Pharmacology2
Questions and Answers
- 1.
1. Which one of the following is the most common side effect of antihyperlipidemic drug therapy?
- Elevated BP
- GI disturbance
- Heart palpitations
- Migraine headaches
- A.
Elevated BP
- B.
GI disturbances
- C.
Heart palpitations
- D.
Migraine headaches
Correct Answer
B. GI disturbancesExplanation
The most common side effect of antihyperlipidemic drug therapy is GI disturbances. This can include symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. These side effects are often temporary and can be managed by adjusting the dosage or taking the medication with food. Elevated blood pressure, heart palpitations, and migraine headaches are less common side effects of antihyperlipidemic drugs.Rate this question:
- 2.
Which one of the following hyperlipidemias is characterized by elevated plasma levels of chylomicrons and has no drug therapy available to lower plasma lipoprotein levels?
- A.
Type 1
- B.
Type 2
- C.
Type 3
- D.
Type 4
Correct Answer
A. Type 1Explanation
Type 1 hyperlipidemia, also known as familial lipoprotein lipase deficiency, is characterized by elevated plasma levels of chylomicrons. Chylomicrons are large lipoprotein particles that transport dietary triglycerides from the intestine to various tissues. In type 1 hyperlipidemia, there is a deficiency or absence of lipoprotein lipase, an enzyme responsible for breaking down triglycerides in chylomicrons. This leads to the accumulation of chylomicrons in the blood, resulting in elevated plasma levels. There is currently no drug therapy available to lower plasma lipoprotein levels in type 1 hyperlipidemia.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
Which one of the following drugs decreases denovo cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme 3-hydroxy-3=methylglutaryl coenzyme A reductase?
- A.
Fenofibrate
- B.
Niacin
- C.
Cholestyramine
- D.
Lovastatin
Correct Answer
D. LovastatinExplanation
Lovastatin is a drug that decreases denovo cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A reductase. This enzyme is responsible for the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate, a key step in cholesterol synthesis. By inhibiting this enzyme, lovastatin reduces the production of cholesterol in the body. Fenofibrate, niacin, and cholestyramine do not directly inhibit this enzyme and therefore do not decrease denovo cholesterol synthesis in the same way as lovastatin.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
Which one of the following drugs causes a decrease in liver tricylglycerol synthesis by limiting available free fatty acids needed as building blocks for this pathway?
- A.
Niacin
- B.
Fenofibrate
- C.
Cholestyramine
- D.
Gemfibrozil
Correct Answer
A. NiacinExplanation
Niacin causes a decrease in liver tricylglycerol synthesis by limiting available free fatty acids needed as building blocks for this pathway. Niacin is a B-vitamin that acts as a precursor for nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP), which are essential coenzymes in various metabolic pathways. Niacin decreases the release of free fatty acids from adipose tissue, leading to a decrease in the availability of these fatty acids for the synthesis of tricylglycerols in the liver. This ultimately reduces the production of tricylglycerols and can help lower blood lipid levels.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
Which one of the following drugs binds bile acids in the intestine, thus preventing their return to the liver via the enterohepatic circulation?
- A.
Niacin
- B.
Fenofibrate
- C.
Cholestyramine
- D.
Fluvastatin
Correct Answer
C. CholestyramineExplanation
Cholestyramine is a drug that binds bile acids in the intestine, preventing their reabsorption and return to the liver through the enterohepatic circulation. This action helps to lower cholesterol levels in the blood by increasing the excretion of bile acids, which are synthesized from cholesterol. Niacin, fenofibrate, and fluvastatin are not known to have this specific mechanism of action.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
Which would be the initial treatment choice to manage the hypertension in an African American woman with a past medical history of gout and severe hypokalemia?
- A.
Hydrocholorthiazide
- B.
Spirinolactone
- C.
Alsartan
- D.
Etenolol
Correct Answer
B. SpirinolactoneExplanation
Spirinolactone would be the initial treatment choice to manage the hypertension in an African American woman with a past medical history of gout and severe hypokalemia. Spirinolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can help lower blood pressure while also preventing potassium loss, which is important for someone with hypokalemia. Additionally, gout is often associated with high uric acid levels, and spirinolactone has been found to lower uric acid levels as well. Therefore, spirinolactone would be the most appropriate choice in this scenario.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in a patient with hyperkalemia?
- A.
Chlorothiazide
- B.
Ethacrynic acid
- C.
Chlorothalidone
- D.
Spironolactone
Correct Answer
D. SpironolactoneExplanation
Spironolactone is contraindicated in a patient with hyperkalemia because it is a potassium-sparing diuretic. This means that it helps the body retain potassium and can potentially increase potassium levels in the blood. Since hyperkalemia is characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood, giving a drug that further increases potassium retention would worsen the condition. Therefore, spironolactone should be avoided in patients with hyperkalemia.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
A 75 year old woman with hypertension is being treated with a thiazide. Her blood pressure responds and reads at 120/76. After several months on the medication, she complains of being tired and weak. An analysis of the blood indicates low values for which of the following?
- A.
Calcium
- B.
Uric Acid
- C.
Potassium
- D.
Sodium
Correct Answer
C. PotassiumExplanation
Thiazide diuretics, such as the one being taken by the patient, can cause a decrease in potassium levels in the blood. This condition is known as hypokalemia. Symptoms of hypokalemia can include fatigue and weakness, which align with the patient's complaint. Therefore, it is likely that the low values in the blood analysis are for potassium.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
A 55 year old male with kidney stones has been placed on a diuretic to decrease calcium excretion. However, after a few weeks, he develops an attack of gout. Which diuretic is he taking?
- A.
Furosemide
- B.
Hydrocholorthiazide
- C.
Spironolactone
- D.
Triameterene
Correct Answer
B. HydrocholorthiazideExplanation
Hydrocholorthiazide is a diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of sodium and water from the body. It is commonly prescribed to treat conditions such as high blood pressure and edema. However, one of the side effects of hydrocholorthiazide is that it can increase the levels of uric acid in the blood, which can lead to the development of gout. Gout is a form of arthritis that occurs when there is a buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints, causing inflammation and pain. Therefore, it is likely that the patient developed an attack of gout due to the use of hydrocholorthiazide.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
An alcoholic male has developed hepatic cirrhosis. To control the ascites and edema, he is prescribed which of the following?
- A.
Hydrochlorothiazide
- B.
Acetazolamide
- C.
Spironolactone
- D.
Furosemide
Correct Answer
C. SpironolactoneExplanation
Spironolactone is prescribed to control ascites and edema in a patient with hepatic cirrhosis because it is a potassium-sparing diuretic that helps to reduce fluid retention. It works by blocking the action of aldosterone, a hormone that causes the kidneys to retain sodium and water. By blocking aldosterone, spironolactone promotes the excretion of sodium and water, reducing fluid accumulation in the body. This can help to alleviate symptoms such as ascites (accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity) and edema (swelling caused by fluid retention).Rate this question:
-
- 11.
A group of college students is planning a mountain climbing trip to the Andes. Which of the following drugs would be appropriate for them to take to prevent mountain sickness?
- A.
Thiazide diuretic
- B.
Anticholinergic
- C.
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
- D.
Loop diuretic
Correct Answer
C. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitorExplanation
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are commonly used to prevent mountain sickness. These drugs help to decrease the symptoms of altitude sickness by increasing the body's ability to acclimatize to high altitudes. They work by reducing the production of cerebrospinal fluid, which can help to alleviate symptoms such as headache, dizziness, and nausea that are commonly associated with altitude sickness. Thiazide diuretics, anticholinergics, and loop diuretics are not typically used for the prevention of mountain sickness.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
An elderly patient with a history of heart disease and who is having difficulty breathing is brought into the emergency room. Examination reveals that she has pulmonary edema. Which of the following treatments is indicated?
- A.
Spironolactone
- B.
Furosemide
- C.
Acetazolamide
- D.
Chlorthalidone
Correct Answer
B. FurosemideExplanation
Furosemide is the indicated treatment for pulmonary edema in this elderly patient with a history of heart disease. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that helps to remove excess fluid from the body, including the lungs. By reducing fluid volume, furosemide can help relieve the symptoms of pulmonary edema and improve breathing. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and is not the first-line treatment for acute pulmonary edema. Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and is not typically used for pulmonary edema. Chlorthalidone is a thiazide diuretic and is not the preferred treatment for acute pulmonary edema.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
A 45 year old man has recently been diagnosed with hypertension and started on monotherapy designed to reduce peripheral resistance and prevent NaCl and water retention. He has developed a persistent cough. Which of the following drugs would have the same benefits but would not cause cough?
- A.
Losartan
- B.
Nifedipine
- C.
Prazosin
- D.
Propranolol
Correct Answer
A. LosartanExplanation
Losartan is a drug that belongs to a class called angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs). It works by blocking the action of angiotensin II, a hormone that causes blood vessels to narrow and promotes water and salt retention. By blocking angiotensin II, losartan helps to reduce peripheral resistance and prevent NaCl and water retention, just like the monotherapy the man is currently taking. However, unlike some other antihypertensive drugs, losartan does not commonly cause cough as a side effect. Therefore, losartan would provide the same benefits without causing the persistent cough that the man is experiencing.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
Which one of the following drugs may cause a precipitous fall in blood pressure and fainting on initial administration?
- A.
Atenolol
- B.
Hydrochlorothiazide
- C.
Nifedipine
- D.
Prazosin
Correct Answer
D. PrazosinExplanation
Prazosin is an alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist, which means it blocks the action of norepinephrine on alpha-1 receptors in blood vessels. By blocking these receptors, prazosin causes vasodilation and relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels, leading to a decrease in peripheral vascular resistance and ultimately a drop in blood pressure. This sudden drop in blood pressure can result in fainting or dizziness upon initial administration of the drug. Atenolol, hydrochlorothiazide, and nifedipine do not have the same mechanism of action and are not known to cause such a precipitous fall in blood pressure.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
Which one of the following antihypertensive drugs can precipitate a hypertensive crisis following abrupt cessation of therapy?
- A.
Clonidine
- B.
Diltiazem
- C.
Enalapril
- D.
Losartan
Correct Answer
A. ClonidineExplanation
Clonidine is an antihypertensive drug that acts on the central nervous system to lower blood pressure. Abruptly stopping clonidine can lead to a sudden increase in blood pressure, known as a hypertensive crisis. This is because clonidine withdrawal causes an overactivity of the sympathetic nervous system, resulting in rebound hypertension. Therefore, it is important to gradually taper off clonidine to avoid this potentially dangerous situation.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
A 48 year old hypertensive patient has been successfully treated with a thiazide diuretic for the last 5 years. Over the last 3 months, his diastolic pressure has steadily increased and he has been started on additional antihypertensive medication. He complains of several instances of being unable to achieve an erection and that he is no longer able to complete three sets of tennis. The second antihypertensive medication is most likely which one of the following?
- A.
Captopril
- B.
Losartan
- C.
Minoxidil
- D.
Metoprolol
Correct Answer
D. MetoprololExplanation
Metoprolol is the most likely second antihypertensive medication in this case. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker, which can cause sexual dysfunction as a side effect. The patient's complaint of being unable to achieve an erection and decreased exercise tolerance suggests that he may be experiencing sexual dysfunction and reduced exercise capacity, both of which are potential side effects of beta-blockers. Therefore, it is likely that the addition of metoprolol to the patient's thiazide diuretic regimen is responsible for these symptoms.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
A 66 year old man had a MI. Which one of the following would be appropriate prophylactic antiarrhythmic therapy?
- A.
Lidocaine
- B.
Metoprolol
- C.
Procainamide
- D.
Verapamil
Correct Answer
B. MetoprololExplanation
Metoprolol would be an appropriate prophylactic antiarrhythmic therapy for a 66-year-old man who had a myocardial infarction (MI). Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that helps to reduce the workload on the heart by blocking the effects of adrenaline, thereby slowing down the heart rate and reducing blood pressure. It is commonly used in patients with a history of MI to prevent arrhythmias and decrease the risk of future cardiac events. Lidocaine is typically used for acute arrhythmias, Procainamide is used for certain types of arrhythmias, and Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that is not typically used for prophylactic antiarrhythmic therapy post-MI.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
Suppression of arrhythmias resulting from reentry focus is most likely to occur if the drug:
- A.
Has vagomimetic effects on the AV node
- B.
Is a BBlocker
- C.
Converts a unidirectional block to a bidirectional block
- D.
Slows conduction through the atria
Correct Answer
C. Converts a unidirectional block to a bidirectional blockExplanation
Converting a unidirectional block to a bidirectional block is likely to suppress arrhythmias resulting from reentry focus. In a unidirectional block, the electrical impulse can only travel in one direction, allowing for the formation of a reentry circuit. By converting it to a bidirectional block, the impulse can now travel in both directions, disrupting the reentry circuit and preventing the arrhythmia. This intervention helps to restore normal electrical conduction and rhythm in the heart.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
A 57 year old man is being treated for an atrial arrhythmia. He complains of headache, dizziness, and tinnitus. Which one of the following antiarrhythmic drugs is most likely the cause?
- A.
Amiodarone
- B.
Procainamide
- C.
Propanolol
- D.
Quinidine
Correct Answer
D. QuinidineExplanation
Quinidine is an antiarrhythmic drug that can cause adverse effects such as headache, dizziness, and tinnitus. These symptoms are consistent with the patient's complaints. Amiodarone, procainamide, and propranolol are also antiarrhythmic drugs, but they are not commonly associated with these specific side effects. Therefore, Quinidine is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
A 58 year old woman is being treated for chronic suppression of a ventricular arrhythmia. After 2 months of therapy, she complains about feeling tired all the time. Examination reveals a resitng heart rate of 10 BPM lower than her previous rate. Her skin is cool and clammy. Laboratory test results indicate low thyroxin and elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone levels. Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs is the likely cause of these signs and symptoms?
- A.
Amiodarone
- B.
Procainamide
- C.
Propranolol
- D.
Quinidine
Correct Answer
A. AmiodaroneExplanation
Amiodarone is the likely cause of the signs and symptoms described. Amiodarone is known to have several side effects, including hypothyroidism. The patient's low thyroxin and elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone levels are consistent with hypothyroidism. Additionally, the patient's tiredness and cool, clammy skin can also be attributed to the hypothyroidism caused by amiodarone.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
A 56 year old patient complains of chest pain following any sustained exercise. he is diagnosed with atherosclerotic angina. He is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin for treatment of acute chest pain. Which of the following adverse effects is likely to be experienced by this patient?
- A.
Hypertension
- B.
Throbbing headache
- C.
Bradycardia
- D.
Sexual dysfunction
Correct Answer
B. Throbbing headacheExplanation
Sublingual nitroglycerin is a medication commonly used to treat acute chest pain caused by atherosclerotic angina. One of the most common adverse effects of nitroglycerin is a throbbing headache. Nitroglycerin causes blood vessels to dilate, including those in the brain, which can lead to increased blood flow and result in a headache. This side effect is usually temporary and subsides as the body adjusts to the medication. The other options listed - hypertension, bradycardia, and sexual dysfunction - are not commonly associated with nitroglycerin use.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
A 56 year old patient complains of chest pain following any sustained exercise. he is diagnosed with atherosclerotic angina. He is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin for treatment of acute chest pain. This patient is prescribed propranolol to prevent episodes of angina. the BB has the added benefit of preventing which of the following side effects of sublingual nitroglycerin?
- A.
Throbbing headache
- B.
Edema
- C.
Dizziness
- D.
Reflex tachycardia
Correct Answer
D. Reflex tachycardiaExplanation
Propranolol, a beta-blocker (BB), is prescribed to prevent episodes of angina in this patient. One of the side effects of sublingual nitroglycerin, which is used to treat acute chest pain, is reflex tachycardia. Reflex tachycardia is an increase in heart rate that occurs as a compensatory response to the vasodilation caused by nitroglycerin. Propranolol, being a beta-blocker, blocks the beta receptors in the heart, thereby preventing the reflex tachycardia caused by nitroglycerin.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
A 68 year old man has been successfully treated for exercise-induced angina for several years. He recently has been complaining about being awakened at night with chest pain. Which of the following drugs would be useful in preventing this patients nocturnal angina?
- A.
Amyl nitrite
- B.
Nitroglycerin sublingual
- C.
Nitroglycerin transdermal
- D.
Esmolol
Correct Answer
C. Nitroglycerin transdermalExplanation
Nitroglycerin transdermal would be useful in preventing this patient's nocturnal angina. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that helps to relax and widen the blood vessels, increasing blood flow and reducing the workload on the heart. By applying the nitroglycerin patch before going to bed, it can provide a continuous release of the medication throughout the night, preventing episodes of chest pain and angina that occur during sleep. This sustained release formulation is particularly beneficial for nocturnal angina, as it provides long-lasting protection during the night when the patient is at rest and more susceptible to angina attacks.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
A 22 year old woman who experienced pain and swelling in her right leg presented at the ER. An ultrasound study showed thrombosis in the popliteal vein. the patient, who was in second trimester of pregnancy, was treated for 7 days with IV unfractioned heparin. The pain resolved during the course of therapy and the patient was discharged on day 8. Which one of the following drugs would be most appropriate outpatient follow up therapy for this patient, who lives 100 miles from the nearest hospital?
- A.
Warfarin
- B.
Aspirin
- C.
Unfractioned heparin
- D.
Low molecular weight heparin
Correct Answer
D. Low molecular weight heparinExplanation
Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) would be the most appropriate outpatient follow-up therapy for this patient. LMWH is commonly used for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) during pregnancy due to its safety profile and ease of administration. Unlike unfractioned heparin, LMWH does not require frequent monitoring of blood clotting parameters. Additionally, LMWH has a longer half-life, allowing for once-daily dosing, which is more convenient for the patient who lives far from the hospital. Warfarin is contraindicated during pregnancy, and aspirin alone may not provide sufficient anticoagulation in this case.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
A 54 year old male with prosthetic aortic valve replacement complained to his family physician of black and tarry stools. Physical examination and vital signs were unremarkable except for subconjunctival hemorrhages and bleeding gyms. Stools tested positive for heme, and hematuria was observed. The patient has been receiving oral warfarin since his valve replacement 1 year earlier. Prothrombin time was found to be significantly elevated. Which one of the following therapies would provide the most rapid recovery from the observed bleeding secondary to warfarin treatment?
- A.
Intravenous vitamin K
- B.
Fresh frozen plasma
- C.
Immediate withdrawal of warfarin treatment
- D.
Intravenous protamine
Correct Answer
B. Fresh frozen plasmaExplanation
Fresh frozen plasma would provide the most rapid recovery from the observed bleeding secondary to warfarin treatment. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Fresh frozen plasma contains these clotting factors and can help restore their levels, promoting clotting and stopping the bleeding. Intravenous vitamin K can also be used to reverse the effects of warfarin, but it has a slower onset of action compared to fresh frozen plasma. Immediate withdrawal of warfarin treatment and intravenous protamine are not appropriate therapies for reversing the effects of warfarin.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Oct 31, 2011Quiz Created by
Millward331
Back to top