Paramedic Quiz 3 - 45 Mins - EMT-p

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  • 1/24 Questions

    The fluid portion of blood is the:

    • Plasma
    • Leukocyte
    • Albumin
    • Erythrocyte
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Paramedic Quiz 3 - 45 Mins - EMT-p - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which aspect of the physical exam is least helpful in the field?

    • Pupillary response

    • Ability to follow simple commands

    • Deep tendon reflex

    • Movement of extremities

    Correct Answer
    A. Deep tendon reflex
    Explanation
    The deep tendon reflex is the least helpful aspect of the physical exam in the field because it requires specific equipment and training to perform accurately. In a field setting, such as an emergency or remote location, it may not be feasible to have the necessary tools or expertise to assess deep tendon reflexes. On the other hand, pupillary response, ability to follow simple commands, and movement of extremities can be assessed without specialized equipment and are therefore more practical and useful in the field.

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  • 3. 

    A hypotonic solution is defined as a solution having:

    • A concentration the same as that in the cells

    • A concentration higher than that in the cells

    • None of the above adequately defines the term

    • A concentration lower than that in the cells

    Correct Answer
    A. A concentration lower than that in the cells
    Explanation
    A hypotonic solution is one in which the concentration of solutes is lower than that inside the cells. This means that there is a higher concentration of water outside the cells compared to inside. When a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, water will move into the cell through osmosis, causing the cell to swell and potentially burst. Therefore, the correct answer is "a concentration lower than that in the cells."

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  • 4. 

    The paramedic's best defense in the event of legal proceedings is:

    • Professional liability insurance

    • A lawyer

    • A detailed medical recond

    • The medical director

    Correct Answer
    A. A detailed medical recond
    Explanation
    A detailed medical record is the paramedic's best defense in the event of legal proceedings. This is because a detailed medical record provides a comprehensive and accurate account of the patient's condition, treatment, and any other relevant information. It serves as evidence of the paramedic's actions and decision-making process, which can be crucial in proving that they provided appropriate care and followed established protocols. The medical record can also help in demonstrating that the paramedic acted in good faith and within their scope of practice. Overall, a detailed medical record is essential in protecting the paramedic's professional reputation and providing a strong defense in legal proceedings.

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  • 5. 

    Which factor is common to all forms of shock?

    • Inadequate tissue perfusion

    • Tachypnea

    • Hypovolemia

    • Tachycardia

    Correct Answer
    A. Inadequate tissue perfusion
    Explanation
    Inadequate tissue perfusion is a common factor in all forms of shock. Shock is a condition where there is insufficient blood flow to the body's organs and tissues, leading to cellular dysfunction and organ failure. Inadequate tissue perfusion means that the organs and tissues are not receiving enough oxygen and nutrients due to reduced blood flow. This can occur in various types of shock, including hypovolemic shock (caused by severe blood or fluid loss), cardiogenic shock (caused by heart failure), and septic shock (caused by severe infection). In all these forms of shock, the underlying problem is inadequate tissue perfusion.

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  • 6. 

    The normal PR interval is ______ seconds.

    • 0.12-0.20

    • 0.4-0.12

    • 0.2-0.4

    • 0.1-0.20

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.12-0.20
    Explanation
    The normal PR interval is 0.12-0.20 seconds. This is the standard range of time it takes for an electrical signal to travel from the atria to the ventricles in the heart. A PR interval outside of this range may indicate an abnormality in the electrical conduction system of the heart.

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  • 7. 

    Insulin is secreted by the:

    • Superior testines

    • Islets of Langerhans

    • Adrenal glands

    • Gall bladder

    Correct Answer
    A. Islets of Langerhans
    Explanation
    Insulin is a hormone that is responsible for regulating blood sugar levels in the body. It is secreted by the islets of Langerhans, which are clusters of cells located in the pancreas. These cells specifically produce and release insulin into the bloodstream in response to elevated levels of glucose. The adrenal glands are responsible for producing hormones such as cortisol and adrenaline, while the gall bladder stores and releases bile. The superior testines is not a recognized term, so it is not a correct answer.

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  • 8. 

    The range of a partable radio transmitter/receiver is somewhat limited. The range can be extended by the use of a(n):

    • Telephone

    • Base station

    • Repeater

    • Amplifier

    Correct Answer
    A. Repeater
    Explanation
    A repeater is used to extend the range of a portable radio transmitter/receiver. It receives the signal from the transmitter and retransmits it at a higher power, allowing the signal to reach a larger distance. This is particularly useful in areas where the signal may be weak or obstructed, such as in buildings or hilly terrain. By amplifying and retransmitting the signal, a repeater effectively increases the range of the radio transmitter/receiver.

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  • 9. 

    The purkinge system has an intrinsic firing rate of:

    • 10-20 mins

    • 20-40 min

    • 40-60 min

    • 60-70 min

    Correct Answer
    A. 20-40 min
    Explanation
    The Purkinje system is a network of specialized cells in the heart that helps regulate its electrical activity. These cells have an intrinsic firing rate, which means they can generate electrical impulses on their own. The correct answer of 20-40 min suggests that the Purkinje system typically fires at a rate of once every 20 to 40 minutes. This firing rate is important for maintaining a regular heart rhythm and ensuring efficient pumping of blood throughout the body.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is a result of a serious insulin deficit?

    • Metabolic acidosis

    • Respiratory alkalosis

    • Respiratory acidosis

    • Metabolic alkalosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Metabolic acidosis
    Explanation
    A serious insulin deficit can lead to metabolic acidosis. Insulin is responsible for regulating glucose levels in the blood. Without enough insulin, glucose cannot enter the cells for energy production, leading to increased fat breakdown and the production of ketones. Ketones are acidic byproducts that accumulate in the blood, causing a decrease in blood pH and resulting in metabolic acidosis. Symptoms of metabolic acidosis include rapid breathing, confusion, and fatigue.

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  • 11. 

    You are attempting to intubate a pediatric patient. Your best guide in choosing the correct size tube is:

    • The patient's weight

    • The patient's general appearance

    • The patient's little finger

    • The patient's ring finger

    Correct Answer
    A. The patient's little finger
    Explanation
    The correct size tube for intubating a pediatric patient can be determined by the patient's little finger. The size of the little finger can provide an estimation of the appropriate tube size for intubation.

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  • 12. 

    The proper dose of pediatric epinephrine 1:1000 for an asthma attack would be:

    • 0.1 mg/kg

    • .01 mg/kg

    • .001 mg/kg

    • 10 mg/kg

    Correct Answer
    A. .01 mg/kg
    Explanation
    The proper dose of pediatric epinephrine 1:1000 for an asthma attack would be .01 mg/kg. This dosage is recommended because it is the most appropriate and effective amount of medication to administer based on the child's weight. It is important to ensure the correct dosage to avoid any potential adverse effects or insufficient treatment of the asthma attack.

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  • 13. 

    Which is the correct area for decompression of a tension pneumothorax?

    • 2nd intercostal space, mid-clavicular line

    • 4th intercostal space, mid-clavicular line

    • 3rd intercostal space, mid-axillary line

    • 2nd intercostal space, mid-axillary line

    Correct Answer
    A. 2nd intercostal space, mid-clavicular line
    Explanation
    The correct area for decompression of a tension pneumothorax is the 2nd intercostal space, mid-clavicular line. This is a commonly used landmark for performing a needle thoracostomy, which is the procedure used to relieve a tension pneumothorax. By inserting a needle into this specific area, air trapped in the pleural space can be released, allowing the lung to re-expand and relieving the life-threatening condition.

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  • 14. 

    Stimulation of the beta receptors causes:

    • Bronchial constriction and tachycardia

    • Increased heart rate and force of contraction

    • Increased vasular resistance and vasocontriction

    • Decreased cardiac oxygen consumption

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased heart rate and force of contraction
    Explanation
    Stimulation of the beta receptors in the body leads to an increase in heart rate and force of contraction. Beta receptors are found in the heart and when they are activated, they cause the heart to beat faster and with more force. This results in an increased cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute. The increased heart rate and force of contraction help to meet the body's increased demand for oxygen and nutrients during periods of stress or exercise.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is the earliest sign of shock?

    • Hypotension

    • Restlessness

    • Cyanosis

    • Cool clammy skin

    Correct Answer
    A. Restlessness
    Explanation
    Restlessness is the earliest sign of shock because it is the body's natural response to decreased blood flow and oxygenation. When the body is in shock, it tries to compensate by increasing heart rate and respiratory rate, causing the person to feel restless and anxious. This is a crucial early warning sign that indicates the body's attempt to maintain adequate blood flow and oxygenation. Hypotension, cyanosis, and cool clammy skin are all later signs that occur as shock progresses and the body's compensatory mechanisms become overwhelmed.

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  • 16. 

    The presence of S3 heart sounds is associated with:

    • Cardiac tamponade

    • Aortic aneurysm

    • Bundle branch block

    • Congestive heart failure

    Correct Answer
    A. Congestive heart failure
    Explanation
    The presence of S3 heart sounds is associated with congestive heart failure. S3 heart sounds are caused by a rapid rush of blood into a dilated ventricle during the early phase of diastole. In congestive heart failure, the heart is unable to effectively pump blood, leading to an accumulation of fluid in the lungs and an enlarged ventricle. This results in the presence of S3 heart sounds, which can be detected during a physical examination using a stethoscope.

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  • 17. 

    Airway obstruction can be caused by:

    • Dorsal flexion

    • Lateral extension

    • Ventral flexion

    • Ventral extension

    Correct Answer
    A. Ventral flexion
    Explanation
    Ventral flexion refers to the bending of the body or body part towards the front or belly side. In the context of airway obstruction, ventral flexion can cause narrowing or closure of the airway, leading to difficulty in breathing. This can occur when the muscles or structures in the front of the airway collapse or compress the airway, obstructing the flow of air. Therefore, ventral flexion is a potential cause of airway obstruction.

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  • 18. 

    The usual dose of isuprell when given as a drip is:

    • 2 mg in 500 ml D5W

    • 1 mg in 1000 mg of D5W

    • 0.2 mg in 500 ml of D5W

    • 20 mg in 500 ml D5W

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 mg in 500 ml D5W
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2 mg in 500 ml D5W. This means that the usual dose of isuprell when given as a drip is 2 mg of the medication diluted in 500 ml of D5W solution. This concentration allows for a controlled and gradual administration of the medication to the patient.

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  • 19. 

    The S1 heart sound is caused by closure of the:

    • Tricuspid valve and aortic valve

    • Semilunar valves

    • Atrioventricular valves

    • Nitral valve and pulmonic valve

    Correct Answer
    A. Atrioventricular valves
    Explanation
    The S1 heart sound, also known as the "lub" sound, is caused by the closure of the atrioventricular valves (the tricuspid valve and the mitral valve). These valves separate the atria from the ventricles and prevent the backflow of blood into the atria when the ventricles contract. The closure of these valves produces a sound that can be heard with a stethoscope. The semilunar valves (aortic valve and pulmonic valve) are responsible for the S2 heart sound, also known as the "dub" sound, which occurs when these valves close at the end of ventricular contraction.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is a re-entry rhythm?

    • Sinus tachycardia

    • Atrial tachycardia

    • Idioventricular

    • Junctional rhythm

    Correct Answer
    A. Atrial tachycardia
    Explanation
    A re-entry rhythm refers to an abnormal electrical pathway within the heart that causes the heart to beat in a rapid and irregular manner. Atrial tachycardia is a type of re-entry rhythm that originates in the atria, the upper chambers of the heart. It is characterized by a fast heart rate and can cause symptoms such as palpitations, dizziness, and shortness of breath.

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  • 21. 

    When a myocardial fiber is at rest the charge within the cell is:

    • Polarized

    • Negative

    • Depolarized

    • Positive

    Correct Answer
    A. Negative
    Explanation
    When a myocardial fiber is at rest, the charge within the cell is negative. This is because the cell is in a polarized state, meaning that there is a difference in electrical charge between the inside and outside of the cell. The inside of the cell is more negatively charged compared to the outside. This state of polarization allows for the proper functioning of the cell and is important for the transmission of electrical signals in the heart.

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  • 22. 

    If a patient apical pulse is 130, and their radial pulse rate is 96, what is this referred to?

    • Pulse difference

    • Pulse deficit

    • Circulatory gap

    • Pulsis paradoxis

    Correct Answer
    A. Pulse deficit
    Explanation
    A pulse deficit occurs when there is a difference between the apical pulse rate and the radial pulse rate. In this case, the apical pulse rate is 130 and the radial pulse rate is 96, indicating a pulse deficit of 34. This can be caused by various factors such as irregular heart rhythms or poor circulation. Monitoring and addressing pulse deficits is important as it can be an indication of cardiovascular issues and may require further medical intervention.

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  • 23. 

    You have been ordered to give a patient 7 mcg/min of isuprell. Mix 1 mg in 250 ml of D5W and use a microdrip. What drip rate is needed?

    • 28 gtts/min

    • 90 gtts/min

    • 105 gtts/min

    • 210 gtts/min

    Correct Answer
    A. 105 gtts/min
    Explanation
    To calculate the drip rate, we need to convert the dosage from mcg/min to mg/min. Since 1 mg is mixed in 250 ml of solution, we can calculate the concentration of the solution as 1 mg/250 ml = 0.004 mg/ml.

    Next, we need to convert mg/min to ml/min by dividing the dosage (7 mcg/min) by the concentration (0.004 mg/ml). This gives us a result of 1750 ml/min.

    Since we are using a microdrip, the drip factor is usually 60 gtts/ml. Therefore, we can calculate the drip rate by multiplying the ml/min (1750 ml/min) by the drip factor (60 gtts/ml). This gives us a result of 105, which means a drip rate of 105 gtts/min is needed.

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  • 24. 

    A possible complication of the PASG is:

    • Increased bleeding under the suit

    • Decreased ventilation

    • Gastric dilatation

    • Reduced venous return to the heart

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreased ventilation
    Explanation
    The possible complication of the PASG (Pneumatic Anti-Shock Garment) is decreased ventilation. This means that wearing the PASG can hinder the ability to breathe properly. The garment may restrict the movement of the chest and abdomen, making it difficult for the person to take in an adequate amount of air. This can lead to respiratory distress and potentially worsen the patient's condition. It is important to monitor the patient's breathing and ensure that the PASG is not causing any respiratory complications.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 30, 2008
    Quiz Created by
    Medic2690
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