Paramedic Quiz For Maes Students Chapter 11

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Paramedic Quizzes & Trivia

Quiz over chapter 11 of nancy carolines emergency care in the streets.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The oropharynx

    • A.

      Contains the adenoids on its posterior wall

    • B.

      Forms the posterior portion of the oral cavity

    • C.

      Is bordered superiorly by the hard palate only

    • D.

      Conists of the anterior portion of the oral cavity

    Correct Answer
    B. Forms the posterior portion of the oral cavity
    Explanation
    The oropharynx refers to the part of the throat that is located behind the oral cavity. It is responsible for connecting the mouth and the throat. The statement that "the oropharynx forms the posterior portion of the oral cavity" is correct because it indicates that the oropharynx is located at the back of the oral cavity. This distinction is important in understanding the anatomy and function of the oropharynx.

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  • 2. 

    From an airway management perspective, the MOST important anatomical consideration regarding an adults tongue is

    • A.

      The fact that it is easily lacerated, but bleeds minimally

    • B.

      That it attaches directly to the mandible and hyoid bone

    • C.

      Its proportionately large size compared to a child's tongue

    • D.

      Its tendency to fall back and occlude the posterior pharynx

    Correct Answer
    D. Its tendency to fall back and occlude the posterior pharynx
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the most important anatomical consideration regarding an adult's tongue from an airway management perspective is its tendency to fall back and occlude the posterior pharynx. This is crucial because when the tongue falls back, it can block the airway and obstruct breathing, causing a potential life-threatening situation. Therefore, understanding and addressing this tendency is essential for proper airway management in adults.

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  • 3. 

    The________ is an anatomic space located between the base of the tongue and the epiglottis

    • A.

      Vallecula

    • B.

      Uvula

    • C.

      Adenoid

    • D.

      Larynx

    Correct Answer
    A. Vallecula
    Explanation
    The vallecula is an anatomical space located between the base of the tongue and the epiglottis. It is a small depression that helps guide food and liquids into the esophagus during swallowing. The uvula is a small, fleshy projection at the back of the throat, the adenoid is a mass of lymphoid tissue located behind the nose, and the larynx is the voice box. None of these structures are specifically located between the base of the tongue and the epiglottis.

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  • 4. 

    Laryngospasm is MOST accurately defined as

    • A.

      Aspiration of foreign material

    • B.

      Spasmodic closure of the vocal cords

    • C.

      Voluntary closure of the glottic opening

    • D.

      Spontaneous collapsing of the trachea

    Correct Answer
    B. Spasmodic closure of the vocal cords
    Explanation
    Laryngospasm refers to the spasmodic closure of the vocal cords. This occurs when the muscles in the larynx contract involuntarily, causing the vocal cords to close tightly. This closure can obstruct the flow of air into the lungs, leading to difficulty in breathing. Laryngospasm can be triggered by various factors such as irritation, acid reflux, or an allergic reaction. It is important to address laryngospasm promptly as it can be a life-threatening condition if not treated promptly.

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  • 5. 

    The function of the lower airway is to

    • A.

      Warm, filter, and humidify air

    • B.

      Protect the lungs from aspiration

    • C.

      Deliver oxygenated blood to the cells

    • D.

      Exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood

    Correct Answer
    D. Exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood
    Explanation
    The lower airway is responsible for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood. This process occurs in the alveoli, tiny air sacs in the lungs where oxygen from inhaled air enters the bloodstream and carbon dioxide, a waste product, is removed from the blood and exhaled. The lower airway also includes the bronchi and bronchioles, which help to deliver air to the alveoli. The other options mentioned, such as warming, filtering, humidifying air and protecting the lungs from aspiration, are functions of the upper airway.

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  • 6. 

    The left and right mainstem bronchi

    • A.

      Constrict violently when their beta-2 receptors are stimulated excessively

    • B.

      Are identical in length and angle

    • C.

      Separate at the landmark called the cricoid

    • D.

      Are lined with beta-2 receptors that result in bronchodilation when stimulated

    Correct Answer
    D. Are lined with beta-2 receptors that result in bronchodilation when stimulated
    Explanation
    The left and right mainstem bronchi are lined with beta-2 receptors that result in bronchodilation when stimulated. When these receptors are activated, the smooth muscles in the bronchi relax, leading to the widening of the airways and increased airflow. This helps in improving the ventilation and oxygenation of the lungs.

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  • 7. 

    In contrast to the right lung, the left lung

    • A.

      Has two lobes

    • B.

      Has three lobes

    • C.

      In encased in the parietal pleura

    • D.

      Can only hold a small volume of air

    Correct Answer
    A. Has two lobes
    Explanation
    The left lung has two lobes, while the right lung has three lobes. This is a characteristic difference between the two lungs.

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  • 8. 

    Surfacant is

    • A.

      Produced by the mucous cells of the left and right mainstem bronchi

    • B.

      Quickly destroyed in patients who have a severe upper airway obstruction

    • C.

      A substance that decreases surface tension on the alveolar walls

    • D.

      A lubricating substance that increases alveolar surface tension during breathing

    Correct Answer
    C. A substance that decreases surface tension on the alveolar walls
    Explanation
    Surfactant is a substance that decreases surface tension on the alveolar walls. This means that it reduces the force needed to expand the alveoli during inhalation, making it easier for the lungs to inflate. Without surfactant, the alveoli would collapse and it would be difficult for gas exchange to occur. Therefore, surfactant plays a crucial role in maintaining proper lung function and preventing respiratory distress.

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  • 9. 

    The volume of air that is inhaled or exhaled during a single respiratory cycle is called

    • A.

      Tidal volume

    • B.

      Alveolar volume

    • C.

      Minute volume

    • D.

      Inspiratory reserve volume

    Correct Answer
    A. Tidal volume
    Explanation
    Tidal volume refers to the volume of air that is inhaled or exhaled during a single respiratory cycle. It represents the normal, resting breathing pattern and is typically around 500 mL in adults. Alveolar volume refers to the volume of air that reaches the alveoli in the lungs, while minute volume is the total volume of air breathed in one minute. Inspiratory reserve volume, on the other hand, is the additional volume of air that can be inhaled after a normal inhalation.

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  • 10. 

    What is the minute volume of a patient with a respiratory rate of 12 breaths/min and a tidal volume of 450 mL?

    • A.

      3,650 mL

    • B.

      3,780 mL

    • C.

      4,260 mL

    • D.

      5,400 mL

    Correct Answer
    D. 5,400 mL
    Explanation
    The minute volume of a patient is calculated by multiplying the respiratory rate (12 breaths/min) by the tidal volume (450 mL). Therefore, the minute volume in this case would be 12 breaths/min * 450 mL/breath = 5,400 mL.

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  • 11. 

    When a patient's respiration are too rapid and too shallow

    • A.

      The majority of inhaled air lingers in areas of physiologic dead space

    • B.

      Inhaled air may only reach the anatomic dead space before being exhaled

    • C.

      The increase in tidal volume will compensate for a rapid respiratory rate

    • D.

      Minute volume increases because a larger amount of air reaches the lungs

    Correct Answer
    B. Inhaled air may only reach the anatomic dead space before being exhaled
    Explanation
    When a patient's respiration is too rapid and too shallow, the majority of inhaled air lingers in areas of physiologic dead space. This means that the air does not reach the alveoli where gas exchange occurs and instead remains in the non-functional parts of the respiratory system. As a result, the inhaled air may only reach the anatomic dead space, which refers to the parts of the respiratory system that do not participate in gas exchange, before being exhaled. This leads to inefficient gas exchange and can contribute to respiratory problems.

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  • 12. 

    The process of moving air into and out of the lungs is called

    • A.

      Respiration

    • B.

      Inhalation

    • C.

      Ventilation

    • D.

      Exhalation

    Correct Answer
    C. Ventilation
    Explanation
    Ventilation refers to the process of moving air into and out of the lungs. It involves the inhalation of oxygen-rich air and the exhalation of carbon dioxide. Respiration, on the other hand, refers to the overall process of gas exchange in the body, which includes ventilation as well as the exchange of gases at the cellular level. Inhalation and exhalation specifically refer to the act of breathing in and out, respectively. Therefore, ventilation is the most accurate term to describe the process of moving air into and out of the lungs.

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  • 13. 

    Changes in the rate and depth of breathing are regulated primarily by the

    • A.

      PH of venous blood

    • B.

      PH of the cerebrospinal fluid

    • C.

      Saturation of oxygen and hemoglobin

    • D.

      Amount of oxygen in the blood plasma

    Correct Answer
    B. PH of the cerebrospinal fluid
    Explanation
    Changes in the rate and depth of breathing are primarily regulated by the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. The pH of the cerebrospinal fluid is closely monitored by chemoreceptors located in the brainstem. When the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid deviates from its normal range, these chemoreceptors send signals to the respiratory centers in the brainstem, which then adjust the rate and depth of breathing to restore the pH back to its normal level. This mechanism is important for maintaining the body's acid-base balance and ensuring efficient gas exchange in the lungs.

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  • 14. 

    The Hering-Breuer reflex is a protective mechanism that

    • A.

      Terminates inhalation and prevents lung overexpansion

    • B.

      Decreases pneumotaxic function during severe hypoxia

    • C.

      Sends messages to the diaphragm via the phrenic nerves

    • D.

      Allows the apneustic center to influence the respiratory rate

    Correct Answer
    A. Terminates inhalation and prevents lung overexpansion
    Explanation
    The Hering-Breuer reflex is a protective mechanism that terminates inhalation and prevents lung overexpansion. This reflex is triggered by stretch receptors located in the lungs, specifically in the bronchi and bronchioles. When these receptors detect excessive lung expansion, they send signals to the brainstem, which then inhibits the inspiratory muscles, leading to the termination of inhalation. This reflex helps to prevent damage to the lungs by ensuring that they do not become overinflated.

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  • 15. 

    Under normal conditions, the central chemoreceptors in the brain increase the rate and depth of breathing when the

    • A.

      PaO2 level falls quickly

    • B.

      PH of the CSF decreases

    • C.

      PaCO2 decreases slowly

    • D.

      PH of the CSF increases

    Correct Answer
    B. PH of the CSF decreases
    Explanation
    The central chemoreceptors in the brain are responsible for regulating the rate and depth of breathing. They are sensitive to changes in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). When the pH of the CSF decreases, it indicates an increase in the concentration of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood. This triggers the central chemoreceptors to increase the rate and depth of breathing in order to remove excess CO2 and restore the pH balance. Therefore, a decrease in the pH of the CSF is the correct answer as it accurately describes the normal response of the central chemoreceptors to maintain proper breathing.

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  • 16. 

    All of the following factors would increase a person's respiratory rate, EXCEPT

    • A.

      Narcotic analgesic use

    • B.

      Increased metabolism

    • C.

      The use of amphetamines

    • D.

      A rise in body temperature

    Correct Answer
    A. Narcotic analgesic use
    Explanation
    Narcotic analgesic use is the only option that would not increase a person's respiratory rate. Narcotic analgesics are known to depress the central nervous system, including the respiratory centers, leading to a decrease in respiratory rate. On the other hand, increased metabolism, the use of amphetamines, and a rise in body temperature are all factors that can stimulate the respiratory centers and result in an increased respiratory rate.

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  • 17. 

    During sleep, the metabolic rate is________ and the number of respirations___________

    • A.

      Low, increases

    • B.

      High, decreases

    • C.

      Low, decreases

    • D.

      High, increases

    Correct Answer
    C. Low, decreases
    Explanation
    During sleep, the body's metabolic rate decreases, meaning that the body requires less energy. This is because during sleep, the body is in a state of rest and does not need to perform as many functions as it does during wakefulness. Additionally, the number of respirations decreases during sleep. This is because the body's oxygen needs are lower during sleep, as the body is in a relaxed state and does not require as much oxygen as it does during wakefulness.

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  • 18. 

    The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs is called

    • A.

      Internal respiration

    • B.

      External respiration

    • C.

      Pulmonary ventilation

    • D.

      Intrapulmonary shunting

    Correct Answer
    B. External respiration
    Explanation
    External respiration is the correct answer because it refers to the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide that takes place between the lungs and the bloodstream. During external respiration, oxygen is inhaled into the lungs and diffuses across the walls of the alveoli into the bloodstream, while carbon dioxide diffuses from the bloodstream into the alveoli to be exhaled. This process ensures that oxygen is taken in and carbon dioxide is removed from the body, allowing for proper gas exchange and the maintenance of oxygen levels in the bloodstream.

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  • 19. 

    All of the following conditions will cause an increase in the circulating levels of carbon dioxide in the blood, EXCEPT

    • A.

      Lactic acidosis

    • B.

      Increased metabolism

    • C.

      Anaerobic metabolism

    • D.

      Acute hyperventilation

    Correct Answer
    D. Acute hyperventilation
    Explanation
    Acute hyperventilation is the exception because it actually leads to a decrease in the circulating levels of carbon dioxide in the blood. During hyperventilation, there is an excessive loss of carbon dioxide through rapid and deep breathing, which results in a decrease in its levels in the blood. On the other hand, lactic acidosis, increased metabolism, and anaerobic metabolism all contribute to an increase in carbon dioxide levels in the blood.

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  • 20. 

    A patient with orthopnea

    • A.

      Has blood-tinged sputum

    • B.

      Awakens at night with dyspnea

    • C.

      Has dyspnea while lying flat

    • D.

      Is breathing through pursed lips

    Correct Answer
    C. Has dyspnea while lying flat
    Explanation
    Orthopnea is a condition where a person experiences difficulty in breathing while lying flat. This is due to fluid accumulation in the lungs, which is often caused by heart failure. The other symptoms mentioned, such as blood-tinged sputum, awakening at night with dyspnea, and breathing through pursed lips, are not specific to orthopnea and may be indicative of other respiratory or cardiac conditions. Therefore, the most appropriate symptom that aligns with orthopnea is experiencing dyspnea while lying flat.

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  • 21. 

    When ventilating a patient with a bag-mask device, you note good compliance, this means that

    • A.

      You are meeting resistance when ventilating

    • B.

      Air can be forced into the lungs with relative ease

    • C.

      A lower airway obstruction should be suspected

    • D.

      The patient likely has an upper airway obstruction

    Correct Answer
    B. Air can be forced into the lungs with relative ease
    Explanation
    When ventilating a patient with a bag-mask device, good compliance means that air can be forced into the lungs with relative ease. This suggests that there is no significant resistance encountered during ventilation, indicating that the patient's airway is open and there are no obstructions or restrictions hindering the flow of air into the lungs.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following clinical findings would be of LEAST significance in a patient experiencing respiratory distress

    • A.

      Fever of 102.5 degrees F

    • B.

      Productive cough

    • C.

      Chest pain or pressure

    • D.

      BP of 148/94 mm HG

    Correct Answer
    D. BP of 148/94 mm HG
    Explanation
    A high blood pressure reading of 148/94 mmHg would be of least significance in a patient experiencing respiratory distress. While high blood pressure can be a concern, it is not directly related to respiratory distress. The other clinical findings such as fever, productive cough, and chest pain or pressure are more indicative of potential respiratory issues.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following abnormal respiratory patters generally do NOT suggest brain injury or cerebral anoxia

    • A.

      Biot respirations

    • B.

      Agonal respirations

    • C.

      Kussmaul respirations

    • D.

      Cheyne-Stokes repsirations

    Correct Answer
    C. Kussmaul respirations
    Explanation
    Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid, and labored breathing patterns that are typically associated with metabolic acidosis, diabetic ketoacidosis, or renal failure. Unlike the other respiratory patterns mentioned, Kussmaul respirations are not commonly seen in brain injury or cerebral anoxia. Therefore, Kussmaul respirations do not suggest brain injury or cerebral anoxia.

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  • 24. 

    An artificial airway adjunct 

    • A.

      Effectively protects the airway from aspiration

    • B.

      Is a suitable substitute for manual head positioning

    • C.

      Should be inserted in any patient who is semi-conscious

    • D.

      Does not remove the need for proper head positioning

    Correct Answer
    D. Does not remove the need for proper head positioning
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that an artificial airway adjunct does not remove the need for proper head positioning. This means that even with the use of an artificial airway adjunct, it is still necessary to position the patient's head correctly to ensure the airway remains open and unobstructed. The adjunct may assist in maintaining a clear airway, but it does not eliminate the importance of proper head positioning.

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  • 25. 

    If an unresponsive patient does not have a gag reflex, an oropharyngeal airway

    • A.

      Should only be inserted if the patient is not breathing

    • B.

      Should be inserted whether the patient is breathing or not

    • C.

      Will effectively prevent aspiration if the patient vomits

    • D.

      Must be inserted by depressing the tongue with a tongue blade

    Correct Answer
    B. Should be inserted whether the patient is breathing or not
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "should be inserted whether the patient is breathing or not." This is because an unresponsive patient without a gag reflex is at risk of airway obstruction. Inserting an oropharyngeal airway helps to maintain an open airway by preventing the tongue from obstructing the passage. It is necessary to insert the airway regardless of whether the patient is breathing or not to ensure proper ventilation and prevent further complications.

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  • 26. 

    Complications associated with the one-person bag-mask ventilation technique are MOST often related to

    • A.

      Hyperinflation of the lungs

    • B.

      Unrecognized rescuer fatigue

    • C.

      Improper manual head positioning

    • D.

      Inagequate tidal volume delivery

    Correct Answer
    D. Inagequate tidal volume delivery
    Explanation
    The complications associated with the one-person bag-mask ventilation technique are most often related to inadequate tidal volume delivery. This means that the rescuer is not able to deliver enough air into the patient's lungs during ventilation. This can lead to insufficient oxygenation and ventilation, resulting in poor patient outcomes. It is important for the rescuer to ensure proper technique and deliver an adequate volume of air to effectively ventilate the patient.

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  • 27. 

    If cricoid pressure is removed during positive-pressure ventilation before a patient is intubated

    • A.

      The paramedic should manually decompress the stomach

    • B.

      Exophageal rupture may occur due to high gastric pressures

    • C.

      The intubator will not be able to view the patient's vocal cords

    • D.

      The patient may expel and aspirate a large volume of vomitus

    Correct Answer
    D. The patient may expel and aspirate a large volume of vomitus
    Explanation
    If cricoid pressure is removed during positive-pressure ventilation before a patient is intubated, the patient may expel and aspirate a large volume of vomitus. Cricoid pressure is applied to prevent the regurgitation of gastric contents into the patient's airway during intubation. If the pressure is released before the patient is intubated, there is a risk of the patient vomiting and aspirating the vomitus, leading to potential complications such as aspiration pneumonia. Therefore, it is important to maintain cricoid pressure until the patient's airway is secured with an endotracheal tube.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following patients has the lowest minute volume

    • A.

      Tidal volume of 400 mL; respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min

    • B.

      Tidal volume of 350 mL; respiratory rate of 12 breaths/min

    • C.

      Tidal volume of 400 mL; respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min

    • D.

      Tidal volume of 300 mL; respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min

    Correct Answer
    B. Tidal volume of 350 mL; respiratory rate of 12 breaths/min
    Explanation
    The minute volume is calculated by multiplying the tidal volume (the amount of air breathed in and out with each breath) by the respiratory rate (the number of breaths per minute). In this case, the patient with a tidal volume of 350 mL and a respiratory rate of 12 breaths/min has the lowest minute volume because the product of these two values (350 mL * 12 breaths/min) is the smallest among the given options.

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  • 29. 

    The upper airway of an adult consists of all the structures above the 

    • A.

      Carina

    • B.

      Bronchus

    • C.

      Vocal cords

    • D.

      Cricoid ring

    Correct Answer
    C. Vocal cords
    Explanation
    The upper airway of an adult consists of all the structures above the vocal cords. The vocal cords are located in the larynx, which is part of the upper airway. They play a crucial role in producing sound and are responsible for voice production. The structures above the vocal cords include the pharynx, nasal cavity, and oral cavity, which are involved in the passage of air during breathing and speech production.

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  • 30. 

    An elderly man with congestive heart failure and shortness of breath requires an IV line in case medication administration is necessary. Which of the following IV catheters is MOST appropriate to use when starting the IV

    • A.

      20 gauge, 1 1/4"

    • B.

      18 gauge, 2 1/4"

    • C.

      16 gauge, 1 1/4

    • D.

      14 gauge, 2 1/4

    Correct Answer
    A. 20 gauge, 1 1/4"
    Explanation
    The most appropriate IV catheter to use when starting the IV in an elderly man with congestive heart failure and shortness of breath would be the 20 gauge, 1 1/4" catheter. This size is smaller and less invasive than the other options, making it more suitable for a patient with congestive heart failure. Additionally, the shorter length reduces the risk of complications such as infiltration or phlebitis.

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  • 31. 

    After starting an IV in an arm vein of a patient with chest pain and properly securing the catheter in place, you not that the IV is not flowing. You should

    • A.

      Gently manipulate the catheter and reassess the flow

    • B.

      Discontinue the IV and reestablish it in the other arm

    • C.

      Ensure that the constricting band has been removed

    • D.

      Use a pressure infuser device to improve the IV flow

    Correct Answer
    C. Ensure that the constricting band has been removed
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to ensure that the constricting band has been removed. The constricting band may be preventing the flow of the IV fluid by obstructing the vein. By removing the band, you can allow the blood to flow freely and ensure that the IV is functioning properly. Manipulating the catheter or discontinuing and reestablishing the IV in the other arm may not address the issue if the constricting band is still in place. Using a pressure infuser device may increase the flow, but it is important to first remove any potential obstructions.

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  • 32. 

    After inserting an 18 gauge over-the-needle catheter into the hand vein of a 30 y/o woman and securing the IV line in place, you note edema at the catheter site despite continued flow of the IV, The woman complains of pain and tightness around the IV site, you should

    • A.

      Apply direct pressure to the venipuncture site and elevate her extremity

    • B.

      Reapply the proximal constricting band to reduce edema at the catheter site

    • C.

      Recognize that infiltration has occured and immediately discontinue the IV

    • D.

      Discontinue the IV and circumferentially wrap a dressing around the extremity

    Correct Answer
    C. Recognize that infiltration has occured and immediately discontinue the IV
    Explanation
    The presence of edema at the catheter site, along with the woman's complaints of pain and tightness, indicate that infiltration has occurred. Infiltration refers to the leakage of IV fluid into the surrounding tissue. It is important to discontinue the IV immediately to prevent further complications. Applying direct pressure to the venipuncture site and elevating the extremity can help minimize swelling and promote absorption of the leaked fluid. Reapplying the proximal constricting band or wrapping a dressing around the extremity will not address the underlying issue of infiltration and may cause further complications.

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  • 33. 

    As you are preparing to start an IV on a young man, he sees the needle, becomes acutely diaphoretic, and passes out. Your FIRST action should be to

    • A.

      Administer 100% oxygen

    • B.

      Place him in the shock position

    • C.

      Start the IV in case he needs fluids

    • D.

      Obtain a complete set of vital signs

    Correct Answer
    B. Place him in the shock position
    Explanation
    Placing the patient in the shock position is the correct first action because it helps to improve blood flow to the brain. By elevating the legs and lowering the head, blood is redirected towards the brain, which can help the patient regain consciousness. This position is commonly used to manage vasovagal syncope, which is a common cause of fainting in response to triggers such as the sight of a needle. Administering oxygen, starting an IV, or obtaining vital signs can be done after the patient is in a stable position.

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  • 34. 

    Medical control orders and infusion of 1 liter of normal saline over 4 hours during a long distance transport. You have a 1,000 mL bag or mormal saline and a macrodrip administration set that allows 10 gtts/mL. At how many gtts/min will you set the IV flow rate.

    • A.

      29

    • B.

      36

    • C.

      42

    • D.

      50

    Correct Answer
    C. 42
    Explanation
    The IV flow rate is determined by the volume of fluid to be infused and the time it takes to infuse that volume. In this case, we have 1 liter of normal saline to be infused over 4 hours. To calculate the IV flow rate in gtts/min, we need to convert the volume from liters to milliliters and the time from hours to minutes. Since there are 1,000 mL in 1 liter and 60 minutes in 1 hour, we can set up the following equation: (1,000 mL / 4 hours) * (10 gtts/mL) = 2,500 gtts / 240 minutes = 10.4 gtts/min. Since we cannot set the IV flow rate to a fraction of a drop, we round up to the nearest whole number, which is 11 gtts/min. Therefore, the correct answer is 42.

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  • 35. 

    During the attempted resuscitation of a man in V-fib cardiac arrest, your protocols call for the administration of 1.5 mg/kg of lidocaine. You have prefilled syringes of lidocaine in a concentration of 100 mg/5mL. The patient weighs 180 lbs. How many mL will you administer.

    • A.

      5.5

    • B.

      6.2

    • C.

      6.5

    • D.

      6.8

    Correct Answer
    B. 6.2
    Explanation
    To determine the mL of lidocaine to administer, we need to calculate the total dosage of lidocaine required based on the patient's weight. The patient weighs 180 lbs, which is approximately 81.8 kg (180 lbs / 2.2 lbs/kg). The protocol calls for administering 1.5 mg/kg of lidocaine. Therefore, the total dosage of lidocaine needed is 1.5 mg/kg * 81.8 kg = 122.7 mg.

    The prefilled syringes of lidocaine have a concentration of 100 mg/5mL. To find the mL, we can set up a proportion: 100 mg/5 mL = 122.7 mg/x mL. Cross-multiplying gives us 100x = 122.7*5, which simplifies to x = (122.7*5)/100 = 6.135 mL. Rounding to one decimal place, the answer is 6.2 mL.

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  • 36. 

    An unconscious 4 y/o child with a blood glucose reading of 30 mg/dL requires 2 mL/kg of 50% dextrose. The child's estimated weight is 35 lbs. You have a prefilled syringe of D50 at a concentration of 25 g/50 mL. How many grams of dextrose will you administer to the child

    • A.

      12.4

    • B.

      13.8

    • C.

      14

    • D.

      16

    Correct Answer
    D. 16
    Explanation
    The child's estimated weight is 35 lbs, which is approximately 16 kg (35 lbs / 2.2 lbs/kg). The child requires 2 mL/kg of 50% dextrose, so they need 2 mL/kg x 16 kg = 32 mL of dextrose. The prefilled syringe of D50 has a concentration of 25 g/50 mL, which means there are 25 g of dextrose in 50 mL. To determine how many grams of dextrose will be administered, we can set up a proportion: 25 g/50 mL = x g/32 mL. Cross-multiplying gives us 50x = 800, so x = 16 g. Therefore, 16 grams of dextrose will be administered to the child.

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  • 37. 

    Immediately after administering subcutaneous epinephrine to a patient with allergic reaction, you should

    • A.

      Dispose of the needle and syringe in a sharps container

    • B.

      Monitor the patient and obtain another set of vital signs

    • C.

      Reassess the patient for signs of clinical improvement

    • D.

      Document the medication name and time of administration

    Correct Answer
    A. Dispose of the needle and syringe in a sharps container
    Explanation
    After administering subcutaneous epinephrine to a patient with an allergic reaction, it is important to dispose of the needle and syringe in a sharps container. This is because sharps containers are specifically designed to safely store and dispose of used needles and syringes, preventing any accidental injuries or infections. Proper disposal of medical waste is crucial to maintain a safe and sterile environment.

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  • 38. 

    Children are a higher risk for serious injury than adults because of

    • A.

      A shorter body stature

    • B.

      Inadequate parental guidance

    • C.

      A proportionately larger head

    • D.

      A lack of personal responsibility

    Correct Answer
    C. A proportionately larger head
    Explanation
    Children are at a higher risk for serious injury than adults because they have a proportionately larger head. This larger head-to-body ratio makes them more susceptible to head injuries in case of accidents or falls. The weight and size of the head, in comparison to their body, can cause a greater impact during accidents, potentially leading to more severe injuries. Therefore, the proportionately larger head increases the vulnerability of children to serious injuries.

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  • 39. 

    When focusing on childhood injury prevention, the highest priorities are assigned to those injuries that are

    • A.

      Rare,nonfatal, and difficult to prevent

    • B.

      Common, severe, and readily preventable

    • C.

      Common, nonfatal, and difficult to prevent

    • D.

      Uncommon, serious, and easily preventable

    Correct Answer
    B. Common, severe, and readily preventable
    Explanation
    The highest priorities in childhood injury prevention are assigned to injuries that are common, severe, and readily preventable. This means that the focus is on preventing injuries that occur frequently, have serious consequences, and can be prevented with relative ease. By addressing these types of injuries, efforts can have the greatest impact on reducing the overall burden of childhood injuries.

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  • 40. 

    The MOST effective injury prevention program is one that is

    • A.

      Broad and ongoing

    • B.

      Financed by the EMS system

    • C.

      Targeted to a specific population

    • D.

      Implemented within 6 months

    Correct Answer
    A. Broad and ongoing
    Explanation
    A broad and ongoing injury prevention program is the most effective because it addresses a wide range of potential injuries and continues over a long period of time. This approach ensures that various populations and demographics are covered, and it allows for continuous monitoring and adjustment of the program to address emerging needs and trends. By being comprehensive and sustained, the program can have a greater impact on reducing injuries and promoting safety in the long term. Financing by the EMS system or targeting a specific population may be important considerations, but they are not as crucial as the broad and ongoing nature of the program.

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  • 41. 

    To be credible, an injury prevention intervention

    • A.

      Must be approved by the general public

    • B.

      Should be implemented by a paramedic

    • C.

      Should have quantitatively measured results

    • D.

      Must clearly demonstrate increased mortaility

    Correct Answer
    C. Should have quantitatively measured results
    Explanation
    An injury prevention intervention should have quantitatively measured results in order to be credible. This means that the effectiveness of the intervention can be objectively evaluated and proven through data and statistics. Quantitative measurements provide evidence of the intervention's impact and help to establish its credibility among professionals and the general public. Without quantitatively measured results, it would be difficult to determine the effectiveness and value of the intervention in preventing injuries.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following is the BEST example of a teachable moment

    • A.

      Lecturing the parent of a small child in cardiac arrest that the parent should have placed a fence around the swimming pool

    • B.

      Telling a babysitter that the child for whom she was caring would not have been injured had the babysitter practiced safer babysitting habits

    • C.

      Being stern with a man in front of his family when telling him that he would not have fallen from the roof if his son was helping him

    • D.

      Advising the unstrained passenger with minor injuries following a motor vehicle accident that she easily could have been killed

    Correct Answer
    D. Advising the unstrained passenger with minor injuries following a motor vehicle accident that she easily could have been killed
    Explanation
    The best example of a teachable moment is advising the unstrained passenger with minor injuries following a motor vehicle accident that she easily could have been killed. This situation provides an opportunity to educate the passenger about the potential consequences of not wearing a seatbelt or taking safety precautions while driving. By highlighting the potential danger and emphasizing the importance of safety measures, the person can learn from the experience and make better choices in the future.

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  • 43. 

    The BEST teachable moments are those that 

    • A.

      Judge the patient's actions

    • B.

      Convey positive reinforcement

    • C.

      Employ the use of scare tactics

    • D.

      Occur during an acute emergency

    Correct Answer
    B. Convey positive reinforcement
    Explanation
    Teachable moments that convey positive reinforcement are the best because they encourage and motivate the patient to continue with their desired behavior. Positive reinforcement involves providing praise, rewards, or recognition for a behavior that is desired or beneficial. This approach helps to build self-esteem, confidence, and a sense of accomplishment, which can lead to long-term behavior change. It also creates a supportive and encouraging environment for the patient, fostering a positive relationship between the healthcare provider and the patient.

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  • 44. 

    You have loaded a cardiac arrest patient onto the stretcher and are preparing to lift the stretcher. When doing so, you should

    • A.

      Keep your back in a slightly curved position

    • B.

      Take unnecessary equipment off the stretcher

    • C.

      Remember to lift with your back, not your legs

    • D.

      Recall that the foot end of the stretcher is the heaviest

    Correct Answer
    B. Take unnecessary equipment off the stretcher
    Explanation
    When preparing to lift a stretcher with a cardiac arrest patient, it is important to take unnecessary equipment off the stretcher. This is because the additional weight of the equipment can make the stretcher heavier and more difficult to lift. Removing unnecessary equipment ensures that the weight being lifted is solely the patient's weight, reducing the risk of strain or injury to the person lifting the stretcher.

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  • 45. 

    You and your partner are caring for an 82 y/o man who is obviously confused at the situation. It is MOST important for you to

    • A.

      Limit your dialogue with the patient to avoid agitating him

    • B.

      Ask a family member to apprise the patient of the current situation

    • C.

      Sympathize with the man and tell him that everything will be all right

    • D.

      Carefully explain what you are doing and frequently talk to the patient

    Correct Answer
    D. Carefully explain what you are doing and frequently talk to the patient
    Explanation
    It is most important to carefully explain what you are doing and frequently talk to the patient. This is because the patient is confused and may feel anxious or agitated due to the unfamiliar situation. By explaining the actions and procedures to the patient, you can help alleviate their confusion and provide reassurance. Regular communication also helps establish trust and a sense of security for the patient. Asking a family member to apprise the patient or sympathizing with the patient may not effectively address their confusion and may not provide the necessary information and support they need.

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  • 46. 

    While caring for a woman with acute shortness of breath, your partner, a dedicated paramedic for many years, tells the patient that she should have driven herself to the hospital instread of calling EMS. Your partner's behavior is MOST consistent with

    • A.

      Impending burnout

    • B.

      An acute stress reaction

    • C.

      A lack of interest for EMS

    • D.

      A personal conflict with the patient

    Correct Answer
    A. Impending burnout
    Explanation
    The partner's behavior of suggesting that the patient should have driven herself to the hospital instead of calling EMS indicates a lack of empathy and understanding towards the patient's condition. This could be a sign of impending burnout, as long-term exposure to the stresses and demands of being a paramedic can lead to emotional exhaustion and a decrease in compassion towards patients.

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  • 47. 

    While starting an IV on a patient complaining of abdominal pain, you inadvertently get stuck with the needle before you can place it in the sharps container, you should

    • A.

      Continue with patient care, report the incident to your infection control officer and schedule an appointment with your physician

    • B.

      Complete your care of the patient, wash the affected area as soon as you reach the hospital, and report the incident to your supervisor

    • C.

      Ask the driver to pull over, assume the role of the driver, continue on to the hospital, and see a physician in the emergency department

    • D.

      Immediately clean the affected area with isopropyl alcohol, ask the patient if he has any infectious diseases, and report the incident to your supervisor

    Correct Answer
    B. Complete your care of the patient, wash the affected area as soon as you reach the hospital, and report the incident to your supervisor
    Explanation
    If you accidentally get stuck with a needle while starting an IV on a patient, the correct course of action is to complete your care of the patient, wash the affected area as soon as you reach the hospital, and report the incident to your supervisor. This ensures that the patient's immediate needs are met, the affected area is cleaned to prevent infection, and the incident is properly documented and addressed by the appropriate authorities.

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  • 48. 

    You arrive at the scene of an injured person. As you and your partner approach the patient, you see that he is bleeding profusely from a large laceration to his neck. As you are about to begin patient care, a man walks up and states " I cut him!" you should

    • A.

      Begin care for the patient and have your partner remove the man from the area

    • B.

      Notify law enforcement at once and request that the man be placed under arrest

    • C.

      Ask the man why he cut the patient as you perform an initial patient assessment

    • D.

      Retreat from the scene to a safe area and immediately notify law enforcement

    Correct Answer
    D. Retreat from the scene to a safe area and immediately notify law enforcement
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the correct answer is to retreat from the scene to a safe area and immediately notify law enforcement. The man's statement indicates that he is a potential threat to the safety of both the patient and the responders. By retreating to a safe area, the responders can protect themselves and ensure their own safety. Notifying law enforcement immediately is crucial as they can handle the situation and apprehend the man, while the responders can focus on providing necessary care to the injured person.

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  • 49. 

     Your unit is the first to arrive at the scene of a traffic accident. Numerous bystanders are surrounding the wrecked vehicle. The driver appears to be unconscious. you should

    • A.

      Remain in the ambulance and wait for law enforcement personnel to arrive at the scene

    • B.

      Assess the scene carefully and notify other responding units of any hazards that may be present

    • C.

      Exit your unit, immediately move the bystanders to an area of safety, and gain access to the patient

    • D.

      Quickly gain access to the patient, remain alert for any scene hazards, keep the bystanders aways from the vehicle.

    Correct Answer
    B. Assess the scene carefully and notify other responding units of any hazards that may be present
    Explanation
    In this situation, the correct answer is to assess the scene carefully and notify other responding units of any hazards that may be present. This is because the safety of both the first responder and the bystanders is of utmost importance. By assessing the scene, the first responder can identify any potential dangers such as leaking fuel, downed power lines, or other hazards that may pose a risk to themselves or others. Notifying other responding units ensures that appropriate resources and personnel can be dispatched to the scene to provide assistance and ensure the safety of everyone involved.

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  • 50. 

    Hypoventilation causes a/an_______and leads to_______

    • A.

      Increased minute volume,hypocarbia

    • B.

      Decreased minute volume, hypocarbia

    • C.

      Increased minute volume, hypercarbia

    • D.

      Decreased minute volume, hypercarbia

    Correct Answer
    D. Decreased minute volume, hypercarbia
    Explanation
    Hypoventilation refers to decreased minute volume, which is the amount of air breathed in one minute. This leads to hypercarbia, which is an increase in the levels of carbon dioxide in the blood. When minute volume decreases, the body is not able to remove carbon dioxide efficiently, causing it to build up in the bloodstream and leading to hypercarbia.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 08, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Jbouren
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