Pharmacology Hardest Exam! Trivia Quiz

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  • 1/45 Questions

    This IV GA could be deadly: you could fall asleep, stop breathing and die. SE are major decreases in blood pressure, vasodilation, a decrease in myocardial contractility, and a decrease in ventilation rate. Michael Jackson supposedly died this way 

    • Propofol
    • Ketamine
    • Midazolam
    • Fentanyl
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Pharmacology Hardest Exam! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    This drug is used to treat Malignant Hyperthermia. 

    • Dantrolene

    • Mivacurium

    • Rocuronium

    • Succinylcholine

    Correct Answer
    A. Dantrolene
    Explanation
    It's a ryanodine receptor inhibitor causing muscle relaxation.

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  • 3. 

    This type of anesthesia occurs in the space within the vertebral canal but superficial to the dural sac.

    • Surface Anesthesia

    • Field Block Anesthesia

    • Nerve block anesthesia

    • Intravenous regional anesthesia

    • Epidural block

    • Spinal Block

    Correct Answer
    A. Epidural block
    Explanation
    You can fine tune the anesthesia by varying the dose of LA into catheter

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  • 4. 

    Which one of the following is a vaginal ring inserted for three weeks?

    • Micronor

    • Orvette

    • Depo-Provera

    • Ortho Evra

    • NuvaRing

    • Mirena

    Correct Answer
    A. NuvaRing
    Explanation
    Inserted prior to the fifth day of the mensrual cycle.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is an adverse reaction to most inhaled GAs? Results in uncontrolled muscle contraction bc the ryanodine calcium channels do not close? Leads to heat generation

    • Amnesia

    • Immobility

    • Attenuation of autonomic response to noxious stimulus

    • Malignant Hyperthermia

    • Emergence Excitement

    • Laughter

    Correct Answer
    A. Malignant Hyperthermia
    Explanation
    Myocytes lyse releaseing potassium resulting in fatal cardiac events. Tx with DANTROLENE - ryanodine receptor inhibitor.

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  • 6. 

    This inhaled GA produces profound analgesia and is commonly used on the battlefield and vet medicine.

    • Propofol

    • Ketamine

    • Midazolam

    • Fentanyl

    Correct Answer
    A. Ketamine
    Explanation
    SE: increases blood pressure, so good in pts at risk for hypotension.

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  • 7. 

    This drug is most widely used in local anesthesia. Used for infiltration, nerve block, spinal and epi blocks.

    • Lidocaine

    • Articaine

    • Benzocaine

    • Epinephrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Lidocaine
  • 8. 

    This drug is used in conjunction with local anesthetics to decrease the rate of absorption and prolonged anesthesia via vasoconstriction at the site of injection.

    • Lidocaine

    • Articaine

    • Benzocaine

    • Epinephrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Epinephrine
    Explanation
    Do not inject at peripheral sites (digits, ear, nose, penis) due to loss of blood supply.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is very common in prolonged operations because operating room temps are typically below 21 C.

    • Amnesia

    • Immobility

    • Attenuation of autonomic response to noxious stimulus

    • Hypothermia

    • Emergence Excitement

    • Laughter

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypothermia
    Explanation
    Warming methods: heated surgical beds, heating of air of inhaled GAs and using microprocessor controlled water-filled garments.

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  • 10. 

    Which one of the following oral contraceptive is a patch placed on the abdomen, buttocks, upper torso, or upper arm?

    • Micronor

    • Orvette

    • Depo-Provera

    • Ortho Evra

    • NuvaRing

    • Mirena

    Correct Answer
    A. Ortho Evra
    Explanation
    Doesn't work as well in woman over 90 kg (198 lbs)

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following drugs is used to prevent osteoporosis in postmenopausal women?

    • Premarin

    • Prempro

    • Raloxifene Hydrochloride

    • Clomiphene

    • Leuprolide Acetate

    Correct Answer
    A. Raloxifene Hydrochloride
    Explanation
    It acts as an estrogen agonist in bone. (SERMS)

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  • 12. 

    These two drugs are competitive inhibitors of ACh binding to ACh receptor at NMG. They are not metabolized by acetylcholine esterase.

    • Dantrolene

    • Mivacurium

    • Rocuronium

    • Succinylcholine

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Mivacurium
    A. Rocuronium
  • 13. 

    This drug is a DEPOLARIZING NMJ blocker.

    • Dantrolene

    • Mivacurium

    • Rocuronium

    • Succinylcholine

    Correct Answer
    A. Succinylcholine
    Explanation
    Neostigmine antagonizes the SCh block in phase II.

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  • 14. 

    This local anesthetic has a duration of action of 1 hour and has become the LA of choice for dentists.  

    • Lidocaine

    • Articaine

    • Benzocaine

    • Epinephrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Articaine
  • 15. 

    This ester is used topically for surface anesthesia. One brand name is HURRICANE :)  

    • Lidocaine

    • Articaine

    • Benzocaine

    • Epinephrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Benzocaine
  • 16. 

    This intrauterine device needs to be inserted by a healthcare provider. It stays in place for 5 years

    • Micronor

    • Orvette

    • Depo-Provera

    • Ortho Evra

    • NuvaRing

    • Mirena

    Correct Answer
    A. Mirena
    Explanation
    SE: introduction of bacteria into the genital tract causing the development of PID. ParaGuard is left in place for 10 YEARS!!

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following drugs is used for prostate cancer, endometriosis, and precocious puberty?

    • Premarin

    • Prempro

    • Raloxifene Hydrochloride

    • Clomiphene

    • Leuprolide Acetate

    Correct Answer
    A. Leuprolide Acetate
    Explanation
    It is a GnRH agonist. Watch out for hot flashes and night sweats.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following are required for a pt to achieve an anesthetic state for surgery?

    • Amnesia

    • Immobility

    • Attenuation of autonomic response to noxious stimulus

    • Hypothermia

    • Emergence Excitement

    • Laughter

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Amnesia
    A. Immobility
    A. Attenuation of autonomic response to noxious stimulus
  • 19. 

    Which of the following is a condition where the half conscious pt exhibits restlessnes, crying, moaning, and in extreme cases thrashing? (kinda sounds like a bad dream?)

    • Amnesia

    • Immobility

    • Attenuation of autonomic response to noxious stimulus

    • Hypothermia

    • Emergence Excitement

    • Laughter

    Correct Answer
    A. Emergence Excitement
    Explanation
    Occurs in 5-30% of pts and is more common in children, the elderly, and drug-dependent pts.

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  • 20. 

    This drug is used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia and male pattern baldness.

    • Menotropins

    • Follitropin alpha/beta

    • Chorionic Gonadotropin

    • Choriogonadotropin alpha

    • Finasteride

    • Dutasteride

    Correct Answer
    A. Finasteride
    Explanation
    It blocks the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone.

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  • 21. 

    This NMJ blocker has a SHORT duration of action (12-18 minutes) and causes histamine release. 

    • Dantrolene

    • Mivacurium

    • Rocuronium

    • Succinylcholine

    Correct Answer
    A. Mivacurium
    Explanation
    it is metabolized by plasma cholinesterase - causes short durationo of action.

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  • 22. 

    This NMJ blocker has an INTERMEDIATE duration of action (30-60 minutes). Used to rapidly relax (1-2 min) laryngeal and jaw muscles for tracheal intubation.  

    • Dantrolene

    • Mivacurium

    • Rocuronium

    • Succinylcholine

    Correct Answer
    A. Rocuronium
    Explanation
    It is a steroidal compound with little or no associated tachycardia or histamine release.

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  • 23. 

    This type of anesthesia occurs in the cerebral spinal fluid in subarachnoid space (intrathecal space)

    • Surface Anesthesia

    • Field Block Anesthesia

    • Nerve block anesthesia

    • Intravenous regional anesthesia

    • Epidural block

    • Spinal Block

    Correct Answer
    A. Spinal Block
    Explanation
    LA is limited to injection site: below the termination of the spinal cord (2nd lumbar vertebra)

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  • 24. 

    Which progestin has both progestin activity and aldosterone antagonist activity?

    • Levonogrestrel

    • Drospirenone

    • Norgestrel

    • Spironolactone

    • Medroxyprogesterone

    Correct Answer
    A. Drospirenone
    Explanation
    Drospirenone is a spironolactone derivative.

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  • 25. 

    How soon after intercourse must the first dose of Emergency contraceptives be taken? (Plan B Kit and Preven)

    • Within 72 hours

    • Within 1 hour

    • Within 36 hours

    • Within 12 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. Within 72 hours
    Explanation
    The second dose is taken 12 hours after the first.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following replacements therapies should be given to a woman with an INTACT UTERUS?

    • Premarin

    • Prempro

    • Raloxifene Hydrochloride

    • Clomiphene

    • Leuprolide Acetate

    Correct Answer
    A. Prempro
    Explanation
    This prevents estrogen-induces endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial cancer.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following are used to INDUCE anesthesia? (as opposed to maintain it)

    • Inhaled GAs

    • IV GAs

    • Neuromuscular Junction blockers

    • Fentanyl

    • Succinylcholine

    Correct Answer
    A. IV GAs
    Explanation
    They are faster acting than inhaled.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following are used to MAINTAIN anesthesia? (as opposed to induce it)

    • Inhaled GAs

    • IV GAs

    • Neuromuscular Junction blockers

    • Fentanyl

    • Succinylcholine

    Correct Answer
    A. Inhaled GAs
  • 29. 

    These two drugs are taken up by fat, brain, kidney, liver then muscle and gut 

    • Lidocaine

    • Articaine

    • Benzocaine

    • Epinephrine

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Lidocaine
    A. Articaine
    Explanation
    These drugs are amides (benzocaine is an ester: metabolized in plasma too fast to be redistributed at low doses)

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is used to induce ovulation in anovulatory women who want to become pregnant?

    • Premarin

    • Prempro

    • Raloxifene Hydrochloride

    • Clomiphene

    • Leuprolide Acetate

    Correct Answer
    A. Clomiphene
    Explanation
    It has potent anti-estrogenic activity. It inhibits the negative feedback effects of estrogen at the hypothalamic and pituitary levels.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following may be given to reduce does of GAs and specifically to block the noxious stimullus reflex in the autonomic nervous sytem?

    • Inhaled GAs

    • IV GAs

    • Neuromuscular Junction blockers

    • Fentanyl

    • Succinylcholine

    Correct Answer
    A. Fentanyl
    Explanation
    opioid analgesic

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  • 32. 

    These drugs are used in conjunction with others to decrease the dose of GA needed to reach the desired depth of anesthesia.

    • Propofol

    • Ketamine

    • Midazolam

    • Fentanyl

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Midazolam
    A. Fentanyl
    Explanation
    Balanced Anesthesia: use of multiple classes of drugs to achieve the desired depth of anesthesia.

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  • 33. 

    What the beneficial effects of combined oral contraceptives? 

    • Decreased incidence of endometrial cancer

    • Decreased incidence of ovarian cancer

    • Decreased incidence of acen vulgaris

    • Decreased incidence of cervical cancer

    • Decreased incidence of thromboembolic disorders

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Decreased incidence of endometrial cancer
    A. Decreased incidence of ovarian cancer
    A. Decreased incidence of acen vulgaris
    Explanation
    COCs increase the incidence of cervical cancer and thromboembolic disorders.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following (select multiple) describe a EPIDURAL block?

    • Less time

    • Less discomfort

    • MORE INTENSE sensory and motor block

    • LA is limited to injection site below termination of spinal cord (2nd lumbar vertebra)

    • Less risk for post-dural puncture HA

    • Placement of catheter for long-term pain reduction

    • NOT limited to injection sites below 2nd lumbar vertebra

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Less risk for post-dural puncture HA
    A. Placement of catheter for long-term pain reduction
    A. NOT limited to injection sites below 2nd lumbar vertebra
  • 35. 

    Which of the following (select multiple) describe a SPINAL block?

    • Less time

    • Less discomfort

    • MORE INTENSE sensory and motor block

    • LA is limited to injection site below termination of spinal cord (2nd lumbar vertebra)

    • Less risk for post-dural puncture HA

    • Placement of catheter for long-term pain reduction

    • NOT limited to injection sites below 2nd lumbar vertebra

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Less time
    A. Less discomfort
    A. MORE INTENSE sensory and motor block
    A. LA is limited to injection site below termination of spinal cord (2nd lumbar vertebra)
  • 36. 

    These FSH preps are administered subcutaneously (as opposed to IM).

    • Menotropins

    • Follitropin alpha/beta

    • Chorionic Gonadotropin

    • Choriogonadotropin alpha

    • Finasteride

    • Dutasteride

    Correct Answer
    A. Follitropin alpha/beta
    Explanation
    Menotropins are administerd IM.

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  • 37. 

    Which two drugs (when used together) can induce OVULATION in infertile women or stimulate SPERMATOGENESIS in males with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism?

    • Menotropins

    • Follitropin alpha/beta

    • Chorionic Gonadotropin

    • Choriogonadotropin alpha

    • Finasteride

    • Dutasteride

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Menotropins
    A. Chorionic Gonadotropin
    Explanation
    Chorionic Gonadotropin can also be used for prepubertal cryptorchidism in males 4-9 yrs old to promote testicular descent.

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  • 38. 

    Select of the following which are RELATIVE CONTRAINDICATIONS to combined oral contraceptives:

    • Thromboembolic disease

    • Cerebrovascular disease

    • MI, CAD

    • Congenital hyperlipidemia

    • Breast cancer

    • Decreased liver function

    • Liver tumor

    • Woman over 35 who smokes heavily

    • Migraines

    • Hypertension

    • Diabetes mellitus

    • Gallbladder disease

    • Male gender

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Migraines
    A. Hypertension
    A. Diabetes mellitus
    A. Gallbladder disease
  • 39. 

    Which of the following oral contraceptives are progestin-only preparations?

    • Micronor

    • Orvette

    • Depo-Provera

    • Ortho Evra

    • NuvaRing

    • Mirena

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Micronor
    A. Orvette
    A. Depo-Provera
    Explanation
    Oral progestin only preps (micronor and orvette) are used in women who have contraindications for the use of estrogen-containing contraceptives. Depo-Provera is IM injectable.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following are adverse side effects to combined oral contraceptives?

    • Nausea

    • Choamsa (brownish pigmentation-induced skin discoloration on face)

    • Acne

    • Hirsutism

    • Thromboembolic disease

    • Hypertension

    • Cholelithiasis

    • Increase in TRIG and LDL

    • Breakthrough bleeding

    • Cervical cancer

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Nausea
    A. Choamsa (brownish pigmentation-induced skin discoloration on face)
    A. Acne
    A. Hirsutism
    A. Thromboembolic disease
    A. Hypertension
    A. Cholelithiasis
    A. Increase in TRIG and LDL
    A. Breakthrough bleeding
    A. Cervical cancer
    Explanation
    Nausea is the most frequents adverse effect. can be minimized by taking them with or after dinner, or at bedtime.

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  • 41. 

    The following H1 Antagonist can be used as anit-emitics:

    • Doxyalmine

    • Hydroxysine

    • Diphenhydramine

    • Promethazine

    • Dimenhydrinate

    • Meclizine

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Hydroxysine
    A. Diphenhydramine
    A. Promethazine
    A. Dimenhydrinate
    A. Meclizine
  • 42. 

    Which of the following are side effects of local anesthetics at  (lidocaine, articaine, and benzocaine)?

    • Conversion of hemoglobin to methemoglobin

    • Crosses placental barrier

    • Vasodilation

    • Nystagmus

    • Nausea and vomiting

    • Torsades

    • Malignant Hyperthermia

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Conversion of hemoglobin to methemoglobin
    A. Crosses placental barrier
    A. Vasodilation
    A. Nystagmus
  • 43. 

    The following drugs are used as over the counter sleep aids:

    • Doxyalmine

    • Hydroxysine

    • Diphenhydramine

    • Promethazine

    • Dimenhydrinate

    • Meclizine

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Doxyalmine
    A. Hydroxysine
    A. Diphenhydramine
  • 44. 

    Select of the following which are ABSOLUTE CONTRAINDICATIONS to combined oral contraceptives:

    • Thromboembolic disease

    • Cerebrovascular disease

    • MI, CAD

    • Congenital hyperlipidemia

    • Breast cancer

    • Decreased liver function

    • Liver tumor

    • Woman over 35 who smokes heavily

    • Migraines

    • Hypertension

    • Diabetes mellitus

    • Gallbladder disease

    • Male gender

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Thromboembolic disease
    A. Cerebrovascular disease
    A. MI, CAD
    A. Congenital hyperlipidemia
    A. Breast cancer
    A. Decreased liver function
    A. Liver tumor
    A. Woman over 35 who smokes heavily
    Explanation
    Relative contraindications for COCs: migraines, hypertension, DM, gallbladder disease. Male gender is not an explicit contraindication....although I would say otherwise.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2022 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2022
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 23, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Rachael.m.thomas
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