Introductory Quiz To Neurodiagnostics

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Introductory Quiz To Neurodiagnostics - Quiz

Neurodiagnostics is the allied health care profession that records, monitors, and analyzes nervous system functions to promote the effective treatment of pathologic conditions. Want to learn more? Well, here is a quiz that will help you learn the most basic things you have to know. Take this quiz to get a proper introduction to Neurodiagnostics.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The state of being free from germs:

    • A.

      Infection Control

    • B.

      Virulence

    • C.

      Incubation

    • D.

      Asepsis

    Correct Answer
    D. Asepsis
    Explanation
    Asepsis refers to the state of being free from germs. It involves the practices and techniques used to prevent the spread of infection and maintain a sterile environment. This can include measures such as hand hygiene, sterilization of equipment, and proper cleaning of surfaces. By practicing asepsis, healthcare professionals can minimize the risk of infections and promote patient safety.

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  • 2. 

    Illnesses acquired or transmitted within a health care facility including: hospitals, outpatient clinics and laboratories, doctor offices, dental clinics, and nursing homes:

    • A.

      Pathogen

    • B.

      Nosocomial Infection

    • C.

      Health care- associated infections

    • D.

      Communicable disease

    Correct Answer
    C. Health care- associated infections
    Explanation
    Health care-associated infections refer to illnesses that are acquired or transmitted within a health care facility, such as hospitals, clinics, and nursing homes. These infections are specifically related to the delivery of health care services and can be caused by various pathogens. Unlike communicable diseases, which can be transmitted from person to person in any setting, health care-associated infections are specific to health care facilities. Therefore, the correct answer is "Health care-associated infections."

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  • 3. 

    A microorganisms capable of causing disease:

    • A.

      Virulence

    • B.

      Incubation

    • C.

      Pathogen

    • D.

      Susceptible

    Correct Answer
    C. Pathogen
    Explanation
    A pathogen is a microorganism that has the ability to cause disease. It can infect a host organism and disrupt its normal physiological functions, leading to the development of various symptoms and illnesses. Pathogens can include bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. They are able to invade and multiply within the host, causing damage to tissues and organs. Understanding the nature and characteristics of pathogens is crucial in the field of medicine to develop effective treatments and preventive measures against infectious diseases.

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  • 4. 

    Which is the correct order for tracing the chain of infection?

    • A.

      Infectious agent, Portal of exit, Reservoir, Modes of transmission, Portal of entry, Host

    • B.

      Infectious agent, Reservoir, Portal of entry, Modes of transmission, Portal of exit, Host

    • C.

      Reservoir, Infectious agent, Portal of exit, Modes of transmission, Portal of entry, Host

    • D.

      Infectious agent, Reservoir, Portal of exit, Modes of transmission, Portal of entry, Host

    Correct Answer
    D. Infectious agent, Reservoir, Portal of exit, Modes of transmission, Portal of entry, Host
    Explanation
    The correct order for tracing the chain of infection is as follows: Infectious agent, Reservoir, Portal of exit, Modes of transmission, Portal of entry, Host. This order is logical and follows the sequence of events in the transmission of an infectious disease. The infectious agent is the pathogen responsible for causing the disease, which then resides in a reservoir. The pathogen then exits the reservoir through a portal of exit, such as bodily fluids or respiratory droplets. It is then transmitted to a new host through various modes of transmission, such as direct contact or airborne transmission. Finally, the pathogen enters the new host through a portal of entry, such as mucous membranes or broken skin.

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  • 5. 

    The following are examples of contact based routes of transmission:

    • A.

      Direct

    • B.

      Talking

    • C.

      Indirect

    • D.

      Dust

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Direct
    C. Indirect
    Explanation
    Direct and indirect contact are both examples of contact-based routes of transmission. Direct contact refers to the transmission of pathogens through physical contact between individuals, such as touching, kissing, or sexual intercourse. Indirect contact, on the other hand, involves the transmission of pathogens through intermediate objects or surfaces, such as touching contaminated surfaces or sharing contaminated objects. Therefore, both direct and indirect contact can contribute to the spread of infectious diseases.

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  • 6. 

    The following are droplet based routes of transmission:

    • A.

      Aerosol particles

    • B.

      Sneezing

    • C.

      Talking

    • D.

      Coughing

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Sneezing
    C. Talking
    D. Coughing
    Explanation
    This answer is correct because sneezing, talking, and coughing are all activities that can release respiratory droplets into the air. These droplets can contain infectious particles, such as viruses or bacteria, and can be inhaled by others, leading to the transmission of diseases. Sneezing, talking, and coughing generate different sizes of droplets, with coughing typically producing larger droplets and talking producing smaller droplets. Therefore, these activities can play a significant role in the spread of respiratory infections.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following are airborne based routes of transmission:

    • A.

      Sneezing

    • B.

      Dust

    • C.

      Food

    • D.

      Dissemination of particles

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Dust
    D. Dissemination of particles
    Explanation
    Airborne transmission refers to the spread of infectious agents through the air. Dust and dissemination of particles can both contribute to airborne transmission. Dust particles can carry pathogens and be released into the air when disturbed, allowing them to be inhaled by others. Similarly, dissemination of particles, such as respiratory droplets or aerosols, can contain infectious agents and be released into the air through activities like coughing or talking. Therefore, both dust and dissemination of particles are considered airborne based routes of transmission.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following are not vectors?

    • A.

      Insects

    • B.

      Water

    • C.

      Mammals

    • D.

      Food

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Water
    D. Food
    Explanation
    Water and food are not vectors because they do not have magnitude and direction. Insects and mammals, on the other hand, are vectors because they have both magnitude (size or quantity) and direction (movement or orientation).

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  • 9. 

    Used for non- critical items that have contact with intact skin:

    • A.

      Intermediate- Level Disinfection

    • B.

      Low- Level Disinfection

    • C.

      High- Level Disinfection

    • D.

      Sterilization

    Correct Answer
    B. Low- Level Disinfection
    Explanation
    Low-level disinfection is used for non-critical items that have contact with intact skin. This level of disinfection is effective against most bacteria, some viruses, and fungi, but not necessarily against bacterial spores. It is suitable for items that do not come into contact with mucous membranes or non-intact skin. Low-level disinfection involves the use of disinfectants such as alcohol or phenolics to eliminate or reduce the number of microorganisms on the surface of the item.

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  • 10. 

    Used for semi-critical items that contact mucous membranes or non- intact skin:

    • A.

      Intermediate- Level Disinfection

    • B.

      Low-Level Disinfection

    • C.

      High- Level Disinfection

    • D.

      Sterilization

    Correct Answer
    C. High- Level Disinfection
    Explanation
    High-Level Disinfection is the correct answer because it is used for semi-critical items that come into contact with mucous membranes or non-intact skin. High-Level Disinfection kills most microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi, but it may not eliminate all bacterial spores. This level of disinfection is typically achieved by using chemical disinfectants or physical methods such as heat or radiation. It is an important process in healthcare settings to prevent the transmission of infections.

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  • 11. 

    Appropriate for some semi critical items:

    • A.

      Low- Level Disinfection

    • B.

      High- Level Disinfection

    • C.

      Intermediate- Level Disinfection

    • D.

      Sterilization

    Correct Answer
    C. Intermediate- Level Disinfection
    Explanation
    Intermediate-Level Disinfection is appropriate for some semi-critical items because it is a process that eliminates most pathogenic microorganisms, but not necessarily all forms of microbial life. It is suitable for items that come into contact with intact skin but not mucous membranes or non-intact skin. This level of disinfection is achieved by using chemical disinfectants that have a broad-spectrum activity against bacteria, viruses, and fungi. It is a less rigorous process compared to high-level disinfection or sterilization, making it suitable for items that do not require complete elimination of all microorganisms.

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  • 12. 

    Destruction of microorganisms including bacterial spores:

    • A.

      Pasteurization

    • B.

      Sterilization

    • C.

      Immersion

    • D.

      High- Level Disinfection

    Correct Answer
    B. Sterilization
    Explanation
    Sterilization is the correct answer because it is the process of completely destroying or eliminating all forms of microorganisms, including bacterial spores. This is achieved through various methods such as heat, chemicals, or radiation. Unlike pasteurization, which only kills most bacteria and some viruses, sterilization ensures the complete eradication of all microorganisms, making it the most effective method for preventing the spread of infections and diseases. Immersion and high-level disinfection are not as thorough as sterilization and may not eliminate bacterial spores.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following are methods of High- Level Disinfection?

    • A.

      Pasteurization

    • B.

      Immersion

    • C.

      Sterilization

    • D.

      Sodium Hypochlorite

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Pasteurization
    B. Immersion
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Pasteurization and Immersion. Pasteurization is a method of high-level disinfection that involves heating a substance to a specific temperature to kill or inactivate microorganisms. Immersion refers to the process of submerging an object in a disinfectant solution to kill or inactivate microorganisms. Sterilization, on the other hand, is a more intense method that eliminates all forms of microbial life, including bacteria, viruses, and spores. Sodium Hypochlorite is a disinfectant commonly used for low-level disinfection, but not considered a method of high-level disinfection.

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  • 14. 

    Which method of disinfection inactivates M. Tuberculosis, vegetative bacteria, most viruses and fungi but not bacterial spores?

    • A.

      High-Level Disinfection

    • B.

      Intermediate-Level Disinfection

    • C.

      Low-Level Disinfection

    • D.

      Sterilization

    Correct Answer
    B. Intermediate-Level Disinfection
    Explanation
    Intermediate-Level Disinfection is the correct answer because it is a method of disinfection that is effective against M. Tuberculosis, vegetative bacteria, most viruses, and fungi. However, it is not effective against bacterial spores, which require sterilization to be completely eliminated. High-Level Disinfection is a more advanced method that is effective against all microorganisms except for high numbers of bacterial spores. Sterilization is the most effective method as it eliminates all forms of microbial life, including spores. Low-Level Disinfection is the least effective method, as it only eliminates some bacteria and viruses.

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  • 15. 

    Which disinfection method destroys all microorganisms except bacterial spores?

    • A.

      Low-level Disinfection

    • B.

      Intermediate-Level Disinfection

    • C.

      High-Level Disinfection

    • D.

      Sterilization

    Correct Answer
    C. High-Level Disinfection
    Explanation
    High-Level Disinfection is the correct answer because it is a method that can destroy all microorganisms except bacterial spores. This method involves the use of chemical agents or physical processes to eliminate a wide range of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and some bacterial spores. It is commonly used for medical equipment and instruments that come into contact with non-intact skin or mucous membranes, but it does not achieve the same level of microbial kill as sterilization, which eliminates all forms of microbial life, including bacterial spores.

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  • 16. 

    Which disinfection method destroys microorganisms including bacterial spores?

    • A.

      Low-level Disinfection

    • B.

      Intermediate-Level Disinfection

    • C.

      High-Level Disinfection

    • D.

      Sterilization

    Correct Answer
    D. Sterilization
    Explanation
    Sterilization is the correct answer because it is the only disinfection method that destroys all forms of microorganisms, including bacterial spores. Low-level disinfection only eliminates some bacteria and viruses, while intermediate-level disinfection kills most bacteria, viruses, and fungi, but may not eliminate bacterial spores. High-level disinfection is effective against most microorganisms, but it may not destroy bacterial spores. Sterilization, on the other hand, ensures the complete destruction or elimination of all forms of microbial life, including bacterial spores.

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  • 17. 

    Type of precaution used for patients suspected to be infected with Measles:

    • A.

      Isolation 

    • B.

      Droplet 

    • C.

      Airborne 

    • D.

      Contact 

    Correct Answer
    C. Airborne 
    Explanation
    Airborne precautions are used for patients suspected to be infected with Measles. Measles is highly contagious and can spread through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Airborne precautions involve the use of a special mask called an N95 respirator to filter out small airborne particles. This type of precaution is necessary to prevent the transmission of the virus to healthcare workers and other patients. Isolation precautions may also be used, but the specific type of precaution for measles is airborne.

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  • 18. 

    Type of precaution used for patients suspected to be infected with Mumps:

    • A.

      Isolation

    • B.

      Airborne

    • C.

      Droplet

    • D.

      Contact

    Correct Answer
    C. Droplet
    Explanation
    Droplet precaution is the type of precaution used for patients suspected to be infected with Mumps. Mumps is primarily transmitted through respiratory droplets, such as when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Droplet precautions involve wearing a mask and maintaining a distance of at least three feet from the patient. This helps to prevent the spread of the virus through large respiratory droplets. Isolation precaution is used for patients with highly contagious diseases, airborne precaution is used for diseases spread through small particles in the air, and contact precaution is used for diseases transmitted through direct contact with the patient or contaminated surfaces.

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  • 19. 

    Type of precaution used for patient suspected to be infected with impetigo:

    • A.

      Isolation

    • B.

      Airborne

    • C.

      Droplet

    • D.

      Contact

    Correct Answer
    D. Contact
    Explanation
    Contact precautions are used for patients suspected to be infected with impetigo. Impetigo is a highly contagious skin infection that is primarily spread through direct contact with the infected person or their personal items. Contact precautions involve wearing gloves and gowns when entering the patient's room, as well as proper hand hygiene practices. This helps to prevent the transmission of the infection to healthcare workers and other patients. Airborne and droplet precautions are not necessary for impetigo, as the infection is not spread through the air or respiratory droplets.

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  • 20. 

    Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) is not resistant to usual sterilization and disinfection techniques.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    CJD is a rare, degenerative brain disorder caused by abnormal proteins called prions. It is extremely difficult to sterilize or eliminate prions, as they are highly resistant to traditional sterilization and disinfection techniques. Therefore, the given statement is false. CJD is indeed resistant to usual sterilization and disinfection techniques.

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  • 21. 

    CJD is transmitted via corneal transplants, cadaveric brain contact or contact with CSF. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    CJD, or Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, can indeed be transmitted through corneal transplants, contact with cadaveric brain tissue, or contact with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). This means that if someone receives a corneal transplant from an infected donor, comes into contact with infected brain tissue, or has contact with infected CSF, they can potentially contract CJD. Therefore, the statement "CJD is transmitted via corneal transplants, cadaveric brain contact or contact with CSF" is true.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following forms of viral hepatitis involve enteric precautions? 

    • A.

      Type A

    • B.

      Type B

    • C.

      Type non-A,B

    • D.

      Type C

    Correct Answer
    A. Type A
    Explanation
    Type A viral hepatitis involves enteric precautions because it is primarily transmitted through the fecal-oral route, typically from contaminated food or water. Enteric precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the virus through contact with feces or contaminated surfaces. Type B and Type C viral hepatitis are primarily transmitted through blood and bodily fluids, so enteric precautions are not required for these types. Type non-A, B viral hepatitis refers to any other type of viral hepatitis that is not caused by the Hepatitis A or Hepatitis B viruses, so the specific precautions would depend on the mode of transmission for that particular type.

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  • 23. 

    Which form of precautions would be implemented when a patient is suspected of having AIDS?

    • A.

      Standard

    • B.

      Isolation

    • C.

      Contact

    • D.

      Airborne

    Correct Answer
    B. Isolation
    Explanation
    When a patient is suspected of having AIDS, isolation precautions would be implemented. This is because AIDS is a highly contagious disease that can be transmitted through bodily fluids. Isolation precautions involve placing the patient in a separate room and using personal protective equipment, such as gloves and masks, to prevent the spread of the disease to healthcare workers and other patients. This helps to minimize the risk of transmission and protect the health and safety of everyone involved.

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  • 24. 

    Needle electrodes, Indwelling electrodes, and sphenoidal electrodes are examples of equipment that require which kind of disinfection? 

    • A.

      High to intermediate level

    • B.

      Low level 

    • C.

      Sterilization

    • D.

      Medium level

    Correct Answer
    C. Sterilization
    Explanation
    Needle electrodes, indwelling electrodes, and sphenoidal electrodes are invasive medical equipment that come into direct contact with the body. Therefore, they require sterilization, which is the highest level of disinfection. Sterilization ensures the complete elimination of all microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi, from the equipment, reducing the risk of infections and cross-contamination. This process typically involves using heat, chemicals, or a combination of both to achieve a high level of microbial kill.

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  • 25. 

    Hair clips, Marking pencils, Surface electrodes are examples of equipment that require which kind of disinfection? 

    • A.

      Sterilization

    • B.

      Low level 

    • C.

      High to intermediate 

    • D.

      Medium level

    Correct Answer
    B. Low level 
    Explanation
    Hair clips, marking pencils, and surface electrodes are examples of equipment that come into contact with intact skin and do not penetrate the skin. These types of equipment require low-level disinfection. Low-level disinfection is the process of killing most vegetative bacteria, some fungi, and some viruses. It is suitable for noncritical items that come into contact with intact skin but do not penetrate it.

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  • 26. 

    Opposition to alternating current flow measured after an electrode has been applied to the recording site to evaluate the contact between electrode & scale:

    • A.

      Electrode current

    • B.

      Electrode feedback

    • C.

      Electrode impedance

    • D.

      Electrode placement

    Correct Answer
    C. Electrode impedance
    Explanation
    Electrode impedance refers to the opposition encountered by an alternating current flow after an electrode has been applied to the recording site to assess the contact between the electrode and the scale. Impedance is a measure of the resistance to the flow of alternating current, and in this context, it indicates how well the electrode is making contact with the recording site. A higher impedance value suggests poor contact, while a lower impedance value indicates better contact between the electrode and the scale.

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  • 27. 

    The right side of the head is identifiable with odd numbered electrode positions. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The explanation for the answer "False" is that electrode positions on the head are not consistently associated with odd or even numbers. The numbering system for electrode positions is based on the international 10-20 system, which assigns a letter and a number to each position on the scalp. The numbering does not follow a pattern of odd or even numbers on one side of the head. Therefore, the statement that the right side of the head is identifiable with odd numbered electrode positions is incorrect.

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  • 28. 

    The I10-10 system replaced T3/ T4and T5/T6 with which nomenclature paring? 

    • A.

      P7/P8 & T7/T8

    • B.

      T7/T8 & P7/P8

    • C.

      T7/T9 & P5/ P6

    • D.

      P5/P6 & T7/T9

    Correct Answer
    B. T7/T8 & P7/P8
    Explanation
    The I10-10 system replaced T3/T4 and T5/T6 with the nomenclature pairing of T7/T8 and P7/P8.

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  • 29. 

    Acts of aggression may be more common when dealing with developmentally delayed patients. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    This statement suggests that acts of aggression are more likely to occur when interacting with individuals who have developmental delays. This could be due to various factors such as communication difficulties, frustration, or a lack of understanding on the part of the patient. It is important to approach these situations with patience, empathy, and appropriate strategies to prevent or de-escalate aggressive behavior.

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  • 30. 

    All of the following comprise the cardinal rules for patient interaction except? 

    • A.

      Tact

    • B.

      Patience

    • C.

      Compassion

    • D.

      Pleasantness

    Correct Answer
    C. Compassion
    Explanation
    The cardinal rules for patient interaction include tact, patience, and pleasantness. These qualities are essential for healthcare professionals to effectively communicate and provide care to patients. Compassion, on the other hand, is not mentioned as one of the cardinal rules. However, it is still an important quality to have in patient interaction as it demonstrates empathy and understanding towards patients' emotions and needs. Despite not being listed as a cardinal rule, compassion is still highly valued in healthcare settings.

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  • 31. 

    A patient has a measurement of 5cm from F7 to F3, what would be the distance from F7 to F8?

    • A.

      20cm

    • B.

      22cm

    • C.

      25cm

    • D.

      15cm

    Correct Answer
    A. 20cm
    Explanation
    Based on the information given, the distance from F7 to F8 cannot be accurately determined. The measurement provided is only from F7 to F3, which does not provide enough information to calculate the distance from F7 to F8. Therefore, the correct answer cannot be determined based on the given information.

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  • 32. 

    Which electrode position is located immediately posterior to F3?

    • A.

      C4

    • B.

      F7

    • C.

      C3

    • D.

      T5

    Correct Answer
    C. C3
    Explanation
    C3 is the electrode position located immediately posterior to F3. In the 10-20 system, F3 is located on the left frontal lobe, and moving posteriorly, C3 is the next electrode position on the left central lobe. Therefore, C3 is the correct answer as it is the electrode position immediately posterior to F3.

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  • 33. 

    The nomenclature Cz refers to? 

    • A.

      Frontal

    • B.

      Central

    • C.

      Vertex

    • D.

      Mid-Parietal

    Correct Answer
    C. Vertex
    Explanation
    The nomenclature Cz refers to the vertex. The vertex is a specific location on the scalp, which is located at the top of the head. It is an important electrode site used in electroencephalography (EEG) to measure brain activity. The Cz electrode is placed at the vertex to record electrical signals from the brain's central region. This location is commonly used as a reference point in EEG studies and is essential for accurate interpretation of brainwave patterns.

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  • 34. 

    The T1 & T2 electrodes are placed in which anatomical position?

    • A.

      2 cm above 1/3rd the distance from the external auditory meatus to the outer canthus of the eye

    • B.

      1 cm above 1/3rd the distance from the external auditory meatus to the outer canthus of the eye

    • C.

      1 cm above 1/4th the distance from the external auditory meatus of the outer canthus of the eye

    • D.

      2 cm above 1/4th the distance from the external auditory meatus of the outer canthus of the eye

    Correct Answer
    B. 1 cm above 1/3rd the distance from the external auditory meatus to the outer canthus of the eye
    Explanation
    The T1 & T2 electrodes are placed 1 cm above 1/3rd the distance from the external auditory meatus to the outer canthus of the eye.

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  • 35. 

    This type of electrode is uses in recordings for patients to detect temporal and frontal discharges:

    • A.

      Subdermal

    • B.

      Nasopharyngeal

    • C.

      Sphenoidal needle

    • D.

      Clip-on

    Correct Answer
    B. Nasopharyngeal
    Explanation
    The nasopharyngeal electrode is used in recordings for patients to detect temporal and frontal discharges. This electrode is inserted through the nose and placed in the nasopharynx, which is the upper part of the throat behind the nose. It allows for accurate and reliable recording of electrical activity in the brain, specifically in the temporal and frontal regions. The electrode's placement in the nasopharynx ensures close proximity to these areas, allowing for precise detection of any abnormal discharges or activity.

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  • 36. 

    This type of electrode must always be inserted by a physician and is used to record discharges from the anterior tip of the temporal lobe:

    • A.

      Subdermal

    • B.

      Nasopharyngeal

    • C.

      Sphenoidal needle

    • D.

      Clip-on

    Correct Answer
    C. Sphenoidal needle
    Explanation
    A sphenoidal needle electrode is used to record discharges from the anterior tip of the temporal lobe. This electrode is inserted by a physician and is specifically designed for this purpose. It is a specialized tool that allows for precise recording of electrical activity in the temporal lobe, which is important for diagnosing and treating certain neurological conditions. Other electrode types mentioned in the options do not serve the same purpose and are not suitable for recording discharges from the anterior tip of the temporal lobe.

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  • 37. 

    Which type of electrode is best used on a coma/ unconscious patients?

    • A.

      Subdermal

    • B.

      Metal disc and metal cup

    • C.

      Clip-on

    • D.

      Needle deep

    Correct Answer
    A. Subdermal
    Explanation
    The best type of electrode to use on a coma/unconscious patient is a subdermal electrode. This type of electrode is designed to be placed under the skin, allowing for accurate and reliable measurement of electrical activity in the body. Subdermal electrodes are commonly used in medical settings for various diagnostic procedures, including monitoring brain activity in unconscious patients. They provide a secure and stable connection, ensuring accurate readings without causing discomfort or interfering with the patient's condition.

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  • 38. 

    This type of electrode is made of chloride silver most often and is attached to the scalp by some sort of adhesive:

    • A.

      Clip-on

    • B.

      Metal disc and metal cup

    • C.

      Subdermal

    • D.

      Nasopharyngeal

    Correct Answer
    B. Metal disc and metal cup
    Explanation
    Metal disc and metal cup electrodes are commonly used in electroencephalography (EEG) to measure electrical activity in the brain. These electrodes are made of silver chloride, which is a good conductor of electricity. They are attached to the scalp using adhesive to ensure a secure and stable connection. The metal disc electrode is placed on the scalp, while the metal cup electrode is filled with conductive gel and acts as a reference point. Together, they provide accurate and reliable measurements of brain activity during EEG recordings.

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  • 39. 

    This type of electrode is used for recordings from the earlobes:

    • A.

      Clip-on

    • B.

      Metal disc and metal cup

    • C.

      Sphenoidal needle

    • D.

      Nasopharyngeal

    Correct Answer
    A. Clip-on
    Explanation
    A clip-on electrode is a type of electrode that can be easily attached to the earlobe. It is designed to be clipped onto the earlobe, providing a convenient and secure connection for recording electrical activity. This type of electrode is commonly used in various medical and research settings for monitoring and recording brain activity, such as in electroencephalography (EEG) studies. It is a non-invasive and comfortable option for obtaining accurate recordings from the earlobes.

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  • 40. 

    During the paste method of electrode application scrubbing too vigorously may result in a ______ causing waveforms to become unreadable.

    • A.

      Ion bridge

    • B.

      Chloride bridge

    • C.

      Salt bridge

    • D.

      Metal bridge

    Correct Answer
    C. Salt bridge
    Explanation
    Scrubbing too vigorously during the paste method of electrode application can result in a salt bridge. This can cause the waveforms to become unreadable. A salt bridge is a pathway for ions to move between two solutions, and it is typically used to maintain electrical neutrality in a system. However, if the salt bridge is disrupted or damaged due to vigorous scrubbing, it can interfere with the proper transmission of electrical signals, leading to unreadable waveforms.

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  • 41. 

    This substance has a high resistance to moisture and is used for EEG testing over several days:

    • A.

      Paste

    • B.

      Acetone

    • C.

      Collodion

    • D.

      Glue

    Correct Answer
    C. Collodion
    Explanation
    Collodion is a substance that has a high resistance to moisture, making it suitable for EEG testing over several days. Collodion forms a flexible film when it dries, which helps to protect the electrodes and maintain their position on the scalp. Its moisture resistance ensures that the electrodes remain in place even when the patient sweats or comes into contact with water. Acetone, paste, and glue do not possess the same moisture-resistant properties as collodion, making them less suitable for prolonged EEG testing.

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  • 42. 

    This type of electrode is placed in the sternal area and the lateral chest location:

    • A.

      Subdural

    • B.

      Electrocardiogram

    • C.

      Electro-oculogram

    • D.

      Nasopharyngeal

    Correct Answer
    B. Electrocardiogram
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Electrocardiogram. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is a test that measures the electrical activity of the heart. Electrodes are placed on specific areas of the body to record the electrical signals produced by the heart. In this case, the electrodes are placed in the sternal area (on the sternum) and the lateral chest location (on the sides of the chest). This placement allows for accurate recording of the heart's electrical activity and helps in diagnosing various heart conditions.

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  • 43. 

    This type of electrode records directly from the brain during neurosurgical procedures, monitors epileptiform discharges:

    • A.

      Subdural

    • B.

      Depth

    • C.

      Cortical

    • D.

      Epidural

    Correct Answer
    C. Cortical
    Explanation
    Cortical electrodes are used to directly record brain activity during neurosurgical procedures. They are placed on the surface of the brain, allowing for precise monitoring of epileptiform discharges. These electrodes are particularly useful in identifying abnormal brain activity associated with epilepsy and can help guide surgical interventions for patients with epilepsy.

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  • 44. 

    This type of electrode is designed for introduction directly into the substance of the brain by a Neurosurgeon, has an excellent signal to noise ratio:

    • A.

      Subdural

    • B.

      Depth

    • C.

      Cortical

    • D.

      Epidural

    Correct Answer
    B. Depth
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Depth." Depth electrodes are specifically designed to be inserted directly into the brain tissue by a neurosurgeon. They are used to record electrical activity deep within the brain and have been found to provide an excellent signal-to-noise ratio, meaning they can accurately detect and measure brain signals with minimal interference or background noise.

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  • 45. 

    This type of electrode is placed through a burr hole:

    • A.

      Subdural

    • B.

      Cortical

    • C.

      Epidural

    • D.

      Depth

    Correct Answer
    C. Epidural
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Epidural. An epidural electrode is placed through a burr hole. This type of electrode is used for monitoring brain activity and delivering electrical stimulation to specific areas of the brain. It is commonly used in neurosurgery procedures to treat conditions such as epilepsy and Parkinson's disease. The electrode is placed in the epidural space, which is the area between the skull and the dura mater, the outermost layer of the brain's protective covering.

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  • 46. 

    This type of electrode is used to localize seizure foci in relation to important functional areas of the brain:

    • A.

      Epidural

    • B.

      Subdural

    • C.

      Depth

    • D.

      Cortical

    Correct Answer
    B. Subdural
    Explanation
    Subdural electrodes are used to localize seizure foci in relation to important functional areas of the brain. These electrodes are placed between the dura mater and the brain surface, allowing for precise mapping of brain activity. By placing subdural electrodes in specific areas of the brain, healthcare professionals can identify the exact location of seizure activity and determine its relationship to important functional areas. This information is crucial for planning surgical interventions and minimizing the risk of damage to critical brain regions.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following is not a label for a container holding collodion and acetone:

    • A.

      First Aid

    • B.

      Storage Instructions

    • C.

      Flammability

    • D.

      Date Shipped

    • E.

      Date Purchased

    • F.

      Date Opened

    Correct Answer
    D. Date Shipped
    Explanation
    The question is asking for the label that is not used for a container holding collodion and acetone. Collodion and acetone are flammable substances, so it is important to label the container with a warning about its flammability. First Aid is also an important label to have, as collodion and acetone can be harmful if they come into contact with the skin or eyes. Storage Instructions are necessary to ensure the safe storage of these substances. Date Shipped, Date Purchased, and Date Opened are not specific labels for a container holding collodion and acetone, as they do not provide any safety or usage information.

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  • 48. 

    When checking electrode impedance a strong alternating current passes from electrodes selected through the scalp to all other electrodes. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The explanation is that when checking electrode impedance, a weak alternating current is passed through the electrodes, not a strong one. A strong current could potentially cause discomfort or harm to the individual.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following is not a specific condition that requires electrode replacement?

    • A.

      Scars

    • B.

      Burr holes

    • C.

      Bandages, Sutures

    • D.

      Sweat

    • E.

      Scalp lesions

    • F.

      Skull deformities 

    Correct Answer
    D. Sweat
    Explanation
    Sweat is not a specific condition that requires electrode replacement. While scars, burr holes, bandages, sutures, scalp lesions, and skull deformities may affect the placement or function of electrodes, sweat does not have the same impact. Sweat can be wiped off or managed with additional measures, but it does not typically necessitate electrode replacement.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 14, 2021
    Quiz Created by
    Themes
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