Respiratory Medications Trivia Quiz Questions!

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Respiratory Medications Trivia Quiz Questions! - Quiz

In this pharmacological quiz – which deals with the use of drugs in medicine – we’ll be turning our attention to medication geared towards issues related to the respiratory system. What can you tell us? Let’s find out!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Anticholinergics have which of the following respiratory effects

    • A.

      Prevent bronchodilation

    • B.

      Decreased respiratory secretion

    • C.

      Increase bronchoconstriction

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Decreased respiratory secretion
    Explanation
    Anticholinergics decrease respiratory secretions and prevent brochoconstriction

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is an Anticholinergic side effect

    • A.

      Antiemetic

    • B.

      Diuretic

    • C.

      Bradycardia

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Antiemetic
    Explanation
    An anticholinergic side effect refers to the adverse effects caused by medications or substances that block the action of acetylcholine in the body. Anticholinergic medications are commonly used as antiemetics to prevent or treat nausea and vomiting. Therefore, the correct answer in this case is "antiemetic" as it is a medication that can cause anticholinergic side effects.

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  • 3. 

    The immunoglobulin IgE

    • A.

      Binds to basophils and mast cells

    • B.

      Releases hjstamine and heparin

    • C.

      Binds to antigens

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Binds to antigens
    Explanation
    by binding to antigens, IgE stimulates the release of basophils and mast cells which release histamine and heparin

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  • 4. 

    Mr. T presents with the following Sx and lab tests showing increased Histamine and Heparin circulation.  What is the most likely Dx?

    • A.

      Asthma

    • B.

      Pneumoconiosis

    • C.

      Urticaria

    • D.

      Allergic Rhinitis

    Correct Answer
    D. Allergic Rhinitis
    Explanation
    The most likely diagnosis in this case is Allergic Rhinitis. This is because the patient presents with symptoms such as increased histamine and heparin circulation, which are commonly associated with allergic reactions. Asthma, pneumoconiosis, and urticaria are not typically associated with increased histamine and heparin circulation.

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  • 5. 

    The following patient is most likely suffering from

    • A.

      An IgA mediated inflammatory Response

    • B.

      Urticaria

    • C.

      Angioedema

    • D.

      A & B

    • E.

      All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    B. Urticaria
    Explanation
    This is an IgE mediated inflammatory response - Urticaria

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  • 6. 

    Caution should be taken when using

    • A.

      Antihistamine eye drops

    • B.

      Coticosteroid eye drops

    • C.

      Antihistamine nasal sprays

    • D.

      Corticosteroid nasal sprays

    Correct Answer
    B. Coticosteroid eye drops
    Explanation
    Corticosteroid eye drops should be used with caution because they can have potential side effects. Corticosteroids are powerful anti-inflammatory medications that can help reduce symptoms such as itching and redness in the eyes. However, prolonged use or overuse of corticosteroid eye drops can lead to increased eye pressure, cataract formation, and increased risk of eye infections. Therefore, it is important to use them as directed by a healthcare professional and to follow up regularly to monitor for any potential complications.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is not a COPD

    • A.

      Asthma

    • B.

      Emphysema

    • C.

      Acute Bronchitis

    • D.

      Bronchiectasis

    Correct Answer
    C. Acute Bronchitis
    Explanation
    Acute bronchitis is not a type of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). COPD is a long-term, progressive lung disease characterized by airflow limitation. Asthma, emphysema, and bronchiectasis are all considered COPD because they involve chronic inflammation and damage to the airways, leading to breathing difficulties. However, acute bronchitis is a temporary condition caused by a viral or bacterial infection that causes inflammation of the bronchial tubes. While it can cause similar symptoms to COPD, it is not a chronic condition and typically resolves within a few weeks.

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  • 8. 

    Bronchiectasis is reversible

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    bronchiectasis is a permanent condition

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is associated with Emphysema

    • A.

      Blue Bloaters

    • B.

      Early hypoxia and cyanosis

    • C.

      Pink puffers

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Pink puffers
    Explanation
    Emphysema- late cyanosis and pink puffers

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  • 10. 

    The following patient is probably suffering fromThe following patient is probably suffering from

    • A.

      Digital clubbing

    • B.

      Pneumoconiosis

    • C.

      Asthma

    • D.

      A & C

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    The patient is likely suffering from all of the mentioned conditions (digital clubbing, pneumoconiosis, and asthma). Digital clubbing refers to the enlargement of the fingertips and nails, which can be associated with various respiratory and cardiovascular disorders. Pneumoconiosis is a lung disease caused by inhaling dust particles, often seen in people with occupational exposure. Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, causing breathing difficulties. As all three conditions can affect the respiratory system, it is possible for the patient to have all of them simultaneously.

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  • 11. 

    The first line of therapy asthma is

    • A.

      Pulmonary function tests

    • B.

      Daily inhaled steroids

    • C.

      Xanthines

    • D.

      Short acting beta-2 agonists

    Correct Answer
    B. Daily inhaled steroids
    Explanation
    Daily inhaled steroids are considered the first line of therapy for asthma because they are effective in reducing airway inflammation and controlling symptoms. Inhaled steroids work by decreasing the production of inflammatory substances in the airways, thus reducing swelling and narrowing of the airways. They are recommended for daily use to maintain long-term control of asthma symptoms and to prevent exacerbations. This treatment approach has been shown to improve lung function, reduce the frequency and severity of asthma attacks, and improve overall quality of life for asthma patients.

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  • 12. 

    Pulmonary function tests measure

    • A.

      Lung volumes

    • B.

      Lung capacities

    • C.

      All of the above

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. All of the above
    Explanation
    Pulmonary function tests measure both lung volumes and lung capacities. Lung volumes refer to the different amounts of air in the lungs at different stages of breathing, such as tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, and expiratory reserve volume. Lung capacities, on the other hand, are combinations of these volumes and represent the maximum amount of air the lungs can hold, such as vital capacity and total lung capacity. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above" as pulmonary function tests assess both lung volumes and lung capacities.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is an expected result of inhaled corticosteroids

    • A.

      Reduced bronchial reactivity

    • B.

      Decreased airway caliber

    • C.

      Direct relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduced bronchial reactivity
    Explanation
    reduces bronchial reactivity and increases airway caliber/ does not relax bronchial smooth muscle directly

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following describes dosage of PO systemic corticosteroids

    • A.

      B.I.D

    • B.

      Burst & Taper

    • C.

      Q.D

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Burst & Taper
    Explanation
    Burst & Taper refers to a dosage regimen for systemic corticosteroids where the medication is initially given at a high dose for a short period of time (burst), followed by a gradual decrease in dosage over a longer period of time (taper). This approach is commonly used to quickly manage acute symptoms or flare-ups of certain conditions, such as asthma or autoimmune diseases, while minimizing the risk of side effects associated with long-term corticosteroid use.

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  • 15. 

    Medrol Dose pack is an example of a

    • A.

      Antileukotrienes

    • B.

      Bronchodilators

    • C.

      Systemic Corticosteroid

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Systemic Corticosteroid
    Explanation
    Medrol Dose pack is an example of a systemic corticosteroid. Systemic corticosteroids are medications that are taken orally or injected and are used to reduce inflammation in the body. They work by suppressing the immune system and reducing the production of chemicals that cause inflammation. Medrol Dose pack contains the medication methylprednisolone, which is a corticosteroid that is commonly used to treat a variety of conditions such as allergies, asthma, arthritis, and skin disorders. It is important to follow the prescribed dosage and duration of treatment when taking systemic corticosteroids, as they can have potential side effects.

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  • 16. 

    Acute exacerbations of asthma are treated with

    • A.

      First line of therapy

    • B.

      Rescue medications

    • C.

      All of the above

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Rescue medications
    Explanation
    Acute exacerbations of asthma are typically treated with rescue medications. These medications are designed to provide immediate relief by quickly opening up the airways and reducing inflammation. They are often inhaled and include bronchodilators such as short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs) like albuterol. These medications work by relaxing the muscles around the airways, allowing them to open up and improve breathing. Using rescue medications as a first line of therapy is a common approach in managing acute asthma exacerbations. Therefore, the correct answer is "rescue medications."

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  • 17. 

    Multiple inflammatory indications exist for

    • A.

      Bronchodilators

    • B.

      Anticholinergic inhalers

    • C.

      Corticosetroids

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Corticosetroids
    Explanation
    Corticosteroids have multiple inflammatory indications. They are commonly used to reduce inflammation in conditions such as asthma, allergic reactions, and autoimmune diseases. Corticosteroids work by suppressing the immune system and reducing the production of inflammatory chemicals in the body. This makes them effective in managing inflammation in various parts of the body, including the airways in the case of bronchial inflammation. Therefore, corticosteroids are a valid answer for the question.

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  • 18. 

    Steroid inhaler should be used before beta agonist inhaler

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The correct answer is true because steroid inhalers are used to control inflammation in the airways and prevent asthma symptoms, while beta agonist inhalers are used to relieve symptoms during an asthma attack. Using the steroid inhaler first helps to reduce inflammation and prevent symptoms from occurring, while the beta agonist inhaler can be used as needed for immediate relief.

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  • 19. 

    Side effects include bad taste in mouth and oral thrush

    • A.

      Triamcinolone

    • B.

      Beclomethasone (Qvar)

    • C.

      Montelukast (Singulair)

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Beclomethasone (Qvar)
    Explanation
    Beclomethasone (Qvar) can cause side effects such as a bad taste in the mouth and oral thrush. Triamcinolone and Montelukast do not have these specific side effects mentioned. Therefore, the correct answer is Beclomethasone (Qvar).

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  • 20. 

    Used for nasal polyp prophylaxis, and rhinitis

    • A.

      Ciclesonide (Omnaris)

    • B.

      Budesonide (rhinocort)

    • C.

      All of the above

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. All of the above
    Explanation
    Topical Nasal Steroids are used for nasal polyp prophylaxis and rhinitis, both drugs are topical nasal steroids

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  • 21. 

    Side effects of this drug includes Acne exacerbation, labile emotions and weight gain

    • A.

      Medrol Dose Pack

    • B.

      Xileuton (Zyflo)

    • C.

      Zarfiruklast (Accolate)

    • D.

      Theophylline (Theo-dur)

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Medrol Dose Pack
    Explanation
    The side effects listed, including acne exacerbation, labile emotions, and weight gain, are commonly associated with the use of Medrol Dose Pack. Medrol is a corticosteroid medication that can cause skin problems such as acne, mood swings, and changes in weight. Therefore, the correct answer is Medrol Dose Pack.

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  • 22. 

    Which best describes Antileukotrines

    • A.

      Beclomethasone (Qvar)

    • B.

      Prevents bronchial contraction and decreases mucus production

    • C.

      Medrol Dose Pack

    • D.

      Facilitate respiration by dilating the airways

    Correct Answer
    B. Prevents bronchial contraction and decreases mucus production
    Explanation
    bronchodilators facilitate respiration by dilating the airways

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  • 23. 

    The currently available Antileukotrienes are

    • A.

      IV

    • B.

      PO

    • C.

      Topical

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. PO
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "PO" which stands for "per os" or "by mouth". This means that the currently available Antileukotrienes can be taken orally in the form of tablets or capsules.

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  • 24. 

    Bronchodilators can be used for

    • A.

      Facilitating respiration by dilating the airways

    • B.

      Relief of acute bronchospasm

    • C.

      Prevention of bronchial asthma

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    only the long-acting beta-2 formulation can prevent bronchial asthma

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  • 25. 

    Aminophylline (Truphylline) is best described as

    • A.

      Beta-2 Agonist

    • B.

      Bronchodilator

    • C.

      All of the above

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Bronchodilator
    Explanation
    It belongs to the Xanthine class of bronchodilators

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is derived from plant alkaloids

    • A.

      Xanthines

    • B.

      Theophylline (Theo-dur)

    • C.

      All of the above

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. All of the above
    Explanation
    Xanthines and theophylline are both derived from plant alkaloids. Xanthines are a class of compounds that include theophylline, caffeine, and theobromine, all of which are found in various plants. Theophylline, also known as Theo-dur, is a medication that is derived from xanthines and is commonly used to treat asthma and other respiratory conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above" because both xanthines and theophylline are derived from plant alkaloids.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is not related to Xanthines

    • A.

      Derived from plant alkaloids

    • B.

      Decreased CNS stimulation

    • C.

      Increased CV stimulation

    • D.

      Treating refractory asthma

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Decreased CNS stimulation
    Explanation
    Xanthines' effects include CNS stimulation

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  • 28. 

    Which is not true about Beta-2 agonists

    • A.

      Long acting formula help with prevention of asthma exacerbation

    • B.

      Used for acute phase of asthmatic attacks

    • C.

      Rapidly reduce airway constriction and restore normal airflow

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. None of the above
    Explanation
    The statement "none of the above" is the correct answer because all of the given statements about Beta-2 agonists are true. Long-acting formulas do help with the prevention of asthma exacerbation, they are used for the acute phase of asthmatic attacks, and they rapidly reduce airway constriction and restore normal airflow.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is not a type of Beta Agonist

    • A.

      Non-selective Adrenergic agonists

    • B.

      Non selective beta agonists

    • C.

      Selective beta2 agonists

    • D.

      Selective adrenergic agonists

    Correct Answer
    D. Selective adrenergic agonists
  • 30. 

    Albuterol (Proventil) is

    • A.

      Sub Q dosage

    • B.

      Metabolised in kidneys

    • C.

      Short acting beta 2 agonist

    • D.

      Increases specific beta 2 selectivity with frequent use

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Short acting beta 2 agonist
    Explanation
    it is inhaled, metabolized in the livers, a short acting beta 2 agonist and over use leads to loss of specific beta 2 selectivity

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  • 31. 

    A long acting inhaled beta 2 agonist would be

    • A.

      Fluticasone . salmeterol (Advair)

    • B.

      Budesonide / formoterol (symbicort)

    • C.

      All of the above

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the above options, fluticasone/salmeterol (Advair) and budesonide/formoterol (Symbicort), are examples of long-acting inhaled beta 2 agonists. These medications are commonly used in the management of asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). They work by relaxing the muscles in the airways, allowing for easier breathing. The combination of a long-acting beta 2 agonist with an inhaled corticosteroid, such as fluticasone or budesonide, helps to control symptoms and reduce inflammation in the airways. Therefore, all of the options listed are correct.

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  • 32. 

    The usual dosage for this drug is 1 puff BID

    • A.

      Prednisone

    • B.

      Salmeterol (Serevent)

    • C.

      Tiotropium (Spiriva)

    • D.

      Emedastine (Emadine)

    • E.

      None od the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Salmeterol (Serevent)
    Explanation
    Salmeterol (Serevent) is the correct answer because it is a long-acting beta-agonist bronchodilator that is typically prescribed for the treatment of asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The usual dosage for Salmeterol is 1 puff twice a day (BID), which helps to relax the muscles in the airways and improve breathing. Prednisone is a corticosteroid, Tiotropium is a long-acting anticholinergic, and Emedastine is an antihistamine, none of which are typically dosed in puffs BID.

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  • 33. 

    Anticholinergic inhalers such as Ipatropium (Atrovent)

    • A.

      Prevent bronchoconstriction

    • B.

      Include Levalbuterol (xopenex)

    • C.

      Have beta 2 selectivity

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevent bronchoconstriction
    Explanation
    Anticholinergic inhalers such as Ipatropium (Atrovent) are known to prevent bronchoconstriction. These inhalers work by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that causes the muscles in the airways to tighten. By preventing bronchoconstriction, these inhalers help to relax and open up the airways, making it easier for the individual to breathe. This is an effective treatment for conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

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  • 34. 

    Tiotropium (spiriva) and Ipatropium ( Artovent) are not indicated for acute asthma attacks

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    these are anticholinergic inhalers which are not indicated for acute asthma attacks

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  • 35. 

    Mast cells stabilizers are used for

    • A.

      Acute asthma attack

    • B.

      Prophylaxis of brochospasm

    • C.

      To prevent bronchodilation

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Prophylaxis of brochospasm
    Explanation
    Mast cell stabilizers are used for the prophylaxis of bronchospasm. These medications work by preventing the release of inflammatory substances, such as histamine, from mast cells. By doing so, they help to reduce the bronchial hyperresponsiveness and inflammation that can lead to bronchospasm. This makes mast cell stabilizers an effective treatment option for individuals with asthma, as they can help to prevent the occurrence of bronchospasm and reduce the frequency and severity of asthma attacks.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following stabilizes the cell membranes of inflammatory cells

    • A.

      Cromolyn (Intal)

    • B.

      Trimacinolone

    • C.

      Fexofenadine ( Allegra)

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Cromolyn (Intal)
    Explanation
    Cromolyn (Intal) is the only drug that does this

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  • 37. 

    Omalizumab (Xolair) Sub q  works by

    • A.

      Burst and taper

    • B.

      Inhibits IgE binding to mast cells/ basophils

    • C.

      Compete with histamine for specific receptor sites

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Inhibits IgE binding to mast cells/ basophils
    Explanation
    Omalizumab (Xolair) works by inhibiting IgE binding to mast cells and basophils. This means that it prevents the activation of these cells by IgE antibodies, which are involved in allergic reactions. By inhibiting this binding, omalizumab helps to reduce the symptoms of allergic conditions such as asthma and chronic urticaria. It does not involve burst and taper or compete with histamine for specific receptor sites.

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  • 38. 

    Benedryll is

    • A.

      Non-sedating

    • B.

      Peripherally acting

    • C.

      Nonselective central H1 receptor blocker

    • D.

      2nd generation

    Correct Answer
    C. Nonselective central H1 receptor blocker
    Explanation
    The given correct answer states that Benedryll is a nonselective central H1 receptor blocker. This means that Benedryll works by blocking the H1 receptors in the central nervous system, which helps to reduce symptoms such as itching, sneezing, and runny nose. Being nonselective means that it blocks both H1 receptors in the central nervous system and peripherally acting H1 receptors, providing a more comprehensive effect. This suggests that Benedryll is an effective medication for treating allergies and related symptoms.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is a nasal spray antihistamine

    • A.

      Certirizine (Zyrtec)

    • B.

      Azelastine (Astelin)

    • C.

      Desloratadine (Clarinex)

    • D.

      Fexofenadine (allegra)

    Correct Answer
    B. Azelastine (Astelin)
    Explanation
    other answers are non sedating oral antihistamines

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  • 40. 

    Antihistamines should be given

    • A.

      Post-treatment

    • B.

      Early in treatment

    • C.

      Late in treatment

    • D.

      Any time

    Correct Answer
    B. Early in treatment
    Explanation
    more effective at preventing that reversing

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  • 41. 

    Anticholinergic effects and sedation caused by antihistimine would be more prominent for which of the following patients

    • A.

      80 y/o male on cetirizine (Zyrtec)

    • B.

      20 y/o male on cetirzine (Zyrtec)

    • C.

      34 y/o female on Chlor-trimeton

    • D.

      75 y/o male on Chlor-trimenton

    Correct Answer
    D. 75 y/o male on Chlor-trimenton
    Explanation
    affects older persons on older drugs

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  • 42. 

    Alpha adrenergic decongestants are

    • A.

      Oral

    • B.

      Sub q

    • C.

      Topical

    • D.

      A & C

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. A & C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "A & C" because alpha adrenergic decongestants can be administered orally and topically. Oral administration involves taking the medication by mouth, while topical administration involves applying the medication directly to the affected area. Subcutaneous (sub q) administration, on the other hand, refers to injecting the medication under the skin, which is not applicable to alpha adrenergic decongestants. Therefore, options B and D are incorrect.

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  • 43. 

    Rhinitis medicimentosa is

    • A.

      Rebound congestion from inhaled beta 2 agonist

    • B.

      Viral infection

    • C.

      Rebound congestion from nasal spray

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Rebound congestion from nasal spray
    Explanation
    Rhinitis medicamentosa is a condition characterized by rebound congestion that occurs as a result of using nasal sprays for an extended period of time. This rebound congestion is caused by the overuse or misuse of nasal sprays, particularly those containing decongestants. The prolonged use of these sprays can lead to a dependency on them, causing the nasal passages to become congested when the spray is not used. This condition is not caused by a viral infection or inhaled beta 2 agonist, making the correct answer "rebound congestion from nasal spray."

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  • 44. 

    Oral decongestants are less potent than topicals

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Oral decongestants are less potent than topicals because when taken orally, the decongestant has to go through the digestive system before entering the bloodstream. This process can cause the medication to be metabolized and diluted, resulting in a lower concentration of the active ingredient reaching the nasal passages. On the other hand, topicals are applied directly to the nasal passages, allowing for a higher concentration of the decongestant to be delivered to the targeted area. Therefore, oral decongestants are generally considered to be less potent compared to topicals.

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  • 45. 

    Systemic effects of oral decongestion  have systemic effects due to adrenergic stimulation of

    • A.

      Heart

    • B.

      Blood vessels

    • C.

      CNS

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Oral decongestants have systemic effects because they stimulate the adrenergic receptors in various parts of the body. This stimulation can lead to increased heart rate and blood pressure, as well as activation of the central nervous system. Therefore, all of the options listed (heart, blood vessels, CNS) can be affected by oral decongestants.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following is an antitussive

    • A.

      Benzonatate ( tessalon Perles)

    • B.

      Codeine ( robitussin A-c)

    • C.

      Chlorpheniramine/ hydrocodone (Tussionex)

    • D.

      B & C

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the options listed (Benzonatate, Codeine, Chlorpheniramine/hydrocodone) are antitussives, which means they are medications used to suppress or relieve coughing. Benzonatate is a non-narcotic cough suppressant, Codeine is an opioid cough suppressant, and Chlorpheniramine/hydrocodone is a combination of an antihistamine and a cough suppressant. Therefore, all of the options mentioned are antitussives.

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  • 47. 

    Which drug is most likely to cause constipation especially in the elderly and should be prescribed with a stool softener

    • A.

      Robitussin-DM

    • B.

      Montelukast (singulair)

    • C.

      Xileuton (Zyflo)

    • D.

      Robitussin AC

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Robitussin AC
    Explanation
    Robitussin AC is the most likely drug to cause constipation, especially in the elderly. It contains codeine, which is an opioid that can slow down bowel movements and lead to constipation. Therefore, it is recommended to prescribe a stool softener along with Robitussin AC to counteract this side effect.

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  • 48. 

    Expectorants have direct and reflex stimulation

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Expectorants are substances that help to loosen and expel mucus from the respiratory tract. They work by increasing the production of respiratory tract fluid, which helps to thin and loosen mucus. This can be achieved through direct stimulation of the secretory glands in the respiratory tract or through reflex stimulation of the cough center in the brain. Therefore, the statement that expectorants have direct and reflex stimulation is true.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following is a mucolytic

    • A.

      Terpin hydrate

    • B.

      Dornase alfa (Pulmozyme)

    • C.

      Iodinated glycerol

    • D.

      Guaifenesin

    Correct Answer
    B. Dornase alfa (Pulmozyme)
    Explanation
    Dornase alfa (Pulmozyme) is a mucolytic. It is an enzyme that breaks down the DNA present in the mucus, making it less thick and sticky. This helps in clearing the airways and improving breathing in patients with cystic fibrosis. Terpin hydrate, iodinated glycerol, and guaifenesin are not mucolytics, but rather expectorants or cough suppressants that work by different mechanisms to relieve symptoms of cough and congestion.

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  • 50. 

    Which of the following is not route of administration of epinephrine

    • A.

      Sub Q

    • B.

      IM

    • C.

      ETT

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. None of the above
    Explanation
    Epinephrine can be administered through various routes, including subcutaneous (Sub Q), intramuscular (IM), and endotracheal tube (ETT) routes. Therefore, none of the options provided (Sub Q, IM, ETT) are routes that are not used for the administration of epinephrine.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 30, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Chinedua
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