible for various duties such as making hiring decisions, recommending individuals for promotions, and authorizing employee transfers. However, providing clerical assistance is not typically a responsibility of supervisors. Their main focus is on managing and overseeing the work of their subordinates, rather than performing clerical tasks themselves.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following job-related attributes distinguishes a supervisor from a nonmanagerial employee?  

    • A.

      Exercise of authority

    • B.

      Seniority

    • C.

      Punctuality

    • D.

      High productivity

    Correct Answer
    A. Exercise of authority
    Explanation
    A supervisor is distinguished from a nonmanagerial employee by the exercise of authority. This means that a supervisor has the power to make decisions, give orders, and enforce rules within the workplace. They have the ability to delegate tasks, provide guidance, and hold employees accountable for their performance. On the other hand, seniority refers to the length of time an employee has worked for a company, punctuality refers to being on time for work, and high productivity refers to the level of output or efficiency in completing tasks. While these attributes may be important in a job, they do not necessarily distinguish a supervisor from a nonmanagerial employee.

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  • 4. 

    Each of the following types of skills is required by supervisors EXCEPT

    • A.

      technical skills.

    • B.

      Conceptual skills.

    • C.

      Competition skills.

    • D.

      Administrative skills.

    Correct Answer
    C. Competition skills.
    Explanation
    Supervisors require various skills to effectively perform their role. Technical skills are essential for understanding and performing specific tasks, while conceptual skills are necessary for thinking strategically and understanding the organization as a whole. Administrative skills are needed for managing resources and coordinating activities. However, competition skills are not typically required for supervisors as their focus is on managing and leading their team, rather than engaging in competitive activities.

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  • 5. 

    The ability to gather and interpret information falls under which of the following main categories of managerial skills?

    • A.

      Conceptual skills

    • B.

      Technical skills

    • C.

      Human relations skills

    • D.

      Administrative skills

    Correct Answer
    A. Conceptual skills
    Explanation
    The ability to gather and interpret information falls under the category of conceptual skills. Conceptual skills involve the ability to think and understand complex ideas, analyze situations, and make strategic decisions. Gathering and interpreting information requires a manager to have a broad understanding of the organization and its goals, as well as the ability to analyze data and make informed decisions based on that information. This skill is essential for managers to effectively plan, organize, and make decisions that align with the organization's objectives.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following types of managerial skills is important for understanding the hidden rules by which an organization operates?

    • A.

      Administrative

    • B.

      Political

    • C.

      Technical

    • D.

      Conceptual

    Correct Answer
    B. Political
    Explanation
    Political skills are important for understanding the hidden rules by which an organization operates because they involve the ability to navigate and influence the power dynamics within the organization. This includes understanding the informal networks, building relationships, and effectively managing conflicts and negotiations. Political skills help managers understand how decisions are made, who holds the power, and how to effectively navigate the organizational culture. By understanding the political landscape, managers can make informed decisions and effectively implement strategies within the organization.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following supervisory roles involves representing a group as its symbolic head?

    • A.

      Negotiator.

    • B.

      Disturbance Handler.

    • C.

      Figurehead

    • D.

      Leader.

    Correct Answer
    C. Figurehead
    Explanation
    The supervisory role that involves representing a group as its symbolic head is the figurehead. This role requires the individual to act as a symbol of the organization or team, often performing ceremonial duties and representing the organization in a public or formal setting. They may also serve as a spokesperson or ambassador for the group, conveying its values and ideals to others. This role is important for establishing the organization's identity and maintaining its reputation.

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  • 8. 

    A supervisor who responds to crises that affect a group is acting in which of the following supervisory roles?  

    • A.

      Monitor

    • B.

      Negotiator

    • C.

      Disturbance handler

    • D.

      Disseminator

    Correct Answer
    C. Disturbance handler
    Explanation
    A supervisor who responds to crises that affect a group is acting in the role of a disturbance handler. This role involves addressing and resolving conflicts, crises, or disruptions that may arise within a group or organization. The supervisor takes charge in managing and resolving the situation, ensuring that the group can continue functioning effectively.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is an example of the managerial role of spokesperson?

    • A.

      Tracking departmental productivity

    • B.

      Creating a manufacturing schedule

    • C.

      Representing the department at meetings

    • D.

      Dividing employees into work groups

    Correct Answer
    C. Representing the department at meetings
    Explanation
    The managerial role of spokesperson involves representing the department or organization at meetings. This role requires the individual to communicate information, updates, and decisions to internal and external stakeholders. By attending meetings and speaking on behalf of the department, the spokesperson ensures that the department's interests and objectives are effectively communicated and understood by others. This role is important for maintaining effective communication and coordination within the organization.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following terms is commonly used to refer to the process of choosing from among available alternatives?

    • A.

      Decision making

    • B.

      Negotiating

    • C.

      Problem solving

    • D.

      Communicating

    Correct Answer
    A. Decision making
    Explanation
    The term "decision making" is commonly used to refer to the process of choosing from among available alternatives. It involves analyzing different options, considering the potential outcomes, and selecting the best course of action. This term is widely used in various fields and contexts, such as business, personal life, and problem-solving situations. It emphasizes the act of making a decision and the thought process involved in evaluating and selecting the most suitable option.

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  • 11. 

    Programmed decisions are usually made under which of the following conditions?

    • A.

      High certainty

    • B.

      High risk

    • C.

      High uncertainty

    • D.

      Low structure

    Correct Answer
    A. High certainty
    Explanation
    Programmed decisions are usually made under high certainty conditions because these decisions are repetitive and routine in nature. They involve well-defined problems and have established procedures or rules to follow. In such conditions, decision-makers have access to complete and accurate information, allowing them to make decisions confidently and with a high level of certainty.

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  • 12. 

    Efore engaging in the steps of the decision-making process, a supervisor should

    • A.

      Perform a cost-benefit analysis of available alternatives.

    • B.

      Collect information about each potential option.

    • C.

      Identify possible alternatives for solving the problem.

    • D.

      Consider whether making a decision is in fact necessary.

    Correct Answer
    D. Consider whether making a decision is in fact necessary.
    Explanation
    Before engaging in the steps of the decision-making process, a supervisor should consider whether making a decision is in fact necessary. This is important because sometimes the best course of action may be to not make a decision at all. By evaluating the situation and determining if a decision is truly needed, the supervisor can avoid unnecessary actions and potential negative consequences. This step helps in ensuring that the decision-making process is efficient and effective.

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  • 13. 

    Principles of conduct that govern the behavior of an individual are known as  

    • A.

      Loyalty

    • B.

      Authority

    • C.

      Ethics

    • D.

      Responsibility

    Correct Answer
    C. Ethics
    Explanation
    Ethics refers to the principles or standards that guide the behavior of an individual in a particular society or profession. It involves distinguishing right from wrong and making moral judgments. Ethics provides a framework for individuals to make decisions and act in a morally acceptable way. It encompasses values such as honesty, integrity, fairness, and respect for others. By adhering to ethical principles, individuals can ensure that their behavior is in line with societal norms and expectations.

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  • 14. 

    A supervisor demonstrates fairness through all of the following EXCEPT

    • A.

      Dealing with employees honestly.

    • B.

      Showing empathy for employees.

    • C.

      disciplining employees leniently.

    • D.

      Providing objective evaluations.

    Correct Answer
    C. disciplining employees leniently.
    Explanation
    The supervisor demonstrates fairness by dealing with employees honestly, showing empathy for employees, and providing objective evaluations. However, disciplining employees leniently does not align with fairness as it implies favoritism or unequal treatment. Fairness requires consistent and impartial disciplinary actions to maintain a level playing field for all employees.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following questions would be most likely to help determine whether or not a behavior is ethical?  

    • A.

      "Does it achieve my group's goals?"

    • B.

      "Does it benefit me?"

    • C.

      "Is it truthful?"

    • D.

      "Will it enhance the status of my group?"

    Correct Answer
    C. "Is it truthful?"
    Explanation
    The question "Is it truthful?" would be most likely to help determine whether or not a behavior is ethical because honesty and truthfulness are fundamental principles of ethics. Ethical behavior involves being honest and not deceiving others. By asking if a behavior is truthful, one is considering the ethical implications of their actions and whether they are being transparent and genuine in their behavior.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following terms is commonly used to refer to the right of a supervisor to give orders and expect subordinates to follow those orders?

    • A.

      Authority

    • B.

      Chain of command

    • C.

      Duty

    • D.

      Liability

    Correct Answer
    A. Authority
    Explanation
    Authority is commonly used to refer to the right of a supervisor to give orders and expect subordinates to follow those orders. It is the power or right to give orders, make decisions, and enforce obedience. Authority is a key aspect of a hierarchical structure in organizations, where supervisors have the authority to direct and control the actions of their subordinates.

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  • 17. 

    Planning generally involves which of the following?

    • A.

      Selecting future courses of action

    • B.

      Ensuring product quality

    • C.

      Troubleshooting technical problems

    • D.

      Rewarding effective behavior

    Correct Answer
    A. Selecting future courses of action
    Explanation
    Planning is the process of determining and selecting future courses of action to achieve specific goals or objectives. It involves analyzing the current situation, setting objectives, identifying alternative actions, evaluating those alternatives, and making decisions on the best course of action. Planning helps organizations to anticipate and prepare for the future, allocate resources effectively, and achieve desired outcomes. Ensuring product quality, troubleshooting technical problems, and rewarding effective behavior are not directly related to the process of planning.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following terms is commonly used to refer to a plan that applies to an entire organization?

    • A.

      Strategic

    • B.

      Sectional

    • C.

      Tactical

    • D.

      Operational

    Correct Answer
    A. Strategic
    Explanation
    Strategic is the commonly used term to refer to a plan that applies to an entire organization. A strategic plan is a long-term plan that outlines the goals and objectives of the organization and the strategies to achieve them. It involves making decisions at a high level and setting the overall direction for the organization. This plan is usually developed by top-level management and is important for the organization's success and growth.

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  • 19. 

    Supervisory plans are usually derived from plans of

    • A.

      Subordinates.

    • B.

      Inventory control.

    • C.

      Managerial peers.

    • D.

      upper management.

    Correct Answer
    D. upper management.
    Explanation
    Supervisory plans are typically derived from the plans of upper management. This means that the plans made by supervisors are based on the goals and objectives set by upper management. Supervisors are responsible for implementing and executing the plans set by upper management, and they need to align their own plans with those of the higher-level management in order to ensure consistency and coordination within the organization.

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  • 20. 

    Policies, rules, and procedures are examples of

    • A.

      Single-use plans.

    • B.

      Strategic plans.

    • C.

      Standing plans.

    • D.

      Supervisory plans.

    Correct Answer
    C. Standing plans.
    Explanation
    Policies, rules, and procedures are examples of standing plans. Standing plans are established to provide guidance and consistency in decision-making and actions over a long period of time. They are designed to address recurring situations and are typically used by managers and employees at various levels within an organization. These plans help to ensure that activities and operations are carried out in a consistent and efficient manner, promoting stability and uniformity within the organization.

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  • 21. 

    Effective objectives are generally

    • A.

      Broad.

    • B.

      Numerous.

    • C.

      Measurable.

    • D.

      Verbal.

    Correct Answer
    C. Measurable.
    Explanation
    Effective objectives are generally measurable because measurable objectives provide a clear and quantifiable target for achievement. They allow for tracking progress, evaluating success, and making adjustments as necessary. Measurable objectives provide a basis for accountability and enable individuals or organizations to determine if they have met their goals. By setting measurable objectives, individuals can establish specific criteria for success and ensure that their efforts are focused and aligned with desired outcomes.

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  • 22. 

    Objectives serve which of the following functions?

    • A.

      Assessment

    • B.

      Motivation

    • C.

      Evaluation

    • D.

      Feedback

    Correct Answer
    B. Motivation
    Explanation
    Objectives serve the function of motivation. Objectives provide individuals with a clear direction and purpose, helping to motivate them to work towards achieving their goals. By setting specific objectives, individuals are more likely to be motivated to take action and make progress. Objectives also provide a sense of accomplishment and satisfaction when they are achieved, further motivating individuals to continue working towards their goals.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is usually established first within the strategic planning process?  

    • A.

      Contingency plan

    • B.

      Mission statement

    • C.

      Standing plan

    • D.

      Worker objectives

    Correct Answer
    B. Mission statement
    Explanation
    The mission statement is usually established first within the strategic planning process. A mission statement defines the purpose and goals of an organization, providing a clear direction for the development of strategies and plans. It serves as a foundation for decision-making and helps align the actions of the organization with its overall objectives. By establishing the mission statement first, organizations can ensure that all subsequent plans and actions are in line with their core purpose and values.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following reflects the primary difference between the two scheduling methods known as CPM (critical path method) and PERT (program evaluation and review technique)?

    • A.

      PERT notes the dependences of project activities on each other, while CPM does not note the dependencies of project activities on each other.

    • B.

      CPM notes the dependences of project activities on each other, while PERT does not note the dependencies of project activities on each other.

    • C.

      PERT is generally used for projects with activities of certain duration, while CPM is used for projects with activities of unknown duration.

    • D.

      CPM is generally used for projects with activities of certain duration, while PERT is used for projects with activities of unknown duration.

    Correct Answer
    D. CPM is generally used for projects with activities of certain duration, while PERT is used for projects with activities of unknown duration.
    Explanation
    PERT is a scheduling method that is used for projects with activities of unknown duration. It takes into account the dependencies of project activities on each other. On the other hand, CPM is a scheduling method used for projects with activities of certain duration. It also considers the dependencies of project activities on each other. Therefore, the primary difference between the two methods is that PERT is used for projects with activities of unknown duration, while CPM is used for projects with activities of certain duration.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following terms is commonly used to refer to the phase of the planning process in which a supervisor determines how objectives will be achieved?

    • A.

      Human resource planning

    • B.

      Action planning

    • C.

      Unified planning

    • D.

      Agenda setting

    Correct Answer
    B. Action planning
    Explanation
    Action planning is commonly used to refer to the phase of the planning process in which a supervisor determines how objectives will be achieved. This involves developing a detailed plan of action, including specific steps, resources needed, and timelines. Human resource planning refers to the process of identifying and addressing the organization's human resource needs. Unified planning refers to a collaborative and integrated approach to planning across different departments or levels of an organization. Agenda setting refers to the process of determining the topics or issues that will be discussed or addressed in a meeting or decision-making process.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 27, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Kevin

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