2012 Pharm II - Quiz 2

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  • 1/83 Questions

    Which of the following is not one of the 3 mechanisms for termination of norepinephrine?

    • Re-uptake
    • Diffusion from receptor sites
    • Irreversible protein binding
    • Enzyme degredation
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About This Quiz

A quiz reviewing the material for Quiz 3. Sympathomimetics, Calcium channel blockers, Antiarrhythmics

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is an appropriate renal dose of dopamine?

    • 2 mcg/kg/min

    • 8 mcg/kg/min

    • 15 mcg/kg/min

    • All of above

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 mcg/kg/min
  • 3. 

    What is the preferred medication to raise the BP of an OB patient?

    • Epinephrine

    • Amphetamine

    • Dopamine

    • Ephedrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Ephedrine
  • 4. 

    Phenylephrine primarily acts upon which receptor?

    • Beta 2

    • Alpha 1

    • Beta 1

    • Alpha 2

    Correct Answer
    A. Alpha 1
  • 5. 

    Which of the following is an alpha 2 agonist?

    • Phenylephrine

    • Norepinephrine

    • Clonodine

    • Dopamine

    Correct Answer
    A. Clonodine
  • 6. 

    COMIC RELIEF: Best Prank Call Ever

    • Ha ha! Now that is how you handle telemarketers!

    • Poor telemarketer guy, he sounds like he is gonna pee his pants...

    • Evil! But i like it.

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
  • 7. 

    Which of the following would be the best choice to increase cardiac contractility in a pt with CHF and CAD?

    • Phenylephrine

    • Dopamine

    • Dobutamine

    • Norepinephrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Dobutamine
  • 8. 

    Which of the following is not a cardiac effect of alpa 1 receptor activation?

    • Decrease SVR

    • Vasoconstriction

    • Increase LV afterload

    • Increase arterial BP

    Correct Answer
    A. Decrease SVR
  • 9. 

    What is the mechanism of action of Diltiazem?

    • Beta 2 agonist

    • Blocks calcium channels of AV node

    • Directly relaxes arterial smooth muscle

    • Imitates cGMP in smooth vasculature

    Correct Answer
    A. Blocks calcium channels of AV node
  • 10. 

    Which of the following is would not increase risk for cardiac disarrythmias?

    • ST elevation on ECG

    • Low serum K

    • ABG showing hypoxia

    • Diabetes

    Correct Answer
    A. Diabetes
  • 11. 

    When Tyrosine is hydroxylated it becomes what?

    • Dopa

    • Phenylalanine

    • Norepinephrine

    • Epinephrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Dopa
  • 12. 

    Stimulation of Beta 1 receptors is likely to have all of the following effects except …

    • Increase Contractility

    • Increase HR

    • Increase CO

    • Decreased SVR

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreased SVR
  • 13. 

    You are having the worst day ever, you have just had to give Dantrolene to a pt (and you know what that means….). When looking over the pts medical history again you find their medication list includes verapimil. GGrrrreeeaaaaaaattt. Now what should you start checking? (Cause you know, your day wasn’t screwed enough already)

    • Watch your Arterial BP very closely, these drugs together cause profound HTN and increase risk for stroke

    • Monitor pt for cyanide toxicity

    • Send serum K levels and watch for arrythmias

    • Monitor pt for hypoxemia and signs of seizures

    Correct Answer
    A. Send serum K levels and watch for arrythmias
  • 14. 

    What is the postsynaptic neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system?

    • Acetylcholine

    • Norepinephrine

    • Epinephrine

    • Tyrosine

    Correct Answer
    A. Acetylcholine
  • 15. 

    After the breakdown of epinephrine by MAO and COMT, what product is excreted in the urine?

    • Vanillymandelic Acid

    • 3,7-dicarboxyvandelic acid

    • Nelson-Mandelic Acid

    • 4,6-Pheocomtic acid

    Correct Answer
    A. Vanillymandelic Acid
  • 16. 

    Which of the following is a pre-synaptic receptor?

    • Alpha 1

    • Alpha 2

    • Beta 1

    • Beta 2

    Correct Answer
    A. Alpha 2
  • 17. 

    How do class I antidysrhythmic drugs work?

    • By antagonizing adrenergic receptors

    • Through blockade of Na channels.

    • By blocking the slow inward calcium driven current

    • By prolonging repolarization

    Correct Answer
    A. Through blockade of Na channels.
  • 18. 

    Which of the following is release from the adrenal gland in times of stress and acts on alpha and beta receptors?

    • Dopamine

    • Norepinephrine

    • Epinephrine

    • Acetylcholine

    Correct Answer
    A. Epinephrine
  • 19. 

    Which of the following is not an effect of precedex?

    • Maintaining respiratory stability

    • Sedation

    • Reduces brain Noradrenergic Activity

    • Increase pt BP

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase pt BP
  • 20. 

    What is an appropriate IV starting dose of lidocaine to control frequent PVC’s?

    • 4.5 mg/kg

    • 10 mg/kg

    • 2 mg/kg

    • 5 mg/kg

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 mg/kg
  • 21. 

    You are caring for Mrs. Undavi who is the ER right now. She takes a wide range of cardiac medications, and is currently complaining of pain in her face (alone jaw, nose and forehead). She has also been been vomiting all day and has not eaten a thing all day due the nausea. What do you thing may be wrong with her?

    • Digitalis Toxicity

    • Lidocaine Toxicity

    • Amiodarone Toxicity

    • Phenytoin Toxicity

    Correct Answer
    A. Digitalis Toxicity
  • 22. 

    Activation of Alpha 2 receptors inhibits ______ activity.

    • Dopa-b hydroxylase

    • Tyrosine

    • Adenylate cyclase

    • COMT

    Correct Answer
    A. Adenylate cyclase
  • 23. 

    Which of the following would be the best choice to prevent vasospasms associated with subarachnoid hemorrhage?

    • Nifedipine

    • Diltiazem

    • Isoproteronol

    • Nimodipine

    Correct Answer
    A. Nimodipine
  • 24. 

    What occurs during Phase 2 of action potential?

    • Repolarization to resting potential results from outward K current

    • Rapid phase of repolarization caused by inactivation of Na influx and activation of a transient outward K current

    • Voltage dependent Na channel opens and rapid sodium influx depolarizes cell

    • Plateau phase, characterized by low membrane conductance and the activation of slow inward Ca current

    • Outward K current is deactivated and an inward Na current reduces transmembrane potential

    Correct Answer
    A. Plateau phase, characterized by low membrane conductance and the activation of slow inward Ca current
  • 25. 

    Which calcium channel blocker will cause the greatest amount of coronary vasodilation?

    • Nifedipine

    • Nicardipine

    • Nimodipine

    • Hydralyzine

    Correct Answer
    A. Nicardipine
  • 26. 

    Depolarization of cardiac cells mainly has to do with _____, while repolarization has to do mainly with _____.

    • Calcium, Magnesium

    • Potassium, Sodium

    • Magnesium, Calcium

    • Sodium, Potassium

    Correct Answer
    A. Sodium, Potassium
  • 27. 

    You are the SRNA for Mr. Kodaris who is have open heart surgery today. Which of the following medications would be useful to give pre-op to decrease the incidence of post-op A-fib?

    • Amiodarone

    • Lidocaine

    • Digitalis

    • Procainamide

    Correct Answer
    A. Amiodarone
  • 28. 

    Which of the following Antidysrhythmic medication may cause seizures?

    • Phenytoin

    • Amiodarone

    • Procainamide

    • Lidocaine

    Correct Answer
    A. Lidocaine
  • 29. 

    What is the postsynaptic neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system?

    • Acetylcholine

    • Norepinephrine

    • Epinephrine

    • Tyrosine

    Correct Answer
    A. Norepinephrine
  • 30. 

    When a neurotransmitter binds to a postsynaptic receptor it is likely to likely cause which of the following?

    • Opening of an ion channel

    • Activation of a second messenger such as cAMP or inositol phosphate

    • Depolarization

    • All of above.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of above.
  • 31. 

    How do class III antidysrhythmic drugs work?

    • By antagonizing adrenergic receptors

    • Through blockade of Na channels.

    • By blocking the slow inward calcium driven current

    • By prolonging repolarization

    Correct Answer
    A. By prolonging repolarization
  • 32. 

    Which of the following would be the best medication to increase the HR on a pt with an amiodarone induced heart block?

    • Isoproterenol

    • Phenylephrine

    • Ephedrine

    • Calcium Chloride

    Correct Answer
    A. Isoproterenol
  • 33. 

    What is half life of amiodarone?

    • 29 days

    • 2 months

    • 17 hours

    • 8 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 29 days
  • 34. 

    Where is norepinephrine synthesized?

    • Post-synaptic neurons

    • Pineal Body

    • Posterior Lobe of Pituitary

    • Synaptic Vessicles

    Correct Answer
    A. Synaptic Vessicles
  • 35. 

    Epinephrine should be used cautiously in patients with what condition?

    • Dysrhythmias

    • Renal Failure

    • COPD

    • Hypertensive ischemic heart disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypertensive ischemic heart disease
  • 36. 

    Why do direct acting non-catecholamine have a longer serum half life than catecholamine?

    • They are not metabolized by MAO or COMT

    • Higher degree of protein binding

    • Increase volume of distribution

    • All of above

    Correct Answer
    A. They are not metabolized by MAO or COMT
  • 37. 

    Which of the following has both direct and indirect sympathomimetic activity?

    • Norepinephrine

    • Amphetamine

    • Ephedrine

    • Phenylephrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Ephedrine
  • 38. 

    What occurs during Phase 0 of action potential?

    • Repolarization to resting potential results from outward K current

    • Rapid phase of repolarization caused by inactivation of Na influx and activation of a transient outward K current

    • Voltage dependent Na channel opens and rapid sodium influx depolarizes cell

    • Plateau phase, characterized by low membrane conductance and the activation of slow inward Ca current

    • Outward K current is deactivated and an inward Na current reduces transmembrane potential

    Correct Answer
    A. Voltage dependent Na channel opens and rapid sodium influx depolarizes cell
  • 39. 

    Norepinephrine exerts its greatest action on which receptors?

    • Alpha

    • Beta 1

    • Beta 2

    • All are equal

    Correct Answer
    A. Alpha
  • 40. 

    What dose of dopamine would you give to achieve selective beta 1 agonism?

    • 16 mcg/kg/min

    • 24 mcg/kg/min

    • 5 mcg/kg/min

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 mcg/kg/min
  • 41. 

    What dose of Dopamine would you give to achieve alpha 1 agonism and an increase in PVR?               

    • 16 mcg/kg/min

    • 24 mcg/kg/min

    • 5 mcg/kg/min

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 mcg/kg/min
  • 42. 

    At which subunit do calcium channel blockers exert their action?

    • Beta 1

    • Alpha 1

    • Alpha 2

    • Beta 2

    Correct Answer
    A. Alpha 1
  • 43. 

    Which of the following drugs would be appropriate to treat hypotension in a patient who is taking MAOI’s?

    • Vifedipine

    • Epinephrine

    • Dopamine

    • Phenylephrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Phenylephrine
  • 44. 

    What enzyme acts on Dopamine to turn it into Norepinephrine?

    • N-methyltransferase

    • Dopamine B-Hydroxylase

    • DOPA decarboxylase

    • Dopamine does not directly turn into norepi… you’re missing a step.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dopamine B-Hydroxylase
  • 45. 

    N-Methyltransferase acts on Norepinephrine in the adrenal medulla to turn it into…

    • Vanillymandelic acid

    • Dopa

    • Epinephrine

    • Ephedrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Epinephrine
  • 46. 

    What is the mechanism of action of dexmedetomidine hydrochloride?

    • Beta 2 adrenoreceptor agonist

    • Alpha 2 adrenoreceptor agonist

    • Potentiation of GABA

    • None of above

    Correct Answer
    A. Alpha 2 adrenoreceptor agonist
  • 47. 

    Beta 2 agonism may result in which of the following electrolyte imbalances?

    • Hypokalemia

    • Hypochloremia

    • Hyponatremia

    • None of above

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypokalemia
  • 48. 

    How do calcium channel blockers reduce myocardial O2 demand? (two answers)

    • Through decrease in preload

    • By decreasing HR

    • Through a decrease in Afterload

    • Through alpha 2 antogonist activity

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. By decreasing HR
    A. Through a decrease in Afterload
  • 49. 

    What is an appropriate IV dose of amiodarone?

    • 1.5 mg/kg in NS every 5 min

    • 2 mg/kg rapid IV push

    • 5 mg/kg over 2-5 min

    • 2-6 mg/min IV infusion

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 mg/kg over 2-5 min

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Dec 31, 2012 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Dec 31, 2012
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Apr 08, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Scottishduffy
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