Paramedic Quiz 6 - 45 Mins - EMT-p
Please place your FD or EMS Agency Name and your complete name in the name box.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
How many milligrams of lidocaine are contained in 1 ml of 1 2% soultion?
- A.
200 mg
- B.
20 gm
- C.
2 mg
- D.
20 mg
Correct Answer
B. 20 gmExplanation
The given question asks about the amount of lidocaine in 1 ml of a 1 2% solution. The answer provided, 20 gm, is incorrect. Lidocaine is typically measured in milligrams (mg), not grams (gm). Therefore, the correct answer should be 20 mg, as it accurately represents the concentration of lidocaine in the given solution.Rate this question:
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- 2.
The waste product of anaerobic metabolism is:
- A.
HCO3
- B.
CO2 and H2O
- C.
Lactic acid
- D.
Acetylcholine
Correct Answer
C. Lactic acidExplanation
During anaerobic metabolism, when there is a lack of oxygen, glucose is broken down into lactic acid. This process occurs in the muscles when they are working hard and cannot get enough oxygen to meet their energy demands. Lactic acid is a waste product that can build up in the muscles and cause fatigue and muscle soreness. It is eventually converted back into glucose by the liver or used as a source of energy by other tissues in the body.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The best definition of extrication from a vehicle?
- A.
Dismemberment
- B.
Disentanglement
- C.
Removification
- D.
Removal
Correct Answer
B. DisentanglementExplanation
Extrication from a vehicle refers to the process of freeing someone who is trapped inside a vehicle after an accident. Dismemberment, which means to separate or detach body parts, is not a suitable definition for extrication. Disentanglement, on the other hand, accurately captures the idea of untangling or freeing someone from the wreckage. Removification is not a recognized term, and removal is too general and does not specifically refer to the act of freeing someone from a vehicle. Therefore, the best definition of extrication from a vehicle is disentanglement.Rate this question:
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- 4.
An abnormal, high pitched, musical inspiratory sound caused by obstruction in the trachea is called:
- A.
Rales
- B.
Stridor
- C.
Rhonchi
- D.
Wheezing
Correct Answer
B. StridorExplanation
Stridor is the correct answer because it refers to an abnormal, high pitched, musical inspiratory sound caused by obstruction in the trachea. This sound is typically heard during breathing and can indicate a blockage or narrowing in the airway. Rales, rhonchi, and wheezing are all different types of abnormal lung sounds, but they do not specifically refer to a sound caused by obstruction in the trachea.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What is crack?
- A.
Opiate derivative
- B.
A CNS stimulant
- C.
Muscle relaxant
- D.
A CNS depressant
Correct Answer
B. A CNS stimulantExplanation
Crack is a substance that acts as a central nervous system (CNS) stimulant. It increases the activity of the brain and spinal cord, leading to heightened alertness, energy, and euphoria. This stimulant effect is due to crack's ability to increase the release and inhibit the reuptake of certain neurotransmitters, such as dopamine, in the brain. As a result, crack produces intense feelings of pleasure and can lead to addiction and harmful effects on the body and mind.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A patient is unconscious and you suspect a neck injury. Which assessment is NOT done?
- A.
Check for "dolls eyes" phenomenon
- B.
Observe trachea for mid-line position
- C.
Palpate the neck for deformities
- D.
Observe respiratory effort
Correct Answer
A. Check for "dolls eyes" phenomenonExplanation
The "dolls eyes" phenomenon refers to the movement of the eyes in the opposite direction of head movement. This assessment is not done in a patient with a suspected neck injury because it involves moving the patient's head, which can potentially worsen the injury. Therefore, it is important to avoid this assessment in order to prevent further damage to the neck.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which defines the relative refractory period:
- A.
When no stimulus may occur during depolarization
- B.
When no stimulus may occur during repolarization
- C.
When a stimulus may occur during depolarization
- D.
When a stimulus may occur during repolarization
Correct Answer
D. When a stimulus may occur during repolarizationExplanation
The relative refractory period is a phase in the cardiac action potential where a stronger-than-normal stimulus is required to depolarize the membrane and generate another action potential. During this period, the membrane is repolarizing but has not yet reached its resting state. Therefore, a stimulus may occur during repolarization, but it would need to be stronger than usual to elicit a response.Rate this question:
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- 8.
You respond to a female found in the snow. The outside temperature is -2 deprees Farenheight. The vital signs are depressed. Important to know in treatment is:
- A.
Apply hot packs in axilla and wrap in blankets
- B.
CPR may be ineffective until the patient is rewarmed
- C.
Rewarm the patient quickly
- D.
Support the patients BP
Correct Answer
B. CPR may be ineffective until the patient is rewarmedExplanation
When responding to a female found in the snow with depressed vital signs and a low outside temperature, it is important to know that CPR may be ineffective until the patient is rewarmed. This is because in extreme cold temperatures, the body's natural response is to constrict blood vessels in order to conserve heat, which can lead to decreased blood flow and oxygenation. By rewarming the patient first, blood vessels can dilate again, allowing for better circulation and making CPR more effective.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which is not a symptom of anaphylaxsis?
- A.
Urticaria
- B.
Respiratory distress
- C.
Bradycardia
- D.
Stomach cramps
Correct Answer
C. BradycardiaExplanation
Bradycardia refers to a slow heart rate, while anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that typically causes a rapid heart rate. Therefore, bradycardia is not a symptom of anaphylaxis.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Acetylcholine is usually associated with:
- A.
Alpha sympathetic system
- B.
Beta sympathetic system
- C.
Parasympathetic system
- D.
Adrenergic system
Correct Answer
D. Adrenergic systemExplanation
Acetylcholine is usually associated with the parasympathetic system. It is the primary neurotransmitter responsible for transmitting signals in the parasympathetic nervous system, which controls rest and digest functions. The adrenergic system, on the other hand, is associated with the release of norepinephrine and epinephrine, which are neurotransmitters involved in the fight or flight response. Therefore, the correct answer is unlikely to be "adrenergic system" and may be incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Normal tidal volume of the lungs of an adult is:
- A.
100 mls
- B.
800 mls
- C.
500 mls
- D.
200 mls
Correct Answer
C. 500 mlsExplanation
The normal tidal volume of the lungs of an adult is 500 mls. Tidal volume refers to the amount of air that is inhaled or exhaled during normal breathing. It represents the volume of air that moves in and out of the lungs with each breath. In adults, the average tidal volume is around 500 mls, although it can vary depending on factors such as age, sex, and physical activity level.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The amount of blood pumped by the heart in one minute is referred to as:
- A.
Stroke volume
- B.
PVR
- C.
Afterload
- D.
Cardiac output
Correct Answer
D. Cardiac outputExplanation
Cardiac output refers to the amount of blood that is pumped by the heart in one minute. It is a measure of the efficiency and effectiveness of the heart in delivering oxygenated blood to the body's tissues. Cardiac output is calculated by multiplying the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped with each heartbeat) by the heart rate (the number of heartbeats per minute). Therefore, cardiac output is the most appropriate term to describe the amount of blood pumped by the heart in one minute.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A 30 year old pregnant patient is suffering from seizures. You have treated her with 5 mg Valium IV push. You would give what drug next?
- A.
250 mg dilantin at 25 mg/min
- B.
2-4 gms 10% solution of magnesium sulfate IV push
- C.
1 mg magnesium sulfate IM
- D.
2-4 mg 20% of magnesium sulfate IV push
Correct Answer
B. 2-4 gms 10% solution of magnesium sulfate IV pushExplanation
The correct answer is 2-4 gms 10% solution of magnesium sulfate IV push. Magnesium sulfate is commonly used as a treatment for seizures, including eclampsia and preeclampsia. It is a central nervous system depressant that helps to prevent and control seizures by blocking the release of certain neurotransmitters. In this case, since the patient is pregnant and experiencing seizures, magnesium sulfate is the appropriate drug to administer next. The recommended dosage is 2-4 gms of a 10% solution, which should be given intravenously as a push.Rate this question:
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- 14.
You respond to a 27 year old male complaining of sudden onset of stabbing chest pain on inspiration. Vital signs are stable and the lung sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
- A.
Pneumonia
- B.
Pleurisy
- C.
Spontaneous pneumothorax
- D.
Hemothorax
Correct Answer
B. PleurisyExplanation
Pleurisy is the most likely diagnosis in this case. Pleurisy is characterized by sudden onset of stabbing chest pain, especially on inspiration. The vital signs being stable and the lung sounds being clear and equal bilaterally suggest that there is no infection or fluid accumulation in the lungs, ruling out pneumonia and hemothorax. Spontaneous pneumothorax would typically present with decreased breath sounds, which is not mentioned in the scenario. Therefore, pleurisy is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Who would most likely suffer a painless, silent MI?
- A.
Elderly people
- B.
Alcoholics
- C.
Drug abusers
- D.
Diabetics
Correct Answer
A. Elderly peopleExplanation
Elderly people would most likely suffer a painless, silent MI because as people age, their nerve endings become less sensitive, which can make it difficult for them to feel pain or discomfort during a heart attack. This silent MI is more common in older individuals and can lead to delayed diagnosis and treatment, increasing the risk of complications and death.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which of the following is the best definition to "phobia":
- A.
Tortured as a child
- B.
A normal fear
- C.
Great fear of wide open spaces
- D.
An unrealistic fear
Correct Answer
D. An unrealistic fearExplanation
The best definition for "phobia" is an unrealistic fear. A phobia refers to an extreme and irrational fear of a specific object, situation, or activity. It is characterized by excessive anxiety and avoidance behaviors. Unlike a normal fear, which is a natural response to a threat, a phobia is considered unrealistic because the level of fear experienced is disproportionate to the actual danger posed by the feared object or situation.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Where is the femoral artery in relation to the inguinal ligament?
- A.
Posterior
- B.
Anterior
- C.
Medial
- D.
Lateral
Correct Answer
D. LateralExplanation
The femoral artery is located on the lateral side of the inguinal ligament. This means that it is positioned towards the outer side of the inguinal ligament, away from the midline of the body.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The difficult in transmission of radio waves is related to the fact that radio waves:
- A.
Do through dense foliage
- B.
Are absorbed by the ground
- C.
Are scattered by irregular metal objects
- D.
Are reflected by metal objects
Correct Answer
C. Are scattered by irregular metal objectsExplanation
Radio waves can be scattered by irregular metal objects, which can cause interference and make it difficult for the waves to transmit effectively. When radio waves encounter irregular metal objects, such as buildings or other structures, they can bounce off in different directions, causing the signal to scatter. This scattering can result in a weaker and less reliable signal, making it more difficult for the radio waves to transmit over long distances or through obstacles.Rate this question:
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- 19.
A patient receiving a unit of blood begins complaining of lower back pain, substernal chest pain, dyspnea and a headache. What do you suspect?
- A.
Pyrogenic reaction
- B.
Anaphylactic reaction
- C.
Dehydration
- D.
Hemolytic reaction
Correct Answer
D. Hemolytic reactionExplanation
A hemolytic reaction is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms. These symptoms, including lower back pain, substernal chest pain, dyspnea, and headache, can occur when incompatible blood is transfused, leading to the destruction of red blood cells. This reaction can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical intervention. It is important to identify and address hemolytic reactions promptly to prevent further complications.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which is a common reason in having to treat a diabetic:
- A.
Hidrosis
- B.
Medication noncompliance
- C.
Lack of knowledge about insulin
- D.
Hirsutism
Correct Answer
B. Medication noncomplianceExplanation
Medication noncompliance is a common reason for having to treat a diabetic. This means that the person with diabetes is not taking their prescribed medication as instructed by their healthcare provider. Noncompliance can lead to poorly controlled blood sugar levels, which can result in complications and the need for additional treatment. It is important for individuals with diabetes to adhere to their medication regimen to effectively manage their condition and prevent further health issues.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which valve prevents reguritation of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium?
- A.
Aortic valve
- B.
Pulmonic valve
- C.
Tricuspid valve
- D.
Mitral valve
Correct Answer
D. Mitral valveExplanation
The mitral valve is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle of the heart. Its main function is to prevent the backflow or regurgitation of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium during contraction of the ventricle. It achieves this by closing tightly when the ventricle contracts, ensuring that blood flows forward into the aorta and not back into the atrium.Rate this question:
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- 22.
You have an unconscious patient who was complaining of chest pain prior to collapse. BP is 88/45, pulse 46, and respirations 12. The patient is likely suffering from:
- A.
An AMI
- B.
Anaphylaxsis
- C.
Cardiogenic shock
- D.
CVA
Correct Answer
A. An AMIExplanation
The patient's low blood pressure, slow pulse, and low respirations suggest a decrease in cardiac output. These symptoms are consistent with cardiogenic shock, which occurs when the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs. Given that the patient was complaining of chest pain prior to collapse, it is likely that they are experiencing an acute myocardial infarction (AMI), commonly known as a heart attack. During an AMI, blood flow to the heart muscle is blocked, leading to damage and potentially life-threatening complications such as cardiogenic shock.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Lidocaine toxicity may produce:
- A.
Ventricular fibrillation
- B.
Yellow vision
- C.
Asthma
- D.
Seizures/convulsions
Correct Answer
D. Seizures/convulsionsExplanation
Lidocaine toxicity can lead to seizures or convulsions. Lidocaine is a local anesthetic that, when administered in excessive amounts, can cause toxic effects on the central nervous system. Seizures and convulsions are common symptoms of lidocaine toxicity, indicating an abnormal electrical activity in the brain. Other potential symptoms of lidocaine toxicity include dizziness, confusion, muscle twitching, and even cardiac arrhythmias. However, in this case, the correct answer is seizures/convulsions.Rate this question:
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- 24.
You respond to find an unconscious male on the bathroom floor. During your exam the patient awakens and tells you he was attempting to move his bowels. His most likely difficulty is:
- A.
Vertigo
- B.
Cardiac syncope
- C.
Vasovagal response
- D.
Postural syncope
Correct Answer
C. Vasovagal responseExplanation
The most likely difficulty the patient is experiencing is a vasovagal response. A vasovagal response is a sudden drop in blood pressure and heart rate that can be triggered by various factors, such as straining during bowel movements. This can cause dizziness, lightheadedness, and even loss of consciousness. In this case, the patient's unconsciousness was likely a result of the vasovagal response triggered by attempting to move his bowels.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jun 02, 2008Quiz Created by
Medic2690
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