2012 Pharm II - Quiz 2

83 Questions | Attempts: 177
Share

SettingsSettingsSettings
Drug Quizzes & Trivia

A quiz reviewing the material for Quiz 3. Sympathomimetics, Calcium channel blockers, Antiarrhythmics


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the postsynaptic neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system?

    • A.

      Acetylcholine

    • B.

      Norepinephrine

    • C.

      Epinephrine

    • D.

      Tyrosine

    Correct Answer
    A. Acetylcholine
  • 2. 

    What is the postsynaptic neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system?

    • A.

      Acetylcholine

    • B.

      Norepinephrine

    • C.

      Epinephrine

    • D.

      Tyrosine

    Correct Answer
    B. Norepinephrine
  • 3. 

    Which of the following is release from the adrenal gland in times of stress and acts on alpha and beta receptors?

    • A.

      Dopamine

    • B.

      Norepinephrine

    • C.

      Epinephrine

    • D.

      Acetylcholine

    Correct Answer
    C. Epinephrine
  • 4. 

    Where is norepinephrine synthesized?

    • A.

      Post-synaptic neurons

    • B.

      Pineal Body

    • C.

      Posterior Lobe of Pituitary

    • D.

      Synaptic Vessicles

    Correct Answer
    D. Synaptic Vessicles
  • 5. 

    When Tyrosine is hydroxylated it becomes what?

    • A.

      Dopa

    • B.

      Phenylalanine

    • C.

      Norepinephrine

    • D.

      Epinephrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Dopa
  • 6. 

    What enzyme acts on Dopamine to turn it into Norepinephrine?

    • A.

      N-methyltransferase

    • B.

      Dopamine B-Hydroxylase

    • C.

      DOPA decarboxylase

    • D.

      Dopamine does not directly turn into norepi… you’re missing a step.

    Correct Answer
    B. Dopamine B-Hydroxylase
  • 7. 

    Which of the following is not one of the 3 mechanisms for termination of norepinephrine?

    • A.

      Re-uptake

    • B.

      Diffusion from receptor sites

    • C.

      Irreversible protein binding

    • D.

      Enzyme degredation

    Correct Answer
    C. Irreversible protein binding
  • 8. 

    When a neurotransmitter binds to a postsynaptic receptor it is likely to likely cause which of the following?

    • A.

      Opening of an ion channel

    • B.

      Activation of a second messenger such as cAMP or inositol phosphate

    • C.

      Depolarization

    • D.

      All of above.

    Correct Answer
    D. All of above.
  • 9. 

    After the breakdown of epinephrine by MAO and COMT, what product is excreted in the urine?

    • A.

      Vanillymandelic Acid

    • B.

      3,7-dicarboxyvandelic acid

    • C.

      Nelson-Mandelic Acid

    • D.

      4,6-Pheocomtic acid

    Correct Answer
    A. Vanillymandelic Acid
  • 10. 

    Norepinephrine is synthesized from ______ which is hydroxylated to form Dopa.

    • A.

      Dopamine

    • B.

      Tyrosine

    • C.

      COMT

    • D.

      Phenylalanine

    Correct Answer
    B. Tyrosine
  • 11. 

    Where does dopa-b hydroxylase act upon dopamine to turn it into norepinephrine?

    • A.

      Mitochondria

    • B.

      Synaptic cleft

    • C.

      Synaptic Vessicles

    • D.

      Storage Vessicles

    Correct Answer
    C. Synaptic Vessicles
  • 12. 

    Which of the following is not a cardiac effect of alpa 1 receptor activation?

    • A.

      Decrease SVR

    • B.

      Vasoconstriction

    • C.

      Increase LV afterload

    • D.

      Increase arterial BP

    Correct Answer
    A. Decrease SVR
  • 13. 

    Which of the following is a pre-synaptic receptor?

    • A.

      Alpha 1

    • B.

      Alpha 2

    • C.

      Beta 1

    • D.

      Beta 2

    Correct Answer
    B. Alpha 2
  • 14. 

    Activation of Alpha 2 receptors inhibits ______ activity.

    • A.

      Dopa-b hydroxylase

    • B.

      Tyrosine

    • C.

      Adenylate cyclase

    • D.

      COMT

    Correct Answer
    C. Adenylate cyclase
  • 15. 

    Stimulation of Beta 1 receptors is likely to have all of the following effects except …

    • A.

      Increase Contractility

    • B.

      Increase HR

    • C.

      Increase CO

    • D.

      Decreased SVR

    Correct Answer
    D. Decreased SVR
  • 16. 

    Beta 2 agonism may result in which of the following electrolyte imbalances?

    • A.

      Hypokalemia

    • B.

      Hypochloremia

    • C.

      Hyponatremia

    • D.

      None of above

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypokalemia
  • 17. 

    Which of the following is not a direct sympathomimetic?

    • A.

      Phenylephrine

    • B.

      Amphetamine

    • C.

      Isoproterenol

    • D.

      Dobutamine

    Correct Answer
    B. Amphetamine
  • 18. 

    Which of the following is not a direct acting catecholamine?               

    • A.

      Epinephrine

    • B.

      Dobutamine

    • C.

      Phenylephrine

    • D.

      Isoproterenol

    Correct Answer
    C. Phenylephrine
  • 19. 

    What is the most potent activator of alpha adrenergic receptors?

    • A.

      Norepinephrine

    • B.

      Ephedrine

    • C.

      Phenylephrine

    • D.

      Epinephrine

    Correct Answer
    D. Epinephrine
  • 20. 

    Which of the following would not be an effect of epinephrine?               

    • A.

      Increased renal blood flow

    • B.

      Increase rate of phase IV depolarization

    • C.

      Bronchodilation

    • D.

      Increase cerebral perfusion pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased renal blood flow
  • 21. 

    What is the appropriate shock and allergic reaction dose of epinephrine?

    • A.

      1:1000 solution .1-.5 ml SQ/IM

    • B.

      0.05 -1mg IV

    • C.

      2-20 ug/min

    • D.

      Racemic inhalation 0.5 ml of 2.25% solution

    Correct Answer
    B. 0.05 -1mg IV
  • 22. 

    A 1: 10,000 mix of epinephrine contains how many micrograms of epinephrine per ml?               

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      5

    • C.

      100

    • D.

      20

    Correct Answer
    C. 100
  • 23. 

    Epinephrine should be used cautiously in patients with what condition?

    • A.

      Dysrhythmias

    • B.

      Renal Failure

    • C.

      COPD

    • D.

      Hypertensive ischemic heart disease

    Correct Answer
    D. Hypertensive ischemic heart disease
  • 24. 

    Norepinephrine exerts its greatest action on which receptors?

    • A.

      Alpha

    • B.

      Beta 1

    • C.

      Beta 2

    • D.

      All are equal

    Correct Answer
    A. Alpha
  • 25. 

    Which of the following is not an effect of norepinephrine?               

    • A.

      Increase myocardial O2 demand

    • B.

      Increase CO

    • C.

      Bradycardia

    • D.

      Increase Afterload

    Correct Answer
    B. Increase CO
  • 26. 

    Which of the following would be the best choice to increase cardiac contractility in a pt with CHF and CAD?

    • A.

      Phenylephrine

    • B.

      Dopamine

    • C.

      Dobutamine

    • D.

      Norepinephrine

    Correct Answer
    C. Dobutamine
  • 27. 

    Which of the following is an appropriate renal dose of dopamine?

    • A.

      2 mcg/kg/min

    • B.

      8 mcg/kg/min

    • C.

      15 mcg/kg/min

    • D.

      All of above

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 mcg/kg/min
  • 28. 

    What dose of dopamine would you give to achieve selective beta 1 agonism?

    • A.

      16 mcg/kg/min

    • B.

    • C.

      24 mcg/kg/min

    • D.

      5 mcg/kg/min

    Correct Answer
    D. 5 mcg/kg/min
  • 29. 

    What dose of Dopamine would you give to achieve alpha 1 agonism and an increase in PVR?               

    • A.

      16 mcg/kg/min

    • B.

    • C.

      24 mcg/kg/min

    • D.

      5 mcg/kg/min

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 mcg/kg/min
  • 30. 

    Why do direct acting non-catecholamine have a longer serum half life than catecholamine?

    • A.

      They are not metabolized by MAO or COMT

    • B.

      Higher degree of protein binding

    • C.

      Increase volume of distribution

    • D.

      All of above

    Correct Answer
    A. They are not metabolized by MAO or COMT
  • 31. 

    Phenylephrine primarily acts upon which receptor?

    • A.

      Beta 2

    • B.

      Alpha 1

    • C.

      Beta 1

    • D.

      Alpha 2

    Correct Answer
    B. Alpha 1
  • 32. 

    Which of the following has both direct and indirect sympathomimetic activity?

    • A.

      Norepinephrine

    • B.

      Amphetamine

    • C.

      Ephedrine

    • D.

      Phenylephrine

    Correct Answer
    C. Ephedrine
  • 33. 

    What is the preferred medication to raise the BP of an OB patient?

    • A.

      Epinephrine

    • B.

      Amphetamine

    • C.

      Dopamine

    • D.

      Ephedrine

    Correct Answer
    D. Ephedrine
  • 34. 

    What effect will ephedrine have on your MAC?

    • A.

      Increase MAC

    • B.

      Decrease MAC

    • C.

      No effect on MAC

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase MAC
  • 35. 

    How will a pt who has a history of chronic amphetamine abuse affect your anesthetic requirements?

    • A.

      Increase MAC

    • B.

      Decrease MAC

    • C.

      No Effect

    Correct Answer
    B. Decrease MAC
  • 36. 

    Which of the following is an alpha 2 agonist?

    • A.

      Phenylephrine

    • B.

      Norepinephrine

    • C.

      Clonodine

    • D.

      Dopamine

    Correct Answer
    C. Clonodine
  • 37. 

    Which of the following is not an effect of precedex?

    • A.

      Maintaining respiratory stability

    • B.

      Sedation

    • C.

      Reduces brain Noradrenergic Activity

    • D.

      Increase pt BP

    Correct Answer
    D. Increase pt BP
  • 38. 

    How will Renal impairment effect metabolism of Precedex?

    • A.

      It won’t effect it… only hepatic impairment will.

    • B.

      You will need to decrease the dose

    • C.

      You will need to increase the dose

    • D.

      Pt will be more prone to bradycardia and hypotension

    Correct Answer
    A. It won’t effect it… only hepatic impairment will.
  • 39. 

    Which of the following is not a factor associated with cardiac dysrhythmias?

    • A.

      Altered sympathetic nervous system activity

    • B.

      Venous Hypoxia

    • C.

      Myocardial Ischemia

    • D.

      Bradycardia

    Correct Answer
    B. Venous Hypoxia
  • 40. 

    What occurs during Phase 0 of action potential?

    • A.

      Repolarization to resting potential results from outward K current

    • B.

      Rapid phase of repolarization caused by inactivation of Na influx and activation of a transient outward K current

    • C.

      Voltage dependent Na channel opens and rapid sodium influx depolarizes cell

    • D.

      Plateau phase, characterized by low membrane conductance and the activation of slow inward Ca current

    • E.

      Outward K current is deactivated and an inward Na current reduces transmembrane potential

    Correct Answer
    C. Voltage dependent Na channel opens and rapid sodium influx depolarizes cell
  • 41. 

    What occurs during Phase 1 of action potential?

    • A.

      Repolarization to resting potential results from outward K current

    • B.

      Rapid phase of repolarization caused by inactivation of Na influx and activation of a transient outward K current

    • C.

      Voltage dependent Na channel opens and rapid sodium influx depolarizes cell

    • D.

      Plateau phase, characterized by low membrane conductance and the activation of slow inward Ca current

    • E.

      Outward K current is deactivated and an inward Na current reduces transmembrane potential

    Correct Answer
    B. Rapid phase of repolarization caused by inactivation of Na influx and activation of a transient outward K current
  • 42. 

    What occurs during Phase 2 of action potential?

    • A.

      Repolarization to resting potential results from outward K current

    • B.

      Rapid phase of repolarization caused by inactivation of Na influx and activation of a transient outward K current

    • C.

      Voltage dependent Na channel opens and rapid sodium influx depolarizes cell

    • D.

      Plateau phase, characterized by low membrane conductance and the activation of slow inward Ca current

    • E.

      Outward K current is deactivated and an inward Na current reduces transmembrane potential

    Correct Answer
    D. Plateau phase, characterized by low membrane conductance and the activation of slow inward Ca current
  • 43. 

    What occurs during Phase 3 of action potential?

    • A.

      Repolarization to resting potential results from outward K current

    • B.

      Rapid phase of repolarization caused by inactivation of Na influx and activation of a transient outward K current

    • C.

      Voltage dependent Na channel opens and rapid sodium influx depolarizes cell

    • D.

      Plateau phase, characterized by low membrane conductance and the activation of slow inward Ca current

    • E.

      Outward K current is deactivated and an inward Na current reduces transmembrane potential

    Correct Answer
    A. Repolarization to resting potential results from outward K current
  • 44. 

    What occurs during Phase 4 of action potential?

    • A.

      Repolarization to resting potential results from outward K current

    • B.

      Rapid phase of repolarization caused by inactivation of Na influx and activation of a transient outward K current

    • C.

      Voltage dependent Na channel opens and rapid sodium influx depolarizes cell

    • D.

      Plateau phase, characterized by low membrane conductance and the activation of slow inward Ca current

    • E.

      Outward K current is deactivated and an inward Na current reduces transmembrane potentialt

    Correct Answer
    E. Outward K current is deactivated and an inward Na current reduces transmembrane potentialt
  • 45. 

    How do class I antidysrhythmic drugs work?

    • A.

      By antagonizing adrenergic receptors

    • B.

      Through blockade of Na channels.

    • C.

      By blocking the slow inward calcium driven current

    • D.

      By prolonging repolarization

    Correct Answer
    B. Through blockade of Na channels.
  • 46. 

    How do class II antidysrhythmic drugs work?

    • A.

      By antagonizing adrenergic receptors

    • B.

      Through blockade of Na channels.

    • C.

      By blocking the slow inward calcium driven current

    • D.

      By prolonging repolarization

    Correct Answer
    A. By antagonizing adrenergic receptors
  • 47. 

    How do class III antidysrhythmic drugs work?

    • A.

      By antagonizing adrenergic receptors

    • B.

      Through blockade of Na channels.

    • C.

      By blocking the slow inward calcium driven current

    • D.

      By prolonging repolarization

    Correct Answer
    D. By prolonging repolarization
  • 48. 

    How do class IV antidysrhythmic drugs work?

    • A.

      By antagonizing adrenergic receptors

    • B.

      Through blockade of Na channels.

    • C.

      By blocking the slow inward calcium driven current

    • D.

      By prolonging repolarization

    Correct Answer
    C. By blocking the slow inward calcium driven current
  • 49. 

    Depolarization of cardiac cells mainly has to do with _____, while repolarization has to do mainly with _____.

    • A.

      Calcium, Magnesium

    • B.

      Potassium, Sodium

    • C.

      Magnesium, Calcium

    • D.

      Sodium, Potassium

    Correct Answer
    D. Sodium, Potassium
  • 50. 

    Which of the following Class I antidysrhythmics will have little effect on phase 0 depolarization?

    • A.

      Class IB

    • B.

      Class IA

    • C.

      Class IC

    • D.

      All the above have profound effects upon Phase O depolarization.

    Correct Answer
    A. Class IB

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Dec 31, 2012
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 08, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Scottishduffy
Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement
×

Wait!
Here's an interesting quiz for you.

We have other quizzes matching your interest.