Antiviral Drugs And Infections Trivia Quiz!

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Antiviral Drugs And Infections Trivia Quiz! - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A well-functioning immune system will eliminate or effectively destroy viral replication this is why immunocompromised patients have frequent viral infections.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A well-functioning immune system is capable of eliminating or effectively destroying viral replication, which helps to prevent viral infections. However, immunocompromised patients have a weakened immune system, making them more susceptible to viral infections. This is why they tend to experience frequent viral infections.

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  • 2. 

    Each drug is specific to one virus.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Each drug being specific to one virus means that a particular drug is designed to target and treat a specific virus. This implies that the drug is not effective against other viruses. Therefore, the statement "Each drug is specific to one virus" is true.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following Herpetic agents is not available in PO form?

    • A.

      Acyclovir

    • B.

      Valacyclovir

    • C.

      Trifluridine

    • D.

      Valgancyclovir

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Trifluridine
    Explanation
    Trifluridine is opthalmic

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  • 4. 

    Which drug selectively inhibits viral DNA synthesis?

    • A.

      Zanamivir (relenza)

    • B.

      Acyclovir (Zovirax)

    • C.

      Abacavir (Ziagen)

    • D.

      Zidovudine (Retrovir)

    Correct Answer
    B. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
    Explanation
    Herpetic agents ( Zorivax) selectively inhibit viral DNA synthesis

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  • 5. 

    Which is not an adverse/ side effect of Acyclovir (Zorivax)

    • A.

      Tremors

    • B.

      Delirium

    • C.

      Burning

    • D.

      Nephrotoxicity

    • E.

      Bone marrow supression

    Correct Answer
    E. Bone marrow supression
    Explanation
    bone marrow suppression is associated with HAART therapy

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  • 6. 

    Which is not an indication for Acyclovir (Zorivax)

    • A.

      HSV 1 / 2

    • B.

      CMV

    • C.

      Varicella

    • D.

      HPV

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. HPV
    Explanation
    Acyclovir (Zorivax) is an antiviral medication used primarily to treat infections caused by herpes viruses, including HSV 1 and 2 (herpes simplex viruses), CMV (cytomegalovirus), and Varicella (chickenpox and shingles). However, it is not indicated for the treatment of HPV (human papillomavirus) infections. HPV is a different type of virus that causes genital warts and certain types of cancer. Therefore, the correct answer is HPV.

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  • 7. 

    Acyclovir (Zorivax) has  drug interactions with 

    • A.

      Cidofovir

    • B.

      Streptozocin

    • C.

      Atazanavir (Reyataz)

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Cidofovir
    B. Streptozocin
    Explanation
    Acyclovir (Zorivax) has drug interactions with Cidofovir and Streptozocin. This means that when Acyclovir is taken together with Cidofovir or Streptozocin, there may be a potential interaction between the drugs that can affect their effectiveness or cause adverse effects. It is important to be aware of these interactions and consult with a healthcare professional before taking these medications together. The option "none of the above" is incorrect as Acyclovir does have interactions with Cidofovir and Streptozocin.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following would be used for CMV retinitis and  Acyclovir-resistant HSV 1 & 2 in immunocompromised patients

    • A.

      Trifluridine

    • B.

      Rimantadine

    • C.

      Amantadine

    • D.

      Foscarnet (Foscavir)

    Correct Answer
    D. Foscarnet (Foscavir)
    Explanation
    ********* foscarnet is not to be used for anything except CMV retinitis and/or acyclovir resistant HSV in immune compromised patients***********

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following drugs has a max dose of 120mg/kg/d and   a black box warning for seizures from mineral/electrolyte imbalance and toxicity in renal impaired patients?

    • A.

      Amantadine

    • B.

      Trifluridine

    • C.

      Foscarnet (foscavir)

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Foscarnet (foscavir)
    Explanation
    * can cause hyper/hypo phospatemia, hypo magnesemia,calcemia and kalemia

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is not  an anti-influenza agent?

    • A.

      Amantadine (symmetrel)

    • B.

      Rimantadine (Flumadine)

    • C.

      Zanamivir (Relenza)

    • D.

      Osteltamivir (Tamiflu)

    • E.

      All of the above

    • F.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    F. None of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "none of the above". This means that all of the options listed - Amantadine (Symmetrel), Rimantadine (Flumadine), Zanamivir (Relenza), and Osteltamivir (Tamiflu) - are anti-influenza agents.

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  • 11. 

    Amantadine and Rimantadine should be prescribed with Zanamivir because of a high level of resistance.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Amantadine and Rimantidine should be prescribed with Oseltamivir

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  • 12. 

    Zanamivir (Relenza) is available as

    • A.

      IV

    • B.

      Dry powder for inhalation

    • C.

      PO

    • D.

      Cream

    Correct Answer
    B. Dry powder for inhalation
    Explanation
    used in a diskhaler (5 mg/inhalation)

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  • 13. 

    Which drug is prophylaxis and treatment for H1N1 (swine flu)?

    • A.

      Amantadine ( Symmetrel)

    • B.

      Zanamivir (Relenza)

    • C.

      Rimantadine (Flumadine)

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Zanamivir (Relenza)
    Explanation
    also Oseltamivir

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  • 14. 

    What is the metabolism of Zanamivir (Relenza)?

    • A.

      Liver

    • B.

      Renal

    • C.

      Feces

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. None of the above
    Explanation
    Zanamivir has no metabolism

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  • 15. 

    Which drug should be administered with extreme caution to asthma/COPD patients because of possible bronchospasm?

    • A.

      Zanamivir (Relenza)

    • B.

      Acyclovir ( Zorivax)

    • C.

      Cidofovir (Vistide)

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Zanamivir (Relenza)
    Explanation
    Zanamivir (Relenza) should be administered with extreme caution to asthma/COPD patients because it has the potential to cause bronchospasm. Asthma and COPD are respiratory conditions characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, and bronchospasm is a sudden constriction of the muscles surrounding the airways, leading to difficulty in breathing. Zanamivir is an antiviral medication used to treat influenza, but it can exacerbate respiratory symptoms in individuals with pre-existing respiratory conditions. Therefore, it is important to use this drug with caution in asthma/COPD patients to avoid triggering bronchospasm.

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  • 16. 

    Lymphocytes make up 50 % of circulating WBCs and include T-cells that provide humoral immunity.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    lymphocytes are 25% and t cells provide cell mediated immunity

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  • 17. 

    Which plays a critical role in HIV and are responsible for the release of cytokines?

    • A.

      Helper T cells

    • B.

      Memory Cells

    • C.

      B Cells

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Helper T cells
    Explanation
    Helper T cells play a critical role in HIV and are responsible for the release of cytokines. Cytokines are small proteins that are involved in cell signaling and immune response regulation. In the context of HIV, helper T cells are specifically targeted and destroyed by the virus, leading to a weakened immune system. These cells are crucial for coordinating the immune response and activating other immune cells, including B cells and cytotoxic T cells, to fight against infections. Therefore, the release of cytokines by helper T cells is essential for the immune system's proper functioning in HIV.

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  • 18. 

    Memory T cells are produced by the activation of cytotoxic and helper T cells and suppressor T cells dampen the responses of T cells and B cells.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Memory T cells are indeed produced by the activation of cytotoxic and helper T cells. Memory T cells are a type of T cell that are formed during an immune response and are responsible for maintaining immunological memory. They are able to quickly recognize and respond to pathogens that the body has previously encountered. On the other hand, suppressor T cells, also known as regulatory T cells, play a role in dampening the immune response by suppressing the activity of other T cells and B cells. Therefore, the statement that memory T cells are produced by the activation of cytotoxic and helper T cells is true.

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  • 19. 

    B cells come from the bone marrow and differentiate into

    • A.

      T cells

    • B.

      Cytotoxic cells

    • C.

      Plasma cells

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Plasma cells
    Explanation
    B cells are a type of white blood cell that originate in the bone marrow. They have the ability to differentiate into various cell types. In this case, B cells can differentiate into plasma cells. Plasma cells are responsible for producing and secreting antibodies, which play a crucial role in the immune response. Therefore, the correct answer is plasma cells.

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  • 20. 

    HIV attacks

    • A.

      Memory T cells

    • B.

      Helper T cells

    • C.

      B cells

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Helper T cells
    Explanation
    attacks helper T cells and reduces cell-mediated immunity

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  • 21. 

    B-cells produce antibodies after being stimulated by helper T cells.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    B-cells are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune response. When B-cells encounter a foreign substance, such as a pathogen, they need to be stimulated by helper T cells in order to produce antibodies. Helper T cells recognize the antigen presented by B-cells and release chemical signals that activate the B-cells to differentiate into plasma cells. These plasma cells then produce and secrete antibodies specific to the encountered antigen, aiding in the immune response against the pathogen. Therefore, the statement that B-cells produce antibodies after being stimulated by helper T cells is true.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following best signifies the transition of HIV to AIDS?

    • A.

      Ruptured helper T's release more HIV

    • B.

      Lack of antibodies

    • C.

      HIV invades and damages helper Ts

    Correct Answer
    B. Lack of antibodies
    Explanation
    The transition of HIV to AIDS is best signified by the lack of antibodies. As HIV progresses, it attacks and damages the immune system, particularly the helper T cells. These cells play a crucial role in coordinating the immune response and producing antibodies. As the number of helper T cells decreases, the body's ability to produce antibodies diminishes, leading to a weakened immune system and the development of AIDS. Therefore, the absence of antibodies is a significant indicator of the progression from HIV to AIDS.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is not an opportunistic AIDS infection?

    • A.

      Tuberculosis (TB)

    • B.

      Candida albicans

    • C.

      Herpes zoster

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. None of the above
    Explanation
    All three options listed (Tuberculosis, Candida albicans, and Herpes zoster) are opportunistic infections commonly associated with AIDS. This means that individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with AIDS, are more susceptible to these infections. Therefore, the correct answer is "none of the above" as all options are opportunistic AIDS infections.

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  • 24. 

    Treatment of this disease requires multiple big gun antibiotics

    • A.

      HPV

    • B.

      MAC

    • C.

      CMV

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. MAC
    Explanation
    Mycobacterium Avium Complex requires combination of "big gun" antibiotics

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  • 25. 

    HAART therapy must be started if  CD4 count drops below 350 or symptoms appear.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    HAART therapy, also known as highly active antiretroviral therapy, is a treatment used for HIV/AIDS. It is recommended to start HAART therapy if the CD4 count drops below 350 or if symptoms of the disease appear. This is because a CD4 count below 350 indicates a weakened immune system, making the individual more susceptible to opportunistic infections. Additionally, the presence of symptoms indicates that the disease is progressing and treatment is necessary to control the virus and prevent further complications. Therefore, the statement "HAART therapy must be started if CD4 count drops below 350 or symptoms appear" is true.

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  • 26. 

    Which is not a treatment failure of antiretroviral therapy?

    • A.

      Patient non-adherence to reginem

    • B.

      Patient non-tolerance of adverse effects

    • C.

      All of the above

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. None of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "none of the above". This means that both patient non-adherence to the regimen and patient non-tolerance of adverse effects are considered treatment failures of antiretroviral therapy. In other words, if a patient does not adhere to the prescribed medication schedule or cannot tolerate the side effects, it can be considered a failure of the treatment. Therefore, the statement "none of the above" implies that both options mentioned are treatment failures.

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  • 27. 

    HIV is a retrovirus.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    HIV is indeed a retrovirus. Retroviruses are RNA viruses that are able to convert their RNA genome into DNA using the enzyme reverse transcriptase. This DNA is then integrated into the host cell's genome, allowing the virus to replicate and persist in the body. HIV specifically targets and infects immune cells, leading to the progressive weakening of the immune system and the development of AIDS.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is not a Reverse transcriptase inhibitor?

    • A.

      NRTI

    • B.

      NNRTI

    • C.

      NtRTI

    • D.

      PI

    • E.

      None

    Correct Answer
    D. PI
    Explanation
    PI is a protease inhibitor

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  • 29. 

    Which is an NRTI?

    • A.

      Abacavir (Ziagen) PO

    • B.

      Didanosine (Videx) PO

    • C.

      Zidovudine (Retrovir) PO/ IV

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the listed drugs, Abacavir (Ziagen), Didanosine (Videx), and Zidovudine (Retrovir), are NRTIs (nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors). NRTIs are a class of antiretroviral drugs used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS. They work by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is necessary for the replication of the virus. Therefore, all of the listed drugs are NRTIs and can be used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS.

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  • 30. 

    Which is not an NNRTI?

    • A.

      Lamivudine (Epivir) PO

    • B.

      Delavirdine (rescriptor)

    • C.

      Efavirenz (Sustiva)

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Lamivudine (Epivir) PO
    Explanation
    Lamivudine (Epivir) is not an NNRTI. NNRTIs, or non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, are a class of antiretroviral drugs used to treat HIV/AIDS. Lamivudine, on the other hand, is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI). NRTIs work by incorporating themselves into the viral DNA chain, preventing further replication of the virus. NNRTIs, on the other hand, bind directly to the reverse transcriptase enzyme, inhibiting its activity. Therefore, Lamivudine does not belong to the NNRTI class of drugs.

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  • 31. 

    Resistance develops quickly to which of these drugs?

    • A.

      Atazanavir (Reyataz) PO

    • B.

      Fosamprenavir (Lexiva) PO

    • C.

      Saquinavir ( Invirase) PO

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    all are protease inhibitors so resistance develops quickly to all

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is used for health care workers who have been exposed to HIV and to reduce transmission rate of HIV from mother to fetus?

    • A.

      Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)

    • B.

      Zidovudine (Retrovir)

    • C.

      Tenofovir (Viread)

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Zidovudine (Retrovir)
    Explanation
    Zidovudine (Retrovir) is used for health care workers who have been exposed to HIV and to reduce the transmission rate of HIV from mother to fetus. Zidovudine is an antiretroviral medication that belongs to the class of nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs). It works by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is essential for the replication of HIV. By taking zidovudine, health care workers can reduce the risk of HIV transmission after exposure, and pregnant women can lower the chances of transmitting the virus to their unborn child.

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  • 33. 

    Prevents fusion of the HIV virus with the human cellular membrane, prevents HIV-1 from entering the cell

    • A.

      Enfuvirtide (Fuzeon) Sub Q

    • B.

      Delevirdine (Rescriptor)

    • C.

      Nevirapine (Viramune)

    Correct Answer
    A. Enfuvirtide (Fuzeon) Sub Q
    Explanation
    Fusion inhibitor

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is not an adverse effect of HAART?

    • A.

      Rash

    • B.

      Seizure

    • C.

      Acute renal failure

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. None of the above
    Explanation
    HAART (Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy) is a combination of medications used to treat HIV/AIDS. It is known to have various adverse effects, including rash, seizure, and acute renal failure. However, the correct answer states that "none of the above" is not an adverse effect of HAART. This means that all the options provided (rash, seizure, and acute renal failure) are actually adverse effects of HAART.

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  • 35. 

    A CD4 count of 200 or less or an AIDS-defining illness signifies which stage of AIDS.

    • A.

      Stage I

    • B.

      Stage IV

    • C.

      Stage V

    • D.

      Stage III

    Correct Answer
    B. Stage IV
    Explanation
    * aids defining illness must occur with positive HIV test

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  • 36. 

    The asymptomatic stage (II) of AIDs may last up to several years.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    During the asymptomatic stage of AIDS, individuals infected with the virus may not show any symptoms for a prolonged period, which can last up to several years. This means that even though they are infected, they may not experience any noticeable signs of the disease. It is important to note that although individuals may not have symptoms during this stage, they can still transmit the virus to others. Regular testing and practicing safe behaviors are crucial to prevent the spread of HIV/AIDS.

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