Paramedic Quiz 4 - 45 Mins - EMT-p

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| By Medic2690
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Quizzes Created: 32 | Total Attempts: 65,778
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Paramedic Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is pH?

    • A.

      The phosphorus level

    • B.

      The oxygen saturation

    • C.

      The hydrogen ion concentration

    • D.

      The hemoglogin level

    Correct Answer
    C. The hydrogen ion concentration
    Explanation
    pH is a measure of the acidity or alkalinity of a solution. It represents the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) in a solution. The lower the pH value, the more acidic the solution, while a higher pH value indicates alkalinity. Therefore, the correct answer is "the hydrogen ion concentration" because pH specifically refers to the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution.

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  • 2. 

    Which is the most important in evaluating a patient with all illness causing abdominal pain?

    • A.

      Appearance of the patient

    • B.

      Palpitation

    • C.

      Vital signs

    • D.

      Patient history

    Correct Answer
    D. Patient history
    Explanation
    In evaluating a patient with abdominal pain, the most important factor is the patient's history. This includes gathering information about the onset, duration, location, and nature of the pain, as well as any associated symptoms. Patient history helps in identifying potential causes of the abdominal pain, such as gastrointestinal issues, urinary problems, or gynecological conditions. It also helps in ruling out serious conditions that may require immediate medical attention, such as appendicitis or a perforated organ. By understanding the patient's history, healthcare providers can make more accurate diagnoses and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • 3. 

    What heart valve prevents the backflow of blood into the right atrium?

    • A.

      Aortic valve

    • B.

      Tricuspid valve

    • C.

      Bicuspid valve

    • D.

      Mitral valve

    Correct Answer
    B. Tricuspid valve
    Explanation
    The tricuspid valve is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle of the heart. Its main function is to prevent the backflow of blood from the right ventricle into the right atrium. When the right ventricle contracts, the tricuspid valve closes, ensuring that blood flows in the correct direction, from the right atrium to the right ventricle and then to the lungs for oxygenation. This valve has three leaflets or cusps, which open and close to control the flow of blood.

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  • 4. 

    In some people, congenitally weakened areas of the lungs may rupture causing:

    • A.

      Alveolar pneumonia

    • B.

      Pulmonary edema

    • C.

      Spontaneous pneumothorax

    • D.

      Hemothorax

    Correct Answer
    C. Spontaneous pneumothorax
    Explanation
    In some individuals, weakened areas of the lungs that are present from birth may rupture, leading to a condition known as spontaneous pneumothorax. This occurs when air escapes from the lungs and accumulates in the space between the lungs and the chest wall, causing the lung to collapse. Symptoms may include sudden sharp chest pain, shortness of breath, and difficulty breathing. Prompt medical attention is necessary to treat this condition and reinflate the collapsed lung.

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  • 5. 

    Uncompensated shock is evidenced by:

    • A.

      Rising temperature

    • B.

      Falling blood pressure

    • C.

      Cold, clammy skin

    • D.

      Rising pulse rate

    Correct Answer
    B. Falling blood pressure
    Explanation
    Uncompensated shock is a condition where the body is unable to adequately compensate for a decrease in blood pressure. This can occur due to various reasons such as severe bleeding or heart failure. Falling blood pressure is a key indicator of uncompensated shock as it reflects the body's inability to maintain adequate blood flow to vital organs. Other symptoms such as cold, clammy skin and rising pulse rate may also be present, but the most significant and reliable indicator is the falling blood pressure.

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  • 6. 

    A patient who is hyperventilating may have which acid-base condition?

    • A.

      Respiratory acidosis

    • B.

      Metabolic acidosis

    • C.

      Metabolic alkalosis

    • D.

      Respiratory alkalosis

    Correct Answer
    D. Respiratory alkalosis
    Explanation
    Hyperventilation is a condition where a person breathes rapidly and deeply, leading to a decrease in carbon dioxide levels in the blood. This causes a shift in the acid-base balance towards alkalosis. Since the primary cause of respiratory alkalosis is excessive loss of carbon dioxide due to hyperventilation, it is the most likely acid-base condition in a patient who is hyperventilating.

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  • 7. 

    A 31 year old male is involved in a MVA. Vital signs are 90/68, 100, and 40. Trachea is deviated to the right, breath sounds are absent on the left, hyperresonance is noted on the left side on percussion. What is mostly likely the problem?

    • A.

      Simple pneumothorax

    • B.

      Pericardial tamponade

    • C.

      Hemothorax

    • D.

      Tension pneumothorax

    Correct Answer
    D. Tension pneumothorax
    Explanation
    The given scenario presents a patient involved in a motor vehicle accident with signs of a tension pneumothorax. The vital signs show hypotension (90/68), tachycardia (100), and tachypnea (40), which are indicative of a life-threatening condition. The deviation of the trachea to the right suggests a shift in the mediastinum due to increased pressure in the thoracic cavity. The absence of breath sounds and hyperresonance on percussion on the left side further support the diagnosis of a tension pneumothorax, where air accumulates in the pleural space, causing lung collapse and compression of mediastinal structures.

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  • 8. 

    What is the name for alveolar collapse?

    • A.

      Pulmonary edema

    • B.

      Tension pneumothroax

    • C.

      Pneumonia

    • D.

      Atelectasis

    Correct Answer
    D. Atelectasis
    Explanation
    Atelectasis is the term used to describe the collapse of the alveoli, which are the tiny air sacs in the lungs responsible for gas exchange. This collapse can occur due to various reasons such as blockage of the airways, compression of the lungs, or a decrease in the production of surfactant, a substance that helps keep the alveoli open. Pulmonary edema refers to the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, tension pneumothorax is the buildup of air in the pleural space causing lung collapse, and pneumonia is an infection in the lungs. Therefore, atelectasis is the correct answer as it specifically refers to alveolar collapse.

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  • 9. 

    The signs of epiglottitis are:

    • A.

      Fever and chills

    • B.

      Dysphagia and drooling

    • C.

      Rales and dyspnea

    • D.

      Aphasia and fever

    Correct Answer
    B. Dysphagia and drooling
    Explanation
    Epiglottitis is a serious condition characterized by inflammation of the epiglottis, a flap of tissue that covers the windpipe during swallowing. The signs mentioned in the answer, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) and drooling, are commonly associated with epiglottitis. This is because the inflamed epiglottis can obstruct the airway, making it difficult to swallow and causing saliva to accumulate in the mouth. The other options, fever and chills, rales and dyspnea, and aphasia and fever, are not typically seen in epiglottitis.

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  • 10. 

    Your 25 year old female patient is complaining of vaginal discharge and abdominal pain which increased with intercourse. The patient relates that she may have been exposed to gonorrhea. The patient is most likely suffering from:

    • A.

      Uterine rupture

    • B.

      Ectopic pregnancy

    • C.

      PID

    • D.

      AIDS

    Correct Answer
    C. PID
    Explanation
    Based on the symptoms described by the patient (vaginal discharge and abdominal pain), along with the history of possible exposure to gonorrhea, the most likely condition she is suffering from is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID is an infection of the female reproductive organs, often caused by sexually transmitted infections such as gonorrhea. It can cause symptoms such as vaginal discharge, abdominal pain, and pain during intercourse. Uterine rupture, ectopic pregnancy, and AIDS are not consistent with the symptoms and history provided.

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  • 11. 

    The APGAR score evaluates:

    • A.

      Pulse, reflex ability, appearance, BP

    • B.

      Pulse, respirations, BP, activity, color

    • C.

      Pulse, respirations, activity, color, grimace

    • D.

      BP, pulse, gestation, color, respiration

    Correct Answer
    C. Pulse, respirations, activity, color, grimace
    Explanation
    The APGAR score is a standardized method used to quickly assess the health of a newborn baby. It evaluates five factors: pulse, respirations, activity, color, and grimace. Pulse measures the baby's heart rate, respirations assess the breathing rate, activity evaluates muscle tone and movement, color assesses the baby's skin tone, and grimace evaluates the baby's reflexes and response to stimulation. By evaluating these factors, healthcare professionals can quickly determine the baby's overall well-being and any immediate medical interventions that may be required.

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  • 12. 

    The rescuer's initial ventilation of a requiring CPR should be:

    • A.

      Four quick breaths

    • B.

      One quick breath

    • C.

      Two full breaths

    • D.

      Five full breaths

    Correct Answer
    C. Two full breaths
    Explanation
    The rescuer's initial ventilation of a person requiring CPR should be two full breaths. This is because providing two full breaths helps to deliver a sufficient amount of oxygen to the person's lungs, which is crucial in the early stages of resuscitation. These breaths help to oxygenate the blood and provide the necessary support until further medical assistance can be provided.

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  • 13. 

    Which drug is contraindicated in asthma patients?

    • A.

      CaCl

    • B.

      Digitalis

    • C.

      Inderal

    • D.

      Epinephrine

    Correct Answer
    C. Inderal
    Explanation
    Inderal is contraindicated in asthma patients because it is a beta-blocker that can cause bronchospasm and worsen asthma symptoms. Beta-blockers work by blocking the effects of adrenaline, which can lead to constriction of the airways and difficulty in breathing. Therefore, asthma patients should avoid using Inderal as it can potentially trigger an asthma attack or exacerbate their symptoms.

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  • 14. 

    The proper rate for rescue breathing for an adult is:

    • A.

      8 breaths/minute

    • B.

      12 breaths/minute

    • C.

      5 breaths/minute

    • D.

      20 breaths/minute

    Correct Answer
    B. 12 breaths/minute
    Explanation
    The proper rate for rescue breathing for an adult is 12 breaths/minute. This rate ensures that enough oxygen is being delivered to the person in need without causing excessive strain on the rescuer. Breathing at a rate of 12 breaths/minute allows for a steady flow of oxygen to the lungs, helping to maintain adequate oxygenation and support the person's breathing until further medical assistance can be provided.

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  • 15. 

    Which drug must be given cautiously to patients currently taking digitalis?

    • A.

      D50

    • B.

      Diazepam

    • C.

      Epinephrine

    • D.

      CaCl

    Correct Answer
    D. CaCl
    Explanation
    CaCl (Calcium chloride) must be given cautiously to patients currently taking digitalis. This is because digitalis increases the risk of arrhythmias, and CaCl can also cause arrhythmias. Therefore, caution should be exercised when administering CaCl to these patients to avoid exacerbating their condition.

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  • 16. 

    The death which occurs at the moment the heart stops is:

    • A.

      Irreversible death

    • B.

      DRT

    • C.

      Biological death

    • D.

      Clinical death

    Correct Answer
    D. Clinical death
    Explanation
    Clinical death refers to the cessation of heartbeat and breathing. Although it is a critical condition, it is still potentially reversible with prompt medical intervention. During clinical death, the brain may still be alive, and resuscitation efforts can be attempted to revive the person. However, if resuscitation is not successful, clinical death can progress to irreversible death, also known as biological death, where there is permanent loss of brain function and the person cannot be revived. Therefore, clinical death is the correct answer as it represents the immediate moment when the heart stops beating.

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  • 17. 

    The physician orders 5 mcg/kg/min of dopamine for an 80 kg patient. You put 400mg of Dopamine in 250 ml D5W. What is the correct rate using microdrip tubing?

    • A.

      15 gtts/min

    • B.

      120 gtts/min

    • C.

      30 gtts/min

    • D.

      40 gtts/min

    Correct Answer
    A. 15 gtts/min
    Explanation
    To calculate the correct rate using microdrip tubing, we need to convert the patient's weight from kg to grams. The patient weighs 80 kg, so their weight in grams is 80,000 g. The physician ordered 5 mcg/kg/min of dopamine, so we multiply 5 by the patient's weight in grams (80,000) to get the total mcg/min needed. This gives us 400,000 mcg/min.

    Next, we need to convert mcg/min to gtt/min. We know that there are 400 mg of dopamine in the solution and 1 ml is equal to 20 gtt. Therefore, 400 mg is equal to 400 ml, and 400 ml is equal to 400 * 20 = 8,000 gtt.

    Finally, we divide the total mcg/min needed (400,000) by the total gtt/min available (8,000) to get the correct rate. This gives us 400,000/8,000 = 50 gtt/min. However, since we are using microdrip tubing, where 1 ml equals 60 gtt, we multiply 50 by 60 to get the final answer of 3,000 gtt/min, which is equivalent to 15 gtt/min.

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  • 18. 

    The rate of adult compressions in CPR is:

    • A.

      5-2

    • B.

      100-120

    • C.

      100 plus per minute

    • D.

      15-1

    Correct Answer
    B. 100-120
    Explanation
    The rate of adult compressions in CPR is 100-120 per minute. This means that during cardiopulmonary resuscitation, the rescuer should perform chest compressions at a rate of 100 to 120 compressions per minute. This rate is important to maintain effective blood circulation and oxygenation to the body's vital organs during cardiac arrest. It ensures that the heart is being adequately stimulated to pump blood and increases the chances of successful resuscitation.

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  • 19. 

    What is the action of insulin?

    • A.

      Transfers glucose into cells

    • B.

      Stimulates alpha receptors

    • C.

      Produces hemolysis of RBCs

    • D.

      Produces glucagon

    Correct Answer
    A. Transfers glucose into cells
    Explanation
    Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that plays a crucial role in regulating blood sugar levels. Its main action is to facilitate the uptake of glucose from the bloodstream into cells, particularly muscle and fat cells. By binding to insulin receptors on cell surfaces, insulin triggers a series of signaling pathways that allow glucose to enter the cells, where it can be used for energy production or stored as glycogen. This process helps to lower blood sugar levels and maintain normal glucose metabolism in the body.

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  • 20. 

    The term that which describes normal respirations is:

    • A.

      Orthopnea

    • B.

      Eupena

    • C.

      Bradypnea

    • D.

      Dyspnea

    Correct Answer
    B. Eupena
    Explanation
    The term "eupnea" refers to normal respirations, which means breathing at a normal rate and depth without any difficulty or discomfort. It is the opposite of "dyspnea," which refers to difficulty in breathing. "Orthopnea" refers to difficulty in breathing while lying flat, and "bradypnea" refers to abnormally slow breathing. Therefore, the correct answer is eupnea.

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  • 21. 

    The joint action of two drugs where the combined effect is greater than the sum of their individual effect is called:

    • A.

      Antagonism

    • B.

      Synergism

    • C.

      Idiosycrasy

    • D.

      Potentiation

    Correct Answer
    B. Synergism
    Explanation
    Synergism refers to the joint action of two drugs where their combined effect is greater than the sum of their individual effects. In other words, when two drugs work together in a way that enhances their overall effectiveness, it is called synergism.

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  • 22. 

    The problem with communciation of the elderly is most often due to:

    • A.

      A hearing loss

    • B.

      Confusion

    • C.

      Senility

    • D.

      Organic brain syndrome

    Correct Answer
    A. A hearing loss
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a hearing loss. As people age, their ability to hear may decline, leading to difficulties in communication. This can result in misunderstandings and misinterpretations of conversations. Hearing loss is a common issue among the elderly and can significantly impact their ability to effectively communicate with others.

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  • 23. 

    In a COPD patient the respiratory drive is triggered by?

    • A.

      Hypocarbia

    • B.

      Hypoxia

    • C.

      Hypovolemia

    • D.

      Hypercarbia

    Correct Answer
    B. Hypoxia
    Explanation
    In a patient with COPD, the respiratory drive is primarily triggered by hypoxia. This is because COPD is characterized by airflow limitation, which leads to decreased oxygen levels in the blood. The body's response to this low oxygen level is to increase the respiratory drive in order to improve oxygenation. Hypocarbia, hypovolemia, and hypercarbia do not directly stimulate the respiratory drive in COPD patients.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Nov 07, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 30, 2008
    Quiz Created by
    Medic2690
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