Pharmacology For Podiatrists

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Pharmacology For Podiatrists

A Podiatrist is a medication practitioner who deals with issues that affect the parts of the leg. They diagnose such issues and give medicine. Being that you are an aspiring podiatrist, how well do you know the type of medication to prescribe to your patients? Take this pharmacology quiz that has perfect questions on that and get to find out.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      Increased ability o sleep through the night

    • B. 

      Decreased sneezing and runny nose

    • C. 

      Decreased nausea and vomiting

    • D. 

      Decrease number of migraines

  • 2. 
    A reversible competitive antagonist can have the following effect on an agonist concentration response curve
    • A. 

      Shift to the right

    • B. 

      Shift to the left

    • C. 

      No change in slope and maximum response

    • D. 

      Reduction in slope and maximum response

  • 3. 
    A semiconcious patient is brought into the emergency room complaining of nausea and vomiting.  The route of choice for the ordered medication would be:
    • A. 

      Oral (PO)

    • B. 

      Sublingual

    • C. 

      Via nasogastric tube

    • D. 

      Rectally

  • 4. 
    ACE inhibitors can br used to treat systemic arterial hypertension because they
    • A. 

      Increase plasma volume

    • B. 

      Decrease plasma volume

    • C. 

      Increase TPR

    • D. 

      Decrease TPR

  • 5. 
    Bendrofluazide acts as
    • A. 

      A receptor anatagonist at the alpha 1 adrenoceptors

    • B. 

      A receptor anatagonist at the acetylcholine nicotinic receptor

    • C. 

      A diurectic

    • D. 

      An ace inhibitor

  • 6. 
    By combining various chemicals, scientists, can produce compounds that are identical to a natural drug, or they can create an entirely new substance. These drugs are called?
    • A. 

      Synthetic drugs

    • B. 

      Chemical

    • C. 

      Generic

    • D. 

      Trade

  • 7. 
    Captopril blocks the enzyme
    • A. 

      Tyrosine hydroxylase

    • B. 

      Acetylcholinesterase

    • C. 

      Angiotension converting enzyme

    • D. 

      Renin

  • 8. 
    Cardiac ouput is
    • A. 

      Approx 5.5l/min

    • B. 

      Approx 70ml/min

    • C. 

      HR X SV

    • D. 

      HR/SV

  • 9. 
    Diuretics are use in blood pressure control because they
    • A. 

      Increase cardiac output

    • B. 

      Decrease cardiac output

    • C. 

      Increase plamsa sodium

    • D. 

      Decrease plasma sodium

  • 10. 
    Drugs that increase potassium conductance of vascular smooth muscle will
    • A. 

      Cause vasocontriction

    • B. 

      Cause vasodilation

    • C. 

      Depolarise the cell

    • D. 

      Hyperpolarize the cell

  • 11. 
    Erythromycin:
    • A. 

      Binds to and inhibits the A site on bacterial ribosomes

    • B. 

      Binds to and inhibits the P site on bacterial ribosomes

    • C. 

      Produces an abnormal codon

    • D. 

      Inhibits translocation from the A site to the P site.

  • 12. 
    GTN can be used in the treatment of angina because it
    • A. 

      Dilates veins

    • B. 

      Lowers end diastolic volume

    • C. 

      Donates nitric oxide

    • D. 

      Reduces atherosclerotic lesions

  • 13. 
    Heprin
    • A. 

      Inhibit the formation of vit K dependent coagulation factors

    • B. 

      Acts as a catalyst in the reaction between thrombin and thrombomodulin

    • C. 

      Inhibits platlets

    • D. 

      Acts as catalyst in the reaction between thrombin and antithrombin III

  • 14. 
    In inflammation, prostanoids
    • A. 

      Are antipyretic

    • B. 

      Cause “redness” by dilatation of pre-capillary venules

    • C. 

      Directly stimulate C-fibres to cause pain

    • D. 

      Increase vascular permeability

  • 15. 
    • A. 

      The most important inhibitory neurotransmitter is gamma amino butyric acid

    • B. 

      The most important inhibitory neurotransmitter is glycine

    • C. 

      The most important excitatory neurotransmitter is glutamate

    • D. 

      The most important excitatory neurotransmitter is acetylcholine

  • 16. 
    In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, disease-modifying antirheumatoid drugs (DMARDs)
    • A. 

      Are second line drugs

    • B. 

      Are usually preferred to non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

    • C. 

      Are exemplified by the anti-malarial drug chloroquine

    • D. 

      All produce a beneficial effect within days

  • 17. 
    In the treatment  of multiple sclerosis
    • A. 

      Acute attacks are usually treated using corticosteroids or ACTH

    • B. 

      Co-polymer activates anti-inflammatory T-cells

    • C. 

      Developement of neutralising antibodies limits activity of beta interferon 1b in up to 29% of patients after 2 years

    • D. 

      Fampridine acts as a calcium channel blocker

  • 18. 
    In tuberculosis
    • A. 

      Most cases arise from primary infection

    • B. 

      A focus of primary infection including calcified lesion and an ipsilateral

    • C. 

      Patients with Ghon compleax are always infectious

    • D. 

      Miliary TB is most likely in the severly immuno-compromised patients

  • 19. 
    Losartan is
    • A. 

      An ACE inhibitor

    • B. 

      An angiotensin 2 receptor antagonist

    • C. 

      A Beta adrenoceptor anatagonist (beta blocker)

    • D. 

      A calcium channel blocker

  • 20. 
    Mycostatin (Nystatin) would be perscribed for which of the following conditions?
    • A. 

      Acne vulgaris

    • B. 

      A fungal infection

    • C. 

      Pruritus

    • D. 

      A furuncle

  • 21. 
    Nifedipine can be used to lower systemic arterial hypertension because it blocks
    • A. 

      Potassium channels

    • B. 

      Sodium channels

    • C. 

      Calcium channels

    • D. 

      Chloride channels

  • 22. 
    Noradrenaline can increase TPR by
    • A. 

      Constricting veins

    • B. 

      Constricting arterioles

    • C. 

      Acting on the beta-adrenoceptors

    • D. 

      Acting on alpha-adrenoceptors

  • 23. 
    Oral formulation
    • A. 

      Are subject to first pass metabolism

    • B. 

      May have delayed absorption due to presence of food

    • C. 

      If acidic, are best absorbed from stomach

    • D. 

      Are more slowly absorbed than rectal formulation

  • 24. 
    Pharmacodynamics is the study of the
    • A. 

      Toxic effects of drugs

    • B. 

      Absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs

    • C. 

      Mechanism of action of drugs

    • D. 

      Formation of drugs

  • 25. 
    Prazosin is a receptor anatagonist at the
    • A. 

      M2 muscarinic receptor

    • B. 

      Alpha 1 adrenoceptor

    • C. 

      Beta 2 bradykinin receptor

    • D. 

      5-HT2a receptors

  • 26. 
    Protein C is activated by
    • A. 

      Thrombin

    • B. 

      Thrombin-protein S complex

    • C. 

      Thrombin-heparin complex

    • D. 

      Thrombin-thrombomodulin complex

  • 27. 
    Spirolactone
    • A. 

      Decrease plasma volume

    • B. 

      Increase plasma volume

    • C. 

      Blocks the aldersterone receptors

    • D. 

      Blocks the angiotension II receptors

  • 28. 
    Streptokinase is used in the treatment of thrombosis because it
    • A. 

      Inhibits the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin

    • B. 

      Increase the conversion of protein C to activated protein C

    • C. 

      Increase the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin

    • D. 

      Inhibit the polymerization of fibrin

  • 29. 
    Stroke volume =
    • A. 

      EDV-ESV

    • B. 

      ESV-EDV

    • C. 

      CO/HR

    • D. 

      HR/CO

  • 30. 
    Subcutaneous injections
    • A. 

      May be used for irritant substance

    • B. 

      Maybe used to administer high doses

    • C. 

      Peak concentration schieved depends on rate of administration

    • D. 

      Can be used for depot preparation

  • 31. 
    The coagulation cofactors (vIII & V) are important in fibrin formation because
    • A. 

      They are proteolytic

    • B. 

      They accelerate coagulation by more than 100,000 fold

    • C. 

      They inactivate by ATIII

    • D. 

      They are inactivated by heprin

  • 32. 
    The coagulation cofactors VIII & V
    • A. 

      Are activated by thrombin

    • B. 

      Accelerated the activity of factor IXa and Xa

    • C. 

      Are inactivated the APC system

    • D. 

      Are inactivated by TFPI

  • 33. 
    The following are examples of inotropic receptors
    • A. 

      Insulin receptors

    • B. 

      Acetylcholine muscarinic receptors

    • C. 

      Beta- adrenoceptors

    • D. 

      Acetylcholine nicotinic receptors

  • 34. 
    The following drugs are used as anticoagulants
    • A. 

      Plasma

    • B. 

      Streptokinase

    • C. 

      Thrombib

    • D. 

      Heprin

  • 35. 
    The inactivation of thrombin by antithrombin III is accelerated by
    • A. 

      Throbomodulin

    • B. 

      Activated protein c

    • C. 

      Thromboplastin

    • D. 

      Heprin

  • 36. 
    The molecular target for sildenafil (viagra) is
    • A. 

      Guanylate cyclase

    • B. 

      Phosphodiesterase type 5

    • C. 

      Angiotensim converting enzyme

    • D. 

      Cyclooxygenase

  • 37. 
    The synthesis of noradrenaline can be reduced using
    • A. 

      The tyrosine hydroxylase inhibitor, metitosine

    • B. 

      Lignocaine

    • C. 

      The DOPA decarboxylase inhibitor, methyl-DOPA

    • D. 

      Cocaine

  • 38. 
    Thiazides are diuretics which  act by
    • A. 

      Blocking the apical Na+ channel

    • B. 

      Blocking the basolateral Na/K ATPase

    • C. 

      Blocking the apical Na: K: Cl co-transproter

    • D. 

      Blocking the apical Na: Cl co-transporter

  • 39. 
    Thrombin
    • A. 

      Converts fibrinogen to fibrin

    • B. 

      Converts VIII TO VIIIa

    • C. 

      Activates TFPI

    • D. 

      Inhibits platelet activation

  • 40. 
    Tirofiban is used to prevent the formation of an arterial white thrombus because it
    • A. 

      Blocks the glycoprotein GP Ib on platelets

    • B. 

      Blocks the enzyme cyclooxygenase in platelets to inhibit the production of thromboxane

    • C. 

      Blocks the enzyme nitric oxide synthase on the endothelium to inhibit the production of nitric oxide

    • D. 

      Blocks glycoprotein receptor GP IIa- IIIb on platelets

  • 41. 
    Vitamin K
    • A. 

      Is present in green vegatables

    • B. 

      May be deficient when patients take antibiotics

    • C. 

      Is required for production of some coagulation

    • D. 

      Factors is produced by skin in the response to light

  • 42. 
    Von willebrand factor
    • A. 

      Is secreted from activated platlets

    • B. 

      Is secreated from endothelial cells

    • C. 

      Is required as a bridging protein from platelet adhesion to collagen

    • D. 

      Is required as a bridging protein for platelet aggressation

  • 43. 
    Warfarin
    • A. 

      Is not used during pregnancy

    • B. 

      Cannot be taken orally

    • C. 

      In a vitamin K anatagonist

    • D. 

      Is a fibrinolytic agent

  • 44. 
    What is a drug that has the potential for addiction and abuse?
    • A. 

      Supplement

    • B. 

      Narcotic

    • C. 

      Controlled Substance

    • D. 

      Bioassay

  • 45. 
    When the heart is fully contracted
    • A. 

      Systemic arterial pressure is 120mmHg

    • B. 

      Systemic arterial pressure is 80mmHg

    • C. 

      The mirtal valve is closed. the aotric valve in open

    • D. 

      The mirtal valve is open. the aotric valve in closed

  • 46. 
    Which of the following are true
    • A. 

      Arterial blood pressure is proportional to cardiac output x TPR

    • B. 

      Most forms of systemic arterial hypertension are due to elevated TPR

    • C. 

      Vasodilation of systemic arterial hypertension are not due to reduced TPR

    • D. 

      Vasodilation of systemic arterial hypertension are not due to elevated TPR

  • 47. 
    Which of the following drugs acts by a non-specific physicochemical mechanism
    • A. 

      A bulk laxative

    • B. 

      A histamine H2-antagonist

    • C. 

      A cyclooxygenase inhibitor

    • D. 

      A B2-adrenoceptor agonist

  • 48. 
    Which of the following drugs are potassium channels openers
    • A. 

      Verapamil

    • B. 

      Minoxidil

    • C. 

      Indomethacin

    • D. 

      Lidocaine

  • 49. 
    Which of the following is / are true
    • A. 

      Drugs metabolism mainly occurs in the kidneys

    • B. 

      Drugs metabolism usually makes a drug more hydrophilic which hastens its excretion by the kidneys

    • C. 

      Morphine is metabolised to codeine by the liver

    • D. 

      Drugs metabolism usually leads to less active meatabolite

  • 50. 
    Which of the following is/are located in the cell
    • A. 

      Channel-linked (ionotropic) receptors

    • B. 

      G-protein coupled (metabotropic) receptors

    • C. 

      Kinase- linked receptors

    • D. 

      Receptors for steriod hormones

  • 51. 
    Which of the of the following conditions would most interfere with the pharmacokinetics of medication?
    • A. 

      Diabetes

    • B. 

      Kidney disease

    • C. 

      Angina pectoris

    • D. 

      Brain tumor

  • 52. 
    Which of these is a sodium channel blocker
    • A. 

      Verapamil

    • B. 

      Minoxidil

    • C. 

      Indomethacin

    • D. 

      Lidocaine

  • 53. 
     A type of diffusion that usually occur is within larger body compartments (interstitial space, cytosol) and across epithelial membrane tight junctions and through pores in blood vessel endothelial lining 
    • A. 

      Lipid effusion

    • B. 

      Aqueous diffusion

    • C. 

      Carrier-mediated

    • D. 

      Endocytosis

    • E. 

      Exocytosis