Pharmacology Hardest Exam! Trivia Quiz
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- 1.
This IV GA could be deadly: you could fall asleep, stop breathing and die. SE are major decreases in blood pressure, vasodilation, a decrease in myocardial contractility, and a decrease in ventilation rate. Michael Jackson supposedly died this way
- A.
Propofol
- B.
Ketamine
- C.
Midazolam
- D.
Fentanyl
Correct Answer
A. PropofolExplanation
Mechanism: enhance the effects of GABA at GABAa inhibitory receptors. This drug is the MOST COMMON induction agent of anesthesia in the US.Rate this question:
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- 2.
This inhaled GA produces profound analgesia and is commonly used on the battlefield and vet medicine.
- A.
Propofol
- B.
Ketamine
- C.
Midazolam
- D.
Fentanyl
Correct Answer
B. KetamineExplanation
SE: increases blood pressure, so good in pts at risk for hypotension.Rate this question:
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- 3.
These drugs are used in conjunction with others to decrease the dose of GA needed to reach the desired depth of anesthesia.
- A.
Propofol
- B.
Ketamine
- C.
Midazolam
- D.
Fentanyl
Correct Answer(s)
C. Midazolam
D. FentanylExplanation
Balanced Anesthesia: use of multiple classes of drugs to achieve the desired depth of anesthesia.Rate this question:
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- 4.
These two drugs are competitive inhibitors of ACh binding to ACh receptor at NMG. They are not metabolized by acetylcholine esterase.
- A.
Dantrolene
- B.
Mivacurium
- C.
Rocuronium
- D.
Succinylcholine
Correct Answer(s)
B. Mivacurium
C. Rocuronium -
- 5.
This drug is used to treat Malignant Hyperthermia.
- A.
Dantrolene
- B.
Mivacurium
- C.
Rocuronium
- D.
Succinylcholine
Correct Answer
A. DantroleneExplanation
It's a ryanodine receptor inhibitor causing muscle relaxation.Rate this question:
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- 6.
This NMJ blocker has a SHORT duration of action (12-18 minutes) and causes histamine release.
- A.
Dantrolene
- B.
Mivacurium
- C.
Rocuronium
- D.
Succinylcholine
Correct Answer
B. MivacuriumExplanation
it is metabolized by plasma cholinesterase - causes short durationo of action.Rate this question:
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- 7.
This NMJ blocker has an INTERMEDIATE duration of action (30-60 minutes). Used to rapidly relax (1-2 min) laryngeal and jaw muscles for tracheal intubation.
- A.
Dantrolene
- B.
Mivacurium
- C.
Rocuronium
- D.
Succinylcholine
Correct Answer
C. RocuroniumExplanation
It is a steroidal compound with little or no associated tachycardia or histamine release.Rate this question:
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- 8.
This drug is a DEPOLARIZING NMJ blocker.
- A.
Dantrolene
- B.
Mivacurium
- C.
Rocuronium
- D.
Succinylcholine
Correct Answer
D. SuccinylcholineExplanation
Neostigmine antagonizes the SCh block in phase II.Rate this question:
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- 9.
This drug is most widely used in local anesthesia. Used for infiltration, nerve block, spinal and epi blocks.
- A.
Lidocaine
- B.
Articaine
- C.
Benzocaine
- D.
Epinephrine
Correct Answer
A. Lidocaine -
- 10.
This local anesthetic has a duration of action of 1 hour and has become the LA of choice for dentists.
- A.
Lidocaine
- B.
Articaine
- C.
Benzocaine
- D.
Epinephrine
Correct Answer
B. Articaine -
- 11.
This ester is used topically for surface anesthesia. One brand name is HURRICANE :)
- A.
Lidocaine
- B.
Articaine
- C.
Benzocaine
- D.
Epinephrine
Correct Answer
C. Benzocaine -
- 12.
This drug is used in conjunction with local anesthetics to decrease the rate of absorption and prolonged anesthesia via vasoconstriction at the site of injection.
- A.
Lidocaine
- B.
Articaine
- C.
Benzocaine
- D.
Epinephrine
Correct Answer
D. EpinephrineExplanation
Do not inject at peripheral sites (digits, ear, nose, penis) due to loss of blood supply.Rate this question:
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- 13.
This type of anesthesia occurs in the space within the vertebral canal but superficial to the dural sac.
- A.
Surface Anesthesia
- B.
Field Block Anesthesia
- C.
Nerve block anesthesia
- D.
Intravenous regional anesthesia
- E.
Epidural block
- F.
Spinal Block
Correct Answer
E. Epidural blockExplanation
You can fine tune the anesthesia by varying the dose of LA into catheterRate this question:
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- 14.
This type of anesthesia occurs in the cerebral spinal fluid in subarachnoid space (intrathecal space)
- A.
Surface Anesthesia
- B.
Field Block Anesthesia
- C.
Nerve block anesthesia
- D.
Intravenous regional anesthesia
- E.
Epidural block
- F.
Spinal Block
Correct Answer
F. Spinal BlockExplanation
LA is limited to injection site: below the termination of the spinal cord (2nd lumbar vertebra)Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which of the following (select multiple) describe a SPINAL block?
- A.
Less time
- B.
Less discomfort
- C.
MORE INTENSE sensory and motor block
- D.
LA is limited to injection site below termination of spinal cord (2nd lumbar vertebra)
- E.
Less risk for post-dural puncture HA
- F.
Placement of catheter for long-term pain reduction
- G.
NOT limited to injection sites below 2nd lumbar vertebra
Correct Answer(s)
A. Less time
B. Less discomfort
C. MORE INTENSE sensory and motor block
D. LA is limited to injection site below termination of spinal cord (2nd lumbar vertebra) -
- 16.
Which of the following (select multiple) describe a EPIDURAL block?
- A.
Less time
- B.
Less discomfort
- C.
MORE INTENSE sensory and motor block
- D.
LA is limited to injection site below termination of spinal cord (2nd lumbar vertebra)
- E.
Less risk for post-dural puncture HA
- F.
Placement of catheter for long-term pain reduction
- G.
NOT limited to injection sites below 2nd lumbar vertebra
Correct Answer(s)
E. Less risk for post-dural puncture HA
F. Placement of catheter for long-term pain reduction
G. NOT limited to injection sites below 2nd lumbar vertebra -
- 17.
Which of the following are side effects of local anesthetics at (lidocaine, articaine, and benzocaine)?
- A.
Conversion of hemoglobin to methemoglobin
- B.
Crosses placental barrier
- C.
Vasodilation
- D.
Nystagmus
- E.
Nausea and vomiting
- F.
Torsades
- G.
Malignant Hyperthermia
Correct Answer(s)
A. Conversion of hemoglobin to methemoglobin
B. Crosses placental barrier
C. Vasodilation
D. Nystagmus -
- 18.
These two drugs are taken up by fat, brain, kidney, liver then muscle and gut
- A.
Lidocaine
- B.
Articaine
- C.
Benzocaine
- D.
Epinephrine
Correct Answer(s)
A. Lidocaine
B. ArticaineExplanation
These drugs are amides (benzocaine is an ester: metabolized in plasma too fast to be redistributed at low doses)Rate this question:
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- 19.
Select of the following which are ABSOLUTE CONTRAINDICATIONS to combined oral contraceptives:
- A.
Thromboembolic disease
- B.
Cerebrovascular disease
- C.
MI, CAD
- D.
Congenital hyperlipidemia
- E.
Breast cancer
- F.
Decreased liver function
- G.
Liver tumor
- H.
Woman over 35 who smokes heavily
- I.
Migraines
- J.
Hypertension
- K.
Diabetes mellitus
- L.
Gallbladder disease
- M.
Male gender
Correct Answer(s)
A. Thromboembolic disease
B. Cerebrovascular disease
C. MI, CAD
D. Congenital hyperlipidemia
E. Breast cancer
F. Decreased liver function
G. Liver tumor
H. Woman over 35 who smokes heavilyExplanation
Relative contraindications for COCs: migraines, hypertension, DM, gallbladder disease. Male gender is not an explicit contraindication....although I would say otherwise.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Select of the following which are RELATIVE CONTRAINDICATIONS to combined oral contraceptives:
- A.
Thromboembolic disease
- B.
Cerebrovascular disease
- C.
MI, CAD
- D.
Congenital hyperlipidemia
- E.
Breast cancer
- F.
Decreased liver function
- G.
Liver tumor
- H.
Woman over 35 who smokes heavily
- I.
Migraines
- J.
Hypertension
- K.
Diabetes mellitus
- L.
Gallbladder disease
- M.
Male gender
Correct Answer(s)
I. Migraines
J. Hypertension
K. Diabetes mellitus
L. Gallbladder disease -
- 21.
Which of the following are adverse side effects to combined oral contraceptives?
- A.
Nausea
- B.
Choamsa (brownish pigmentation-induced skin discoloration on face)
- C.
Acne
- D.
Hirsutism
- E.
Thromboembolic disease
- F.
Hypertension
- G.
Cholelithiasis
- H.
Increase in TRIG and LDL
- I.
Breakthrough bleeding
- J.
Cervical cancer
Correct Answer(s)
A. Nausea
B. Choamsa (brownish pigmentation-induced skin discoloration on face)
C. Acne
D. Hirsutism
E. Thromboembolic disease
F. Hypertension
G. Cholelithiasis
H. Increase in TRIG and LDL
I. Breakthrough bleeding
J. Cervical cancerExplanation
Nausea is the most frequents adverse effect. can be minimized by taking them with or after dinner, or at bedtime.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What the beneficial effects of combined oral contraceptives?
- A.
Decreased incidence of endometrial cancer
- B.
Decreased incidence of ovarian cancer
- C.
Decreased incidence of acen vulgaris
- D.
Decreased incidence of cervical cancer
- E.
Decreased incidence of thromboembolic disorders
Correct Answer(s)
A. Decreased incidence of endometrial cancer
B. Decreased incidence of ovarian cancer
C. Decreased incidence of acen vulgarisExplanation
COCs increase the incidence of cervical cancer and thromboembolic disorders.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which progestin has both progestin activity and aldosterone antagonist activity?
- A.
Levonogrestrel
- B.
Drospirenone
- C.
Norgestrel
- D.
Spironolactone
- E.
Medroxyprogesterone
Correct Answer
B. DrospirenoneExplanation
Drospirenone is a spironolactone derivative.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which of the following oral contraceptives are progestin-only preparations?
- A.
Micronor
- B.
Orvette
- C.
Depo-Provera
- D.
Ortho Evra
- E.
NuvaRing
- F.
Mirena
Correct Answer(s)
A. Micronor
B. Orvette
C. Depo-ProveraExplanation
Oral progestin only preps (micronor and orvette) are used in women who have contraindications for the use of estrogen-containing contraceptives. Depo-Provera is IM injectable.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which one of the following oral contraceptive is a patch placed on the abdomen, buttocks, upper torso, or upper arm?
- A.
Micronor
- B.
Orvette
- C.
Depo-Provera
- D.
Ortho Evra
- E.
NuvaRing
- F.
Mirena
Correct Answer
D. Ortho EvraExplanation
Doesn't work as well in woman over 90 kg (198 lbs)Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which one of the following is a vaginal ring inserted for three weeks?
- A.
Micronor
- B.
Orvette
- C.
Depo-Provera
- D.
Ortho Evra
- E.
NuvaRing
- F.
Mirena
Correct Answer
E. NuvaRingExplanation
Inserted prior to the fifth day of the mensrual cycle.Rate this question:
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- 27.
This intrauterine device needs to be inserted by a healthcare provider. It stays in place for 5 years
- A.
Micronor
- B.
Orvette
- C.
Depo-Provera
- D.
Ortho Evra
- E.
NuvaRing
- F.
Mirena
Correct Answer
F. MirenaExplanation
SE: introduction of bacteria into the genital tract causing the development of PID. ParaGuard is left in place for 10 YEARS!!Rate this question:
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- 28.
How soon after intercourse must the first dose of Emergency contraceptives be taken? (Plan B Kit and Preven)
- A.
Within 72 hours
- B.
Within 1 hour
- C.
Within 36 hours
- D.
Within 12 hours
Correct Answer
A. Within 72 hoursExplanation
The second dose is taken 12 hours after the first.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which of the following replacements therapies should be given to a woman with an INTACT UTERUS?
- A.
Premarin
- B.
Prempro
- C.
Raloxifene Hydrochloride
- D.
Clomiphene
- E.
Leuprolide Acetate
Correct Answer
B. PremproExplanation
This prevents estrogen-induces endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial cancer.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which of the following drugs is used to prevent osteoporosis in postmenopausal women?
- A.
Premarin
- B.
Prempro
- C.
Raloxifene Hydrochloride
- D.
Clomiphene
- E.
Leuprolide Acetate
Correct Answer
C. Raloxifene HydrochlorideExplanation
It acts as an estrogen agonist in bone. (SERMS)Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which of the following is used to induce ovulation in anovulatory women who want to become pregnant?
- A.
Premarin
- B.
Prempro
- C.
Raloxifene Hydrochloride
- D.
Clomiphene
- E.
Leuprolide Acetate
Correct Answer
D. ClomipheneExplanation
It has potent anti-estrogenic activity. It inhibits the negative feedback effects of estrogen at the hypothalamic and pituitary levels.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which of the following drugs is used for prostate cancer, endometriosis, and precocious puberty?
- A.
Premarin
- B.
Prempro
- C.
Raloxifene Hydrochloride
- D.
Clomiphene
- E.
Leuprolide Acetate
Correct Answer
E. Leuprolide AcetateExplanation
It is a GnRH agonist. Watch out for hot flashes and night sweats.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which two drugs (when used together) can induce OVULATION in infertile women or stimulate SPERMATOGENESIS in males with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism?
- A.
Menotropins
- B.
Follitropin alpha/beta
- C.
Chorionic Gonadotropin
- D.
Choriogonadotropin alpha
- E.
Finasteride
- F.
Dutasteride
Correct Answer(s)
A. Menotropins
C. Chorionic GonadotropinExplanation
Chorionic Gonadotropin can also be used for prepubertal cryptorchidism in males 4-9 yrs old to promote testicular descent.Rate this question:
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- 34.
These FSH preps are administered subcutaneously (as opposed to IM).
- A.
Menotropins
- B.
Follitropin alpha/beta
- C.
Chorionic Gonadotropin
- D.
Choriogonadotropin alpha
- E.
Finasteride
- F.
Dutasteride
Correct Answer
B. Follitropin alpha/betaExplanation
Menotropins are administerd IM.Rate this question:
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- 35.
This drug is used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia and male pattern baldness.
- A.
Menotropins
- B.
Follitropin alpha/beta
- C.
Chorionic Gonadotropin
- D.
Choriogonadotropin alpha
- E.
Finasteride
- F.
Dutasteride
Correct Answer
E. FinasterideExplanation
It blocks the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The following drugs are used as over the counter sleep aids:
- A.
Doxyalmine
- B.
Hydroxysine
- C.
Diphenhydramine
- D.
Promethazine
- E.
Dimenhydrinate
- F.
Meclizine
Correct Answer(s)
A. Doxyalmine
B. Hydroxysine
C. Diphenhydramine -
- 37.
The following H1 Antagonist can be used as anit-emitics:
- A.
Doxyalmine
- B.
Hydroxysine
- C.
Diphenhydramine
- D.
Promethazine
- E.
Dimenhydrinate
- F.
Meclizine
Correct Answer(s)
B. Hydroxysine
C. Diphenhydramine
D. Promethazine
E. Dimenhydrinate
F. Meclizine -
- 38.
Which of the following are required for a pt to achieve an anesthetic state for surgery?
- A.
Amnesia
- B.
Immobility
- C.
Attenuation of autonomic response to noxious stimulus
- D.
Hypothermia
- E.
Emergence Excitement
- F.
Laughter
Correct Answer(s)
A. Amnesia
B. Immobility
C. Attenuation of autonomic response to noxious stimulus -
- 39.
Which of the following is a condition where the half conscious pt exhibits restlessnes, crying, moaning, and in extreme cases thrashing? (kinda sounds like a bad dream?)
- A.
Amnesia
- B.
Immobility
- C.
Attenuation of autonomic response to noxious stimulus
- D.
Hypothermia
- E.
Emergence Excitement
- F.
Laughter
Correct Answer
E. Emergence ExcitementExplanation
Occurs in 5-30% of pts and is more common in children, the elderly, and drug-dependent pts.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which of the following is very common in prolonged operations because operating room temps are typically below 21 C.
- A.
Amnesia
- B.
Immobility
- C.
Attenuation of autonomic response to noxious stimulus
- D.
Hypothermia
- E.
Emergence Excitement
- F.
Laughter
Correct Answer
D. HypothermiaExplanation
Warming methods: heated surgical beds, heating of air of inhaled GAs and using microprocessor controlled water-filled garments.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following is an adverse reaction to most inhaled GAs? Results in uncontrolled muscle contraction bc the ryanodine calcium channels do not close? Leads to heat generation
- A.
Amnesia
- B.
Immobility
- C.
Attenuation of autonomic response to noxious stimulus
- D.
Malignant Hyperthermia
- E.
Emergence Excitement
- F.
Laughter
Correct Answer
D. Malignant HyperthermiaExplanation
Myocytes lyse releaseing potassium resulting in fatal cardiac events. Tx with DANTROLENE - ryanodine receptor inhibitor.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which of the following are used to INDUCE anesthesia? (as opposed to maintain it)
- A.
Inhaled GAs
- B.
IV GAs
- C.
Neuromuscular Junction blockers
- D.
Fentanyl
- E.
Succinylcholine
Correct Answer
B. IV GAsExplanation
They are faster acting than inhaled.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which of the following are used to MAINTAIN anesthesia? (as opposed to induce it)
- A.
Inhaled GAs
- B.
IV GAs
- C.
Neuromuscular Junction blockers
- D.
Fentanyl
- E.
Succinylcholine
Correct Answer
A. Inhaled GAs -
- 44.
Which of the following may be given to reduce does of GAs and specifically to block the noxious stimullus reflex in the autonomic nervous sytem?
- A.
Inhaled GAs
- B.
IV GAs
- C.
Neuromuscular Junction blockers
- D.
Fentanyl
- E.
Succinylcholine
Correct Answer
D. FentanylExplanation
opioid analgesicRate this question:
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Mar 20, 2022Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Feb 23, 2012Quiz Created by
Rachael.m.thomas
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