Antiviral Drugs And Infections Trivia Quiz!

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1. HIV is a retrovirus.

Explanation

HIV is indeed a retrovirus. Retroviruses are RNA viruses that are able to convert their RNA genome into DNA using the enzyme reverse transcriptase. This DNA is then integrated into the host cell's genome, allowing the virus to replicate and persist in the body. HIV specifically targets and infects immune cells, leading to the progressive weakening of the immune system and the development of AIDS.

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About This Quiz
Antiviral Drugs And Infections Trivia Quiz! - Quiz

Explore the realm of antiviral drugs and their applications in this engaging trivia quiz! Test your knowledge on drug specificity, mechanisms, and side effects relevant to viral infections,... see moreenhancing your understanding and skills in pharmacology and virology. see less

2. The asymptomatic stage (II) of AIDs may last up to several years.

Explanation

During the asymptomatic stage of AIDS, individuals infected with the virus may not show any symptoms for a prolonged period, which can last up to several years. This means that even though they are infected, they may not experience any noticeable signs of the disease. It is important to note that although individuals may not have symptoms during this stage, they can still transmit the virus to others. Regular testing and practicing safe behaviors are crucial to prevent the spread of HIV/AIDS.

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3. B-cells produce antibodies after being stimulated by helper T cells.

Explanation

B-cells are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune response. When B-cells encounter a foreign substance, such as a pathogen, they need to be stimulated by helper T cells in order to produce antibodies. Helper T cells recognize the antigen presented by B-cells and release chemical signals that activate the B-cells to differentiate into plasma cells. These plasma cells then produce and secrete antibodies specific to the encountered antigen, aiding in the immune response against the pathogen. Therefore, the statement that B-cells produce antibodies after being stimulated by helper T cells is true.

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4. A well-functioning immune system will eliminate or effectively destroy viral replication this is why immunocompromised patients have frequent viral infections.

Explanation

A well-functioning immune system is capable of eliminating or effectively destroying viral replication, which helps to prevent viral infections. However, immunocompromised patients have a weakened immune system, making them more susceptible to viral infections. This is why they tend to experience frequent viral infections.

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5. Memory T cells are produced by the activation of cytotoxic and helper T cells and suppressor T cells dampen the responses of T cells and B cells.

Explanation

Memory T cells are indeed produced by the activation of cytotoxic and helper T cells. Memory T cells are a type of T cell that are formed during an immune response and are responsible for maintaining immunological memory. They are able to quickly recognize and respond to pathogens that the body has previously encountered. On the other hand, suppressor T cells, also known as regulatory T cells, play a role in dampening the immune response by suppressing the activity of other T cells and B cells. Therefore, the statement that memory T cells are produced by the activation of cytotoxic and helper T cells is true.

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6. Which plays a critical role in HIV and are responsible for the release of cytokines?

Explanation

Helper T cells play a critical role in HIV and are responsible for the release of cytokines. Cytokines are small proteins that are involved in cell signaling and immune response regulation. In the context of HIV, helper T cells are specifically targeted and destroyed by the virus, leading to a weakened immune system. These cells are crucial for coordinating the immune response and activating other immune cells, including B cells and cytotoxic T cells, to fight against infections. Therefore, the release of cytokines by helper T cells is essential for the immune system's proper functioning in HIV.

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7. HAART therapy must be started if  CD4 count drops below 350 or symptoms appear.

Explanation

HAART therapy, also known as highly active antiretroviral therapy, is a treatment used for HIV/AIDS. It is recommended to start HAART therapy if the CD4 count drops below 350 or if symptoms of the disease appear. This is because a CD4 count below 350 indicates a weakened immune system, making the individual more susceptible to opportunistic infections. Additionally, the presence of symptoms indicates that the disease is progressing and treatment is necessary to control the virus and prevent further complications. Therefore, the statement "HAART therapy must be started if CD4 count drops below 350 or symptoms appear" is true.

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8. Which of the following would be used for CMV retinitis and  Acyclovir-resistant HSV 1 & 2 in immunocompromised patients

Explanation

********* foscarnet is not to be used for anything except CMV retinitis and/or acyclovir resistant HSV in immune compromised patients***********

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9. Prevents fusion of the HIV virus with the human cellular membrane, prevents HIV-1 from entering the cell

Explanation

Fusion inhibitor

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10. Which of the following is not a Reverse transcriptase inhibitor?

Explanation

PI is a protease inhibitor

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11. HIV attacks

Explanation

attacks helper T cells and reduces cell-mediated immunity

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12. Which drug selectively inhibits viral DNA synthesis?

Explanation

Herpetic agents ( Zorivax) selectively inhibit viral DNA synthesis

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13. B cells come from the bone marrow and differentiate into

Explanation

B cells are a type of white blood cell that originate in the bone marrow. They have the ability to differentiate into various cell types. In this case, B cells can differentiate into plasma cells. Plasma cells are responsible for producing and secreting antibodies, which play a crucial role in the immune response. Therefore, the correct answer is plasma cells.

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14. Which of the following is used for health care workers who have been exposed to HIV and to reduce transmission rate of HIV from mother to fetus?

Explanation

Zidovudine (Retrovir) is used for health care workers who have been exposed to HIV and to reduce the transmission rate of HIV from mother to fetus. Zidovudine is an antiretroviral medication that belongs to the class of nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs). It works by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is essential for the replication of HIV. By taking zidovudine, health care workers can reduce the risk of HIV transmission after exposure, and pregnant women can lower the chances of transmitting the virus to their unborn child.

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15. Zanamivir (Relenza) is available as

Explanation

used in a diskhaler (5 mg/inhalation)

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16. Which drug should be administered with extreme caution to asthma/COPD patients because of possible bronchospasm?

Explanation

Zanamivir (Relenza) should be administered with extreme caution to asthma/COPD patients because it has the potential to cause bronchospasm. Asthma and COPD are respiratory conditions characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, and bronchospasm is a sudden constriction of the muscles surrounding the airways, leading to difficulty in breathing. Zanamivir is an antiviral medication used to treat influenza, but it can exacerbate respiratory symptoms in individuals with pre-existing respiratory conditions. Therefore, it is important to use this drug with caution in asthma/COPD patients to avoid triggering bronchospasm.

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17. Which is an NRTI?

Explanation

All of the listed drugs, Abacavir (Ziagen), Didanosine (Videx), and Zidovudine (Retrovir), are NRTIs (nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors). NRTIs are a class of antiretroviral drugs used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS. They work by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is necessary for the replication of the virus. Therefore, all of the listed drugs are NRTIs and can be used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS.

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18. Resistance develops quickly to which of these drugs?

Explanation

all are protease inhibitors so resistance develops quickly to all

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19. Which of the following drugs has a max dose of 120mg/kg/d and   a black box warning for seizures from mineral/electrolyte imbalance and toxicity in renal impaired patients?

Explanation

* can cause hyper/hypo phospatemia, hypo magnesemia,calcemia and kalemia

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20. Which of the following is not  an anti-influenza agent?

Explanation

The correct answer is "none of the above". This means that all of the options listed - Amantadine (Symmetrel), Rimantadine (Flumadine), Zanamivir (Relenza), and Osteltamivir (Tamiflu) - are anti-influenza agents.

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21. Which of the following is not an adverse effect of HAART?

Explanation

HAART (Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy) is a combination of medications used to treat HIV/AIDS. It is known to have various adverse effects, including rash, seizure, and acute renal failure. However, the correct answer states that "none of the above" is not an adverse effect of HAART. This means that all the options provided (rash, seizure, and acute renal failure) are actually adverse effects of HAART.

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22. Which is not an NNRTI?

Explanation

Lamivudine (Epivir) is not an NNRTI. NNRTIs, or non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, are a class of antiretroviral drugs used to treat HIV/AIDS. Lamivudine, on the other hand, is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI). NRTIs work by incorporating themselves into the viral DNA chain, preventing further replication of the virus. NNRTIs, on the other hand, bind directly to the reverse transcriptase enzyme, inhibiting its activity. Therefore, Lamivudine does not belong to the NNRTI class of drugs.

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23. Which of the following Herpetic agents is not available in PO form?

Explanation

Trifluridine is opthalmic

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24. Which of the following is not an opportunistic AIDS infection?

Explanation

All three options listed (Tuberculosis, Candida albicans, and Herpes zoster) are opportunistic infections commonly associated with AIDS. This means that individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with AIDS, are more susceptible to these infections. Therefore, the correct answer is "none of the above" as all options are opportunistic AIDS infections.

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25. Amantadine and Rimantadine should be prescribed with Zanamivir because of a high level of resistance.

Explanation

Amantadine and Rimantidine should be prescribed with Oseltamivir

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26. Which drug is prophylaxis and treatment for H1N1 (swine flu)?

Explanation

also Oseltamivir

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27. A CD4 count of 200 or less or an AIDS-defining illness signifies which stage of AIDS.

Explanation

* aids defining illness must occur with positive HIV test

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28. Which is not an adverse/ side effect of Acyclovir (Zorivax)

Explanation

bone marrow suppression is associated with HAART therapy

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29. Treatment of this disease requires multiple big gun antibiotics

Explanation

Mycobacterium Avium Complex requires combination of "big gun" antibiotics

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30. Lymphocytes make up 50 % of circulating WBCs and include T-cells that provide humoral immunity.

Explanation

lymphocytes are 25% and t cells provide cell mediated immunity

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31. Which is not a treatment failure of antiretroviral therapy?

Explanation

The correct answer is "none of the above". This means that both patient non-adherence to the regimen and patient non-tolerance of adverse effects are considered treatment failures of antiretroviral therapy. In other words, if a patient does not adhere to the prescribed medication schedule or cannot tolerate the side effects, it can be considered a failure of the treatment. Therefore, the statement "none of the above" implies that both options mentioned are treatment failures.

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32. Which is not an indication for Acyclovir (Zorivax)

Explanation

Acyclovir (Zorivax) is an antiviral medication used primarily to treat infections caused by herpes viruses, including HSV 1 and 2 (herpes simplex viruses), CMV (cytomegalovirus), and Varicella (chickenpox and shingles). However, it is not indicated for the treatment of HPV (human papillomavirus) infections. HPV is a different type of virus that causes genital warts and certain types of cancer. Therefore, the correct answer is HPV.

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33. Each drug is specific to one virus.

Explanation

Each drug being specific to one virus means that a particular drug is designed to target and treat a specific virus. This implies that the drug is not effective against other viruses. Therefore, the statement "Each drug is specific to one virus" is true.

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34. Which of the following best signifies the transition of HIV to AIDS?

Explanation

The transition of HIV to AIDS is best signified by the lack of antibodies. As HIV progresses, it attacks and damages the immune system, particularly the helper T cells. These cells play a crucial role in coordinating the immune response and producing antibodies. As the number of helper T cells decreases, the body's ability to produce antibodies diminishes, leading to a weakened immune system and the development of AIDS. Therefore, the absence of antibodies is a significant indicator of the progression from HIV to AIDS.

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35. What is the metabolism of Zanamivir (Relenza)?

Explanation

Zanamivir has no metabolism

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36. Acyclovir (Zorivax) has  drug interactions with 

Explanation

Acyclovir (Zorivax) has drug interactions with Cidofovir and Streptozocin. This means that when Acyclovir is taken together with Cidofovir or Streptozocin, there may be a potential interaction between the drugs that can affect their effectiveness or cause adverse effects. It is important to be aware of these interactions and consult with a healthcare professional before taking these medications together. The option "none of the above" is incorrect as Acyclovir does have interactions with Cidofovir and Streptozocin.

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HIV is a retrovirus.
The asymptomatic stage (II) of AIDs may last up to several years.
B-cells produce antibodies after being stimulated by helper T cells.
A well-functioning immune system will eliminate or effectively destroy...
Memory T cells are produced by the activation of cytotoxic and helper...
Which plays a critical role in HIV and are responsible for the release...
HAART therapy must be started if  CD4 count drops below 350 or...
Which of the following would be used for CMV retinitis and ...
Prevents fusion of the HIV virus with the human cellular membrane,...
Which of the following is not a Reverse transcriptase inhibitor?
HIV attacks
Which drug selectively inhibits viral DNA synthesis?
B cells come from the bone marrow and differentiate into
Which of the following is used for health care workers who have been...
Zanamivir (Relenza) is available as
Which drug should be administered with extreme caution to asthma/COPD...
Which is an NRTI?
Resistance develops quickly to which of these drugs?
Which of the following drugs has a max dose of 120mg/kg/d and   a...
Which of the following is not  an anti-influenza agent?
Which of the following is not an adverse effect of HAART?
Which is not an NNRTI?
Which of the following Herpetic agents is not available in PO form?
Which of the following is not an opportunistic AIDS infection?
Amantadine and Rimantadine should be prescribed with Zanamivir because...
Which drug is prophylaxis and treatment for H1N1 (swine flu)?
A CD4 count of 200 or less or an AIDS-defining illness signifies which...
Which is not an adverse/ side effect of Acyclovir (Zorivax)
Treatment of this disease requires multiple big gun antibiotics
Lymphocytes make up 50 % of circulating WBCs and include T-cells that...
Which is not a treatment failure of antiretroviral therapy?
Which is not an indication for Acyclovir (Zorivax)
Each drug is specific to one virus.
Which of the following best signifies the transition of HIV to AIDS?
What is the metabolism of Zanamivir (Relenza)?
Acyclovir (Zorivax) has  drug interactions with 
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