Pa ALS Protocol Review I

20 Questions | Total Attempts: 176

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Drug Quizzes & Trivia

Original 20 question quiz reviewing 2011 PA ALS protocols.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    For which of the following protocols is a fluid bolus of normal saline solution NOT indicated?
    • A. 

      Allergic reaction

    • B. 

      Burns

    • C. 

      Systemic inflammatory response syndrome

    • D. 

      Narrow complex tachycardia

  • 2. 
    For which of the following cardiac drugs should the paramedic first ask the patient whether he or she is taking drugs for the treatment of erectile dysfunction?
    • A. 

      Amiodarone

    • B. 

      Nitroglycerine

    • C. 

      Diltiazem

    • D. 

      Adenosine

  • 3. 
    Which of the following statements is false?
    • A. 

      Ondansetron and Lorazepam is one combination of drugs that could be given to a patient complaining of both severe nausea and severe vertigo.

    • B. 

      You can administer as much as 2 mg naloxone to a hypoglycemic patient whose altered mental status is refractory to 25 g of 50% dextrose.

    • C. 

      Standing orders permit administering narcotic analgesics to patients complaining of left lower flank pain associated with extensive renal calculus.

    • D. 

      You may proceed directly to administering a benzodiazepine drug to an actively seizing patient if that patient is known to have a history of seizures.

  • 4. 
    Nitroglycerin may be administered to a patient prior to establishing IV access for patients experience an acute coronary syndrome.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 5. 
    Aspirin may be administered to a patient prior to obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram for patients experience an acute coronary syndrome.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 6. 
    What is the value of the first digit for numbered protocols associated with respiratory conditions?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      7

    • E. 

      8

  • 7. 
    Which of the following is not one of the criteria that must be met to administer acetaminophen to a patient without online medical command?
    • A. 

      Patient must be at least 3 months of age.

    • B. 

      The patient’s temperature must exceed 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit.

    • C. 

      The patient has not had a dose of acetaminophen within the last 4 hours.

    • D. 

      Acetaminophen cannot be taken in conjunction with aspirin or other NSAIDs.

  • 8. 
    Suppose your 7 year-old ill-looking patient is tachypnic with hyperpyrexia. Your patient’s mass is 20 kg. Which of the following interventions is not permitted per standing order?
    • A. 

      4 mg ondansetron

    • B. 

      400 mg acetaminophen

    • C. 

      400 mL bolus of normal saline solution

    • D. 

      40% oxygen delivered via simple face mask in blow-by configuration

  • 9. 
    Which of the following drugs is administered slowly?
    • A. 

      Atropine for bradycardia

    • B. 

      Epinephrine in cardiac arrest

    • C. 

      Ondansetron for nausea

    • D. 

      Adenosine for symptomatic atrial flutter

  • 10. 
    Which of the following ALS drugs may have an ototoxic effect on the patient if delivered too quickly?
    • A. 

      Morphine Sulfate

    • B. 

      Midazolam

    • C. 

      Furosemide

    • D. 

      Ondansetron

  • 11. 
    Which of the following drugs would not be administered via small volume nebulizer?
    • A. 

      Epinephrine, 5 mL, 1:1000

    • B. 

      Albuterol, 2.5 mg

    • C. 

      Terbutaline, 0.25 mg

    • D. 

      Ipratropium Bromide, 500 mcg

  • 12. 
    Which of the following combinations of D50 and fluid results in the correct weight-based dose of 10% dextrose to a 10 kg pediatric patient?
    • A. 

      10 mL of D50 mixed with 40 mL normal saline solution

    • B. 

      10 mL of D50 mixed with 40 mL D5W

    • C. 

      20 mL of D50 mixed with 80 mL normal saline solution

    • D. 

      10 mL of D50 mixed with 90 mL normal saline solution

  • 13. 
    Under which of the following circumstances is a dose of 2 mg of Lorazepam not consistent with off-line orders for a 100 kg patient?
    • A. 

      Patient with a heart rate of 45, altered mental status attributable to cardiac output, blood pressure of 102/40, prior to pacing.

    • B. 

      Patient in an active, focal seizure in her legs who is conscious, alert, and oriented.

    • C. 

      Patient complaining of severe vertigo.

    • D. 

      Unrestrained agitated behavioral patient with no underlying medical conditions who continues to struggle despite attempts to use verbal techniques.

  • 14. 
    Which of the following medications cannot be delivered intranasally per PA State protocol?
    • A. 

      Epinephrine

    • B. 

      Glucagon

    • C. 

      Lorazepam

    • D. 

      Fentanyl Citrate

  • 15. 
    What is the appropriate protocol dose for an epinephrine drip in a 75 kg unstable bradycardic patient in which both atropine and pacing is ineffective?
    • A. 

      7 mcg/min

    • B. 

      7.5 mcg/min titrated upward until a systolic blood pressure of at least 100 mmHg is achieved

    • C. 

      0.1 – 0.5 mcg/kg/min titrated until SBP > 90 mmHg

    • D. 

      Begin at 7.5 mcg/min and increase slowly until either SBP > 90 mmHg or until a maximum dose of 10 mcg/min

  • 16. 
    Which of the following is not a maximum protocol dose prior to contacting medical command?
    • A. 

      20 mcg/kg/min of dobutamine for treatment of cardiogenic shock secondary to CHF

    • B. 

      0.1 mg/kg of midazolam for treatment of seizures

    • C. 

      35 mcg/min of epinephrine for treatment of bradycardia

    • D. 

      5 mL/kg of D10 to a pediatric patient with glucose of 42 mg/dL

  • 17. 
    For which of the following rhythms is atropine expected to have the least effect on heart rate, for good or bad?
    • A. 

      Sinus bradycardia with a first degree heart block

    • B. 

      Junctional rhythm

    • C. 

      Sinus tachycardia with occasional ectopy

    • D. 

      Third degree AV block

  • 18. 
    You must attempt to contact medical command prior to administering oxytocin to a patient with post-partum hemorrhage refractory to fundal massage.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 19. 
    Under which of the following circumstances would you contact medical command prior to administration of the associated drug?
    • A. 

      Diltiazem, 0.25 mg/kg, for treatment of an regular narrow complex tachycardia in an adult patient

    • B. 

      Adenosine, 0.1 mg/kg, for treatment of stable SVT in a pediatric patient

    • C. 

      Lidocaine, 1.5 mg/kg, for treatment of a regular wide QRS rhythm in an adult patient

    • D. 

      Amiodorone, 150 mg, for treatment of an irregular wide complex tachycardia in an adult patient

  • 20. 
    For which of the following rhythms is the initial energy dose for cardioversion 50 joules?
    • A. 

      Unstable atrial flutter

    • B. 

      Unstable atrial fibrillation

    • C. 

      Unstable ventricular tachycardia

    • D. 

      Unstable pulsed ventricular fibrillation

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