Antiviral Drugs And Infections Trivia Quiz!
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
A well-functioning immune system will eliminate or effectively destroy viral replication this is why immunocompromised patients have frequent viral infections.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
A well-functioning immune system is capable of eliminating or effectively destroying viral replication, which helps to prevent viral infections. However, immunocompromised patients have a weakened immune system, making them more susceptible to viral infections. This is why they tend to experience frequent viral infections.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Each drug is specific to one virus.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Each drug being specific to one virus means that a particular drug is designed to target and treat a specific virus. This implies that the drug is not effective against other viruses. Therefore, the statement "Each drug is specific to one virus" is true.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following Herpetic agents is not available in PO form?
- A.
Acyclovir
- B.
Valacyclovir
- C.
Trifluridine
- D.
Valgancyclovir
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. TrifluridineExplanation
Trifluridine is opthalmicRate this question:
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- 4.
Which drug selectively inhibits viral DNA synthesis?
- A.
Zanamivir (relenza)
- B.
Acyclovir (Zovirax)
- C.
Abacavir (Ziagen)
- D.
Zidovudine (Retrovir)
Correct Answer
B. Acyclovir (Zovirax)Explanation
Herpetic agents ( Zorivax) selectively inhibit viral DNA synthesisRate this question:
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- 5.
Which is not an adverse/ side effect of Acyclovir (Zorivax)
- A.
Tremors
- B.
Delirium
- C.
Burning
- D.
Nephrotoxicity
- E.
Bone marrow supression
Correct Answer
E. Bone marrow supressionExplanation
bone marrow suppression is associated with HAART therapyRate this question:
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- 6.
Which is not an indication for Acyclovir (Zorivax)
- A.
HSV 1 / 2
- B.
CMV
- C.
Varicella
- D.
HPV
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. HPVExplanation
Acyclovir (Zorivax) is an antiviral medication used primarily to treat infections caused by herpes viruses, including HSV 1 and 2 (herpes simplex viruses), CMV (cytomegalovirus), and Varicella (chickenpox and shingles). However, it is not indicated for the treatment of HPV (human papillomavirus) infections. HPV is a different type of virus that causes genital warts and certain types of cancer. Therefore, the correct answer is HPV.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Acyclovir (Zorivax) has drug interactions with
- A.
Cidofovir
- B.
Streptozocin
- C.
Atazanavir (Reyataz)
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer(s)
A. Cidofovir
B. StreptozocinExplanation
Acyclovir (Zorivax) has drug interactions with Cidofovir and Streptozocin. This means that when Acyclovir is taken together with Cidofovir or Streptozocin, there may be a potential interaction between the drugs that can affect their effectiveness or cause adverse effects. It is important to be aware of these interactions and consult with a healthcare professional before taking these medications together. The option "none of the above" is incorrect as Acyclovir does have interactions with Cidofovir and Streptozocin.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following would be used for CMV retinitis and Acyclovir-resistant HSV 1 & 2 in immunocompromised patients
- A.
Trifluridine
- B.
Rimantadine
- C.
Amantadine
- D.
Foscarnet (Foscavir)
Correct Answer
D. Foscarnet (Foscavir)Explanation
********* foscarnet is not to be used for anything except CMV retinitis and/or acyclovir resistant HSV in immune compromised patients***********Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which of the following drugs has a max dose of 120mg/kg/d and a black box warning for seizures from mineral/electrolyte imbalance and toxicity in renal impaired patients?
- A.
Amantadine
- B.
Trifluridine
- C.
Foscarnet (foscavir)
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Foscarnet (foscavir)Explanation
* can cause hyper/hypo phospatemia, hypo magnesemia,calcemia and kalemiaRate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following is not an anti-influenza agent?
- A.
Amantadine (symmetrel)
- B.
Rimantadine (Flumadine)
- C.
Zanamivir (Relenza)
- D.
Osteltamivir (Tamiflu)
- E.
All of the above
- F.
None of the above
Correct Answer
F. None of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "none of the above". This means that all of the options listed - Amantadine (Symmetrel), Rimantadine (Flumadine), Zanamivir (Relenza), and Osteltamivir (Tamiflu) - are anti-influenza agents.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Amantadine and Rimantadine should be prescribed with Zanamivir because of a high level of resistance.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Amantadine and Rimantidine should be prescribed with OseltamivirRate this question:
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- 12.
Zanamivir (Relenza) is available as
- A.
IV
- B.
Dry powder for inhalation
- C.
PO
- D.
Cream
Correct Answer
B. Dry powder for inhalationExplanation
used in a diskhaler (5 mg/inhalation)Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which drug is prophylaxis and treatment for H1N1 (swine flu)?
- A.
Amantadine ( Symmetrel)
- B.
Zanamivir (Relenza)
- C.
Rimantadine (Flumadine)
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Zanamivir (Relenza)Explanation
also OseltamivirRate this question:
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- 14.
What is the metabolism of Zanamivir (Relenza)?
- A.
Liver
- B.
Renal
- C.
Feces
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
E. None of the aboveExplanation
Zanamivir has no metabolismRate this question:
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- 15.
Which drug should be administered with extreme caution to asthma/COPD patients because of possible bronchospasm?
- A.
Zanamivir (Relenza)
- B.
Acyclovir ( Zorivax)
- C.
Cidofovir (Vistide)
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Zanamivir (Relenza)Explanation
Zanamivir (Relenza) should be administered with extreme caution to asthma/COPD patients because it has the potential to cause bronchospasm. Asthma and COPD are respiratory conditions characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, and bronchospasm is a sudden constriction of the muscles surrounding the airways, leading to difficulty in breathing. Zanamivir is an antiviral medication used to treat influenza, but it can exacerbate respiratory symptoms in individuals with pre-existing respiratory conditions. Therefore, it is important to use this drug with caution in asthma/COPD patients to avoid triggering bronchospasm.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Lymphocytes make up 50 % of circulating WBCs and include T-cells that provide humoral immunity.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
lymphocytes are 25% and t cells provide cell mediated immunityRate this question:
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- 17.
Which plays a critical role in HIV and are responsible for the release of cytokines?
- A.
Helper T cells
- B.
Memory Cells
- C.
B Cells
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Helper T cellsExplanation
Helper T cells play a critical role in HIV and are responsible for the release of cytokines. Cytokines are small proteins that are involved in cell signaling and immune response regulation. In the context of HIV, helper T cells are specifically targeted and destroyed by the virus, leading to a weakened immune system. These cells are crucial for coordinating the immune response and activating other immune cells, including B cells and cytotoxic T cells, to fight against infections. Therefore, the release of cytokines by helper T cells is essential for the immune system's proper functioning in HIV.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Memory T cells are produced by the activation of cytotoxic and helper T cells and suppressor T cells dampen the responses of T cells and B cells.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Memory T cells are indeed produced by the activation of cytotoxic and helper T cells. Memory T cells are a type of T cell that are formed during an immune response and are responsible for maintaining immunological memory. They are able to quickly recognize and respond to pathogens that the body has previously encountered. On the other hand, suppressor T cells, also known as regulatory T cells, play a role in dampening the immune response by suppressing the activity of other T cells and B cells. Therefore, the statement that memory T cells are produced by the activation of cytotoxic and helper T cells is true.Rate this question:
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- 19.
B cells come from the bone marrow and differentiate into
- A.
T cells
- B.
Cytotoxic cells
- C.
Plasma cells
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Plasma cellsExplanation
B cells are a type of white blood cell that originate in the bone marrow. They have the ability to differentiate into various cell types. In this case, B cells can differentiate into plasma cells. Plasma cells are responsible for producing and secreting antibodies, which play a crucial role in the immune response. Therefore, the correct answer is plasma cells.Rate this question:
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- 20.
HIV attacks
- A.
Memory T cells
- B.
Helper T cells
- C.
B cells
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
B. Helper T cellsExplanation
attacks helper T cells and reduces cell-mediated immunityRate this question:
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- 21.
B-cells produce antibodies after being stimulated by helper T cells.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
B-cells are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune response. When B-cells encounter a foreign substance, such as a pathogen, they need to be stimulated by helper T cells in order to produce antibodies. Helper T cells recognize the antigen presented by B-cells and release chemical signals that activate the B-cells to differentiate into plasma cells. These plasma cells then produce and secrete antibodies specific to the encountered antigen, aiding in the immune response against the pathogen. Therefore, the statement that B-cells produce antibodies after being stimulated by helper T cells is true.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which of the following best signifies the transition of HIV to AIDS?
- A.
Ruptured helper T's release more HIV
- B.
Lack of antibodies
- C.
HIV invades and damages helper Ts
Correct Answer
B. Lack of antibodiesExplanation
The transition of HIV to AIDS is best signified by the lack of antibodies. As HIV progresses, it attacks and damages the immune system, particularly the helper T cells. These cells play a crucial role in coordinating the immune response and producing antibodies. As the number of helper T cells decreases, the body's ability to produce antibodies diminishes, leading to a weakened immune system and the development of AIDS. Therefore, the absence of antibodies is a significant indicator of the progression from HIV to AIDS.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following is not an opportunistic AIDS infection?
- A.
Tuberculosis (TB)
- B.
Candida albicans
- C.
Herpes zoster
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. None of the aboveExplanation
All three options listed (Tuberculosis, Candida albicans, and Herpes zoster) are opportunistic infections commonly associated with AIDS. This means that individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with AIDS, are more susceptible to these infections. Therefore, the correct answer is "none of the above" as all options are opportunistic AIDS infections.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Treatment of this disease requires multiple big gun antibiotics
- A.
HPV
- B.
MAC
- C.
CMV
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. MACExplanation
Mycobacterium Avium Complex requires combination of "big gun" antibioticsRate this question:
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- 25.
HAART therapy must be started if CD4 count drops below 350 or symptoms appear.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
HAART therapy, also known as highly active antiretroviral therapy, is a treatment used for HIV/AIDS. It is recommended to start HAART therapy if the CD4 count drops below 350 or if symptoms of the disease appear. This is because a CD4 count below 350 indicates a weakened immune system, making the individual more susceptible to opportunistic infections. Additionally, the presence of symptoms indicates that the disease is progressing and treatment is necessary to control the virus and prevent further complications. Therefore, the statement "HAART therapy must be started if CD4 count drops below 350 or symptoms appear" is true.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which is not a treatment failure of antiretroviral therapy?
- A.
Patient non-adherence to reginem
- B.
Patient non-tolerance of adverse effects
- C.
All of the above
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. None of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "none of the above". This means that both patient non-adherence to the regimen and patient non-tolerance of adverse effects are considered treatment failures of antiretroviral therapy. In other words, if a patient does not adhere to the prescribed medication schedule or cannot tolerate the side effects, it can be considered a failure of the treatment. Therefore, the statement "none of the above" implies that both options mentioned are treatment failures.Rate this question:
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- 27.
HIV is a retrovirus.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
HIV is indeed a retrovirus. Retroviruses are RNA viruses that are able to convert their RNA genome into DNA using the enzyme reverse transcriptase. This DNA is then integrated into the host cell's genome, allowing the virus to replicate and persist in the body. HIV specifically targets and infects immune cells, leading to the progressive weakening of the immune system and the development of AIDS.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of the following is not a Reverse transcriptase inhibitor?
- A.
NRTI
- B.
NNRTI
- C.
NtRTI
- D.
PI
- E.
None
Correct Answer
D. PIExplanation
PI is a protease inhibitorRate this question:
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- 29.
Which is an NRTI?
- A.
Abacavir (Ziagen) PO
- B.
Didanosine (Videx) PO
- C.
Zidovudine (Retrovir) PO/ IV
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
All of the listed drugs, Abacavir (Ziagen), Didanosine (Videx), and Zidovudine (Retrovir), are NRTIs (nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors). NRTIs are a class of antiretroviral drugs used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS. They work by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is necessary for the replication of the virus. Therefore, all of the listed drugs are NRTIs and can be used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which is not an NNRTI?
- A.
Lamivudine (Epivir) PO
- B.
Delavirdine (rescriptor)
- C.
Efavirenz (Sustiva)
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Lamivudine (Epivir) POExplanation
Lamivudine (Epivir) is not an NNRTI. NNRTIs, or non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, are a class of antiretroviral drugs used to treat HIV/AIDS. Lamivudine, on the other hand, is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI). NRTIs work by incorporating themselves into the viral DNA chain, preventing further replication of the virus. NNRTIs, on the other hand, bind directly to the reverse transcriptase enzyme, inhibiting its activity. Therefore, Lamivudine does not belong to the NNRTI class of drugs.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Resistance develops quickly to which of these drugs?
- A.
Atazanavir (Reyataz) PO
- B.
Fosamprenavir (Lexiva) PO
- C.
Saquinavir ( Invirase) PO
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
all are protease inhibitors so resistance develops quickly to allRate this question:
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- 32.
Which of the following is used for health care workers who have been exposed to HIV and to reduce transmission rate of HIV from mother to fetus?
- A.
Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
- B.
Zidovudine (Retrovir)
- C.
Tenofovir (Viread)
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Zidovudine (Retrovir)Explanation
Zidovudine (Retrovir) is used for health care workers who have been exposed to HIV and to reduce the transmission rate of HIV from mother to fetus. Zidovudine is an antiretroviral medication that belongs to the class of nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs). It works by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is essential for the replication of HIV. By taking zidovudine, health care workers can reduce the risk of HIV transmission after exposure, and pregnant women can lower the chances of transmitting the virus to their unborn child.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Prevents fusion of the HIV virus with the human cellular membrane, prevents HIV-1 from entering the cell
- A.
Enfuvirtide (Fuzeon) Sub Q
- B.
Delevirdine (Rescriptor)
- C.
Nevirapine (Viramune)
Correct Answer
A. Enfuvirtide (Fuzeon) Sub QExplanation
Fusion inhibitorRate this question:
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- 34.
Which of the following is not an adverse effect of HAART?
- A.
Rash
- B.
Seizure
- C.
Acute renal failure
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. None of the aboveExplanation
HAART (Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy) is a combination of medications used to treat HIV/AIDS. It is known to have various adverse effects, including rash, seizure, and acute renal failure. However, the correct answer states that "none of the above" is not an adverse effect of HAART. This means that all the options provided (rash, seizure, and acute renal failure) are actually adverse effects of HAART.Rate this question:
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- 35.
A CD4 count of 200 or less or an AIDS-defining illness signifies which stage of AIDS.
- A.
Stage I
- B.
Stage IV
- C.
Stage V
- D.
Stage III
Correct Answer
B. Stage IVExplanation
* aids defining illness must occur with positive HIV testRate this question:
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- 36.
The asymptomatic stage (II) of AIDs may last up to several years.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
During the asymptomatic stage of AIDS, individuals infected with the virus may not show any symptoms for a prolonged period, which can last up to several years. This means that even though they are infected, they may not experience any noticeable signs of the disease. It is important to note that although individuals may not have symptoms during this stage, they can still transmit the virus to others. Regular testing and practicing safe behaviors are crucial to prevent the spread of HIV/AIDS.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Oct 31, 2010Quiz Created by
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