# Gs Paramedic Final Exam Practice

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Alissa
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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 271
Questions: 104 | Attempts: 271

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• 1.

### When would you see exophthalmos?

• A.

• B.

Cushing syndrome

• C.

Grave's disease

• D.

Myasthenia Gravis

C. Grave's disease
Explanation
pg. 1282

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• 2.

### 100.4 degrees F is ________ degrees C

38
Explanation
The given question is asking for the conversion of 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit to degrees Celsius. To convert Fahrenheit to Celsius, we subtract 32 and then multiply by 5/9. Applying this formula, we subtract 32 from 100.4, which gives us 68.4. Then, multiplying 68.4 by 5/9, we get approximately 38 degrees Celsius.

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• 3.

### 98.6 degrees F is ________ degrees C

37
Explanation
The given question is asking for the conversion of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit to degrees Celsius. To convert Fahrenheit to Celsius, you subtract 32 from the Fahrenheit temperature and then multiply the result by 5/9. In this case, when you subtract 32 from 98.6, you get 66.6. Then, when you multiply 66.6 by 5/9, you get 37. Therefore, 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit is equal to 37 degrees Celsius.

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• 4.

### After eating a fatty meal, abdominal pain begins hours later due to a flare up of what condition?

• A.

Appendicitis

• B.

Pancreatitis

• C.

Hepatitis

• D.

Cholecystitis

D. Cholecystitis
Explanation
Cholecystitis is the inflammation of the gallbladder, which can be triggered by consuming a fatty meal. The gallbladder stores bile, which helps in the digestion of fats. When a fatty meal is consumed, the gallbladder contracts to release bile into the small intestine. In the case of cholecystitis, the gallbladder becomes inflamed, usually due to the presence of gallstones that block the bile ducts. This inflammation can cause abdominal pain that typically starts a few hours after eating a fatty meal. Therefore, cholecystitis is the most likely condition to cause abdominal pain after consuming a fatty meal.

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• 5.

### Where is the macula located?

• A.

Fovea

• B.

Retina

• C.

Medial canthus

• D.

Lens

B. Retina
Explanation
The macula is located in the retina. The retina is the innermost layer of the eye that contains light-sensitive cells called photoreceptors. The macula is a small, specialized area in the center of the retina that is responsible for central vision and allows us to see fine details clearly. It contains a high concentration of cone cells, which are responsible for color vision and visual acuity.

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• 6.

### S/S - headache, photophobia, severe eye pain, N/V, halo vision

• A.

HypHema

• B.

Narrow angle glaucoma

• C.

Concussion

• D.

B. Narrow angle glaucoma
Explanation
*EMERGENCY* - if intraocular pressure is not reduced then permanent vision loss can occur

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• 7.

### Meningitis is very contagious and primarily spread via which route?

• A.

Contact

• B.

Airborne

• C.

Droplet

• D.

Vector

C. Droplet
Explanation
Meningitis is primarily spread through droplets. When an infected person coughs or sneezes, tiny droplets containing the bacteria or virus can be released into the air. These droplets can then be inhaled by others, leading to the transmission of meningitis. This is why close contact with an infected person, especially in crowded places, increases the risk of contracting the disease. Other routes of transmission, such as contact or airborne, may also play a role in the spread of meningitis, but droplet transmission is the most common and significant.

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• 8.

### Cardiogenic shock occurs when heart failure is accompanied by what?

• A.

• B.

Mottled skin

• C.

Crackles

• D.

Hypotension

D. Hypotension
Explanation
pg. 1053

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• 9.

### S/S - sudden onset of dyspnea, anxious, cyanotic, chest pain?

• A.

Pulmonary embolism

• B.

MI

• C.

• D.

Stroke

A. Pulmonary embolism
Explanation
The sudden onset of dyspnea, anxiety, cyanosis, and chest pain are classic symptoms of a pulmonary embolism. A pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs and blocks blood flow. This can lead to a decrease in oxygenation, causing cyanosis and shortness of breath. Chest pain can occur due to the strain on the heart caused by the clot. MI (heart attack), cardiac tamponade, and stroke may also present with some similar symptoms, but the sudden onset of dyspnea and chest pain is more indicative of a pulmonary embolism.

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• 10.

### Main concerns with hyperemesis gravidarum?

• A.

Dehydration and malnutrition

• B.

Dehydration and hyperglycemia

• C.

Hyperglycemia and sepsis

• D.

Renal failure and cardiac dysrhythmia

A. Dehydration and malnutrition
Explanation
pg. 2038

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• 11.

### How can you treat hyperemesis gravidarum in the field? (After fluid boluses)

• A.

Zofran

• B.

Glucagon

• C.

DipHenhydramine

• D.

Sodium Bicarb

C. DipHenhydramine
Explanation
Per pg. 2038 you can give Zofran after Diphenhydramine if protocols allow; BUT Lauren's answer during scenarios and review of this was always Diphenhydramine.

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• 12.

### What class is Metoprolol?

• A.

Sodium channel blocker

• B.

Antiemetic

• C.

ACE Inhibitor

• D.

Beta blocker

D. Beta blocker
Explanation
Metoprolol is classified as a beta blocker. Beta blockers work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the beta receptors in the body, which helps to lower blood pressure and reduce the workload on the heart. Metoprolol is commonly prescribed to treat conditions such as hypertension, angina, and heart failure. It is also used to prevent heart attacks in patients who have already had one.

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• 13.

### Which plasma protein is responsible for clotting?

• A.

Fibrin

• B.

Globulin

• C.

Fibrinogen

• D.

Albumin

C. Fibrinogen
Explanation
Pg. 334

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• 14.

### If your pt is over 35yo and you can hear S3 heart tones - what should you suspect?

• A.

AmpHetamine use

• B.

Heart failure

• C.

COPD

• D.

Narrowing artery

B. Heart failure
Explanation
If a patient is over 35 years old and the healthcare provider can hear S3 heart tones, it is likely that the patient is experiencing heart failure. S3 heart tones, also known as ventricular gallops, are abnormal heart sounds that can indicate fluid overload and impaired ventricular function, both of which are common in heart failure. Therefore, the presence of S3 heart tones in an older patient suggests the possibility of heart failure as the cause of their symptoms.

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• 15.

### ________ is a false verbal statement that injures someones good name.

Slander
Explanation
Slander refers to a false verbal statement that harms someone's reputation. It involves making false statements about someone that can damage their good name or character. Slander is a form of defamation and can result in legal consequences for the person making the false statement.

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• 16.

3
• 17.

### Kernig and Brudzinski sign suggest what?

• A.

Cholecystitis

• B.

Mumps

• C.

Meningitis

• D.

Measles

C. Meningitis
Explanation
pg. 1128

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• 18.

### A pt with shoulder dystocia should be positioned how?

• A.

Supine with knees to chest

• B.

Trendelenburg with knees to shoulders

• C.

Supine with knees to shoulders

• D.

Trendelenburg with knees to chest

C. Supine with knees to shoulders
Explanation
The correct answer is Supine with knees to shoulders. When a patient is experiencing shoulder dystocia, it is important to position them in a way that can help alleviate the obstruction. Placing the patient in a supine position with their knees pulled up towards their shoulders can create more space in the pelvic area and increase the chances of successfully delivering the baby. This position allows for easier access to the baby's shoulder and can facilitate maneuvers such as the McRoberts maneuver or the Woods' screw maneuver.

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• 19.

### What should you suspect when a ped pt has bruising to the buttocks only and it's reported that they fell out of a tree?

• A.

Child abuse

• B.

• C.

• D.

Spinal injury

A. Child abuse
Explanation
Hx inconsistent with presenting injury
Pg. 2184

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• 20.

### Your 34yo pt sustained a head injury and has a GCS of 8, BP 100/80, HR 98, gasping respirations, and intact gag reflex. What should you do next?

• A.

DAI

• B.

NRB @ 15lpm

• C.

• D.

Narcan

A. DAI
Explanation
The correct answer is DAI. DAI stands for Diffuse Axonal Injury, which is a type of brain injury that occurs due to shearing forces in the brain. The patient in this scenario has a low Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 8, which indicates a severe brain injury. The other options, NRB @ 15lpm, BVM with adjunct, and Narcan, are not appropriate in this situation as they do not address the underlying brain injury.

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• 21.

### Your pt had painful and cloudy urination accompanied by flank tenderness. After 5 days the pain now radiates to the neck and you were called bc the pt is now altered and has a fever. What should you suspect?

• A.

Kidney stone

• B.

PyelonepHritis

• C.

Chlamydia

• D.

UTI

B. PyelonepHritis
Explanation
pg. 1221

UTI pts are usually stable but if left untreated can lead to pyelonephritis which presents unstable.

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• 22.

### 67yo female had vague abdominal discomfort 45 minutes ago that is now 10/10 pain radiating from her back to her groin. What should you suspect?

• A.

Ectopic pregnancy

• B.

Cholecystitis

• C.

Kidney stone

• D.

UTI

C. Kidney stone
Explanation
pg. 1222

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• 23.

### You're called to the scene of a church where multiple pts are light headed and SOB. You have on your proper PPE and have called for additional resources. What should you do next?

• A.

Find out number of pts

• B.

Secure the scene

• C.

Spine precautions

• D.

Hose down the pts

A. Find out number of pts
Explanation
SPANS

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• 24.

### Your pt is choking and can no longer move air. They are also 35 weeks pregnant. How should you treat?

• A.

Back slaps

• B.

Abdominal thrusts

• C.

Supine and begin chest compressions

• D.

Chest thrusts

D. Chest thrusts
Explanation
In this scenario, the correct answer is chest thrusts. When a person is choking and unable to move air, chest thrusts are the recommended treatment. This technique involves standing behind the person, placing your hands on their chest, and applying firm pressure to compress the chest in an attempt to dislodge the obstruction. However, due to the fact that the patient is 35 weeks pregnant, it is important to modify the technique slightly to avoid putting excessive pressure on the abdomen.

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• 25.

### If your pt in stable v-tach has no response to Amiodarone drip, what should you do next?

• A.

Call med control to consider Lidocaine drip

• B.

Synchronized cardioversion

• C.

Call med control to consider Adenosine

• D.

C. Call med control to consider Adenosine
Explanation
If a patient in stable ventricular tachycardia does not respond to an Amiodarone drip, the next step would be to call medical control to consider Adenosine. Adenosine is a medication commonly used to treat supraventricular tachycardia, but it can also be considered in certain cases of stable ventricular tachycardia. Medical control should be consulted to determine the appropriate course of action in this situation.

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• 26.

### Peds initial defib setting?

• A.

1 j/kg

• B.

2 j/kg

• C.

3 j/kg

• D.

4 j/kg

B. 2 j/kg
Explanation
The initial defibrillation setting for pediatric patients is 2 j/kg. This means that for every kilogram of the child's body weight, a 2-joule shock is delivered. This setting is based on the current guidelines for pediatric resuscitation and is considered safe and effective in delivering the necessary energy to restore normal heart rhythm in children.

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• 27.

### What is the reason for Aspirin use in an MI?

• A.

Reduce mortality

• B.

Decrease pain

• C.

Lower blood pressure

• D.

Vasodilate

A. Reduce mortality
Explanation
Aspirin is used in an MI (myocardial infarction) to reduce mortality. This is because aspirin works as a blood thinner, preventing blood clots from forming in the arteries. In an MI, a blood clot can block the blood flow to the heart, leading to tissue damage and potentially death. By reducing the risk of blood clot formation, aspirin helps to prevent further damage to the heart and improve survival rates.

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• 28.

### You just delivered a baby at 33 weeks and it's breathing is labored. After suctioning what is tx for the baby?

• A.

Ventilations with BVM and OPA

• B.

Begin CPR

• C.

Warm, dry, stimulate

• D.

Cut the cord

C. Warm, dry, stimulate
Explanation
After delivering a baby at 33 weeks with labored breathing, the first step is to warm, dry, and stimulate the baby. This helps to stimulate the baby's breathing and can improve their overall condition. Ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) may be necessary if the baby's breathing does not improve after warming, drying, and stimulating. Starting CPR or cutting the cord are not the appropriate initial steps in this situation.

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• 29.

### Your 70yo pt presents with slurred speech and facial drooping. They inform you that they stopped taking their Warfarin prescribed for a-fib. What should you suspect?

• A.

Bells Palsy

• B.

Hemorrhagic stroke

• C.

Ischemic stroke

• D.

PE

C. Ischemic stroke
Explanation
pg. 999 - clots formed during a-fib may become emboli that block circulation elsewhere in the body

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• 30.

### Sarin, Soman, Tabun, and VX are all what?

• A.

OrganopHospHates

• B.

Nerve agents

• C.

Pesticides

• D.

Antidotes

B. Nerve agents
Explanation
pg. 2444

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• 31.

### A pt with Leukemia is most likely prone to what?

• A.

Seizures

• B.

Kidney failure

• C.

Uncontrolled bleeding

• D.

Frequent infections

D. Frequent infections
Explanation
Leukemia is a type of cancer that affects the bone marrow and blood. It leads to the production of abnormal white blood cells, which weakens the immune system. As a result, individuals with leukemia have a compromised immune system and are more susceptible to infections. Therefore, frequent infections are a common occurrence in patients with leukemia.

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• 32.

### You're called for the 25yo pt that started having a seizure while gardening. On scene the pt is still seizing. Family informs you pt has no medical Hx or allergies. What should you suspect?

• A.

Febrile seizure

• B.

Snake bite

• C.

OrganopHospHate poisoning

• D.

Heat stroke

C. OrganopHospHate poisoning
Explanation
Given the information provided, the most likely explanation for the patient's seizure is organophosphate poisoning. This is suggested by the fact that the patient has no previous medical history or allergies, and the family did not mention any other potential causes such as a snake bite or heat stroke. Organophosphates are commonly used in pesticides, and accidental or intentional ingestion can lead to seizures.

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• 33.

### What causes febrile seizures?

• A.

Rapid increase in temperature

• B.

Infection that has spread to the spine

• C.

High body temperature for prolonged amount of time

• D.

Electrolyte imbalance from prolonged sweating

A. Rapid increase in temperature
Explanation
Febrile seizures are caused by a rapid increase in temperature. When a child's body temperature rises quickly, it can trigger a seizure. Febrile seizures are most common in children between the ages of 6 months and 5 years. It is important to note that febrile seizures are not caused by an infection that has spread to the spine, high body temperature for a prolonged amount of time, or electrolyte imbalance from prolonged sweating.

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• 34.

### Your 3yo pt has been seizing for 10 minutes and is hot to the touch. What should you do?

• A.

Start an IV for cold fluids

• B.

Remove clothing to begin cooling

• C.

• D.

Apply a wet cloth to pts forehead

B. Remove clothing to begin cooling
Explanation
In this scenario, the 3-year-old patient is experiencing a seizure and is hot to the touch. Removing clothing to begin cooling is the most appropriate action. Seizures can cause an increase in body temperature, and cooling the patient can help prevent further complications. Removing clothing allows for better heat dissipation and can help lower the body temperature. It is important to address the elevated body temperature promptly to prevent potential brain damage or other complications associated with prolonged seizures.

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• 35.

### Peds SVT synchronized cardioversion initial shock?

• A.

1 j/kg

• B.

2 j/kg

• C.

3 j/kg

• D.

4 j/kg

A. 1 j/kg
Explanation
In pediatric patients with supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), synchronized cardioversion is the initial treatment of choice. The recommended initial shock energy for pediatric synchronized cardioversion is 1 joule per kilogram (j/kg). This means that for each kilogram of the child's body weight, a shock of 1 joule should be delivered. The use of synchronized cardioversion helps to minimize the risk of causing further arrhythmias or hemodynamic instability. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 j/kg.

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• 36.

### All meds administered during a cardiac arrest should be flushed with ________ mL of normal saline.

20
Explanation
During a cardiac arrest, it is important to flush all medications with a sufficient amount of normal saline to ensure proper administration and circulation. Flushing the medications with 20 mL of normal saline helps to ensure that the medication is fully delivered and reaches the bloodstream effectively. This volume is considered adequate for flushing the medications and ensuring their proper distribution throughout the body.

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• 37.

### After starting a bag of fluids your pt has a sudden onset of respiratory distress with cyanosis that doesn't improve with 100% oxygen delivery, what should you suspect?

• A.

MI

• B.

Asthma attack

• C.

Air embolism

• D.

CO poisoning

C. Air embolism
Explanation
pg. 711

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• 38.

### An air embolism is a serious risk for pts with long term vascular devices because it usually goes directly into where?

• A.

Left atrium

• B.

Pulmonary artery

• C.

Left ventricle

• D.

Vena cava

D. Vena cava
Explanation
pg. 759

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• 39.

### Contraindications for use of Lidocaine

• A.

AV blocks

• B.

V-tach

• C.

IVR

• D.

Inferior wall MI

• E.

V-fib

• F.

Lateral wall MI

A. AV blocks
C. IVR
D. Inferior wall MI
Explanation
Lidocaine is a medication used for local anesthesia and to treat certain types of abnormal heart rhythms. However, there are contraindications, or situations where it should not be used. AV blocks, which are abnormalities in the electrical conduction system of the heart, can be worsened by lidocaine and therefore it should not be used in patients with this condition. IVR, or idioventricular rhythm, is a slow heart rhythm that can also be worsened by lidocaine. Inferior wall MI, which refers to a heart attack affecting the lower part of the heart, is another contraindication for lidocaine use.

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• 40.

### Your pt took 15mg of Alprazolam and washed it down with Vodka. What's your initial tx?

• A.

Fluoxetine IN

• B.

Airway management

• C.

Pt position and fluid bolus

• D.

Narcan IN

B. Airway management
Explanation
The initial treatment in this scenario would be airway management. The combination of Alprazolam (a sedative) and Vodka (alcohol) can cause central nervous system depression, leading to respiratory depression and potential airway obstruction. Therefore, ensuring a patent airway and providing necessary support for breathing would be the priority in this situation.

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• 41.

### During glycogenolysis, what is converted into glucose?

• A.

Glucagon

• B.

Insulin

• C.

Glycogen

• D.

Somatostatin

C. Glycogen
Explanation
pg. 329

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• 42.

### Glucagon is naturally occurring in the pancreas but can also be administered for hypoglycemia. Why would administering it to an alcoholic pt be ineffective?

• A.

Alcoholics don't become hypoglycemic because of the sugar in alcohol

• B.

The glucagon can't be absorbed by the pts pancreas

• C.

Alcohol depletes glycogen stores in the liver

• D.

All alcoholics have pancreatitis

C. Alcohol depletes glycogen stores in the liver
Explanation
Ineffective in pts that are malnourished, pediatrics, alcoholics, etc.

Glycogen is a form of stored glucose in the liver. Glucagon converts the glycogen stored in the liver back into glucose. (Glycogenolysis)

So glucagon would be ineffective in pts without those stores.

pg. 329 & 1267

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• 43.

### You're called for a dialysis pt that has no pulse but shows normal sinus on the monitor. After starting CPR you'd administer Epi and what?

• A.

Lidocaine

• B.

Sodium Bicarb

• C.

Amiodarone

• D.

D50

B. Sodium Bicarb
Explanation
In this scenario, the patient has no pulse but shows normal sinus on the monitor. This suggests a potential metabolic cause for the cardiac arrest, such as severe acidosis. Sodium bicarbonate is commonly used in cardiac arrest situations where metabolic acidosis is suspected or confirmed. It helps to correct the acid-base imbalance and improve the effectiveness of CPR. Therefore, after administering epinephrine, the next appropriate medication to administer would be sodium bicarbonate.

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• 44.

### What electrolyte abnormality are you most concerned about in a crush injury?

• A.

Hyperkalemia

• B.

Hypocalcemia

• C.

Hyponatremia

• D.

Hypercalcemia

A. Hyperkalemia
Explanation
In a crush injury, there is a risk of muscle damage and breakdown, leading to the release of potassium from the damaged cells into the bloodstream. This can cause hyperkalemia, which is characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. Hyperkalemia can be life-threatening as it can cause heart rhythm abnormalities and cardiac arrest. Therefore, it is the electrolyte abnormality that healthcare providers are most concerned about in a crush injury.

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• 45.

### Rebound tenderness would be a result of?

• A.

Damage to solid organs

• B.

Torn/sprained ligaments

• C.

Damage to hollow organs

• D.

Pneumothorax

C. Damage to hollow organs
Explanation
Rebound tenderness occurs when there is damage to hollow organs. This is because hollow organs, such as the intestines or bladder, are filled with fluid or air. When these organs are damaged, the fluid or air leaks out and irritates the surrounding tissues. When pressure is applied to the area and then released, the irritated tissues "rebound" and cause pain or tenderness. Damage to solid organs or ligaments would not cause rebound tenderness. Pneumothorax, which is a collapsed lung due to air in the chest cavity, could also cause rebound tenderness.

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• 46.

### What are ACE inhibitors commonly prescribed for?

• A.

Htn & CHF

• B.

Pulmonary htn & right sided heart failure

• C.

End stage renal & hypotension

• D.

GURD & chronic bronchitis

A. Htn & CHF
Explanation
ACE inhibitors are commonly prescribed for hypertension (Htn) and congestive heart failure (CHF). These medications work by blocking the action of an enzyme called angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), which helps to relax blood vessels and reduce fluid buildup in the body. By inhibiting ACE, these drugs help to lower blood pressure and improve heart function in patients with hypertension and congestive heart failure.

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• 47.

• A.

Option 1

• B.

Option 2

• C.

Option 3

• D.

Option 4

A. Option 1
• 48.

### What class is Verapamil?

• A.

Sodium channel blocker

• B.

Calcium channel blocker

• C.

Beta blocker

• D.

ACE inhibitor

B. Calcium channel blocker
Explanation
Verapamil is classified as a calcium channel blocker. Calcium channel blockers work by blocking the flow of calcium ions into the smooth muscle cells of the heart and blood vessels. This helps to relax and widen the blood vessels, reducing blood pressure and improving blood flow. Verapamil is commonly used to treat high blood pressure, angina (chest pain), and certain heart rhythm disorders.

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• 49.

### In order for CPAP to be used the pts SBP needs to be greater than ________ mmHg.

90
Explanation
CPAP (Continuous Positive Airway Pressure) is a treatment method used for patients with sleep apnea or other breathing difficulties. It involves the use of a machine that delivers a constant flow of air pressure to keep the airways open during sleep. In order for CPAP to be effective and safe, the patient's systolic blood pressure (SBP) needs to be greater than 90 mmHg. This is because CPAP can slightly increase blood pressure, and if the SBP is too low, there may be a risk of decreased blood flow to vital organs.

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• 50.

### Your pt has JVD and hepatomegaly. What is this a sign of?

• A.

Left sided heart failure

• B.

Right sided heart failure

• C.

• D.

Hemothorax

B. Right sided heart failure
Explanation
Jugular venous distention (JVD) and hepatomegaly are both clinical signs associated with right sided heart failure. Right sided heart failure occurs when the right ventricle is unable to effectively pump blood to the lungs for oxygenation. This leads to a backup of blood in the systemic venous system, causing increased pressure in the jugular veins and resulting in JVD. Hepatomegaly, or enlargement of the liver, occurs because of congestion and increased blood flow in the liver due to the right heart's inability to efficiently pump blood. Therefore, the presence of JVD and hepatomegaly is indicative of right sided heart failure.

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• Current Version
• Mar 20, 2023
Quiz Edited by
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• May 18, 2020
Quiz Created by
Alissa

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