Gs Paramedic Final Exam Practice

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  • 1/104 Questions

    After starting a bag of fluids your pt has a sudden onset of respiratory distress with cyanosis that doesn't improve with 100% oxygen delivery, what should you suspect?

    • MI
    • Asthma attack 
    • Air embolism
    • CO poisoning 
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About This Quiz

This practice exam tests knowledge crucial for paramedics, covering conditions like Grave's disease, cholecystitis, and narrow angle glaucoma, and conversions between Fahrenheit and Celsius.

Gs Paramedic Final Exam Practice - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What electrolyte abnormality are you most concerned about in a crush injury?

    • Hyperkalemia 

    • Hypocalcemia 

    • Hyponatremia 

    • Hypercalcemia 

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperkalemia 
    Explanation
    In a crush injury, there is a risk of muscle damage and breakdown, leading to the release of potassium from the damaged cells into the bloodstream. This can cause hyperkalemia, which is characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. Hyperkalemia can be life-threatening as it can cause heart rhythm abnormalities and cardiac arrest. Therefore, it is the electrolyte abnormality that healthcare providers are most concerned about in a crush injury.

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  • 3. 

    Hypotension, muffled heart tones, and JVD are classic s/s of what? (Beck's triad)

    • Pneumothorax

    • Cardiac tamponade

    • Hemothorax

    • CHF

    Correct Answer
    A. Cardiac tamponade
    Explanation
    Hypotension, muffled heart tones, and JVD are classic signs and symptoms of cardiac tamponade. Cardiac tamponade occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac, putting pressure on the heart and preventing it from filling properly. This leads to decreased blood flow and hypotension. Muffled heart tones occur because the fluid surrounding the heart dampens the sound of the heartbeat. JVD, or jugular venous distention, is a result of increased pressure in the veins leading to the heart. These three findings, along with other signs such as pulsus paradoxus, are indicative of cardiac tamponade.

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  • 4. 

    pH: 7.50 PaCO2: 41 mmHg HCO3: 29

    • Metabolic acidosis 

    • Metabolic alkalosis 

    • Respiratory acidosis

    • Respiratory alkalosis 

    Correct Answer
    A. Metabolic alkalosis 
    Explanation
    The given values indicate a pH level of 7.50, which is higher than the normal range of 7.35-7.45. Additionally, the HCO3 level is elevated at 29, suggesting an excess of bicarbonate in the blood. This combination of a high pH and elevated HCO3 is indicative of metabolic alkalosis, which occurs when there is an excess of bicarbonate in the body. The PaCO2 level of 41 mmHg is within the normal range and does not contribute to the diagnosis of metabolic alkalosis.

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  • 5. 

    Your pt has chest pain due to exertion that's typical with past episodes. What are they likely experiencing? 

    • Stable angina 

    • MI

    • Unstable angina

    • Prinzmetal angina 

    Correct Answer
    A. Stable angina 
    Explanation
    The patient is likely experiencing stable angina. Stable angina is chest pain that occurs during physical exertion or emotional stress and is relieved with rest or medication. The fact that the chest pain is typical and consistent with past episodes suggests that it is stable angina rather than a more serious condition like MI (heart attack) or unstable angina. Prinzmetal angina is a type of angina that occurs at rest due to coronary artery spasms, which is not indicated in this case.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is responsible for hearing?

    • Cochlea

    • Vestibule 

    Correct Answer
    A. Cochlea
    Explanation
    The cochlea is responsible for hearing. It is a spiral-shaped, fluid-filled structure in the inner ear that converts sound vibrations into electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain. The cochlea contains tiny hair cells that are stimulated by the movement of fluid in response to sound waves. These hair cells then send signals to the auditory nerve, which carries the information to the brain for processing and interpretation. The vestibule, on the other hand, is responsible for balance and spatial orientation.

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  • 7. 

    Disease characterized by barrel chest and destruction of alveoli? 

    • Emphysema 

    • Chronic bronchitis 

    • Asthma

    • Flail chest

    Correct Answer
    A. Emphysema 
    Explanation
    Emphysema is a disease characterized by barrel chest and destruction of alveoli. In this condition, the walls of the alveoli become weak and lose their elasticity, leading to the collapse of the air sacs and trapping of air in the lungs. This causes the chest to become barrel-shaped as the lungs become hyperinflated. Chronic bronchitis is characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, while asthma is a chronic condition that causes inflammation and constriction of the airways. Flail chest refers to a condition where multiple ribs are fractured, leading to a segment of the chest wall becoming detached.

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  • 8. 

    Cardiogenic shock occurs when heart failure is accompanied by what?

    • Bradycardia 

    • Mottled skin 

    • Crackles

    • Hypotension

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypotension
    Explanation
    pg. 1053

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  • 9. 

    Glucagon is naturally occurring in the pancreas but can also be administered for hypoglycemia. Why would administering it to an alcoholic pt be ineffective? 

    • Alcoholics don't become hypoglycemic because of the sugar in alcohol

    • The glucagon can't be absorbed by the pts pancreas 

    • Alcohol depletes glycogen stores in the liver 

    • All alcoholics have pancreatitis 

    Correct Answer
    A. Alcohol depletes glycogen stores in the liver 
    Explanation
    Ineffective in pts that are malnourished, pediatrics, alcoholics, etc.

    Glycogen is a form of stored glucose in the liver. Glucagon converts the glycogen stored in the liver back into glucose. (Glycogenolysis)

    So glucagon would be ineffective in pts without those stores.

    pg. 329 & 1267

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  • 10. 

    Your main concern for a pt with food poisoning would be?

    • Hyperglycemia

    • Hypocalcemia 

    • GI bleed

    • Dehydration 

    Correct Answer
    A. Dehydration 
    Explanation
    Dehydration is the main concern for a patient with food poisoning because vomiting and diarrhea, common symptoms of food poisoning, can lead to significant fluid loss. Dehydration can result in electrolyte imbalances, decreased blood volume, and impaired organ function. It is important to monitor the patient's fluid intake and output, provide adequate hydration, and potentially administer intravenous fluids if necessary to prevent complications associated with dehydration.

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  • 11. 

    Stimulation of alpha 1 receptors causes ________

    Correct Answer
    Vasoconstriction
    Explanation
    Stimulation of alpha 1 receptors causes vasoconstriction, which is the narrowing of blood vessels. When these receptors are activated, it leads to the contraction of smooth muscles in the walls of blood vessels, resulting in a decrease in their diameter. This constriction increases the resistance to blood flow and raises blood pressure. Vasoconstriction is an important physiological response that helps regulate blood flow and maintain blood pressure in various situations, such as during periods of stress or hemorrhage.

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  • 12. 

    What should you suspect when a ped pt has bruising to the buttocks only and it's reported that they fell out of a tree?

    • Child abuse

    • Axial load

    • Head injury

    • Spinal injury 

    Correct Answer
    A. Child abuse
    Explanation
    Hx inconsistent with presenting injury
    Pg. 2184

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  • 13. 

    S/s - labored breathing, increased RR, low BP, thready/absent pulse, AMS, cool, pale.

    • Compensated shock

    • Hyperkalemia 

    • Decompensated shock

    • Hypoglycemia 

    Correct Answer
    A. Decompensated shock
    Explanation
    The given symptoms indicate a state of shock. Labored breathing, increased respiratory rate, low blood pressure, thready/absent pulse, altered mental status, cool, and pale skin are all signs of decompensated shock. Decompensated shock occurs when the body's compensatory mechanisms are no longer able to maintain adequate tissue perfusion. In this stage, the body is unable to effectively deliver oxygen and nutrients to the organs and tissues, leading to a life-threatening condition. Prompt medical intervention is necessary to stabilize the patient's condition and prevent further deterioration.

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  • 14. 

    Your pt is having trouble breathing and you can hear bilateral crackles. The family informs you they've had a heart attack in the past and recently stopped taking their medications. What should you suspect? 

    • Pneumonia 

    • CHF

    • MI

    • Cardiac tamponade 

    Correct Answer
    A. CHF
    Explanation
    Given the information provided, the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms is congestive heart failure (CHF). The presence of bilateral crackles suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, which is a common sign of CHF. The patient's history of a previous heart attack and recent discontinuation of medications further support this suspicion. Pneumonia could also cause similar symptoms, but the patient's cardiac history makes CHF a more likely diagnosis. Myocardial infarction (MI) and cardiac tamponade are less likely explanations based on the given information.

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  • 15. 

    pH: 7.29 PaCO2: 68.2 mmHg HCO3: 26

    • Metabolic acidosis 

    • Metabolic alkalosis 

    • Respiratory acidosis

    • Respiratory alkalosis 

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory acidosis
    Explanation
    The given values of pH, PaCO2, and HCO3 indicate a respiratory acidosis. A pH of 7.29 is below the normal range (7.35-7.45), indicating acidosis. PaCO2 of 68.2 mmHg is above the normal range (35-45 mmHg), indicating an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood, which is characteristic of respiratory acidosis. HCO3 of 26 is within the normal range (22-28 mEq/L), suggesting that compensation has not occurred. Therefore, the correct answer is respiratory acidosis.

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  • 16. 

    pH: 7.49 PaCO2: 24 mmHg HCO3: 22

    • Metabolic acidosis 

    • Metabolic alkalosis 

    • Respiratory acidosis

    • Respiratory alkalosis 

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory alkalosis 
    Explanation
    The given values indicate a pH of 7.49, which is higher than the normal range of 7.35-7.45. This indicates alkalosis. Additionally, the PaCO2 is 24 mmHg, which is below the normal range of 35-45 mmHg. This indicates a decrease in CO2 levels, which is consistent with respiratory alkalosis. The HCO3 level of 22 is within the normal range, suggesting that it is not the primary cause of the alkalosis. Therefore, the correct answer is respiratory alkalosis.

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  • 17. 

    S/s - persistent cough, hemoptysis, night sweats, wight loss.

    • PTSD

    • Delirium tremors 

    • Pneumonia 

    • TB

    Correct Answer
    A. TB
    Explanation
    The symptoms described in the question, including persistent cough, hemoptysis (coughing up blood), night sweats, and weight loss, are consistent with tuberculosis (TB). TB is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs and can cause these symptoms. PTSD (post-traumatic stress disorder) and delirium tremens (a severe form of alcohol withdrawal) do not typically present with these respiratory symptoms, and pneumonia may cause similar symptoms but is less likely given the context of the question. Therefore, TB is the most likely explanation for the given symptoms.

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  • 18. 
    What rhythm is this? - ProProfs

    What rhythm is this?

    • Sinus tach

    • SVT

    • A-flutter

    • V-tach

    Correct Answer
    A. SVT
    Explanation
    SVT stands for supraventricular tachycardia, which is a rapid heart rhythm originating from above the ventricles. It is characterized by a fast and regular heart rate, usually above 100 beats per minute. Sinus tach, on the other hand, refers to a fast heart rhythm originating from the sinus node, which is the heart's natural pacemaker. A-flutter and V-tach are both abnormal heart rhythms originating from the atria and ventricles, respectively. Therefore, the correct answer is SVT because it describes a rapid heart rhythm originating above the ventricles.

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  • 19. 

    Where is the macula located?

    • Fovea

    • Retina

    • Medial canthus 

    • Lens 

    Correct Answer
    A. Retina
    Explanation
    The macula is located in the retina. The retina is the innermost layer of the eye that contains light-sensitive cells called photoreceptors. The macula is a small, specialized area in the center of the retina that is responsible for central vision and allows us to see fine details clearly. It contains a high concentration of cone cells, which are responsible for color vision and visual acuity.

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  • 20. 

    You just delivered a baby at 33 weeks and it's breathing is labored. After suctioning what is tx for the baby?

    • Ventilations with BVM and OPA

    • Begin CPR

    • Warm, dry, stimulate

    • Cut the cord 

    Correct Answer
    A. Warm, dry, stimulate
    Explanation
    After delivering a baby at 33 weeks with labored breathing, the first step is to warm, dry, and stimulate the baby. This helps to stimulate the baby's breathing and can improve their overall condition. Ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) may be necessary if the baby's breathing does not improve after warming, drying, and stimulating. Starting CPR or cutting the cord are not the appropriate initial steps in this situation.

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  • 21. 

    What are ACE inhibitors commonly prescribed for? 

    • Htn & CHF

    • Pulmonary htn & right sided heart failure

    • End stage renal & hypotension 

    • GURD & chronic bronchitis 

    Correct Answer
    A. Htn & CHF
    Explanation
    ACE inhibitors are commonly prescribed for hypertension (Htn) and congestive heart failure (CHF). These medications work by blocking the action of an enzyme called angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), which helps to relax blood vessels and reduce fluid buildup in the body. By inhibiting ACE, these drugs help to lower blood pressure and improve heart function in patients with hypertension and congestive heart failure.

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  • 22. 

    Coffee ground emesis is a sign of an ________ GI bleed.

    Correct Answer
    upper
    Explanation
    Coffee ground emesis is a sign of an upper GI bleed. This is because the coffee ground appearance is caused by the partial digestion of blood in the stomach. In upper GI bleeds, the bleeding occurs in the upper part of the gastrointestinal tract, such as the esophagus, stomach, or duodenum. The blood mixes with stomach acid, which causes it to appear dark and granular, resembling coffee grounds. This is in contrast to lower GI bleeds, where the blood is usually bright red and appears in the stool.

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  • 23. 

    ________ is a false verbal statement that injures someones good name.

    Correct Answer
    Slander
    Explanation
    Slander refers to a false verbal statement that harms someone's reputation. It involves making false statements about someone that can damage their good name or character. Slander is a form of defamation and can result in legal consequences for the person making the false statement.

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  • 24. 

    During glycogenolysis, what is converted into glucose? 

    • Glucagon

    • Insulin

    • Glycogen

    • Somatostatin 

    Correct Answer
    A. Glycogen
    Explanation
    pg. 329

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  • 25. 

    Your pt is 38 weeks pregnant with her 5th child. She called 911 because she had very painful contractions which have since turned into a constant pain. The pt is altered, tachy, and clammy. What should you suspect?

    • Uterine rupture

    • Ectopic pregnancy 

    • Shoulder dystocia 

    • Pre-eclampsia 

    Correct Answer
    A. Uterine rupture
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the patient is experiencing very painful contractions that have turned into constant pain. Additionally, the patient is altered, tachycardic (tachy), and clammy. These symptoms are indicative of a serious condition called uterine rupture. Uterine rupture occurs when the uterine wall tears during pregnancy, typically during labor. This can lead to severe pain, altered mental status, rapid heart rate, and clamminess due to internal bleeding. Therefore, based on the symptoms described, uterine rupture is the most likely explanation for the patient's condition.

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  • 26. 

    Your pt having an asthma attack is still showing shark-fin waveform with an ETCO2 of 48 mmHg - after Albuterol has been administered. What are they most likely experiencing? 

    • Respiratory alkalosis 

    • Organophosphate poisoning 

    • Status asthmaticus 

    • Croup

    Correct Answer
    A. Status asthmaticus 
    Explanation
    pg. 940

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  • 27. 

    You're called for the 3yo pt that had a sudden onset of fever, stridor, drooling, and is working to breathe. What do you suspect? 

    • Anaphylaxis 

    • Epiglottitis 

    • Croup

    • Meningitis 

    Correct Answer
    A. Epiglottitis 
    Explanation
    Epiglottitis is a condition characterized by inflammation and swelling of the epiglottis, a flap of tissue that covers the entrance to the trachea. The sudden onset of fever, stridor (high-pitched breathing sound), drooling, and difficulty breathing are classic symptoms of epiglottitis. This condition is a medical emergency and can rapidly progress to airway obstruction, leading to respiratory distress. Prompt recognition and intervention are crucial to prevent life-threatening complications. Anaphylaxis, croup, and meningitis may also present with some similar symptoms, but the combination of fever, stridor, drooling, and respiratory distress is highly suggestive of epiglottitis.

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  • 28. 

    Main concerns with hyperemesis gravidarum?

    • Dehydration and malnutrition 

    • Dehydration and hyperglycemia 

    • Hyperglycemia and sepsis

    • Renal failure and cardiac dysrhythmia 

    Correct Answer
    A. Dehydration and malnutrition 
    Explanation
    pg. 2038

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  • 29. 

    What class is Metoprolol? 

    • Sodium channel blocker

    • Antiemetic 

    • ACE Inhibitor 

    • Beta blocker

    Correct Answer
    A. Beta blocker
    Explanation
    Metoprolol is classified as a beta blocker. Beta blockers work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the beta receptors in the body, which helps to lower blood pressure and reduce the workload on the heart. Metoprolol is commonly prescribed to treat conditions such as hypertension, angina, and heart failure. It is also used to prevent heart attacks in patients who have already had one.

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  • 30. 

    Your 70yo pt presents with slurred speech and facial drooping. They inform you that they stopped taking their Warfarin prescribed for a-fib. What should you suspect? 

    • Bells Palsy

    • Hemorrhagic stroke

    • Ischemic stroke

    • PE

    Correct Answer
    A. Ischemic stroke
    Explanation
    pg. 999 - clots formed during a-fib may become emboli that block circulation elsewhere in the body

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  • 31. 

    Scope of practice is defined as?

    • Protocols agreed upon by a consensus of emergency physicians.

    • The level of care that a paramedic's employer allows the paramedic to provide.

    • National patient care guidelines established by the federal government.

    • Care that a paramedic is permitted to perform under the certifying state.

    Correct Answer
    A. Care that a paramedic is permitted to perform under the certifying state.
    Explanation
    pg. 12

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  • 32. 

    Your pt is experiencing the worst headache of his life after working out. What should you suspect?

    • Subarachnoid hemorrhage 

    • Epidural hematoma

    • Subdural hematoma

    • Migraine 

    Correct Answer
    A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 
    Explanation
    pg. 1745
    *ruptured aneurysm

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  • 33. 

    pH: 7.30 PaCO2: 64 mmHg HCO3: 26

    • Metabolic acidosis 

    • Metabolic alkalosis 

    • Respiratory acidosis

    • Respiratory alkalosis 

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory acidosis
    Explanation
    The given values of pH, PaCO2, and HCO3 indicate a respiratory acidosis. A pH of 7.30 is lower than the normal range (7.35-7.45), which suggests acidosis. The PaCO2 value of 64 mmHg is higher than the normal range (35-45 mmHg), indicating an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood, which is associated with respiratory acidosis. The HCO3 value of 26 is within the normal range (22-28 mEq/L), suggesting that the kidneys are compensating for the acidosis by retaining bicarbonate. Therefore, the correct answer is respiratory acidosis.

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  • 34. 

    After eating a fatty meal, abdominal pain begins hours later due to a flare up of what condition? 

    • Appendicitis 

    • Pancreatitis 

    • Hepatitis 

    • Cholecystitis 

    Correct Answer
    A. Cholecystitis 
    Explanation
    Cholecystitis is the inflammation of the gallbladder, which can be triggered by consuming a fatty meal. The gallbladder stores bile, which helps in the digestion of fats. When a fatty meal is consumed, the gallbladder contracts to release bile into the small intestine. In the case of cholecystitis, the gallbladder becomes inflamed, usually due to the presence of gallstones that block the bile ducts. This inflammation can cause abdominal pain that typically starts a few hours after eating a fatty meal. Therefore, cholecystitis is the most likely condition to cause abdominal pain after consuming a fatty meal.

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  • 35. 

    You're called to the scene of a church where multiple pts are light headed and SOB. You have on your proper PPE and have called for additional resources. What should you do next?

    • Find out number of pts

    • Secure the scene

    • Spine precautions 

    • Hose down the pts 

    Correct Answer
    A. Find out number of pts
    Explanation
    SPANS

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  • 36. 

    "Master gland" - its secretions control the secretions of other endocrine glands  

    • Hypothalamus 

    • Adrenal gland

    • Pancreas

    • Pituitary gland

    Correct Answer
    A. Pituitary gland
    Explanation
    326

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  • 37. 

    98.6 degrees F is ________ degrees C

    Correct Answer
    37
    Explanation
    The given question is asking for the conversion of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit to degrees Celsius. To convert Fahrenheit to Celsius, you subtract 32 from the Fahrenheit temperature and then multiply the result by 5/9. In this case, when you subtract 32 from 98.6, you get 66.6. Then, when you multiply 66.6 by 5/9, you get 37. Therefore, 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit is equal to 37 degrees Celsius.

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  • 38. 

    S/S - sudden onset of dyspnea, anxious, cyanotic, chest pain? 

    • Pulmonary embolism 

    • MI

    • Cardiac tamponade 

    • Stroke

    Correct Answer
    A. Pulmonary embolism 
    Explanation
    The sudden onset of dyspnea, anxiety, cyanosis, and chest pain are classic symptoms of a pulmonary embolism. A pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs and blocks blood flow. This can lead to a decrease in oxygenation, causing cyanosis and shortness of breath. Chest pain can occur due to the strain on the heart caused by the clot. MI (heart attack), cardiac tamponade, and stroke may also present with some similar symptoms, but the sudden onset of dyspnea and chest pain is more indicative of a pulmonary embolism.

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  • 39. 

    Kernig and Brudzinski sign suggest what?

    • Cholecystitis 

    • Mumps 

    • Meningitis 

    • Measles 

    Correct Answer
    A. Meningitis 
    Explanation
    pg. 1128

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  • 40. 

    Your pt had painful and cloudy urination accompanied by flank tenderness. After 5 days the pain now radiates to the neck and you were called bc the pt is now altered and has a fever. What should you suspect? 

    • Kidney stone

    • Pyelonephritis 

    • Chlamydia 

    • UTI

    Correct Answer
    A. Pyelonephritis 
    Explanation
    pg. 1221

    UTI pts are usually stable but if left untreated can lead to pyelonephritis which presents unstable. 

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  • 41. 

    What is the reason for Aspirin use in an MI?

    • Reduce mortality 

    • Decrease pain

    • Lower blood pressure

    • Vasodilate 

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduce mortality 
    Explanation
    Aspirin is used in an MI (myocardial infarction) to reduce mortality. This is because aspirin works as a blood thinner, preventing blood clots from forming in the arteries. In an MI, a blood clot can block the blood flow to the heart, leading to tissue damage and potentially death. By reducing the risk of blood clot formation, aspirin helps to prevent further damage to the heart and improve survival rates.

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  • 42. 

    What class is Verapamil?

    • Sodium channel blocker

    • Calcium channel blocker

    • Beta blocker

    • ACE inhibitor 

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcium channel blocker
    Explanation
    Verapamil is classified as a calcium channel blocker. Calcium channel blockers work by blocking the flow of calcium ions into the smooth muscle cells of the heart and blood vessels. This helps to relax and widen the blood vessels, reducing blood pressure and improving blood flow. Verapamil is commonly used to treat high blood pressure, angina (chest pain), and certain heart rhythm disorders.

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  • 43. 

    What is the most common cause of painless bleeding during the second or third trimester of pregnancy? (Usually closer to delivery).

    • Spontaneous abortion 

    • Abruptio placenta

    • Placenta previa

    • Ectopic pregnancy 

    Correct Answer
    A. Placenta previa
    Explanation
    pg 2042-2043

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  • 44. 

    Pts with a board-hard abdomen usually have what?

    • Alcoholism 

    • Kidney stone 

    • Peritonitis 

    • Hepatomegaly 

    Correct Answer
    A. Peritonitis 
    Explanation
    pg. 1190

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  • 45. 

    A pregnant pt was hit by a car and sustained a tibia fx. Her BP is 84/56. How should she be positioned?

    • LLR

    • Trendelenburg 

    • Left side by padding 4 - 6 inches under right side of backboard 

    • Supine with manually displaced uterus 

    Correct Answer
    A. Left side by padding 4 - 6 inches under right side of backboard 
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to position the pregnant patient on her left side by padding 4-6 inches under the right side of the backboard. This position, known as the left lateral tilt or left lateral recumbent position, is recommended for pregnant patients who are experiencing hypotension. By tilting the patient to the left side, it helps to relieve pressure on the inferior vena cava, which can be compressed by the weight of the uterus in a supine position. This allows for better blood flow and helps to improve blood pressure.

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  • 46. 

    Which plasma protein is responsible for clotting? 

    • Fibrin

    • Globulin

    • Fibrinogen 

    • Albumin

    Correct Answer
    A. Fibrinogen 
    Explanation
    Pg. 334

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  • 47. 

    You're called for a dialysis pt that has no pulse but shows normal sinus on the monitor. After starting CPR you'd administer Epi and what?

    • Lidocaine

    • Sodium Bicarb

    • Amiodarone

    • D50

    Correct Answer
    A. Sodium Bicarb
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the patient has no pulse but shows normal sinus on the monitor. This suggests a potential metabolic cause for the cardiac arrest, such as severe acidosis. Sodium bicarbonate is commonly used in cardiac arrest situations where metabolic acidosis is suspected or confirmed. It helps to correct the acid-base imbalance and improve the effectiveness of CPR. Therefore, after administering epinephrine, the next appropriate medication to administer would be sodium bicarbonate.

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  • 48. 

    Peds initial defib setting?

    • 1 j/kg

    • 2 j/kg

    • 3 j/kg

    • 4 j/kg

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 j/kg
    Explanation
    The initial defibrillation setting for pediatric patients is 2 j/kg. This means that for every kilogram of the child's body weight, a 2-joule shock is delivered. This setting is based on the current guidelines for pediatric resuscitation and is considered safe and effective in delivering the necessary energy to restore normal heart rhythm in children.

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  • 49. 

    Sarin, Soman, Tabun, and VX are all what?

    • Organophosphates 

    • Nerve agents

    • Pesticides

    • Antidotes 

    Correct Answer
    A. Nerve agents
    Explanation
    pg. 2444

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

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  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 18, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Alissa
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