Pre And Post Operative care Trivia Quiz

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Pre And Post Operative care Trivia Quiz - Quiz

If you are in health care services or studying for the same, then we have a 'Pre And Post Operative Care Trivia Quiz' for you right here. By playing this quiz, you can test your current knowledge on this subject, as well as get an opportunity to learn more through this quiz. The pre and post-operative care determine how well the patient is going to be. Let's see how much you know about it!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A preoperative assessment should include all of the following except:

    • A.

      Religious beliefs

    • B.

      Height/Weight

    • C.

      Patient understanding of assisted walking devices

    • D.

      Psychosocial aspects

    • E.

      Drugs the patient is on

    Correct Answer
    C. Patient understanding of assisted walking devices
    Explanation
    A preoperative assessment should include psychosocial aspects, drugs the patient is on, religious beliefs, and height/weight. These factors are important in determining the patient's overall health status and any potential risks or complications during surgery. However, patient understanding of assisted walking devices is not typically a part of the preoperative assessment. This information may be more relevant during the postoperative period when the patient is recovering and may require assistance with walking.

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  • 2. 

    Aspirin administration can cause a patient to have to wait on a surgery.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Aspirin administration can cause a patient to have to wait on a surgery because aspirin is a blood thinner that can increase the risk of excessive bleeding during surgery. Therefore, it is often recommended to stop taking aspirin a few days before a surgical procedure to minimize this risk. This delay in surgery allows time for the effects of aspirin to wear off and for the patient's blood to return to its normal clotting function.

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  • 3. 

    These herbs increase the HR and BP except:

    • A.

      Ginseng

    • B.

      Goldenseal

    • C.

      Ephedra

    • D.

      Licorice

    • E.

      Dong Quai

    Correct Answer
    E. Dong Quai
    Explanation
    Dong Quai does not increase heart rate (HR) and blood pressure (BP) unlike the other herbs mentioned. Ginseng, Goldenseal, Ephedra, and Licorice are known to have stimulant properties that can raise HR and BP. However, Dong Quai is typically used for its potential benefits in regulating menstrual cycles and relieving menopausal symptoms, rather than affecting cardiovascular function. Therefore, Dong Quai is the exception among the listed herbs in terms of its impact on HR and BP.

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  • 4. 

    These herbs can increase bleeding except:

    • A.

      Danshen

    • B.

      Kava

    • C.

      Feverfew

    • D.

      Garlic

    Correct Answer
    B. Kava
    Explanation
    Kava is the correct answer because it is known to have blood-thinning properties and can increase the risk of bleeding. Danshen, Feverfew, and Garlic, on the other hand, are not typically associated with increasing bleeding.

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  • 5. 

    These herbs have sedation effect except:

    • A.

      Garlic

    • B.

      St. Johns Wart

    • C.

      Kava

    • D.

      Danshen

    • E.

      Valarian

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Garlic
    D. Danshen
    Explanation
    Garlic and Danshen are not herbs that have a sedation effect. Garlic is commonly used as a culinary ingredient and has various health benefits, but sedation is not one of them. Danshen, also known as Red Sage, is used in traditional Chinese medicine for cardiovascular conditions, but it does not have sedative properties. On the other hand, St. John's Wort, Kava, and Valerian are known for their sedative effects and are often used to promote relaxation and sleep.

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  • 6. 

    If a person has a latex allergy, they could also be allergic to:

    • A.

      Kiwi

    • B.

      Banana

    • C.

      Avocado

    • D.

      Potato

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Kiwi
    B. Banana
    C. Avocado
    Explanation
    A person with a latex allergy could also be allergic to kiwi, banana, and avocado. This is because these fruits contain proteins that are similar to the proteins found in latex. When a person with a latex allergy consumes or comes into contact with these fruits, their immune system may mistakenly identify the proteins as harmful and trigger an allergic reaction. Therefore, individuals with a latex allergy are often advised to avoid these fruits to prevent allergic reactions.

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  • 7. 

    A patient with a history of heart disease will be put on a prophylactic antibiotic:

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Patients with a history of heart disease are often put on prophylactic antibiotics to prevent bacterial endocarditis. Bacterial endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves, which can be life-threatening. People with certain heart conditions, such as artificial heart valves or a history of endocarditis, are at a higher risk of developing this infection. Therefore, taking prophylactic antibiotics before certain dental or surgical procedures can help reduce the risk of bacterial endocarditis in these patients.

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  • 8. 

    Hypoventilation can lead to:

    • A.

      Atelectasis

    • B.

      Pneumonia

    • C.

      Renal failure

    • D.

      Liver prolems

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Atelectasis
    B. Pneumonia
    Explanation
    Hypoventilation refers to inadequate ventilation of the lungs, resulting in decreased oxygen intake and increased carbon dioxide levels in the body. This can lead to atelectasis, which is the collapse of lung tissue due to the incomplete expansion of the alveoli. Atelectasis can further increase the risk of developing pneumonia, as stagnant air in the collapsed areas of the lung provides a favorable environment for bacterial growth. Therefore, hypoventilation can contribute to the development of both atelectasis and pneumonia.

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  • 9. 

    Renal and Liver dysfunction can have what type of effect on a surgical patient:

    • A.

      Longer medication half-life.

    • B.

      Shorter medication half-life.

    • C.

      Longer wound healing.

    • D.

      Fluid imbalance.

    • E.

      A, C, D

    Correct Answer
    E. A, C, D
    Explanation
    Renal and liver dysfunction can have several effects on a surgical patient. Firstly, it can lead to a longer medication half-life, meaning that medications take longer to be eliminated from the body. This can increase the risk of drug toxicity and adverse effects. Secondly, it can result in longer wound healing, as impaired kidney and liver function can affect the body's ability to repair and regenerate tissues. Lastly, renal and liver dysfunction can cause fluid imbalance, leading to issues such as edema or dehydration. Therefore, the correct answer is A, C, D.

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  • 10. 

    Dehydration can lead to:

    • A.

      Heart failure

    • B.

      Kidney failure

    • C.

      Liver failure

    • D.

      Stroke

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Heart failure
    B. Kidney failure
    C. Liver failure
    Explanation
    Dehydration occurs when the body does not have enough fluid to function properly. If dehydration is severe and prolonged, it can lead to various complications. Heart failure can occur because dehydration reduces blood volume, causing the heart to work harder to pump blood. Kidney failure can happen as dehydration reduces blood flow to the kidneys, impairing their ability to filter waste and toxins from the body. Liver failure can result from dehydration causing a buildup of toxins in the liver. While stroke is not directly caused by dehydration, it can be a secondary complication if dehydration leads to thickening of the blood and increased risk of blood clots.

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  • 11. 

    Lisa is an alcoholic.  After surgery you might expect to see:

    • A.

      Withdrawl

    • B.

      Increased hydration

    • C.

      Increased bleeding

    • D.

      A desire to quit drinking.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Withdrawl
    C. Increased bleeding
    Explanation
    After surgery, it is common for individuals who are alcoholics to experience withdrawal symptoms. This is because alcohol suppresses the central nervous system, and when abruptly stopped, the body goes through a period of adjustment. Increased bleeding may also be observed in alcoholics after surgery due to the negative effects of alcohol on the liver, which can impair blood clotting. However, it is important to note that the desire to quit drinking is not necessarily a guaranteed outcome after surgery for an alcoholic.

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  • 12. 

    As an aged operative patient, you might expect to see:

    • A.

      A lower tolerance to medication

    • B.

      Delayed wound healing

    • C.

      Increase in pain

    • D.

      Higher tolerance to general anesthesia

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. A lower tolerance to medication
    B. Delayed wound healing
    Explanation
    As an aged operative patient, several physiological changes occur that can affect their response to medication and wound healing. With age, the liver and kidney function may decline, leading to a decrease in the metabolism and elimination of drugs, resulting in a lower tolerance to medication. Additionally, the immune system may not function as efficiently, leading to delayed wound healing. Therefore, it is expected that an aged operative patient would have a lower tolerance to medication and delayed wound healing.

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  • 13. 

    A nurses role in consent is to:

    • A.

      Explain the procedure

    • B.

      Witness the voluntary signature

    • C.

      Advise the patient on the best choice to make

    • D.

      To inform the patient of the surgeons faults.

    Correct Answer
    B. Witness the voluntary signature
    Explanation
    In the context of consent, a nurse's role is to witness the voluntary signature of the patient. This means that the nurse is responsible for ensuring that the patient understands the procedure or treatment they are consenting to and that they are voluntarily giving their consent. By witnessing the signature, the nurse helps to verify that the patient has made an informed decision and is willing to proceed with the medical intervention. The nurse does not advise the patient on the best choice to make or inform them of the surgeon's faults, as these responsibilities lie with other healthcare professionals.

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  • 14. 

    A nurse should document about a patient and their consent when:

    • A.

      A patient refuses information

    • B.

      Level of understanding

    • C.

      Refusal to sign

    • D.

      Reluctance to have the procedure

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. A patient refuses information
    B. Level of understanding
    C. Refusal to sign
    D. Reluctance to have the procedure
    Explanation
    When a patient refuses information, it is important for the nurse to document this refusal in order to ensure that the patient's wishes are respected and to protect the nurse legally. Similarly, documenting the patient's level of understanding is crucial to ensure that the patient has been adequately informed and can make an informed decision. Refusal to sign any consent forms should also be documented as it indicates the patient's unwillingness to proceed with the procedure. Finally, documenting the patient's reluctance to have the procedure provides important information about the patient's concerns and preferences, which can guide the healthcare team in providing appropriate care.

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  • 15. 

    Intraoperative positioning:  Supine would be used for:

    • A.

      Abdominal

    • B.

      Spine

    • C.

      Cardiac

    • D.

      Brain

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Abdominal
    C. Cardiac
    Explanation
    The supine position is commonly used for abdominal and cardiac surgeries. In abdominal surgeries, the supine position allows for easy access to the abdomen and better visualization of the surgical field. For cardiac surgeries, the supine position provides a stable and secure position for the patient during the procedure. However, the supine position may not be the most optimal for spine or brain surgeries, as these procedures often require specific positioning to access the affected area and ensure patient safety.

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  • 16. 

    Intraoperative positioning:  Prone position would be used for:

    • A.

      Anal

    • B.

      Spine

    • C.

      Brain

    • D.

      Cervical

    Correct Answer
    B. Spine
    Explanation
    The correct answer is spine because the prone position is commonly used during spine surgeries. This position allows for better access to the spine and facilitates the surgical procedure. It also helps in minimizing the risk of injury to the spinal cord and nerves during surgery.

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  • 17. 

    Intraoperative positioning: Lateral position would be used for:

    • A.

      Liver

    • B.

      Kidney

    • C.

      Lung

    • D.

      Hip

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Kidney
    C. Lung
    D. Hip
    Explanation
    The lateral position would be used for kidney, lung, and hip surgeries. The lateral position allows for optimal access to the kidney, as it provides a clear view and a stable operating field. For lung surgeries, the lateral position allows for better lung expansion and access to the thoracic cavity. In hip surgeries, the lateral position allows for easier access to the hip joint and better visualization of the surgical site.

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  • 18. 

    Intraoperative positioning: Lithotomy would be:

    • A.

      Sping

    • B.

      Pelvic

    • C.

      Hip

    • D.

      Anal

    Correct Answer
    B. Pelvic
    Explanation
    Intraoperative positioning: Lithotomy would be pelvic. Lithotomy position is commonly used in gynecological and urological surgeries. It involves the patient lying on their back with their legs flexed and thighs apart, allowing access to the pelvic area. This position provides optimal exposure and access to the pelvic organs and is often used for procedures such as hysterectomy, bladder repair, or prostate surgery. It allows the surgeon to have a clear view and easy access to the surgical site.

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  • 19. 

    Intraoperative positioning: Jacknife position would be:

    • A.

      Kidney

    • B.

      Lung

    • C.

      Rectal

    • D.

      Pelvic

    Correct Answer
    C. Rectal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is rectal. The jackknife position is commonly used for rectal surgeries, as it allows for better access to the rectal area. This position involves the patient lying on their abdomen with their hips flexed and their knees bent, creating a 90-degree angle. This position helps to expose the rectal area and provides optimal surgical access for procedures such as hemorrhoidectomy or rectal prolapse repair.

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  • 20. 

    Intraoperative positioning: Sitting would be:

    • A.

      Brain

    • B.

      Cervical

    • C.

      Lung

    • D.

      Heart

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Brain
    B. Cervical
    Explanation
    Intraoperative positioning refers to the specific positioning of a patient during surgery to ensure optimal access to the surgical site and minimize complications. In the case of brain and cervical surgeries, the patient is often positioned in a sitting position. This allows for better visualization and access to the surgical area, especially for procedures involving the brain and cervical spine. However, sitting positioning is not typically used for lung or heart surgeries as it may compromise respiratory and cardiovascular function.

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  • 21. 

    Mary has had a local anesthetic.  What would be important to tell Mary.

    • A.

      You will be able to move before you feel it.

    • B.

      You will be able to feel, but wont be able to move right away.

    • C.

      You will need 72 hours before you can walk safely.

    • D.

      Sensation will return equally within 36 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. You will be able to move before you feel it.
    Explanation
    After receiving a local anesthetic, it is important to inform Mary that she will be able to move before she starts feeling any sensation. This means that the anesthetic will temporarily numb the area, allowing her to move without experiencing any pain or discomfort. It is crucial for Mary to be aware of this information so that she can avoid any accidental injury or strain while the effects of the anesthetic are still present.

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  • 22. 

    Local Anesthetic is used for:

    • A.

      Perineum

    • B.

      Cervical

    • C.

      Abdomen

    • D.

      Lower extremities

    • E.

      Arms

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Perineum
    C. Abdomen
    D. Lower extremities
    Explanation
    Local anesthetic is used to numb a specific area of the body, preventing pain during medical procedures or surgeries. In this case, the correct answer includes the perineum, abdomen, and lower extremities. These areas are commonly targeted for local anesthesia due to the need for pain relief during procedures such as childbirth, abdominal surgeries, or surgeries on the legs or feet.

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  • 23. 

    Spinal Anesthesia used on a patient needs monitoring for:

    • A.

      Hypotension

    • B.

      Hypertension

    • C.

      Glucose levels

    • D.

      Renal function

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypotension
    Explanation
    Spinals act as a vasodialator.

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  • 24. 

    What is true about Epidural Anesthesia?

    • A.

      Increased hypotension

    • B.

      Increased hypertension

    • C.

      Pt able to move legs

    • D.

      Can last in the system up to 72 hours.

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Pt able to move legs
    D. Can last in the system up to 72 hours.
    Explanation
    Epidural anesthesia allows patients to move their legs while still providing pain relief during medical procedures. It is a regional anesthesia technique that numbs the lower half of the body. Unlike general anesthesia, where the patient is completely unconscious, epidural anesthesia allows the patient to remain awake and aware. Additionally, epidural anesthesia can last in the system for up to 72 hours, providing extended pain relief post-surgery.

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  • 25. 

    What would a nurse say to show understanding of a Brier Block?

    • A.

      Pt will experience loss of sensation in lower extremities.

    • B.

      Pt will experience loss of sensation in the plexsus.

    • C.

      Pt will have to have an occlusion tourniquet to prevent spreading of the anesthesia.

    • D.

      Pt will experience dizziness and confusion when the surgery is over.

    Correct Answer
    C. Pt will have to have an occlusion tourniquet to prevent spreading of the anesthesia.
    Explanation
    A Brier Block refers to a type of regional anesthesia where a tourniquet is used to prevent the spread of anesthesia to other parts of the body. By selecting the option stating that the patient will have to have an occlusion tourniquet to prevent spreading of the anesthesia, the nurse demonstrates an understanding of the procedure and its purpose in controlling the anesthesia's effect. This option aligns with the concept of a Brier Block and shows the nurse's knowledge of the appropriate intervention to be taken.

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  • 26. 

    Which anesthetic is controlled by the body heat to control rate of delivery?

    • A.

      General

    • B.

      Nerve Block

    • C.

      Brier Block

    • D.

      Continuous Blockade

    Correct Answer
    D. Continuous Blockade
    Explanation
    Continuous blockade is an anesthetic technique that involves the continuous administration of local anesthetic agents through a catheter placed near the nerves. This technique allows for the controlled delivery of the anesthetic, as the rate of delivery can be adjusted based on the patient's body heat. The body heat affects the absorption and distribution of the local anesthetic, allowing for a more precise and controlled anesthesia. This technique is commonly used for postoperative pain management or in chronic pain conditions.

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  • 27. 

    Mr. Murray is having a knee replacement on the ortho floor.  He asks what type of pain management protocols will be used.  The nurse understands anesthetics when he states:

    • A.

      A general anesthetic will be used to control your pain.

    • B.

      A Brier Block will be used to control your pain.

    • C.

      A Continuous Blockade will be used to control your pain.

    • D.

      A Nerve Block will be used to control your pain.

    Correct Answer
    C. A Continuous Blockade will be used to control your pain.
    Explanation
    The nurse understands anesthetics when he states that a Continuous Blockade will be used to control the patient's pain. This suggests that the pain management protocol for Mr. Murray's knee replacement involves the continuous administration of a local anesthetic to block the pain signals from reaching the brain. This method provides ongoing pain relief and is commonly used in orthopedic surgeries.

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  • 28. 

    What is  the most important thing to do prior to discontinuing a PCA pump?

    • A.

      Assess for inflammation and infection.

    • B.

      Ensure the patient is moving around.

    • C.

      Turn off pump and give PO meds to evaluate pain tolerance.

    • D.

      Ensure pt VS is stable.

    Correct Answer
    C. Turn off pump and give PO meds to evaluate pain tolerance.
    Explanation
    Prior to discontinuing a PCA pump, it is important to turn off the pump and give the patient oral medications to evaluate their pain tolerance. This is important because it allows the healthcare provider to assess how well the patient can manage their pain without the use of the PCA pump. It also helps in determining if the patient still requires pain medication or if alternative methods can be used for pain management. Assessing for inflammation and infection, ensuring the patient is moving around, and ensuring patient vital signs are stable may be important considerations in general patient care, but they are not specifically related to discontinuing a PCA pump.

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  • 29. 

    Which anesthesia is used for -oscopies, ED minor procedures, and breast biopsies?

    • A.

      General Anesthesia

    • B.

      Conscious sedation

    • C.

      Nerve Block

    • D.

      Continuous Blockade

    Correct Answer
    B. Conscious sedation
    Explanation
    Conscious sedation is used for -oscopies, ED minor procedures, and breast biopsies. This type of anesthesia allows the patient to remain conscious but relaxed during the procedure. It helps to reduce anxiety and discomfort while still allowing the patient to follow instructions and cooperate with the medical team. Conscious sedation is often administered through intravenous medications, and it provides pain relief and a state of relaxation without inducing complete unconsciousness.

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  • 30. 

    Benzodiazepines create which potential problem, especially in the elderly pt?

    • A.

      Cardiac

    • B.

      Respiratory

    • C.

      Renal

    • D.

      LOC

    Correct Answer
    B. Respiratory
    Explanation
    Benzodiazepines can cause respiratory depression, especially in elderly patients. This means that the medication can suppress the respiratory system, leading to slower and shallower breathing. This can be problematic for elderly patients who may already have compromised respiratory function due to age-related changes. Respiratory depression can result in decreased oxygen levels in the blood, which can lead to drowsiness, confusion, and even respiratory failure in severe cases. Therefore, respiratory problems are a potential concern when prescribing benzodiazepines to elderly patients.

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  • 31. 

    Narcotic anesthesia used for conscious sedation have which of the following side effects:

    • A.

      Sedation

    • B.

      Confusion

    • C.

      Hypotension

    • D.

      Respiratory depression

    • E.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All the above
    Explanation
    Narcotic anesthesia used for conscious sedation can cause sedation, confusion, hypotension, and respiratory depression as side effects. These medications are known to induce a state of sedation, which can lead to drowsiness and relaxation. Confusion may also occur due to the effects of the anesthesia on cognitive function. Hypotension, or low blood pressure, can result from the vasodilatory effects of the narcotics. Lastly, respiratory depression, characterized by slowed or shallow breathing, is a potential side effect of these medications. Therefore, all of the mentioned side effects can be caused by narcotic anesthesia used for conscious sedation.

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  • 32. 

    Malignant hyperthermia is most common in which group?

    • A.

      Elderly

    • B.

      Genetic predisposition

    • C.

      Babies

    • D.

      Young adults

    Correct Answer
    B. Genetic predisposition
    Explanation
    Malignant hyperthermia is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition that is most commonly seen in individuals with a genetic predisposition. This means that people who have a family history of malignant hyperthermia are more likely to develop the condition themselves. It is important for individuals with this genetic predisposition to be aware of the potential risks and to take necessary precautions, such as avoiding triggering factors like certain medications or anesthesia, in order to prevent the onset of malignant hyperthermia.

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  • 33. 

    Malignant hyperthermia can be classified as:

    • A.

      O2 consumption goes up

    • B.

      Lactic acidosis

    • C.

      Sustained muscle contraction

    • D.

      Increased heat and CO2 production

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. O2 consumption goes up
    B. Lactic acidosis
    C. Sustained muscle contraction
    D. Increased heat and CO2 production
    Explanation
    Malignant hyperthermia is a rare but potentially life-threatening reaction to certain medications used during general anesthesia. It is characterized by an increase in oxygen consumption, lactic acidosis (build-up of lactic acid in the blood), sustained muscle contraction, and increased heat and carbon dioxide production. These symptoms occur due to a genetic defect in the regulation of calcium release in skeletal muscles, leading to uncontrolled muscle contractions and metabolic changes. Prompt recognition and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and mortality.

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  • 34. 

    Increased temp and acidosis can cause:

    • A.

      Destruction of muscle fiber cover

    • B.

      Increased K

    • C.

      Increased myoglobin

    • D.

      Increased CK

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Destruction of muscle fiber cover
    B. Increased K
    C. Increased myoglobin
    D. Increased CK
    Explanation
    Increased temperature and acidosis can lead to the destruction of the muscle fiber cover, as well as an increase in potassium (K) levels, myoglobin levels, and creatine kinase (CK) levels. This is because high temperatures and acidosis can disrupt the integrity of the muscle fibers, causing damage to the protective cover. Additionally, these conditions can cause the release of potassium, myoglobin, and CK from the damaged muscle cells into the bloodstream. Therefore, all of the given options are correct.

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  • 35. 

    Assessment in PACU needs to be done every:

    • A.

      10-15 min

    • B.

      20-30 min

    • C.

      5-15 min

    • D.

      30-60 min

    Correct Answer
    C. 5-15 min
    Explanation
    Assessment in the Post-Anesthesia Care Unit (PACU) needs to be done every 5-15 minutes. This is because patients in the PACU require close monitoring to ensure their vital signs are stable, their pain is managed, and any complications from anesthesia are promptly identified and addressed. Assessing the patient every 5-15 minutes allows the healthcare team to quickly intervene if there are any changes in the patient's condition, ensuring their safety and well-being during the recovery period.

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  • 36. 

    To leave the PACU, Toby has to exhibit which of the following signs:

    • A.

      A temperature greater than 96.8

    • B.

      A temperature of greater than 95.0

    • C.

      O2 sat of 93 or greater

    • D.

      O2 sat of 90 or greater (or as ordered)

    • E.

      No excessive bleeding or draining

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. A temperature greater than 96.8
    D. O2 sat of 90 or greater (or as ordered)
    E. No excessive bleeding or draining
    Explanation
    Toby needs to exhibit a temperature greater than 96.8 because it indicates that his body is maintaining a normal level of heat and is not experiencing any abnormal fluctuations. Additionally, Toby needs to have an O2 saturation level of 90 or greater, as this indicates that his blood is adequately oxygenated. Finally, Toby should not have any excessive bleeding or draining, as this could indicate a potential complication or ongoing medical issue.

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  • 37. 

    When do preop orders become cancelled?

    • A.

      Intra op

    • B.

      Post op

    • C.

      24 hours

    • D.

      36 hours

    Correct Answer
    B. Post op
    Explanation
    Preoperative orders become cancelled after the surgery has been completed, which is known as the postoperative period. This is because the preoperative orders are specific to the period leading up to the surgery and are no longer relevant or necessary once the surgery has been performed. Therefore, postoperative orders will be implemented instead to address the patient's needs during the recovery phase.

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  • 38. 

    How often are cardiovascular VS taken?

    • A.

      Every 15 min x4, every 30 min x4, every hour x4

    • B.

      Every 30 min x4, every hour x4

    • C.

      Every hour x4

    • D.

      Every 2 hours x4

    Correct Answer
    A. Every 15 min x4, every 30 min x4, every hour x4
    Explanation
    Cardiovascular vital signs (VS) are taken at different intervals to monitor the patient's heart health. In this case, the correct answer suggests that the VS are taken every 15 minutes for a total of 4 times, then every 30 minutes for another 4 times, and finally every hour for 4 times. This progressive decrease in frequency indicates that initially, the patient's condition requires more frequent monitoring, which gradually decreases as their condition stabilizes. This approach allows healthcare professionals to closely monitor any changes in the patient's cardiovascular status and make timely interventions if needed.

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  • 39. 

    Things that lower BP are:

    • A.

      Narcotics

    • B.

      Bensodiazepines

    • C.

      Increased heart rate

    • D.

      Low fluid volume

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Narcotics
    C. Increased heart rate
    D. Low fluid volume
    Explanation
    The given answer is correct because narcotics can lower blood pressure by causing relaxation of blood vessels and decreasing heart rate. Increased heart rate can also lower blood pressure by reducing the amount of time the heart has to fill with blood, leading to decreased cardiac output. Low fluid volume can lower blood pressure because it reduces the amount of blood available to be pumped by the heart, resulting in decreased blood pressure.

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  • 40. 

    How often should a post op patient have their temp taken at minimum?

    • A.

      Every 15 minutes

    • B.

      Every hour

    • C.

      Every two hours

    • D.

      Every four hours

    Correct Answer
    D. Every four hours
    Explanation
    After a patient undergoes surgery, it is important to monitor their temperature to check for any signs of infection or complications. However, taking the patient's temperature too frequently can be unnecessary and intrusive. Checking the temperature every four hours provides a reasonable balance between monitoring the patient's condition and allowing them to rest and recover. This interval allows enough time to pass for any significant changes in temperature to be detected, while also minimizing disruptions to the patient's rest and recovery.

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  • 41. 

    24-48 hours after a surgery, a pt can have a higher temp due to:

    • A.

      Infection

    • B.

      Inflammatory response

    • C.

      Lungs

    • D.

      Reactivated metabolism

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Inflammatory response
    C. Lungs
    Explanation
    After a surgery, a patient may experience a higher temperature 24-48 hours later due to the inflammatory response and the lungs. The surgical procedure can cause inflammation in the body as a natural defense mechanism, leading to an increase in body temperature. Additionally, the lungs may be affected during surgery, leading to respiratory changes and potentially causing a rise in body temperature.

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  • 42. 

    If a pt has a high temp 72 hours after a surgery, what is the likely cause?

    • A.

      Inflammation

    • B.

      Increased drainage

    • C.

      Infection

    • D.

      Normal surgery response.

    Correct Answer
    C. Infection
    Explanation
    A high temperature 72 hours after surgery is likely caused by an infection. Infections can occur after surgery due to the introduction of bacteria into the body during the procedure. The body's immune response to the infection leads to inflammation, which can manifest as a fever. Increased drainage may also be a sign of infection, but it is not the most likely cause in this scenario. A normal surgery response would not typically result in a high temperature after 72 hours.

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  • 43. 

    A nurse understands GI assessment when the nurse describes the position as:

    • A.

      Prone

    • B.

      Supine

    • C.

      Semi Fowlers

    • D.

      Jack Knife

    Correct Answer
    C. Semi Fowlers
    Explanation
    The position described as "Semi Fowlers" refers to a patient lying on their back with the head of the bed elevated at a 30-45 degree angle. This position is commonly used in gastrointestinal assessment as it allows for optimal visualization and examination of the abdomen. It helps to promote digestion, reduce reflux, and prevent aspiration. Additionally, it provides comfort to the patient and facilitates breathing.

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  • 44. 

    Increased age, dehydration, and the use of NSAIDS increase the risk of:

    • A.

      Renal failure

    • B.

      Liver failure

    • C.

      Hypotension

    • D.

      Hypertension

    Correct Answer
    A. Renal failure
    Explanation
    Increased age, dehydration, and the use of NSAIDs can increase the risk of renal failure. Renal failure refers to the loss of kidney function, which can occur due to various factors. Aging can lead to a decline in kidney function over time, making older individuals more susceptible to renal failure. Dehydration can impair kidney function by reducing blood flow to the kidneys and concentrating toxins in the body. NSAIDs, commonly used for pain relief, can cause kidney damage and impair renal function, especially when used for prolonged periods or in high doses. Therefore, these factors can increase the likelihood of developing renal failure.

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  • 45. 

    Septicemia can be classified when the pt exhibits what signs?

    • A.

      Intermittent fever

    • B.

      Vomiting

    • C.

      Chills

    • D.

      Diaphoresis

    • E.

      A,C,D

    Correct Answer
    E. A,C,D
    Explanation
    Septicemia can be classified when the patient exhibits intermittent fever, chills, and diaphoresis. These signs are commonly associated with septicemia, which is a serious bloodstream infection caused by bacteria. Intermittent fever refers to a recurring fever pattern, while chills and diaphoresis are often seen as the body's response to the infection. Vomiting is not typically associated with septicemia, so it is not included in the signs for classification. Therefore, the correct answer is A,C,D.

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  • 46. 

    The neonate pt may:

    • A.

      Have a hard time regulating temp

    • B.

      Have higher blood volume

    • C.

      Have lower blood volume

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Have a hard time regulating temp
    C. Have lower blood volume
    Explanation
    Neonate refers to a newborn baby, typically within the first 28 days of life. Neonates have a hard time regulating their body temperature because their thermoregulatory mechanisms are not fully developed. They are more susceptible to hypothermia or hyperthermia. Additionally, neonates have lower blood volume compared to older individuals. This is because their blood volume is proportionally smaller in relation to their body weight.

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  • 47. 

    It is important that pediatric pt's have the ability to:

    • A.

      Only eat when hungry

    • B.

      Chose the type of band aids used

    • C.

      Have as much ice cream as they want.

    • D.

      Run around the hospital as soon as possible.

    Correct Answer
    B. Chose the type of band aids used
    Explanation
    It is important for pediatric patients to have the ability to choose the type of band aids used. This allows them to have a sense of control and involvement in their own healthcare, which can help alleviate anxiety and make the experience more comfortable for them. Giving them the choice also allows healthcare providers to cater to their individual preferences and needs, promoting a positive and collaborative relationship between the patient and the healthcare team.

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  • 48. 

    For the pediatric pt, it is most helpful for pain management to:

    • A.

      Give meds PO

    • B.

      Use different scales to measure pain

    • C.

      Use IV

    • D.

      Reduce pain scale by 3 as pediatric pt's have no pain reference.

    Correct Answer
    C. Use IV
    Explanation
    Using intravenous (IV) administration for pain management in pediatric patients is most helpful because it allows for faster and more precise delivery of medications. IV administration ensures that the medication reaches the bloodstream directly, resulting in quicker onset of pain relief. This is especially important in pediatric patients who may have difficulty swallowing or absorbing oral medications. Additionally, IV administration allows for dose adjustments and titration, ensuring that the pain is adequately managed.

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  • 49. 

    In the obese pt, which system could be the most vulnerable?

    • A.

      Cardiac

    • B.

      Respiratory

    • C.

      Integumentary

    • D.

      Renal

    Correct Answer
    B. Respiratory
    Explanation
    In obese patients, the respiratory system could be the most vulnerable. Obesity can lead to an increase in body weight and fat deposition, which can put additional pressure on the lungs and diaphragm. This can result in decreased lung capacity and impaired breathing, making the respiratory system more susceptible to complications such as shortness of breath, sleep apnea, and respiratory infections. Additionally, obesity is associated with inflammation and changes in the airway structure, further compromising respiratory function. Therefore, the respiratory system is at a higher risk in obese individuals.

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  • 50. 

    A separation of surgical wound is called:

    • A.

      Dehiscence

    • B.

      Red Flower

    • C.

      Purge

    • D.

      Disrupted wound

    Correct Answer
    A. Dehiscence
    Explanation
    Dehiscence refers to the separation or opening of a surgical wound. It occurs when the edges of the wound fail to heal properly and separate, leading to a gap or rupture in the incision site. This can be caused by various factors such as infection, poor wound closure, or excessive tension on the wound. Dehiscence can be a serious complication and may require immediate medical attention to prevent further complications such as infection or organ exposure.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jul 02, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 30, 2008
    Quiz Created by
    Rossj
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