Patho Term 2b Test2

32 Questions | Total Attempts: 66

SettingsSettingsSettings
Patho Term 2b Test2 - Quiz

Huma Test 2


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which contagious, systemic disease, caused by Treponema Pallidum is characterized by sequential clinical stages and by years of symptomless latency?
    • A. 

      Gonorrhea

    • B. 

      Trichomoniasis

    • C. 

      Vaginosis

    • D. 

      Syphilis

  • 2. 
    Which one of the following diseases affects external genitalia, and leads to proliferation of squamous epithelium of skin, forming soft, raised, fleshy lesions that look like cauliflower?
    • A. 

      Pediculosis pubis

    • B. 

      Genital warts

    • C. 

      Genital herpes

    • D. 

      Chlamydial infection

  • 3. 
    Which one of the following diseases is caused by a pyogenic, gram negative bacterium, uses humans as its only natural host, and prodces conjunctivitis in the infant born to an infected mother?
    • A. 

      Syphilis

    • B. 

      Condylomata acuminate

    • C. 

      Gonorrhea

    • D. 

      Bacterial vaginosis

  • 4. 
    What is gastroesophogeal reflux?
    • A. 

      Poor esophageal perastalsis

    • B. 

      Excessive stomach contraction

    • C. 

      Reflux of stomach acid contents into the esophagus

    • D. 

      Enlarged lower esophageal sphincter

  • 5. 
    What is dysphagia?
    • A. 

      Difficulty swallowing

    • B. 

      Difficulty drinking water

    • C. 

      Poor digestion

    • D. 

      Painful swallowing

  • 6. 
    Which one of the following statesments regarding peptic ulcers is CORRECT?
    • A. 

      Women are more commonly affected

    • B. 

      They are found most often in the duodenum

    • C. 

      Eating does not make the client feel better

    • D. 

      The entire gastric mucosa inflames resulting in achlorhydria

  • 7. 
    Which disease is caused by the sliding of the stomach through the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity?
    • A. 

      Esophageal hernia

    • B. 

      Hiatal hernia

    • C. 

      Gastroesophageal reflux disease

    • D. 

      Peptic ulcer

  • 8. 
    Which of the following will help in the prevention of gastroesophageal reflux disease?
    • A. 

      Avoid large meals

    • B. 

      Avoid recumbent position for several hours after meals

    • C. 

      Lose weight if overweight

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 9. 
    Which disease is characterized by chronic inflammatory changes in the stomach lining, leading to its atrophy and increased risk of developing stomach cancer?
    • A. 

      Acute gastritis

    • B. 

      Chronic gastritis

    • C. 

      Peptic ulcer

    • D. 

      Achlorhydria

  • 10. 
    What two diseases are described as infalmmatory bowel disease?
    • A. 

      Peptic ulcer and gastritis

    • B. 

      Peptic ulcer and Crohn's disease

    • C. 

      Esophagitis and ulcerative colitis

    • D. 

      Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis

  • 11. 
    Which one of the following is associated with Crohn's disease?
    • A. 

      Inflammation of the duodenum

    • B. 

      Inflammation of the distal ileum

    • C. 

      Blockage of the blood flow to the distak ileum

    • D. 

      Helicobacter pylori infection causing duodenal ulceration

  • 12. 
    Which one of the following acute inflammatory disorder is associated with prolonged use of antibiotics?
    • A. 

      Pseudomembraneous enterocolitis

    • B. 

      Ulcerative colitis

    • C. 

      Enteritis

    • D. 

      Inflammatory bowel syndrome

  • 13. 
    Which one of the following signs and/or symptoms is associated with Crohn's disease?
    • A. 

      Broad areas of ulceration

    • B. 

      Bloody diarrhea occurring frequently every day

    • C. 

      Pain in pelvic region, weight loss and jaundice

    • D. 

      Complications including intestinal obstruction and development of fistulas

  • 14. 
    Which of the following is a cause of peritonitis?
    • A. 

      Rupture of the appendix

    • B. 

      Rupture of ectopic pregnancy

    • C. 

      Complication of abdominal surgery

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 15. 
    Which one of the following signs and/or symptoms tends to occur with diverticulitis?
    • A. 

      Herniation of the stomach through the esophageal hiatus

    • B. 

      Lower left quadrant pain

    • C. 

      Extreme bloody diarrhea

    • D. 

      Lower right quadrant pain

  • 16. 
    What is esophagitis?
    • A. 

      Esophageal spasm

    • B. 

      Inflammation of the stomach

    • C. 

      Inflammation of the esophagus

    • D. 

      Inflammation of the muscle lining the pharynx

  • 17. 
    Which one of the following describes a mass that protrudes into the lumen of the gut?
    • A. 

      Polyp

    • B. 

      Diverticulitis

    • C. 

      Peptic ulcer

    • D. 

      Hiatal hernia

  • 18. 
    Which one of the following is characterized by excessive or inappropriate activation of the immune system to exogenous or endogenous antigens producing inflammation and tissue damage?
    • A. 

      Hypersensitivity disorders

    • B. 

      Idiosyncratic disorders

    • C. 

      Hypogammaglobulinemia

    • D. 

      Autoimmune disorders

  • 19. 
    Which one of the following reactions is mediated by IgE, begins rapidly, and often referred to as an allergic reaction?
    • A. 

      Type 1 - Hypersensitivity

    • B. 

      Type 2 - Hypersensitivity

    • C. 

      Type 3 - Hypersensitivity

    • D. 

      Type 4 - Hypersensitivity

  • 20. 
    Which one of the following diseases is seen in a newborn who is born with blood group A with Rh+ to a mother with blood group A with Rh-?
    • A. 

      Arthus reaction

    • B. 

      Serum sickness

    • C. 

      Autoimmune haemolytic anemia

    • D. 

      Erytroblastosis fetalis

  • 21. 
    Which one of the following allergic reactions causes serum sickness or a delayed reaction to penicillin, drugs, and insect venum?
    • A. 

      Type I - IgE mediated

    • B. 

      Type II - Cytotoxic disorders

    • C. 

      Type III - Complement mediated disorder

    • D. 

      Type IV - T-Cell mediated hypersensitivity

  • 22. 
    Which one of the following statements identifies the course of anaphylaxis?
    • A. 

      Deposition of insoluble antigen-antibody compexes in joints and blood vessels

    • B. 

      Severe vasculitis due to type III immune reactions leading to acute glomerulonephritis

    • C. 

      An acute generalized reaction characterized by itching, generalized flushing, difficulty in breathing, and a dangerously low fall in blood pressure

    • D. 

      A local inflammatory reaction to the presence of intracellular pathogens at the site of an insect bite

  • 23. 
    Which one of the following hypersensitivity reactions is occuring in the blood of an individual with contact dermatitis?
    • A. 

      Type I - IgE mediated

    • B. 

      Type II - Cytotoxic disorders

    • C. 

      Type III - Complement mediated disorders

    • D. 

      Type IV - T-cell mediated hypersensitivity

  • 24. 
    Which one of the following processes is described as profound immunosuppression with malignancies, wasting, and opportunistic infection?
    • A. 

      HIV

    • B. 

      AIDS

    • C. 

      AIDS - dementia complex

    • D. 

      Kaposi sarcoma

  • 25. 
    What symptom occurs when bilirubin builds up in the blood stream?
    • A. 

      Jaundice

    • B. 

      Cyanosis

    • C. 

      Cirrhosis

    • D. 

      Dark colour stools

Back to Top Back to top