AP Biology MCQ Questions And Answers

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AP Biology MCQ Questions And Answers - Quiz

Hey, are you in search of a good practice set of AP Biology MCQ questions and answers? Why don't you try the following quiz and take advantage of it? AP biology is an advanced placement college-level biology course in the United States. It covers every topic from biology, including Genetics and Heredity, Molecular Biology, Biochemistry, Cell-biology, Anatomy and Physiology, Human Evolution, etc. Are you ready to take a brief idea of each topic now? Play this quiz, then.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What doers the dorsal cavity hold?

    • A.

      Brain

    • B.

      Cranial and vertebral

    • C.

      Diaphram

    • D.

      Spinal Cord

    Correct Answer
    B. Cranial and vertebral
    Explanation
    The dorsal cavity holds the cranial and vertebral structures. The cranial cavity houses the brain, while the vertebral cavity contains the spinal cord. These structures are protected by the bones of the skull and vertebral column, respectively.

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  • 2. 

    Part of the sympathetic nervous system, which arises from cells of the neural crest during embryonic development

    • A.

      Medulla

    • B.

      Adrenal medulla

    • C.

      Midbrain

    • D.

      Parathyroid

    Correct Answer
    B. Adrenal medulla
    Explanation
    The adrenal medulla is part of the sympathetic nervous system and is derived from cells of the neural crest during embryonic development. It is located in the inner region of the adrenal glands and is responsible for producing and releasing hormones such as adrenaline and noradrenaline. These hormones play a crucial role in the body's response to stress and help regulate various physiological processes such as heart rate, blood pressure, and metabolism.

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  • 3. 

    Prepares the body for fight or flight during any potential danger. 

    • A.

      Sympathetic nervous system

    • B.

      Parasympathetic nervous system

    • C.

      ANS

    • D.

      Nervous system

    Correct Answer
    A. Sympathetic nervous system
    Explanation
    The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for preparing the body for fight or flight during any potential danger. It activates the body's stress response, increasing heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration rate, while also redirecting blood flow to the muscles and away from non-essential organs. This response helps the body to be alert and ready to respond to a threat or danger.

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  • 4. 

    Inhibits the body from overworking and restores the body to a calm and composed state

    • A.

      Sympathetic nervous system

    • B.

      Nervous system 

    • C.

      ANS

    • D.

      None of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    • F.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. ANS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Inhibits the body from overworking and restores the body to a calm and composed state". This explanation suggests that the sympathetic nervous system is responsible for regulating the body's response to stress and maintaining a state of balance. It activates the "fight or flight" response in times of danger, but also works to restore the body to a calm state once the threat has passed.

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  • 5. 

    Controls homeostasis and the body at rest and is responsible for rest and digest function

    • A.

      Sympathetic nervous system

    • B.

      Parasympathetic nervous system 

    • C.

      Nervous system

    • D.

      ANS

    Correct Answer
    B. Parasympathetic nervous system 
    Explanation
    The parasympathetic nervous system controls homeostasis and the body at rest, as well as being responsible for the "rest and digest" function. It works in opposition to the sympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for the "fight or flight" response. The parasympathetic nervous system helps to regulate heart rate, digestion, and other bodily functions during periods of rest and relaxation.

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  • 6. 

    Controls the body’s responses to a perceived threat and is responsible for fight or flight

    • A.

      Sympathetic nervous system

    • B.

      Parasympathetic nervous system

    • C.

      Nervous system

    • D.

      ANS

    Correct Answer
    A. Sympathetic nervous system
    Explanation
    The sympathetic nervous system controls the body's responses to a perceived threat and is responsible for the fight or flight response. This system prepares the body for action by increasing heart rate, dilating blood vessels, and releasing stress hormones. It activates when the body senses danger or stress, allowing for quick reactions and heightened physical abilities.

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  • 7. 

    Inverted by only the sympathetic nervous system

    • A.

      Adrenal medulla, sweat glands, digest system

    • B.

      Blood vessels, pilomotor muscles, blood presssure

    • C.

      Blood vessels, pilomotor muscles, sweat glands, adrenal medulla

    • D.

      Muscles, blood vessels, adrenal glands, sweat glands

    Correct Answer
    C. Blood vessels, pilomotor muscles, sweat glands, adrenal medulla
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Blood vessels, pilomotor muscles, sweat glands, adrenal medulla." The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the fight-or-flight response, which involves the release of adrenaline from the adrenal medulla. This response leads to increased blood flow to the muscles, dilation of blood vessels, activation of the sweat glands, and contraction of the pilomotor muscles (causing goosebumps). Therefore, these are the structures that are specifically affected by the sympathetic nervous system.

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  • 8. 

    What uses a set-point to regulate the body’s systems including electrolytes, and fluid balance, blood pressure, body temp and weight

    • A.

      Midbrain

    • B.

      Hypothalmus

    • C.

      Hippocampus

    • D.

      Madulla oblongata 

    Correct Answer
    B. Hypothalmus
    Explanation
    The hypothalamus is responsible for regulating various bodily functions such as electrolyte and fluid balance, blood pressure, body temperature, and weight. It acts as a control center by using a set-point to maintain homeostasis in the body. This means that it constantly monitors the internal environment and makes adjustments to keep the body's systems in balance. The hypothalamus receives signals from other parts of the body and initiates appropriate responses to maintain optimal functioning.

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  • 9. 

    Cell boy and dendrites are in what?

    • A.

      Midbrain

    • B.

      CNS

    • C.

      Autonomic ganglion

    • D.

      Smooth ER

    Correct Answer
    C. Autonomic ganglion
    Explanation
    The correct answer is autonomic ganglion. Cell bodies and dendrites are found in autonomic ganglia, which are clusters of nerve cell bodies outside of the central nervous system (CNS). Autonomic ganglia are part of the autonomic nervous system and play a role in regulating involuntary bodily functions.

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  • 10. 

    What is the background rate of activity for the ANS?

    • A.

      Tone

    • B.

      Pressure

    • C.

      Autonomic tone

    • D.

      Sympathetic tone

    Correct Answer
    C. Autonomic tone
    Explanation
    Autonomic tone refers to the baseline level of activity in the autonomic nervous system (ANS) without any external stimuli. It represents the balance between sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. This baseline activity is necessary for the proper functioning of various physiological processes such as heart rate, blood pressure, digestion, and respiration. Autonomic tone ensures that the body is prepared to respond to any changes in the internal or external environment.

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  • 11. 

    Sympathetic responses generally have widespread effects on the body because?

    • A.

      Parasympathetic tone dominates heart

    • B.

      Preganglionic fibers synapse with several postganblionic fibers

    • C.

      Postganblionic fibers in the parasympathetic system

    • D.

      Option 4

    Correct Answer
    B. Preganglionic fibers synapse with several postganblionic fibers
    Explanation
    Preganglionic fibers synapse with several postganglionic fibers. This means that a single preganglionic neuron can activate multiple postganglionic neurons, leading to a widespread effect on the body. This allows for the sympathetic response to have a broad impact on various organs and tissues simultaneously.

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  • 12. 

    Decreases heart rate and contractility which decreases cardiac output and decreases blood pressure?

    • A.

      Calcitonin

    • B.

      Beta blockers

    • C.

      Ace inhibitors 

    • D.

      Norephinephrine

    Correct Answer
    B. Beta blockers
    Explanation
    Beta blockers are medications that block the effects of adrenaline on the beta receptors in the body. By doing so, they decrease heart rate and contractility, leading to a decrease in cardiac output. This ultimately results in a decrease in blood pressure. Therefore, beta blockers are the correct answer to the given question.

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  • 13. 

    Responsible for vision at low light levels

    • A.

      Cones

    • B.

      Rods

    • C.

      Photo pic vision

    • D.

      Fovea

    Correct Answer
    B. Rods
    Explanation
    Rods are responsible for vision at low light levels. Cones, on the other hand, are responsible for color vision and visual acuity in bright light conditions. Photo pic vision is not a term commonly used in the context of vision, and fovea refers to the central part of the retina that is responsible for sharp central vision. Therefore, the correct answer is Rods.

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  • 14. 

    Active at higher light levels (photopic vision) are capable of color vision and are responsible for high acuity?

    • A.

      Rods

    • B.

      Cones

    • C.

      Fovea

    • D.

      Vision

    Correct Answer
    B. Cones
    Explanation
    Cones are responsible for color vision and high acuity. They are active at higher light levels, known as photopic vision. Unlike rods, which are more sensitive to low light levels and are responsible for scotopic vision, cones allow us to perceive colors and see fine details. The fovea, a small area in the center of the retina, contains a high concentration of cones, making it the region of highest visual acuity. Therefore, cones are the correct answer for this question.

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  • 15. 

    Part of the eye that makes up your eye color?

    • A.

      Pupil

    • B.

      Iris

    • C.

      Retna

    • D.

      Fovea

    Correct Answer
    B. Iris
    Explanation
    The iris is the part of the eye that determines eye color. It is a thin, circular structure that surrounds the pupil and contains pigments that give the eye its color. The iris controls the size of the pupil and regulates the amount of light that enters the eye. It also helps protect the eye from harmful UV radiation. The other options listed (pupil, retina, and fovea) are all important parts of the eye, but they do not directly determine eye color.

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  • 16. 

    Produce secretion called sebum into hair follicles and acts as lubricant for skin and hair

    • A.

      Sweat glands

    • B.

      Ceruminous glandse

    • C.

      Sebaceous glands

    • D.

      Merocrine sweat glands

    Correct Answer
    C. Sebaceous glands
    Explanation
    Sebaceous glands are responsible for producing a secretion called sebum. This sebum is released into hair follicles and acts as a natural lubricant for both the skin and hair. Sebaceous glands are found all over the body, except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. They play an important role in keeping the skin and hair moisturized and protected.

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  • 17. 

    Muscle that has major responsibility for productions a speechifies movement?

    • A.

      Atagonist

    • B.

      Prime mover

    • C.

      Synergistic

    • D.

      Fixator

    Correct Answer
    B. Prime mover
    Explanation
    The muscle that has the major responsibility for producing a specific movement is known as the prime mover. In the context of speech production, the prime mover muscle would be the muscle primarily responsible for generating the movements required for speech, such as the muscles of the tongue, lips, and vocal cords. These muscles work together as the prime movers to produce the precise articulation and phonation needed for speech.

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  • 18. 

    Muscles that oppose or reverse a particular movement?

    • A.

      Antagonists

    • B.

      Prime mover

    • C.

      Synergistic

    • D.

      Fixator

    Correct Answer
    A. Antagonists
    Explanation
    Antagonists are muscles that oppose or reverse a particular movement. They work in opposition to the prime mover, which is responsible for initiating a specific movement. Synergistic muscles work together with the prime mover to enhance the movement, while fixator muscles stabilize the origin of the prime mover to allow for more efficient movement. In this context, the correct answer is "Antagonists" as they directly oppose or reverse the movement initiated by the prime mover.

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  • 19. 

    Help prime movers by adding a little extra. For to the same movement or by reducing unnecessary movements?

    • A.

      Antogonist

    • B.

      Prime mover

    • C.

      Synergistic

    • D.

      Fixator

    Correct Answer
    C. Synergistic
    Explanation
    The term "synergistic" refers to something that works together with another element to enhance or amplify its effect. In the context of the question, it suggests that adding a little extra effort or reducing unnecessary movements can work in harmony with the prime movers, resulting in more efficient and effective movement. It implies that by coordinating and cooperating with the prime movers, the synergistic element can contribute positively to the overall movement.

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  • 20. 

    When synergistic immobilize a bone or muscle origin so that the prime mover has a stable base to act on?

    • A.

      Antagonists

    • B.

      Prime mover

    • C.

      Synergistic

    • D.

      Fixator

    Correct Answer
    D. Fixator
    Explanation
    A fixator is a muscle or group of muscles that immobilizes a bone or muscle origin, providing a stable base for the prime mover to act on. In other words, when synergistic muscles contract to assist the prime mover in its action, the fixator muscles stabilize the origin of the prime mover, allowing it to work more effectively. Therefore, the fixator is the correct answer in this context.

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  • 21. 

    Nerves that transmit impulses from the sensory receptors in skin muscles and joints to CNS?

    • A.

      Afferent

    • B.

      Efferent 

    • C.

      Option 3

    • D.

      Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Afferent
    Explanation
    Afferent nerves are responsible for transmitting impulses from the sensory receptors in the skin, muscles, and joints to the central nervous system (CNS). These nerves carry sensory information such as touch, pain, temperature, and proprioception from the periphery to the brain and spinal cord, allowing us to perceive and respond to our environment. Efferent nerves, on the other hand, transmit impulses from the CNS to the muscles and glands, enabling motor responses. Therefore, the correct answer is Afferent.

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  • 22. 

    Motor nerves carry impulses from the CNS out to their muscles and glands?

    • A.

      Afferent

    • B.

      Efferent

    • C.

      Option 3

    • D.

      Option 4

    Correct Answer
    B. Efferent
    Explanation
    Motor nerves are responsible for carrying impulses from the central nervous system (CNS) to the muscles and glands, allowing for voluntary and involuntary movements and the secretion of hormones. The term "efferent" refers to the flow of information away from the CNS, which aligns with the function of motor nerves. Therefore, the correct answer is "Efferent."

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  • 23. 

    What enforces one-way transmission of nerve implulses and ensures each AP is all-or-nothing?

    • A.

      Afferent nerve

    • B.

      Efferent nerve

    • C.

      Absolute refractory period

    • D.

      Action potential 

    Correct Answer
    C. Absolute refractory period
    Explanation
    The absolute refractory period is a brief period of time after an action potential where the neuron cannot generate another action potential, regardless of the strength of the stimulus. This enforces one-way transmission of nerve impulses because it ensures that each action potential is all-or-nothing, meaning it either occurs fully or not at all. During this period, the voltage-gated sodium channels are inactivated and cannot be reopened, preventing the generation of another action potential.

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  • 24. 

    Which one do you like?

    • A.

      Option 1

    • B.

      Option 2

    • C.

      Option 3

    • D.

      Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Option 1
  • 25. 

    Ventral cavity consists of?

    • A.

      Brain

    • B.

      Thoracic and abdominpelvic

    • C.

      Spinal Cord

    • D.

      Diaphram

    Correct Answer
    B. Thoracic and abdominpelvic
    Explanation
    The ventral cavity consists of the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities. The thoracic cavity is located in the chest and contains organs such as the heart and lungs. The abdominopelvic cavity is located in the abdomen and pelvis and contains organs such as the stomach, liver, intestines, and reproductive organs. The brain and spinal cord are part of the dorsal cavity, not the ventral cavity. The diaphragm is a muscle that separates the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities.

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  • 26. 

    Study of cytology

    • A.

      Study of cells

    • B.

      Study of tissues

    • C.

      Cells of the body

    • D.

      Development changes

    Correct Answer
    C. Cells of the body
    Explanation
    The study of cytology focuses on the cells of the body, including their structure, function, and behavior. It involves examining the different types of cells, their organization, and their role in various biological processes. Cytology is an important field in understanding the fundamental building blocks of living organisms and how they contribute to overall body function.

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  • 27. 

    Ability to maintain relatively stable conditions?

    • A.

      Osmosis

    • B.

      Homeostasis 

    • C.

      Positive Feedback

    • D.

      Endocrine system

    Correct Answer
    B. Homeostasis 
    Explanation
    Homeostasis refers to the ability of an organism to maintain relatively stable internal conditions, regardless of external changes. It involves various physiological processes that help regulate body temperature, blood pH, and other vital parameters within a narrow range. Osmosis is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane, which is not directly related to maintaining stable conditions. Positive feedback amplifies a response, while the endocrine system is responsible for hormone production and regulation. Therefore, the correct answer is Homeostasis.

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  • 28. 

    When the initial response enhances the original stimulus

    • A.

      Receptor 

    • B.

      Negative feedback

    • C.

      Variable

    • D.

      Positive feedback 

    Correct Answer
    D. Positive feedback 
    Explanation
    Positive feedback occurs when the initial response enhances the original stimulus. In this case, the correct answer is positive feedback because it aligns with the given explanation. Positive feedback is a process that amplifies or increases the effects of a stimulus, leading to a greater response. This is in contrast to negative feedback, which works to counteract or reduce the effects of a stimulus. The term "receptor" refers to a sensory organ or cell that detects stimuli, and "variable" refers to a factor that can change or vary.

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  • 29. 

    When the output shuts off the original effect of stimulus or reduces it

    • A.

      Positive feedback

    • B.

      Negative feedback

    • C.

      Homeostasis

    • D.

      Variable

    Correct Answer
    B. Negative feedback
    Explanation
    Negative feedback is the correct answer because it refers to a regulatory mechanism in which the output of a system counteracts the original stimulus, resulting in a reduction or shutting off of the effect. This feedback loop helps maintain stability and balance in biological systems, such as maintaining body temperature or blood sugar levels. Positive feedback, on the other hand, amplifies the original stimulus, leading to an increase or continuation of the effect. Homeostasis is the overall process of maintaining internal stability, while a variable refers to any factor that can change or vary in a system.

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  • 30. 

    Toward the midline of the body?

    • A.

      Sagittal

    • B.

      Medial

    • C.

      Lateral

    • D.

      Distal

    Correct Answer
    B. Medial
    Explanation
    Medial refers to a position or direction that is closer to the midline of the body. In anatomical terms, the midline is an imaginary line that divides the body into left and right halves. Therefore, when something is described as medial, it means it is located or moving towards the midline of the body. In this case, the correct answer is "Medial" because it describes a position or direction that is closer to the midline of the body.

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  • 31. 

    Back of the shoulder blades are located in the what region?

    • A.

      Medial

    • B.

      Distal

    • C.

      Lateral

    • D.

      Interior

    Correct Answer
    B. Distal
    Explanation
    Distal refers to a position farther away from the center of the body or a specific reference point. The back of the shoulder blades, also known as the scapulae, are located on the posterior side of the body, away from the central axis. Therefore, the answer "Distal" is correct as it accurately describes the position of the shoulder blades in relation to the body.

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  • 32. 

    Away from the midline?

    • A.

      Lateral

    • B.

      Medial

    • C.

      Distal

    • D.

      Inferior 

    Correct Answer
    A. Lateral
    Explanation
    Lateral refers to a position or direction that is away from the midline of the body or a structure. It is the opposite of medial, which refers to a position or direction towards the midline. Distal refers to a position or direction that is further away from the point of reference, while inferior refers to a position or direction that is below or lower in relation to another structure. Therefore, the correct answer is lateral as it best describes the position or direction away from the midline.

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  • 33. 

    Toward or nearest the trunk?

    • A.

      Distal

    • B.

      Proximal

    • C.

      Posterior 

    • D.

      Inferior

    Correct Answer
    B. Proximal
    Explanation
    The term "proximal" refers to a location that is closer to the trunk or the point of origin of a structure. In this question, the term "proximal" is the correct answer because it describes a position that is closer to the trunk. "Distal" would refer to a location that is farther away from the trunk, "posterior" refers to the back side of the body, and "inferior" refers to a position that is below another structure.

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  • 34. 

    Away from or farthest from the trunk I?

    • A.

      Distal

    • B.

      Proximal 

    • C.

      Lateral

    • D.

      Superior 

    Correct Answer
    A. Distal
    Explanation
    Distal refers to a position that is away from or farthest from the trunk or point of reference. It is the opposite of proximal, which means closer to the trunk or point of reference. Lateral refers to a position that is away from the midline of the body. Superior refers to a position that is above or higher in relation to another structure. In this case, the correct answer is Distal because it accurately describes a position that is farthest from the trunk.

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  • 35. 

    Energy that transfers molecules in cells and provides a form of energy that is used immediately 

    • A.

      Calcium

    • B.

      Adrenaline 

    • C.

      ATP

    • D.

      Enzymes

    Correct Answer
    C. ATP
    Explanation
    ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is a molecule that transfers energy within cells. It provides a form of energy that is readily available and can be used immediately for various cellular processes. Unlike other molecules listed, such as calcium or adrenaline, ATP specifically functions as a universal energy currency in cells. Enzymes, on the other hand, are proteins that facilitate biochemical reactions but do not directly provide energy. Therefore, ATP is the correct answer as it fits the description of transferring energy molecules in cells and providing immediate energy.

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  • 36. 

    Storage carb of animal tissues stored in skeletal muscle and liver cells?

    • A.

      Enzymes 

    • B.

      Glycogen

    • C.

      Calcium 

    • D.

      Sodium 

    Correct Answer
    B. Glycogen
    Explanation
    Glycogen is the correct answer because it is a storage carbohydrate found in animal tissues, particularly in skeletal muscle and liver cells. It serves as a readily available source of glucose for energy during periods of high demand or low blood sugar levels. Glycogen is synthesized and stored in the liver and muscles, and can be broken down into glucose when needed through the process of glycogenolysis.

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  • 37. 

    Where is glycogen stored?

    • A.

      Liver

    • B.

      Stomach

    • C.

      Skeletal muscle and liver cells

    • D.

      Smooth muscle and liver cells

    Correct Answer
    C. Skeletal muscle and liver cells
    Explanation
    Glycogen, a form of glucose storage, is stored in skeletal muscle and liver cells. These cells have the ability to convert excess glucose into glycogen and store it for later use. The liver acts as a central storage site for glycogen, releasing glucose into the bloodstream when needed to maintain blood sugar levels. Skeletal muscles store glycogen to provide a local source of energy during physical activity. The presence of glycogen in both skeletal muscle and liver cells allows for efficient energy storage and utilization in the body.

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  • 38. 

    Proteins that speed up metabolism or the chemical reactions of the body?

    • A.

      Enzymes

    • B.

      Proteins

    • C.

      ATP

    • D.

      Glycogen

    Correct Answer
    A. Enzymes
    Explanation
    Enzymes are proteins that act as catalysts in the body, speeding up the chemical reactions that occur within cells. They play a crucial role in metabolism by facilitating the breakdown of molecules and the synthesis of new molecules. Without enzymes, metabolic processes would occur too slowly to sustain life. Therefore, enzymes are the proteins that speed up metabolism or the chemical reactions of the body.

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  • 39. 

    Complex organelles that generate most of the chemical energy needed to power cells?

    • A.

      Lysosomes

    • B.

      Peroxisome

    • C.

      Mitochondria 

    • D.

      Endocrine

    Correct Answer
    C. Mitochondria 
    Explanation
    Mitochondria are complex organelles that generate most of the chemical energy needed to power cells. They are often referred to as the "powerhouses" of the cell because they produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP), which is the main source of energy for cellular processes. Mitochondria have their own DNA and are able to self-replicate, indicating that they likely evolved from independent bacteria that were engulfed by ancestral eukaryotic cells.

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  • 40. 

    Cells demolition crew digesting particles and performing metabolic functions?

    • A.

      Lysosome

    • B.

      Peroxisome

    • C.

      Periosteum 

    • D.

      Mitochondria

    Correct Answer
    A. Lysosome
    Explanation
    Lysosomes are responsible for the digestion of particles and performing metabolic functions within cells. They contain enzymes that break down waste materials, cellular debris, and foreign substances. This process, known as autophagy, helps maintain cellular homeostasis by recycling nutrients and eliminating harmful substances. Lysosomes also play a crucial role in cell death, as they release their enzymes to break down cellular components during apoptosis. Therefore, lysosomes are the correct answer for the given question.

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  • 41. 

    Resemble small lysosomes detoxification?

    • A.

      Lysosomes

    • B.

      Mitochondria 

    • C.

      Peroxisome 

    • D.

      Periosteum 

    Correct Answer
    C. Peroxisome 
    Explanation
    Peroxisomes are small organelles that resemble small lysosomes and are involved in detoxification processes within cells. They contain enzymes that break down toxic substances, such as hydrogen peroxide, into harmless molecules. This detoxification function is similar to that of lysosomes, which also contain enzymes involved in breaking down waste materials. Mitochondria, on the other hand, are responsible for energy production in cells, while periosteum is a connective tissue layer that covers bones.

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  • 42. 

    Chemical structures of the plasma membrane

    • A.

      Lipids, proteins, glycogen

    • B.

      Carbohydrates, proteins, sodium

    • C.

      Carbohydrates, proteins, lipids

    • D.

      Lipids,lysosomes, proteins

    Correct Answer
    C. Carbohydrates, proteins, lipids
    Explanation
    The plasma membrane is composed of a bilayer of lipids, mainly phospholipids, which form the basic structure. Proteins are embedded within this lipid bilayer, serving various functions such as transport, signaling, and structural support. Carbohydrates are also present on the outer surface of the membrane, attached to proteins or lipids, and play a role in cell recognition and communication. Therefore, the correct answer is carbohydrates, proteins, lipids.

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  • 43. 

    Movement of molecules down their concentration gradient?

    • A.

      Osmosis

    • B.

      Diffusion

    • C.

      Facilitated diffusion 

    • D.

      Simple diffusion

    Correct Answer
    D. Simple diffusion
    Explanation
    Simple diffusion is the process by which molecules move down their concentration gradient, from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. In this process, molecules passively move across a membrane without the need for any energy input or assistance from transport proteins. Osmosis, on the other hand, specifically refers to the movement of water molecules across a selectively permeable membrane. Facilitated diffusion involves the use of transport proteins to facilitate the movement of specific molecules across the membrane. Therefore, the correct answer is simple diffusion.

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  • 44. 

    Movement of molecules down their concentration gradient diffusing substances is attached to a membrane carrier?

    • A.

      Simple diffusion

    • B.

      Diffusion

    • C.

      Facilitated diffusion

    • D.

      Osmosis

    Correct Answer
    C. Facilitated diffusion
    Explanation
    Facilitated diffusion is the correct answer because it refers to the movement of molecules down their concentration gradient with the help of membrane carrier proteins. Unlike simple diffusion where molecules pass directly through the lipid bilayer of the membrane, facilitated diffusion involves the use of specific carrier proteins to transport molecules across the membrane. This process is necessary for larger or charged molecules that cannot easily diffuse through the membrane on their own. Therefore, facilitated diffusion accurately describes the movement of substances attached to a membrane carrier.

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  • 45. 

    Diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane?

    • A.

      Diffusion

    • B.

      Simple diffusion

    • C.

      Osmosis

    • D.

      Facilitated diffusion 

    Correct Answer
    C. Osmosis
    Explanation
    Osmosis is the correct answer because it refers to the diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane. In osmosis, water molecules move from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration, in order to equalize the concentration on both sides of the membrane. This process is crucial for maintaining the balance of water and solutes in cells and is responsible for processes such as hydration and the movement of water in plants.

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  • 46. 

    Secretes into the blood ductless glands?

    • A.

      Exocrine

    • B.

      Endocrine

    • C.

      Sebasous Glands

    • D.

      Sweat Glands

    Correct Answer
    B. Endocrine
    Explanation
    Endocrine glands are ductless glands that secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream. These hormones then travel to target organs or tissues in the body, where they regulate various physiological processes. Unlike exocrine glands, which secrete their products through ducts into body cavities or onto body surfaces, endocrine glands release their secretions directly into the blood. Therefore, the correct answer is endocrine.

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  • 47. 

    Secretes are carried to a particular site?

    • A.

      Endocrine 

    • B.

      Exocrine

    • C.

      Sebascous `

    • D.

      Sweat

    Correct Answer
    B. Exocrine
    Explanation
    Exocrine glands are responsible for secreting substances onto a surface or into a cavity through ducts. Unlike endocrine glands, which release hormones directly into the bloodstream, exocrine glands secrete their products to a specific site. Therefore, the correct answer is Exocrine.

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  • 48. 

    What connective tissue maintains the shape of the ear?

    • A.

      Loose Connective tissue

    • B.

      Dense connective tissue

    • C.

      Elastic cartilage

    • D.

      Fibrous Cartilage 

    Correct Answer
    C. Elastic cartilage
    Explanation
    Elastic cartilage is the correct answer because it is a type of connective tissue that contains elastic fibers, which give it the ability to stretch and recoil. This property allows elastic cartilage to maintain the shape of the ear, as it can withstand deformation from external forces and then return to its original shape.

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  • 49. 

    First threat to life from a third degree burn?

    • A.

      Loss of body fluids

    • B.

      Airway

    • C.

      Blood pressure

    • D.

      Epithelial 

    Correct Answer
    A. Loss of body fluids
    Explanation
    The first threat to life from a third-degree burn is the loss of body fluids. Third-degree burns penetrate through all layers of the skin and can damage blood vessels, leading to severe fluid loss. This fluid loss can cause dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, which can be life-threatening if not promptly addressed. Additionally, the loss of body fluids can impair the body's ability to regulate temperature and can contribute to shock. Therefore, addressing and managing the loss of body fluids is crucial in the initial treatment of third-degree burns.

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  • 50. 

    Active stem cells.Change into osteoblasts or bone lining cells

    • A.

      Osteocytes

    • B.

      Osteogenic

    • C.

      Osteocytes 

    • D.

      Osteoclasts 

    Correct Answer
    B. Osteogenic
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Osteogenic" because osteogenic cells are the stem cells that differentiate into osteoblasts or bone lining cells. Osteogenic cells are responsible for the formation of new bone tissue and play a crucial role in bone remodeling and repair. Osteocytes, on the other hand, are mature bone cells that are derived from osteoblasts and are involved in maintaining bone health. Osteoclasts, on the other hand, are responsible for bone resorption and breakdown. Therefore, the answer "Osteogenic" is the most appropriate choice in this context.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • May 12, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 05, 2022
    Quiz Created by
    Alfredhook3
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