Patho Term 2b Test2

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  • 1/32 Questions

    Which contagious, systemic disease, caused by Treponema Pallidum is characterized by sequential clinical stages and by years of symptomless latency?

    • Gonorrhea
    • Trichomoniasis
    • Vaginosis
    • Syphilis
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About This Quiz

The 'Patho Term 2B Test2' assesses knowledge on various sexually transmitted and gastrointestinal diseases, focusing on their causes, symptoms, and characteristics. It is essential for medical students preparing for clinical understanding and exams.

Patho Term 2b Test2 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which one of the following diseases affects external genitalia, and leads to proliferation of squamous epithelium of skin, forming soft, raised, fleshy lesions that look like cauliflower?

    • Pediculosis pubis

    • Genital warts

    • Genital herpes

    • Chlamydial infection

    Correct Answer
    A. Genital warts
    Explanation
    Genital warts is the correct answer because it is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV). It affects the external genitalia and can cause the proliferation of squamous epithelium of the skin, leading to the formation of soft, raised, fleshy lesions that resemble cauliflower. These warts can vary in size and may appear in clusters. It is important to note that genital warts can be transmitted through sexual contact and can increase the risk of developing certain types of cancer.

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  • 3. 

    Which one of the following diseases is caused by a pyogenic, gram negative bacterium, uses humans as its only natural host, and prodces conjunctivitis in the infant born to an infected mother?

    • Syphilis

    • Condylomata acuminate

    • Gonorrhea

    • Bacterial vaginosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Gonorrhea
    Explanation
    Gonorrhea is caused by a pyogenic, gram negative bacterium called Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It is transmitted through sexual contact and primarily affects the reproductive organs. Infants born to infected mothers can develop conjunctivitis, an inflammation of the membrane lining the eyelids, as a result of exposure during childbirth. Syphilis is caused by a different bacterium called Treponema pallidum and does not specifically cause conjunctivitis in infants. Condylomata acuminate refers to genital warts caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV), and bacterial vaginosis is an overgrowth of certain bacteria in the vagina.

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  • 4. 

    What is gastroesophogeal reflux?

    • Poor esophageal perastalsis

    • Excessive stomach contraction

    • Reflux of stomach acid contents into the esophagus

    • Enlarged lower esophageal sphincter

    Correct Answer
    A. Reflux of stomach acid contents into the esophagus
    Explanation
    Gastroesophageal reflux refers to the condition where stomach acid flows back into the esophagus. This can occur due to a weakened lower esophageal sphincter, which is responsible for preventing the backflow of stomach acid. The reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus can cause symptoms such as heartburn, regurgitation, and chest discomfort. It can also lead to complications such as esophagitis, Barrett's esophagus, and even esophageal cancer if left untreated.

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  • 5. 

    What is dysphagia?

    • Difficulty swallowing

    • Difficulty drinking water

    • Poor digestion

    • Painful swallowing

    Correct Answer
    A. Difficulty swallowing
    Explanation
    Dysphagia refers to the difficulty or discomfort experienced while swallowing. It is a condition that can affect the ability to swallow food, liquids, or even saliva. This difficulty can occur at any point during the swallowing process, from the mouth to the throat or esophagus. It may be caused by various factors such as muscle weakness, nerve damage, or structural abnormalities. Dysphagia can lead to complications like malnutrition or aspiration pneumonia if not properly managed.

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  • 6. 

    Which one of the following statesments regarding peptic ulcers is CORRECT?

    • Women are more commonly affected

    • They are found most often in the duodenum

    • Eating does not make the client feel better

    • The entire gastric mucosa inflames resulting in achlorhydria

    Correct Answer
    A. They are found most often in the duodenum
    Explanation
    Peptic ulcers are most commonly found in the duodenum, which is the first part of the small intestine. This is because the duodenum is exposed to highly acidic stomach juices, which can damage the lining and lead to the formation of ulcers. While women can also be affected by peptic ulcers, there is no evidence to suggest that they are more commonly affected than men. Eating can temporarily alleviate the symptoms of a peptic ulcer, contrary to the statement provided. Additionally, not the entire gastric mucosa inflames in peptic ulcers, and achlorhydria, which is a condition characterized by low stomach acid production, is not a typical feature of peptic ulcers.

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  • 7. 

    Which disease is caused by the sliding of the stomach through the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity?

    • Esophageal hernia

    • Hiatal hernia

    • Gastroesophageal reflux disease

    • Peptic ulcer

    Correct Answer
    A. Hiatal hernia
    Explanation
    A hiatal hernia occurs when the stomach slides up through the diaphragm and into the thoracic cavity. This can lead to symptoms such as heartburn, chest pain, and difficulty swallowing. The other options listed in the question (esophageal hernia, gastroesophageal reflux disease, and peptic ulcer) are not specifically caused by the sliding of the stomach through the diaphragm, making them incorrect choices.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following will help in the prevention of gastroesophageal reflux disease?

    • Avoid large meals

    • Avoid recumbent position for several hours after meals

    • Lose weight if overweight

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Avoiding large meals, avoiding the recumbent position for several hours after meals, and losing weight if overweight can all help in the prevention of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Large meals can put pressure on the stomach and increase the likelihood of acid reflux. Staying upright after meals can prevent the contents of the stomach from flowing back into the esophagus. Losing weight can reduce the pressure on the stomach and lower the risk of acid reflux. Therefore, all of these measures can contribute to the prevention of gastroesophageal reflux disease.

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  • 9. 

    Which disease is characterized by chronic inflammatory changes in the stomach lining, leading to its atrophy and increased risk of developing stomach cancer?

    • Acute gastritis

    • Chronic gastritis

    • Peptic ulcer

    • Achlorhydria

    Correct Answer
    A. Chronic gastritis
    Explanation
    Chronic gastritis is the correct answer because it is a disease that is characterized by chronic inflammatory changes in the stomach lining. This inflammation can lead to atrophy of the stomach lining and an increased risk of developing stomach cancer. Acute gastritis refers to a sudden inflammation of the stomach lining, while peptic ulcer is a condition characterized by sores in the lining of the stomach or small intestine. Achlorhydria is a condition where there is a lack of hydrochloric acid in the stomach.

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  • 10. 

    What two diseases are described as infalmmatory bowel disease?

    • Peptic ulcer and gastritis

    • Peptic ulcer and Crohn's disease

    • Esophagitis and ulcerative colitis

    • Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis
    Explanation
    Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis are both classified as inflammatory bowel diseases. Crohn's disease is characterized by inflammation that can occur in any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. Ulcerative colitis, on the other hand, specifically affects the colon and rectum, causing inflammation and ulcers. Both conditions share similar symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss, but they differ in terms of the location and extent of inflammation within the digestive tract.

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  • 11. 

    Which one of the following is associated with Crohn's disease?

    • Inflammation of the duodenum

    • Inflammation of the distal ileum

    • Blockage of the blood flow to the distak ileum

    • Helicobacter pylori infection causing duodenal ulceration

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflammation of the distal ileum
    Explanation
    Crohn's disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, from the mouth to the anus. However, it most commonly involves the distal ileum, which is the last part of the small intestine. Inflammation of the distal ileum is a characteristic feature of Crohn's disease, causing symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. Other parts of the gastrointestinal tract can also be affected, but the distal ileum is commonly involved.

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  • 12. 

    Which one of the following acute inflammatory disorder is associated with prolonged use of antibiotics?

    • Pseudomembraneous enterocolitis

    • Ulcerative colitis

    • Enteritis

    • Inflammatory bowel syndrome

    Correct Answer
    A. Pseudomembraneous enterocolitis
    Explanation
    Pseudomembranous enterocolitis is an acute inflammatory disorder that is associated with prolonged use of antibiotics. This condition is caused by an overgrowth of the bacteria Clostridium difficile in the colon, which produces toxins that lead to inflammation and damage to the lining of the intestine. Antibiotics can disrupt the normal balance of bacteria in the gut, allowing C. difficile to flourish. Symptoms of pseudomembranous enterocolitis include severe diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever. Treatment involves discontinuing the antibiotics causing the condition and administering specific antibiotics to target the C. difficile infection.

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  • 13. 

    Which one of the following signs and/or symptoms is associated with Crohn's disease?

    • Broad areas of ulceration

    • Bloody diarrhea occurring frequently every day

    • Pain in pelvic region, weight loss and jaundice

    • Complications including intestinal obstruction and development of fistulas

    Correct Answer
    A. Complications including intestinal obstruction and development of fistulas
    Explanation
    Crohn's disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. It is characterized by inflammation and ulceration of the intestinal lining. Complications of Crohn's disease can include intestinal obstruction, which occurs when the inflamed bowel becomes narrowed or blocked, leading to symptoms such as abdominal pain, bloating, and constipation. Fistulas, abnormal connections between different parts of the intestine or between the intestine and other organs, can also develop in Crohn's disease. These complications are often associated with the disease and can cause significant symptoms and complications for individuals with Crohn's disease.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is a cause of peritonitis?

    • Rupture of the appendix

    • Rupture of ectopic pregnancy

    • Complication of abdominal surgery

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Peritonitis is the inflammation of the peritoneum, the lining of the abdominal cavity. It can be caused by various factors, including the rupture of the appendix, rupture of an ectopic pregnancy, and complications of abdominal surgery. In all three cases, the integrity of the peritoneum is compromised, allowing bacteria or other pathogens to enter the abdominal cavity and cause infection and inflammation. Therefore, all of the above options are correct causes of peritonitis.

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  • 15. 

    Which one of the following signs and/or symptoms tends to occur with diverticulitis?

    • Herniation of the stomach through the esophageal hiatus

    • Lower left quadrant pain

    • Extreme bloody diarrhea

    • Lower right quadrant pain

    Correct Answer
    A. Lower left quadrant pain
    Explanation
    Diverticulitis is a condition characterized by inflammation or infection of small pouches (diverticula) that develop in the lining of the colon. Lower left quadrant pain is a common symptom of diverticulitis and occurs due to the inflammation of diverticula in the sigmoid colon, which is located in the lower left area of the abdomen. This pain is usually persistent and can be accompanied by other symptoms such as fever, nausea, vomiting, and changes in bowel habits. Herniation of the stomach through the esophageal hiatus, extreme bloody diarrhea, and lower right quadrant pain are not typically associated with diverticulitis.

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  • 16. 

    What is esophagitis?

    • Esophageal spasm

    • Inflammation of the stomach

    • Inflammation of the esophagus

    • Inflammation of the muscle lining the pharynx

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflammation of the muscle lining the pharynx
    Explanation
    Esophagitis refers to the inflammation of the esophagus, which is the tube that connects the throat to the stomach. It is not the same as inflammation of the stomach or esophageal spasm. The given answer, "Inflammation of the muscle lining the pharynx," is incorrect as it refers to a different part of the throat.

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  • 17. 

    Which one of the following describes a mass that protrudes into the lumen of the gut?

    • Polyp

    • Diverticulitis

    • Peptic ulcer

    • Hiatal hernia

    Correct Answer
    A. Polyp
    Explanation
    A polyp is a growth or mass that protrudes into the lumen of the gut. It can occur in various parts of the digestive tract, such as the colon, stomach, or rectum. Polyps can be benign or cancerous and may cause symptoms such as bleeding, abdominal pain, or changes in bowel habits. They are typically detected during routine screenings or when investigating symptoms. Treatment for polyps may involve removal through endoscopy or surgery, depending on their size, location, and characteristics.

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  • 18. 

    Which one of the following is characterized by excessive or inappropriate activation of the immune system to exogenous or endogenous antigens producing inflammation and tissue damage?

    • Hypersensitivity disorders

    • Idiosyncratic disorders

    • Hypogammaglobulinemia

    • Autoimmune disorders

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypersensitivity disorders
    Explanation
    Hypersensitivity disorders are characterized by excessive or inappropriate activation of the immune system in response to exogenous or endogenous antigens. This immune response leads to inflammation and tissue damage. Unlike autoimmune disorders, where the immune system mistakenly attacks the body's own tissues, hypersensitivity disorders involve a heightened immune response to external or internal antigens. Examples of hypersensitivity disorders include allergic reactions, such as asthma, hay fever, and food allergies, as well as autoimmune diseases like rheumatoid arthritis and lupus.

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  • 19. 

    Which one of the following reactions is mediated by IgE, begins rapidly, and often referred to as an allergic reaction?

    • Type 1 - Hypersensitivity

    • Type 2 - Hypersensitivity

    • Type 3 - Hypersensitivity

    • Type 4 - Hypersensitivity

    Correct Answer
    A. Type 1 - Hypersensitivity
    Explanation
    Type 1 Hypersensitivity is mediated by IgE and is commonly known as an allergic reaction. This type of hypersensitivity reaction occurs rapidly after exposure to an allergen and involves the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators from mast cells and basophils. This can lead to symptoms such as itching, hives, nasal congestion, and difficulty breathing. Examples of type 1 hypersensitivity reactions include allergic rhinitis, asthma, and anaphylaxis.

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  • 20. 

    Which one of the following diseases is seen in a newborn who is born with blood group A with Rh+ to a mother with blood group A with Rh-?

    • Arthus reaction

    • Serum sickness

    • Autoimmune haemolytic anemia

    • Erytroblastosis fetalis

    Correct Answer
    A. Erytroblastosis fetalis
    Explanation
    Erytroblastosis fetalis is the correct answer because it is a condition that occurs when a mother with Rh- blood type gives birth to a baby with Rh+ blood type. In this case, the mother's immune system may produce antibodies against the baby's red blood cells, leading to their destruction. This can cause severe anemia and other complications in the newborn. The mismatch between the mother's Rh- blood and the baby's Rh+ blood is the key factor in the development of erytroblastosis fetalis.

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  • 21. 

    Which one of the following allergic reactions causes serum sickness or a delayed reaction to penicillin, drugs, and insect venum?

    • Type I - IgE mediated

    • Type II - Cytotoxic disorders

    • Type III - Complement mediated disorder

    • Type IV - T-Cell mediated hypersensitivity

    Correct Answer
    A. Type III - Complement mediated disorder
    Explanation
    Type III hypersensitivity reactions are characterized by the formation of immune complexes, which are made up of antigens and antibodies. These immune complexes can then deposit in various tissues, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. Serum sickness is a type III hypersensitivity reaction that occurs in response to certain medications, such as penicillin, as well as insect venom. In this reaction, immune complexes are formed and deposited in various tissues, leading to symptoms such as fever, rash, joint pain, and kidney damage. Therefore, the correct answer is Type III - Complement mediated disorder.

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  • 22. 

    Which one of the following statements identifies the course of anaphylaxis?

    • Deposition of insoluble antigen-antibody compexes in joints and blood vessels

    • Severe vasculitis due to type III immune reactions leading to acute glomerulonephritis

    • An acute generalized reaction characterized by itching, generalized flushing, difficulty in breathing, and a dangerously low fall in blood pressure

    • A local inflammatory reaction to the presence of intracellular pathogens at the site of an insect bite

    Correct Answer
    A. An acute generalized reaction characterized by itching, generalized flushing, difficulty in breathing, and a dangerously low fall in blood pressure
    Explanation
    The correct answer explains that anaphylaxis is an acute generalized reaction characterized by various symptoms such as itching, generalized flushing, difficulty in breathing, and a dangerously low fall in blood pressure. This suggests that anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can affect the whole body and can be life-threatening. It is not related to the deposition of insoluble antigen-antibody complexes in joints and blood vessels, severe vasculitis due to type III immune reactions leading to acute glomerulonephritis, or a local inflammatory reaction to the presence of intracellular pathogens at the site of an insect bite.

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  • 23. 

    Which one of the following hypersensitivity reactions is occuring in the blood of an individual with contact dermatitis?

    • Type I - IgE mediated

    • Type II - Cytotoxic disorders

    • Type III - Complement mediated disorders

    • Type IV - T-cell mediated hypersensitivity

    Correct Answer
    A. Type IV - T-cell mediated hypersensitivity
    Explanation
    In contact dermatitis, the immune response is mediated by T-cells, which are a type of white blood cells. This type of hypersensitivity reaction is known as Type IV hypersensitivity. Unlike Type I hypersensitivity, which is mediated by IgE antibodies, or Type II hypersensitivity, which involves cytotoxic antibodies, Type IV hypersensitivity does not involve antibodies. Instead, it is characterized by the activation of T-cells and the release of inflammatory cytokines, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. Therefore, Type IV hypersensitivity is the correct answer for contact dermatitis.

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  • 24. 

    Which one of the following processes is described as profound immunosuppression with malignancies, wasting, and opportunistic infection?

    • HIV

    • AIDS

    • AIDS - dementia complex

    • Kaposi sarcoma

    Correct Answer
    A. AIDS
    Explanation
    AIDS is the correct answer because it is a condition caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) that leads to profound immunosuppression. This weakened immune system makes individuals more susceptible to malignancies, wasting (severe weight loss and muscle atrophy), and opportunistic infections. AIDS is characterized by a significant decline in the CD4+ T-cell count, which is a key component of the immune system. The other options listed, such as HIV, AIDS - dementia complex, and Kaposi sarcoma, are all associated with AIDS but do not encompass the full range of symptoms and complications seen in the condition itself.

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  • 25. 

    What symptom occurs when bilirubin builds up in the blood stream?

    • Jaundice

    • Cyanosis

    • Cirrhosis

    • Dark colour stools

    Correct Answer
    A. Jaundice
    Explanation
    Jaundice occurs when bilirubin builds up in the bloodstream. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is produced when red blood cells break down. Normally, the liver processes and eliminates bilirubin from the body. However, if there is a problem with the liver or the production of bilirubin exceeds the liver's capacity to process it, bilirubin can accumulate in the blood, leading to jaundice. Jaundice is characterized by a yellowing of the skin, whites of the eyes, and mucous membranes, indicating a disruption in the normal functioning of the liver.

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  • 26. 

    Which viral hepititis strain is highly contageous?

    • Hepatitis A

    • Hepatitis B

    • Hepatitis C

    • Hepatitis D

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatitis A
    Explanation
    Hepatitis A is highly contagious because it is primarily transmitted through the fecal-oral route, meaning it can be spread through contaminated food, water, or close personal contact with an infected individual. This strain of viral hepatitis can easily spread in areas with poor sanitation and hygiene practices. It does not have a chronic form and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months.

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  • 27. 

    Which hepatitis strain tends to cause mild symptoms but life-long infection?

    • Hepatitis A

    • Hepatitis B

    • Hepatitis C

    • Hepatitis D

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatitis C
    Explanation
    Hepatitis C tends to cause mild symptoms but can result in a life-long infection. Unlike Hepatitis A and B, which can be acute and resolve on their own, Hepatitis C often becomes chronic and can lead to serious liver damage if left untreated. Hepatitis D is a coinfection with Hepatitis B and does not typically cause mild symptoms.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following describes cirrhosis?

    • A disease related to the colon

    • Response of the colon to chronic damage

    • The development of fatty infiltration in the liver

    • Scar tissue replaces normal healthy tissue in the liver

    Correct Answer
    A. Scar tissue replaces normal healthy tissue in the liver
    Explanation
    Cirrhosis is a condition characterized by the replacement of healthy liver tissue with scar tissue. This scarring occurs as a result of long-term liver damage from various causes, such as chronic alcohol abuse, hepatitis, or certain medications. As scar tissue accumulates, it disrupts the liver's normal structure and function, leading to complications like liver failure, portal hypertension, and jaundice. Therefore, the answer "Scar tissue replaces normal healthy tissue in the liver" accurately describes the condition of cirrhosis.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following diseases is common known as gallstones?

    • Cholangitis

    • Cholecystitis

    • Cholelithiasis

    • Choledecolithiasis

    Correct Answer
    A. Cholelithiasis
    Explanation
    Cholelithiasis is commonly known as gallstones. It is a condition where hard deposits form in the gallbladder, which is a small organ located beneath the liver. These deposits are usually made up of cholesterol and can vary in size. Cholelithiasis can cause symptoms such as abdominal pain, nausea, and jaundice. Treatment options may include medications to dissolve the stones or surgical removal of the gallbladder.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following occurs due to increased resistance to hepatic blood flow?

    • Cirrhotic liver

    • Portal hypertension

    • Hepatocellular necrosis

    • Fibrotic hepatocyte development

    Correct Answer
    A. Portal hypertension
    Explanation
    Portal hypertension occurs due to increased resistance to hepatic blood flow. This condition is commonly seen in cirrhotic liver, where there is extensive scarring and fibrosis of the liver tissue. The scarring disrupts the normal blood flow through the liver, leading to increased pressure in the portal vein and its tributaries. This increased pressure causes portal hypertension, which can result in various complications such as ascites, variceal bleeding, and hepatic encephalopathy. Hepatocellular necrosis and fibrotic hepatocyte development may be consequences of portal hypertension, but they are not the direct cause of increased resistance to hepatic blood flow.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following complications is associated with portal hypertension?

    • Diabetes

    • Hepatitis

    • Esophagitis

    • Esophageal varicosities (varicose veins)

    Correct Answer
    A. Esophageal varicosities (varicose veins)
    Explanation
    Portal hypertension is a condition characterized by increased blood pressure in the portal vein, which carries blood from the digestive organs to the liver. This increased pressure can lead to the development of collateral blood vessels, particularly in the esophagus, called esophageal varicosities or varicose veins. These varicosities are prone to bleeding, which can be life-threatening. Therefore, esophageal varicosities are a well-known complication associated with portal hypertension.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following describes the pathogenesis of chronic pancreatitis?

    • Diffuse inflammation, usually secondary to obstruction of the gallbladder outlet

    • Progressive destruction of the exocrine pancreas, fibrosis, and in later stages, destruction of the endocrine pancreas

    • Reversible inflammatory processes of pancreatic acini

    • Accumulation of fat in the pancreatic acini

    Correct Answer
    A. Progressive destruction of the exocrine pancreas, fibrosis, and in later stages, destruction of the endocrine pancreas
    Explanation
    Chronic pancreatitis is characterized by the progressive destruction of the exocrine pancreas, leading to fibrosis. In later stages, there is also destruction of the endocrine pancreas. This destruction is caused by long-term inflammation and damage to the pancreatic tissue. Diffuse inflammation, usually secondary to obstruction of the gallbladder outlet, can be a contributing factor to the development of chronic pancreatitis, but it does not fully describe the pathogenesis. Reversible inflammatory processes of pancreatic acini and accumulation of fat in the pancreatic acini are not characteristic of chronic pancreatitis.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 11, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Wildcherry26

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