NREMT- Paramedic Exam Prep Test

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NREMT- Paramedic Exam Prep Test - Quiz

Paramedics are the first medical practitioners that get to a person in case of an emergency. This is why they should be skilled in the different types of emergencies they may face and how to ensure the patient's safety and health are not compromised before they get to the hospital. This test is designed to help you prepare for the NREMT- Paramedic Exam. Try it!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Where is the Macintosh blade inserted during intubation?

    • A.

      Epiglottis

    • B.

      Trachea

    • C.

      Vallecula

    • D.

      Larynx

    Correct Answer
    C. Vallecula
    Explanation
    The Macintosh blade is inserted into the vallecula during intubation. The vallecula is a small depression located between the base of the tongue and the epiglottis. It provides a space for the Macintosh blade to lift the epiglottis and visualize the larynx, allowing for the insertion of the endotracheal tube into the trachea.

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  • 2. 

    What airway technique do you use when you have a 50-yr-old male patient who was involved in a MVA, unresponsive, and snoring respirations? 

    • A.

      Head tilt chin lift

    • B.

      Oral Airway

    • C.

      Nasal Airway

    • D.

      Jaw Thrust manuever

    Correct Answer
    D. Jaw Thrust manuever
    Explanation
    The jaw thrust maneuver is the correct airway technique to use in this scenario. This technique is used when a patient is unresponsive and has snoring respirations, which could indicate an airway obstruction. By using the jaw thrust maneuver, the healthcare provider can open the patient's airway without extending or flexing the neck, which is important in cases of suspected cervical spine injury, such as in a motor vehicle accident. This technique involves placing the fingers behind the angles of the patient's mandible and lifting the jaw forward, which helps to lift the tongue and relieve any obstruction in the airway.

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  • 3. 

    What is the minimum joules will you use to shock a 37-yr-old male patient who weighs 200 lbs?

    • A.

      50-100 joules

    • B.

      100-150 joules

    • C.

      150-200 joules

    • D.

      200-250 joules

    Correct Answer
    C. 150-200 joules
    Explanation
    To determine the minimum joules required to shock a patient using a defibrillator, we typically consider the person's weight. However, without additional context regarding the specific protocol or guidelines being followed, it's difficult to provide an accurate answer. Different protocols may recommend different energy levels for defibrillation based on factors such as the person's age, weight, and medical condition. In general, for an adult patient weighing 200 lbs, the recommended initial energy level for defibrillation typically falls within the range of 120-200 joules. Therefore, among the options provided, "150-200 joules" is the closest range to the recommended energy level based on common guidelines. However, it's essential to follow the specific protocols and recommendations provided by medical professionals or applicable standards in any given situation.

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  • 4. 

    What is an adult dose of Epinephrine in cardiac arrest?

    • A.

      2mg

    • B.

      1mg

    • C.

      2.5mg

    • D.

      1mg/kg

    Correct Answer
    B. 1mg
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1mg. In cardiac arrest, the adult dose of Epinephrine is typically 1mg. Epinephrine is a medication used to stimulate the heart and blood vessels, and it is commonly administered during cardiac arrest to help restore normal heart rhythm and blood pressure. The dosage may vary depending on the specific situation and medical protocols, but 1mg is a commonly recommended dose for adults in cardiac arrest.

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  • 5. 

    How often can you administer Epinephrine?

    • A.

      2-5min

    • B.

      3-7min

    • C.

      1-3min

    • D.

      3-5min

    Correct Answer
    D. 3-5min
    Explanation
    Epinephrine can be administered every 3-5 minutes. Epinephrine is a medication used to treat severe allergic reactions, also known as anaphylaxis. It works by constricting blood vessels and opening airways to improve breathing and increase blood pressure. In cases of anaphylaxis, repeated doses of epinephrine may be necessary to maintain its effects and prevent the allergic reaction from worsening. Administering epinephrine every 3-5 minutes ensures that the medication remains effective and continues to provide relief to the individual experiencing the allergic reaction.

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  • 6. 

    What drug may you give in place of Epinephrine?

    • A.

      Lidocaine

    • B.

      Sodium Bicarb

    • C.

      Vasopressin

    • D.

      Oxygen

    Correct Answer
    C. Vasopressin
    Explanation
    Vasopressin may be given in place of Epinephrine as it is a hormone that constricts blood vessels and increases blood pressure. It is commonly used in cardiac arrest situations as an alternative to Epinephrine to help restore circulation and improve the chances of survival. Vasopressin works by increasing the tone of blood vessels, which helps to maintain blood flow to vital organs.

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  • 7. 

    When doing CPR, how many compressions do you give each minute?

    • A.

      30

    • B.

      60

    • C.

      90

    • D.

      100

    Correct Answer
    D. 100
    Explanation
    During CPR, it is recommended to give 100 compressions per minute. This is based on the guidelines provided by the American Heart Association (AHA) and other medical organizations. The high rate of compressions helps to maintain blood flow to vital organs and increases the chances of successful resuscitation. It is important to maintain a consistent rhythm and depth while performing compressions to ensure effective chest compressions during CPR.

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  • 8. 

    What do you want to avoid during CPR?

    • A.

      Hyperventilation

    • B.

      Hypoventilation

    • C.

      Breaking the ribs

    • D.

      Shocking the Patient

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Hyperventilation
    C. Breaking the ribs
    Explanation
    During CPR, it is important to avoid hyperventilation. Hyperventilation refers to rapid and excessive breathing, which can lead to a decrease in carbon dioxide levels in the blood. This can result in a condition called respiratory alkalosis, causing blood vessels to constrict and reducing blood flow to vital organs. Hyperventilation can also lead to reduced oxygen delivery to the brain and heart. Therefore, it is crucial to maintain proper ventilation during CPR to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent further harm to the patient. During CPR (Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation), it's also important to avoid Breaking the ribs. CPR involves chest compressions, and it's not uncommon for ribs to crack or break due to the force applied during compressions. While this is an expected consequence of effective chest compressions, it's crucial to continue CPR as it is a critical part of the life-saving process.

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  • 9. 

    What are the T's when searching for and treating possible contributing factors?

    Correct Answer(s)
    'Toxins, Cardiac Tamponade, Tension Pneumothorax, Thrombosis, and Trauma', 'Toxins, Tamponade, Tension Pneumothorax, Thrombosis, and Trauma' , Tension Pneumothorax, Thrombosis, Trauma
    Explanation
    When searching for and treating possible contributing factors, the T's that should be considered are Toxins, Cardiac Tamponade, Tension Pneumothorax, Thrombosis, and Trauma. These are potential causes or factors that could be contributing to the condition or symptoms being observed. It is important to evaluate and address each of these factors in order to effectively diagnose and treat the patient.

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  • 10. 

    You use this without delay for High-degree blocks. Such as Type II second degree, or third degree heart blocks.

    • A.

      Atropine

    • B.

      Lidocaine

    • C.

      Sodium Bicarb

    • D.

      Transcutaneous Pacing

    Correct Answer
    D. Transcutaneous Pacing
    Explanation
    Transcutaneous pacing is used without delay for high-degree blocks such as Type II second degree or third degree heart blocks. This means that when a patient is experiencing these types of heart blocks, transcutaneous pacing should be implemented immediately. Atropine, lidocaine, and sodium bicarb may be used for other cardiac conditions, but they are not specifically indicated for high-degree blocks. Therefore, transcutaneous pacing is the correct answer in this context.

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  • 11. 

    When treating a patient with bradycardia, what is your first initial action according to Bradycardia algorithm?

    • A.

      Establish IV Access

    • B.

      Assist Breathing

    • C.

      Give them Oxygen

    • D.

      Maintain Patent Airway

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintain Patent Airway
    Explanation
    When treating a patient with bradycardia, the first initial action according to the Bradycardia algorithm is to maintain a patent airway. This is important because a patent airway ensures that the patient is able to breathe properly and receive adequate oxygenation. It is a crucial step in managing any medical emergency and should be prioritized to ensure the patient's safety and well-being.

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  • 12. 

    What is your dose for Adenosine?

    • A.

      6mg, 6mg,12mg

    • B.

      6mg, 12mg, 6mg

    • C.

      12mg, 12mg, 6mg

    • D.

      6mg, 12mg, 12mg

    Correct Answer
    D. 6mg, 12mg, 12mg
    Explanation
    This answer suggests that the dose for Adenosine is initially 6mg, followed by two subsequent doses of 12mg each. This dosing regimen may be based on the specific medical condition being treated and the patient's response to the medication. Adenosine is commonly used in the treatment of certain heart rhythm disorders, such as supraventricular tachycardia.

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  • 13. 

    If you have SVT with aberrancy's what medication do you administer?

    • A.

      Amiodarone

    • B.

      Adenosine

    • C.

      Atropine

    • D.

      Diazepam

    Correct Answer
    B. Adenosine
    Explanation
    Adenosine is the correct medication to administer for SVT with aberrancy. Adenosine is a class V antiarrhythmic medication that works by slowing down the electrical conduction in the heart, specifically in the AV node. This helps to restore normal sinus rhythm in patients with SVT. Amiodarone is also an antiarrhythmic medication but is not the first-line treatment for SVT with aberrancy. Atropine is used for certain types of bradycardia, not SVT. Diazepam is a sedative and not indicated for SVT with aberrancy.

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  • 14. 

    What is a normal adults respiratory rate?

    • A.

      8-12 breaths/min

    • B.

      10-18 breaths/min

    • C.

      13-21 breaths/min

    • D.

      12-20 breaths/min

    Correct Answer
    D. 12-20 breaths/min
    Explanation
    The normal respiratory rate for adults is typically between 12 and 20 breaths per minute. This range allows for efficient exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, ensuring proper oxygenation of the body's tissues. A respiratory rate below or above this range may indicate an underlying health issue, such as respiratory distress or lung disease.

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  • 15. 

    What is your first line for treating Acute Pulmonary Edema?

    • A.

      Fluids, Blood Transfusion, oxygen, transport

    • B.

      Oxygen, Nitro, Lasix, Morphine

    • C.

      Oxygen, Fluids, Lasix, Valium

    • D.

      Oxygen, Nitro, Lasix, Morphine, Fluids, Atropine

    Correct Answer
    B. Oxygen, Nitro, Lasix, Morphine
    Explanation
    The first line of treatment for Acute Pulmonary Edema is to administer Oxygen, Nitro, Lasix, and Morphine. Oxygen is given to improve oxygenation, Nitro is used to dilate blood vessels and reduce the workload on the heart, Lasix is a diuretic that helps remove excess fluid from the lungs, and Morphine is used to relieve pain and anxiety. This combination of medications helps to alleviate symptoms and improve the patient's condition.

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  • 16. 

    If you are having problems with Volume in a patient, what do you do?

    • A.

      Give Fluids, Lasix, Morphine, Nitro, Check BP

    • B.

      Give fluids, blood transfusions (if available), Consider Vasopressors, Cause specific interventions

    • C.

      ABC's

    • D.

      Call for Helicopter, Check ABC's, Give Fluids, Check BP, Furosemide, transport

    Correct Answer
    B. Give fluids, blood transfusions (if available), Consider Vasopressors, Cause specific interventions
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests a comprehensive approach to addressing volume problems in a patient. It includes giving fluids to replenish volume, considering blood transfusions if necessary, considering the use of vasopressors to increase blood pressure, and implementing cause-specific interventions to address the underlying issue. This approach ensures that the patient's volume status is optimized and any underlying causes of the problem are addressed.

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  • 17. 

    If you have a hypothermic patient what is the first thing you do?

    • A.

      Check ABC's

    • B.

      Start CPR

    • C.

      Check Core Temp

    • D.

      Remove all wet garments

    Correct Answer
    D. Remove all wet garments
    Explanation
    When dealing with a hypothermic patient, the first thing to do is to remove all wet garments. This is because wet clothes can further decrease the body temperature and prevent the patient from warming up. By removing the wet garments, the patient's body will have a better chance of retaining heat and improving their condition. Checking ABC's (airway, breathing, and circulation), starting CPR, and checking core temperature are important steps in treating a patient, but removing wet garments takes priority in this situation.

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  • 18. 

    At what temp do you have Mild Hypothermia?

    • A.

      93.2-96.8 degrees F

    • B.

      86-93.2 degrees F

    • C.

      80-86 degrees F

    • D.

      94-97.8 degrees F

    Correct Answer
    A. 93.2-96.8 degrees F
    Explanation
    Mild hypothermia occurs when the body's core temperature drops below normal but remains above a certain threshold. In this case, the correct answer is 93.2-96.8 degrees F. This temperature range indicates a mild drop in body temperature, which can lead to symptoms such as shivering, cold skin, and mild confusion. It is important to address mild hypothermia promptly to prevent it from progressing to more severe stages.

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  • 19. 

    What are the 7 D's of Stroke Care?

    • A.

      Dispatch, Door, Date, Decleration, Drug, Decision, Diazepam

    • B.

      Dispatch, Door, Date, Detection, Drug, Diazepam, Delivery

    • C.

      Detection, Dispatch, Delivery, Data, Decision, Drug, Diazepam

    • D.

      Detection, Dispatch, Delivery, Door, Data, Decision, Drug

    Correct Answer
    D. Detection, Dispatch, Delivery, Door, Data, Decision, Drug
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Detection, Dispatch, Delivery, Door, Data, Decision, Drug. These 7 D's represent the key components of stroke care. Detection refers to recognizing the symptoms of a stroke. Dispatch involves calling emergency services for immediate assistance. Delivery refers to transporting the patient to a specialized stroke center. Door signifies the arrival at the stroke center and prompt evaluation. Data refers to collecting and analyzing information about the patient's condition. Decision involves making treatment decisions based on the collected data. Drug refers to administering appropriate medications for stroke treatment.

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  • 20. 

    What three things can you look for when doing a Cincinnati Pre-hospital Stroke Scale?

    • A.

      Falls, Slurring, no smile, abnormal Speech

    • B.

      Facial Droop, Arm Drift, Abnormal Speech

    • C.

      Abnormal speech, talking really fast, screaming

    • D.

      Facial Droop, Arm Drift, Drooling

    Correct Answer
    B. Facial Droop, Arm Drift, Abnormal Speech
    Explanation
    When performing a Cincinnati Pre-hospital Stroke Scale, there are three things to look for: Facial Droop, Arm Drift, and Abnormal Speech. These symptoms can indicate a stroke and help in the assessment and early recognition of a stroke patient. Falls, slurring, no smile, abnormal speech, talking really fast, screaming, and drooling are not specific signs of stroke according to the Cincinnati Pre-hospital Stroke Scale.

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  • 21. 

    What do you want to avoid giving a stroke patient?

    • A.

      Thiamine

    • B.

      D 5 W

    • C.

      Excessive fluid loading

    • D.

      D 5 W and excessive fluid loading

    Correct Answer
    D. D 5 W and excessive fluid loading
    Explanation
    Stroke patients should avoid D 5 W and excessive fluid loading. D 5 W is a solution containing dextrose and water, which can increase blood sugar levels and potentially worsen the patient's condition. Excessive fluid loading can lead to increased intracranial pressure and swelling in the brain, which can be detrimental for stroke patients. Therefore, it is important to avoid both D 5 W and excessive fluid loading in order to ensure the best possible outcome for stroke patients.

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  • 22. 

    What is the correct sequence of steps in the primary survey of a trauma patient according to the NREMT-Paramedic exam protocol?

    • A.

      Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability

    • B.

      Circulation, Airway, Breathing, Disability

    • C.

      Breathing, Airway, Circulation, Disability 

    • D.

      Disability, Circulation, Breathing, Airway

    Correct Answer
    C. Breathing, Airway, Circulation, Disability 
    Explanation
    The mnemonic used to remember this sequence is "ABC(D)," which stands for Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability. This sequence ensures that the most life-threatening conditions are addressed first, followed by a systematic assessment of the patient's neurological status.

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  • 23. 

    Why do you want to give Morphine to an ACS patient?

    • A.

      Dilates coronary arteries and vascular smooth muscle in veins, arteries, and arterioles.

    • B.

      May limit ischemic myocardial injury, reducing the amount of ST segment elevation.

    • C.

      Inhibits Thromoxane A2 platelet aggregation to reduce coronary reocclusion and recurrent events after fibrinolytic therapy.

    • D.

      Dilates arteries and veins, which redistributes blood volume and reduces ventricluar preload and afterload.

    Correct Answer
    D. Dilates arteries and veins, which redistributes blood volume and reduces ventricluar preload and afterload.
    Explanation
    Morphine is given to an ACS (Acute Coronary Syndrome) patient because it dilates arteries and veins, which helps redistribute blood volume and reduce ventricular preload and afterload. By dilating the arteries and veins, morphine helps improve blood flow to the heart, reducing the workload on the heart and decreasing the amount of oxygen needed. This can help limit ischemic myocardial injury and reduce the amount of ST segment elevation. Additionally, morphine inhibits Thromboxane A2 platelet aggregation, which can help prevent coronary reocclusion and recurrent events after fibrinolytic therapy.

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  • 24. 

    Why do you want to give asprin to a patient with Acute Coronary Syndrome?

    • A.

      Dilates arteries and veins, which redistributes blood volume and reduces ventricluar preload and afterload.

    • B.

      Inhibits Thromoxane A2 platelet aggregation to reduce coronary reocclusion and recurrent events after fibrinolytic therapy.

    • C.

      Dilates coronary arteries and vascular smooth muscle in veins, arteries, and arterioles.

    • D.

      May limit ischemic myocardial injury, reducing the amount of ST segment elevation.

    Correct Answer
    B. Inhibits Thromoxane A2 platelet aggregation to reduce coronary reocclusion and recurrent events after fibrinolytic therapy.
    Explanation
    Aspirin is given to a patient with Acute Coronary Syndrome because it inhibits Thromoxane A2 platelet aggregation. This helps to reduce the risk of coronary reocclusion and recurrent events after fibrinolytic therapy. By preventing platelet aggregation, aspirin helps to maintain blood flow through the coronary arteries and reduces the chances of further blockages. This is important in preventing complications and improving outcomes for the patient.

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  • 25. 

    On a 12 lead, what do Leads I, II, and aVF show you?

    • A.

      Lateral

    • B.

      Inferior

    • C.

      Septal

    • D.

      Anterior

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Lateral
    B. Inferior
    Explanation
    In a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG), Leads I,II and aVF primarily show information related to the lateral and inferior walls of the heart, respectively. They do not specifically show the septal or anterior walls of the heart. Other leads, such as V1-V6, are typically used to assess the septal and anterior walls.

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  • 26. 

    What leads will you see Lateral problems in?

    • A.

      Leads I, aVL, aVF, V5

    • B.

      Leads I, aVL, V2, V1

    • C.

      Leads I, aVL, V5, V6

    • D.

      Leads I, aVL, aVR, V4

    Correct Answer
    C. Leads I, aVL, V5, V6
    Explanation
    Lateral leads in an ECG are used to assess the electrical activity of the left side of the heart. Leads I and aVL provide information about the lateral wall of the left ventricle, while leads V5 and V6 give insights into the left lateral chest wall. Therefore, the combination of leads I, aVL, V5, and V6 allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the lateral aspects of the heart.

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