Pharm Mt 1 Part III

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Pharm Mt 1 Part III - Quiz


Principles of Pharm (Pgs. 19-26)


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Why is it that the cornea is a difficult tissue for drugs to penetrate?

  • 2. 

    What is the definition for 'volume of distribution of a drug'?

  • 3. 

    Explain why azithromycin (Z-Pak) can deliver the equivalent of 7-10 days of therapy with 5 days of dosing.

  • 4. 

    The drug propofol (Diprivan) has a short duration of action due to the rapid re-distribution to other tissues via the ____ system.

    • A.

      Gastrointestinal

    • B.

      Respiratory

    • C.

      Cardiovascular

    • D.

      CNS

    Correct Answer
    D. CNS
    Explanation
    Short duration of action is also due to its high metabolic clearance and high lipophilicty (pg.21). This drug is able to cross the blood brain barrier.

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  • 5. 

    There are substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for oral meds under the OD scope of practice

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    see pg. 25 for a list of inhibitors and inducers of the P450 system that are prescribed by ODs

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  • 6. 

    Check ALL the factors that allow a drug to more easily across plasma membranes.

    • A.

      Smaller molecular structure

    • B.

      Water-soluble

    • C.

      Ionization

    Correct Answer
    A. Smaller molecular structure
    Explanation
    Drugs that are lipid-soluble, smaller molecular structure and are NOT ionized have a better ability to pass thru plasma membranes (pg. 19).

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  • 7. 

    Ionization makes a drug molecule _____ lipid-soluble

    Correct Answer
    less
    Explanation
    Ionization is the process of gaining or losing an electron, resulting in the formation of charged particles called ions. When a drug molecule becomes ionized, it becomes more polar and less lipid-soluble. This is because lipid molecules are nonpolar, while ions are charged and therefore interact more readily with polar molecules. As a result, ionization decreases the ability of a drug molecule to dissolve in lipids and pass through lipid-rich barriers, such as cell membranes. Therefore, the correct answer is "less."

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following conditions DOES NOT result in hypoalbuinermia (low serum albumin levels)?

    • A.

      Renal dialysis patients

    • B.

      Burn patients

    • C.

      Elderly patients with chronic disease states

    • D.

      Malnourished patients

    • E.

      None of the above (they all result in hypoalbumineria)

    Correct Answer
    E. None of the above (they all result in hypoalbumineria)
    Explanation
    Patients with extremely low serum albumin levels may not have the full expected drug action of effect due to the fact that protein bound drugs can reach higher concentrations between the blood and tissues.

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  • 9. 

    In general, clinically significant drug interactions are more likely to occur between substrates and either inhibitors and induces of _____ CYP enzyme(s).

    Correct Answer
    same
    Explanation
    pg. 24

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following drugs can result in optic neuritis/neuropathy and can deposit in the cornea and affect vision?

    • A.

      Phenytoin (Dylantin)

    • B.

      Mannitol with cisplatinum

    • C.

      Propofol (Diprivan)

    • D.

      Amiodarone (Pacerone, Cordarone)

    Correct Answer
    D. Amiodarone (Pacerone, Cordarone)
    Explanation
    amiodarone is a heart medication...this example was used to demonstrate drug deposition (pg. 21)

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following does NOT require energy nor a transport carrier?

    • A.

      Passive diffusion

    • B.

      Carrier-assisted diffusion

    • C.

      Hydrophillic channels

    • D.

      Active transport

    • E.

      More than one of the above

    • F.

      All of the above require either energy or a transport carrier

    Correct Answer
    E. More than one of the above
    Explanation
    passive diffusion + hydrophillic channels require no energy input and do not need a transport carrier

    carrier-assisted diffusion only requires a transport carrier
    active transport requires both energy an a transport carrier
    (pg.19)

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  • 12. 

    ACE Inhibitors are an example of a type of drug that results in a drug becoming ____ active than the parent drug

    • A.

      More

    • B.

      Less

    Correct Answer
    A. More
    Explanation
    ACE inhibitors are a type of drug that inhibits the angiotensin converting enzyme, which leads to the dilation of blood vessels and a decrease in blood pressure. This action makes the drug more active than the parent drug, as it enhances the drug's ability to lower blood pressure and treat conditions such as hypertension and heart failure.

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  • 13. 

    What percent of patients taking amiodarone present with corneal microdeposits?

    • A.

      1%

    • B.

      10%

    • C.

      50%

    • D.

      90%

    Correct Answer
    D. 90%
    Explanation
    Summary of adverse ocular effects of amiodarone:
    - optic neuritis (1%)
    - corneal microdepsoits (> 90%) causing visual distuburbance (< 10%)
    - visual disturbance (2-9%)
    - halo vision (esp at night ) (

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  • 14. 

    What most commonly occurs in CYP inhibition?

    • A.

      Inhibitor drug metabolizes to CYP enzyme

    • B.

      Inhibitor drug prevents absorption of CYP enzyme

    • C.

      Inhibitor drug competitively binds to active site of enzyme

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Inhibitor drug competitively binds to active site of enzyme
    Explanation
    When the CYP inhibitor drug binds to the active site of the enzyme it prevents normal enzyme binding and routine metabolism from occurring.

    pg. 24

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  • 15. 

    Pharmacologic metabolic processes often result in drugs becoming more _____ and more _____-soluble.

    Correct Answer
    polar, water
    Explanation
    Pharmacologic metabolic processes often result in drugs becoming more polar and more water-soluble. This means that during metabolism, drugs tend to undergo chemical changes that increase their polarity and their ability to dissolve in water. This is important because polar and water-soluble drugs are more easily absorbed, distributed, and eliminated from the body, making them more effective and safer for use.

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  • 16. 

    What are potential consequences of drug deposition?

    • A.

      Faster drug release

    • B.

      Slower drug release

    • C.

      Changes in the tissue

    • D.

      Drug inactivation

    • E.

      More than one of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. More than one of the above
    Explanation
    Drug deposition occurs when a drug deposits in a specific tissue and accumulates. This may result in SLOWER drug release or eventual changes in the tissues

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  • 17. 

    What general category of antibiotics can lead to permanent teeth staining when given to a child before the age of 8?

    • A.

      Sulfa drugs

    • B.

      Cephalosporins

    • C.

      Tetracyclins

    • D.

      Aminoglycosides

    Correct Answer
    C. Tetracyclins
    Explanation
    The specific example was doxycycline (Vibramycin), and this is a sub-category of tetracyclines. It can deposit in bones, liver, spleen and teeth

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  • 18. 

    There is more than one cytochrom P450 enzyme

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    pg. 24

    There have been 100s found although far fewer are found in humans.
    We are now aware that CYP enzymes may be involved in the metabolism of approx 75% of all drugs.

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  • 19. 

    Where are P450 isoenzymes located specifically in the liver?

    • A.

      Nucleus of hepatocytes

    • B.

      Golgi of hepatocytes

    • C.

      Plasma membrane of hepatocytes

    • D.

      Endoplasmic recticulum of hepatocytes

    Correct Answer
    D. Endoplasmic recticulum of hepatocytes
    Explanation
    Through an electron transport change that uses NADPH as a proton carrier, a drug bound to cytochrome P450 can be oxidized or reduced

    p.23

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is NOT part of microsomal (P450) oxidation reactions?

    • A.

      Hydroxylation

    • B.

      Azo-reduction

    • C.

      Oxidation

    • D.

      Polarizing atom exchange

    Correct Answer
    B. Azo-reduction
    Explanation
    Microsomal oxidation reactions: hydroxylation, dealkylation, oxidation, polarizing atom exchange

    azo-reduction is a microsomal REDUCTION reaction

    pg. 23

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  • 21. 

    Unbound, or free drugs (aka not bound to serum proteins) will reach __________ between the blood and tissues.

    Correct Answer
    equilibrium
    Explanation
    pg. 21

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  • 22. 

    Metabolic reactions can transform an active drug into a less active form or into inactive metabolites.  Metabolic reactions can also transform a prodrug into a more active drug or metabolite.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    pg. 22

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  • 23. 

    Choose ALL of the reactions that fall under Phase II reactions:

    • A.

      Glucuronide conjugation

    • B.

      Dealkylation

    • C.

      Ethereal sulfate conjugation

    • D.

      Acetylation

    • E.

      Transulfuration

    • F.

      Glutathion conjugation

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Glucuronide conjugation
    C. Ethereal sulfate conjugation
    D. Acetylation
    E. Transulfuration
    F. Glutathion conjugation
    Explanation
    pg.23

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  • 24. 

    In Phase I reactions, drugs are ___________ or ___________. In Phase II reactions, a polar molecular group is __________ to the drug which increases its polarity.

    Correct Answer(s)
    oxidized, reduced, conjugated
    Explanation
    pg. 23

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  • 25. 

    During drug metabolism, what is the general trend that occurs?

    • A.

      Drugs become more hydrophobic

    • B.

      Drugs become increasingly less active

    • C.

      Drugs are deposited more on various tissues

    • D.

      Drugs become more polar

    Correct Answer
    D. Drugs become more polar
    Explanation
    pg. 23

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  • 26. 

    When Nepafenac penetrates the cornea, it’s converted into a more active form that acts as:

    • A.

      IOP reducer

    • B.

      Hemorrhage stabalizer

    • C.

      Analgesic

    • D.

      Edema reducer

    Correct Answer
    C. Analgesic
    Explanation
    Nepafenac, when it penetrates the cornea, is converted into a more active form that acts as an analgesic. This means that it functions as a pain reliever.

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  • 27. 

    What cytochrome P450 enzyme accounts for nearly half of all CYP activity?

    • A.

      CYP 1A

    • B.

      CYP 2C

    • C.

      CYP 2E

    • D.

      CYP 3A

    Correct Answer
    D. CYP 3A
    Explanation
    pg. 24

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  • Current Version
  • Jul 02, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Dec 11, 2011
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