Jour 298: Exam 2 (Ch. 6-10)

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Jour 298: Exam 2 (Ch. 6-10) - Quiz

Mr. Warburton, Edinboro University


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The poor leadership from Michael Brown, Director of FEMA, prevented other rescue groups from providing much needed (Pg 290-291)

    • A.

      Supplies

    • B.

      Transportation

    • C.

      Personnel

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above" because the poor leadership from Michael Brown, Director of FEMA, affected all aspects of the rescue efforts. His incompetence hindered the provision of supplies, transportation, and personnel, preventing other rescue groups from effectively assisting in the disaster response.

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  • 2. 

    The authoritarian style of leadership works best in all of the following except one. Which does not belong? (Pg 300-301)

    • A.

      When the task is fairly simple

    • B.

      When an immediate decision is needed

    • C.

      When group agreement is not required for implementation

    • D.

      When reduced resistance to change is needed

    Correct Answer
    D. When reduced resistance to change is needed
    Explanation
    The authoritarian style of leadership works best when the task is fairly simple, when an immediate decision is needed, and when group agreement is not required for implementation. However, when reduced resistance to change is needed, the authoritarian style may not be the most effective. This is because the authoritarian style tends to be top-down and does not involve the input or participation of others, which can lead to increased resistance to change. In situations where reduced resistance to change is needed, a more participative or democratic leadership style may be more appropriate.

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  • 3. 

    When (1) the time needed to reach a decision, (2) the time required to get group commitment, and (3) the time required to implement the decision are considered, which management style tends to take the least total time? (Pg 301)

    • A.

      Autocratic

    • B.

      Democratic

    • C.

      Laissez-faire

    Correct Answer
    B. Democratic
    Explanation
    A democratic management style tends to take the least total time when considering the time needed to reach a decision, the time required to get group commitment, and the time required to implement the decision. This is because in a democratic style, decisions are made through group discussion and input from team members. This allows for a more efficient decision-making process as different perspectives and ideas are considered, leading to quicker decision-making and implementation. In contrast, an autocratic style may take longer as decisions are made solely by the leader without input from others, while a laissez-faire style may lack direction and coordination, resulting in delays in decision-making and implementation.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following leadership styles works best with a large group? (Pg 300)

    • A.

      Autocratic

    • B.

      Democratic

    • C.

      Laissez-faire

    Correct Answer
    A. Autocratic
    Explanation
    Autocratic leadership style works best with a large group because it allows for quick decision-making and clear direction from a single leader. In a large group, it may be difficult to reach a consensus or involve everyone in the decision-making process, so having an autocratic leader who can make decisions efficiently can be beneficial. This style also ensures that tasks are completed efficiently and effectively, as the leader has full control over the group's actions.

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  • 5. 

    When member satisfaction is your top priority, which of the following leadership styles should you select? (Pg 301)

    • A.

      Autocratic

    • B.

      Democratic

    • C.

      Laissez-faire

    Correct Answer
    B. Democratic
    Explanation
    When member satisfaction is the top priority, selecting a democratic leadership style is the most appropriate choice. A democratic leader involves members in decision-making processes, values their opinions, and encourages collaboration and participation. This style promotes a sense of ownership, empowerment, and engagement among team members, which ultimately leads to higher member satisfaction.

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  • 6. 

    The disadvantages of democratic leadership include (Pg 301)

    • A.

      Group hostility and discontent.

    • B.

      Too much dependence on the leader.

    • C.

      Time-consuming.

    • D.

      Limited acceptance of decisions by members of the group.

    Correct Answer
    C. Time-consuming.
    Explanation
    Democratic leadership can be time-consuming because it involves consulting and involving group members in decision-making processes. This approach requires gathering input from multiple individuals, considering different perspectives, and reaching a consensus. This can take a significant amount of time and may slow down the decision-making process compared to other leadership styles where the leader makes decisions on their own.

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  • 7. 

    The trait theory of group leadership says that (Pg 269-297)

    • A.

      After a person has led a group, there are still some things he or she can do to achieve more complete success.

    • B.

      There are certain roles that must be performed if groups are to be successful.

    • C.

      There are certain qualities a person must have in order to become a successful leader.

    • D.

      Psychological aspects of leadership must be considered when selecting a leader.

    Correct Answer
    C. There are certain qualities a person must have in order to become a successful leader.
    Explanation
    The trait theory of group leadership suggests that certain qualities are necessary for a person to become a successful leader. This theory emphasizes that leadership is not solely based on skills or acquired knowledge, but also on inherent characteristics that individuals possess. These qualities may include intelligence, self-confidence, determination, and integrity, among others. According to the trait theory, individuals who possess these qualities are more likely to excel in leadership roles and achieve success in leading groups.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following can be classified as dysfunctional or negative behavior? (Pg 295)

    • A.

      Blocking

    • B.

      Opinion giving

    • C.

      Gatekeeping

    • D.

      Elaborating

    Correct Answer
    A. Blocking
    Explanation
    Blocking can be classified as dysfunctional or negative behavior because it involves hindering or obstructing the progress or communication of others. This behavior can prevent the flow of ideas, limit collaboration, and create a negative and unproductive work environment. By intentionally blocking or withholding information, individuals may impede the decision-making process and hinder the overall success of a team or organization.

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  • 9. 

    The three-dimensional theory of leadership maintains that (Pg 300-301)

    • A.

      Certain roles must be performed if a group is to be successful.

    • B.

      Leaders are likely to be trait-oriented, functionally trained, and inwardly motivated.

    • C.

      Leaders should perform task and maintenance roles, and guard the group against nonfunctional members.

    • D.

      Leaders can be classified as autocratic, democratic, and laissez-faire.

    Correct Answer
    D. Leaders can be classified as autocratic, democratic, and laissez-faire.
    Explanation
    The three-dimensional theory of leadership suggests that leaders can be classified into three categories: autocratic, democratic, and laissez-faire. This means that leaders can have different styles of leadership, with autocratic leaders being more authoritative and making decisions without input from others, democratic leaders involving group members in decision-making, and laissez-faire leaders giving group members a high degree of autonomy. This classification helps in understanding the different approaches to leadership and how they can impact group dynamics and success.

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  • 10. 

    The best known advocate of situational contingency theory is (Pg 306)

    • A.

      R. A Stogdill.

    • B.

      Fred Fiedler.

    • C.

      K. H. Blanchard.

    • D.

      Robert House.

    Correct Answer
    B. Fred Fiedler.
    Explanation
    Fred Fiedler is the best known advocate of situational contingency theory. Situational contingency theory suggests that the effectiveness of a leader depends on the situation at hand and that there is no one-size-fits-all approach to leadership. Fiedler's theory emphasizes the importance of matching the leader's style with the situation in order to achieve optimal performance. He developed the concept of "least preferred coworker" (LPC) to measure a leader's style and proposed that leaders with high LPC scores are more relationship-oriented, while those with low LPC scores are more task-oriented. Fiedler's work has had a significant impact on the field of leadership and continues to be influential today.

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  • 11. 

    Democratic leadership should be sought when (Pg 301)

    • A.

      The group is very large.

    • B.

      Time for a decision is short.

    • C.

      Tasks are fairly complicated.

    • D.

      Group agreement is not required.

    Correct Answer
    C. Tasks are fairly complicated.
    Explanation
    Democratic leadership should be sought when tasks are fairly complicated because in such situations, it is important to involve the expertise and input of the group members. By allowing the group members to participate in the decision-making process, democratic leadership ensures that different perspectives and ideas are considered, leading to a more comprehensive and effective solution. This approach is particularly beneficial when dealing with complex tasks that require diverse skills and knowledge to be successfully accomplished.

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  • 12. 

    Which of Hersey & Blanchard's four leadership styles works best when followers have the ability but need encouragement? (Pg 305)

    • A.

      Delegating

    • B.

      Participating

    • C.

      Telling

    • D.

      Selling or coaching

    Correct Answer
    B. Participating
    Explanation
    The participating leadership style works best when followers have the ability but need encouragement. This style involves the leader actively involving followers in decision-making and problem-solving processes. By including followers in the decision-making process, the leader can provide the necessary encouragement and support to boost their confidence and motivation. This style empowers followers to contribute their ideas and skills, leading to increased engagement and commitment to achieving goals.

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  • 13. 

    Martin Luther King is considered to be a charismatic person who inspired exceptional performance, enthusiasm, and loyalty; consequently, he could be categorized as what type of leader? (Pg 306)

    • A.

      Democratic

    • B.

      Situational contingency

    • C.

      Situational

    • D.

      Transformational

    Correct Answer
    D. Transformational
    Explanation
    Martin Luther King is considered a transformational leader because he possessed the ability to inspire and motivate others. His charisma and ability to inspire exceptional performance, enthusiasm, and loyalty are key characteristics of a transformational leader. Transformational leaders are known for their ability to bring about positive change and inspire their followers to go above and beyond what is expected of them. Martin Luther King's leadership style and impact on the civil rights movement exemplify his transformational leadership qualities.

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  • 14. 

    The theory that contends leadership depends on the power of the leader, nature of task, and relationship of leader and team is the (Pg 305-306)

    • A.

      Situational contingency theory.

    • B.

      Trait theory

    • C.

      Situational theory

    • D.

      Three dimension theory

    Correct Answer
    A. Situational contingency theory.
    Explanation
    The theory that contends leadership depends on the power of the leader, nature of task, and relationship of leader and team is situational contingency theory. This theory suggests that effective leadership is dependent on various situational factors, such as the leader's power, the nature of the task at hand, and the relationship between the leader and the team. It emphasizes that there is no one-size-fits-all approach to leadership and that leaders must adapt their style and behavior based on the specific situation they are facing.

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  • 15. 

    When you are the leader and you are dealing with a group member exhibiting dysfunctional behaviors, remember to (Pg 295-296)

    • A.

      Seat the nonfunctional group member beside you.

    • B.

      Engage in direct eye contact with the individual.

    • C.

      Ask, “Is that correct?” after summarizing his comments.

    • D.

      All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. Seat the nonfunctional group member beside you.
    Explanation
    When dealing with a group member exhibiting dysfunctional behaviors, it is suggested to seat the nonfunctional group member beside you. This seating arrangement allows for closer proximity and easier communication, which can help in addressing and managing the dysfunctional behavior more effectively. It also demonstrates a sense of support and involvement from the leader, potentially encouraging the group member to be more cooperative and receptive to feedback or guidance.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is NOT one of the skills necessary for teams to use to achieve successful communication? (Pg 291)

    • A.

      Empathic listening

    • B.

      Commitment and preparation

    • C.

      Open-mindedness

    • D.

      Flexibility

    Correct Answer
    A. Empathic listening
    Explanation
    Empathic listening is not one of the skills necessary for teams to use to achieve successful communication. Empathic listening refers to the ability to understand and share the feelings of another person, which is more focused on individual interactions rather than team communication. The other skills listed - commitment and preparation, open-mindedness, and flexibility - are all important for effective team communication as they contribute to understanding, collaboration, and adaptability within the team.

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  • 17. 

    Listening from the speaker’s viewpoint involves receiving, interpreting, and checking. This type of listening is known as (Pg 292)

    • A.

      Empathic

    • B.

      Critical

    • C.

      Passive

    • D.

      Active

    Correct Answer
    D. Active
    Explanation
    Active listening involves fully engaging with the speaker by receiving their message, interpreting its meaning, and checking for understanding. This type of listening requires focus, attention, and involvement in the conversation. It goes beyond simply hearing the words and involves actively participating in the communication process. Active listening helps to establish rapport, understand the speaker's perspective, and facilitate effective communication.

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  • 18. 

    Dave Carroll posted “United Breaks Guitars” on YouTube and within six days more than ____viewers had listened to the video. (Pg 166)

    • A.

      1 Million

    • B.

      400,000

    • C.

      2.4 Million

    • D.

      1.8 Million

    Correct Answer
    C. 2.4 Million
    Explanation
    Within six days of posting "United Breaks Guitars" on YouTube, the video had been listened to by 2.4 million viewers.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following statements is not true about people who experience a high level of communication anxiety? (Pg 176)

    • A.

      They are perceived as less competent.

    • B.

      They are less likely to be offered an interview.

    • C.

      Their status and pay is no different than that of less anxious people.

    • D.

      They experience less job satisfaction.

    Correct Answer
    C. Their status and pay is no different than that of less anxious people.
    Explanation
    People who experience a high level of communication anxiety are perceived as less competent, less likely to be offered an interview, and experience less job satisfaction. However, their status and pay is no different than that of less anxious people.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following statements is true of trait anxiety? (Pg 179-183)

    • A.

      Basically, all speakers experience trait anxiety.

    • B.

      Careful preparation and practice is a successful method of managing trait anxiety.

    • C.

      Trait anxiety is easier than other types of anxiety to overcome.

    • D.

      Positive imagery is a successful method of managing trait anxiety.

    Correct Answer
    D. Positive imagery is a successful method of managing trait anxiety.
    Explanation
    Positive imagery is a successful method of managing trait anxiety. This means that using positive mental images or visualizations can help individuals cope with and reduce their trait anxiety. This technique can be effective in calming the mind, promoting relaxation, and reducing feelings of anxiety. By focusing on positive thoughts and images, individuals can shift their mindset and reduce the impact of trait anxiety on their daily lives.

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  • 21. 

    When giving instructions, the text recommends using an acronym such as (Pg 187)

    • A.

      The North Atlantic Treaty Organization as NATO.

    • B.

      The first step..., the second step..., and so on.

    • C.

      That today's task is identical to yesterday's task except for one additional step.

    • D.

      the letters used to represent each comer of a square.

    • E.

      All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. The North Atlantic Treaty Organization as NATO.
    Explanation
    The text recommends using an acronym such as the North Atlantic Treaty Organization as NATO when giving instructions. This is because using acronyms can help simplify and streamline communication, making it easier for the audience to understand and remember the instructions. Acronyms condense lengthy phrases or names into shorter, more memorable forms, allowing for more efficient communication.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is the best way to control situational anxiety? (Pg 177)

    • A.

      Mentally think through your speech on the way to the room where you will give it.

    • B.

      Pretend that the anxiety does not exist.

    • C.

      Discreetly partake of a small portion of vodka or rum.

    • D.

      Prepare and practice your presentation carefully.

    Correct Answer
    D. Prepare and practice your presentation carefully.
    Explanation
    Preparing and practicing your presentation carefully is the best way to control situational anxiety. By thoroughly preparing and practicing your presentation, you will become more familiar and confident with the material, reducing anxiety. This allows you to anticipate potential challenges and develop strategies to overcome them, further enhancing your confidence. Additionally, practicing your presentation can help you identify areas that may need improvement, allowing you to make necessary adjustments before the actual presentation.

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  • 23. 

    Although all of the following are important, which one should be the first step when giving instructions? (Pg 184)

    • A.

      Begin with simple, easy-to-understand words.

    • B.

      Begin with simple comparisons.

    • C.

      Begin with an overall picture.

    • D.

      Begin with specific explanations.

    Correct Answer
    C. Begin with an overall picture.
    Explanation
    When giving instructions, it is important to begin with an overall picture because it helps to provide context and a general understanding of what needs to be done. By starting with an overview, it allows the person receiving the instructions to see the bigger picture and how the individual steps fit into the larger goal. This can help to increase comprehension and make it easier for the person to follow the instructions accurately.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is NOT true about videoconferences? (Pg 174-175)

    • A.

      Videoconferencing results in the show of less emotion and less conflict during meetings.

    • B.

      Status differences are less noticeable in a videoconference.

    • C.

      Videoconferences cause a high level of participant anxiety.

    • D.

      Videoconference meetings are shorter than face-to-face meetings.

    Correct Answer
    C. Videoconferences cause a high level of participant anxiety.
    Explanation
    Videoconferences cause a high level of participant anxiety. This statement is not true because videoconferences actually tend to reduce participant anxiety. In a videoconference, individuals may feel more comfortable expressing their opinions and ideas compared to face-to-face meetings. The physical distance can create a sense of anonymity and reduce the fear of judgment or scrutiny. Additionally, participants can join the meeting from a familiar and comfortable environment, which can further alleviate anxiety.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is NOT true about email? (Pg 168-169)

    • A.

      Email messages are not private.

    • B.

      Email messages do not require careful choice of words.

    • C.

      Email messages may live for up to 5 years in someone's computer memory.

    • D.

      Email enhances creativity.

    Correct Answer
    B. Email messages do not require careful choice of words.
    Explanation
    Email messages do not require careful choice of words. This statement is not true because email messages, like any form of written communication, require careful choice of words to ensure clarity, professionalism, and avoid misunderstandings.

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  • 26. 

    The following are valid reasons for a company to develop a blog except (Pg 169-170)

    • A.

      Blogs are better than one-way communication.

    • B.

      Blogs are a way to provide information about new products and ideas.

    • C.

      Blogs are currently viewed as a major marketing tool by many Fortune 500 companies.

    • D.

      Blogs help companies to deal with “blog swarm” by affording quick responses.

    Correct Answer
    C. Blogs are currently viewed as a major marketing tool by many Fortune 500 companies.
  • 27. 

    Systematic desensitization involves: (Pg 178)

    • A.

      Learning to relax using deep muscle relaxation and breathing.

    • B.

      Identifying irrational self-talk that produces speaker anxiety.

    • C.

      Developing alternative coping statements.

    • D.

      Identifying reasonable speaking goals.

    Correct Answer
    A. Learning to relax using deep muscle relaxation and breathing.
    Explanation
    Systematic desensitization is a technique used to treat anxiety disorders, specifically phobias. It involves gradually exposing the individual to the feared object or situation while teaching them relaxation techniques, such as deep muscle relaxation and breathing. By learning to relax, the individual can reduce their anxiety response and gradually become desensitized to the feared stimulus. This answer accurately describes the process of systematic desensitization.

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  • 28. 

    The reasonable person rule is used in courts in determining (Pg 191)

    • A.

      Unlawful interview questions.

    • B.

      Sexual harassment cases.

    • C.

      Plagiarism cases.

    • D.

      Free speech on blogs.

    Correct Answer
    B. Sexual harassment cases.
    Explanation
    The reasonable person rule is used in courts to determine sexual harassment cases. This rule evaluates whether a reasonable person would consider the behavior in question to be offensive or harassing. It helps to establish whether the alleged conduct meets the legal definition of sexual harassment and whether the victim's perception is reasonable. This rule ensures that subjective opinions are not the sole basis for determining whether sexual harassment has occurred, but rather relies on an objective standard of what a reasonable person would find objectionable.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is NOT a circumstance of sexual harassment occurring? (Pg 191)

    • A.

      The victim must be of the opposite sex.

    • B.

      The harasser’s conduct must be unwelcome.

    • C.

      Unlawful sexual harassment may occur without economic injury.

    • D.

      The harasser can be the victim’s co-worker.

    Correct Answer
    A. The victim must be of the opposite sex.
    Explanation
    The question is asking for a circumstance that is NOT a part of sexual harassment occurring. The correct answer is "The victim must be of the opposite sex." This means that sexual harassment can occur regardless of the gender of the victim. It is important to note that sexual harassment can happen to individuals of any gender and is not limited to only one sex being the victim.

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  • 30. 

    In response to a query about Sharon, her manager replied with an email stating, “Sharon is a good employee.” He meant this as a positive endorsement of Sharon, but the inquirer decoded “good” to mean that Sharon was just a mediocre employee. In this instance (Pg 188)

    • A.

      Quid pro quo has occurred.

    • B.

      The manager used the wrong sensory channel to convey the message.

    • C.

      Cognitive structuring has occurred.

    • D.

      Bypassing has occurred.

    Correct Answer
    D. Bypassing has occurred.
    Explanation
    In this scenario, bypassing has occurred. Bypassing happens when the sender and receiver of a message have different interpretations or understandings of the same words or phrases. The manager intended to convey a positive endorsement of Sharon by saying she is a "good" employee. However, the inquirer interpreted "good" as meaning mediocre. This miscommunication occurred because the words used in the message were not clearly understood or interpreted differently by the sender and receiver.

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  • 31. 

    When giving instructions, one should remember to (Pg 185)

    • A.

      Avoid repetition.

    • B.

      Use jargon and technical terms to make the instructions clear.

    • C.

      Use a minimum number of words

    • D.

      All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    C. Use a minimum number of words
    Explanation
    When giving instructions, it is important to use a minimum number of words. This is because concise instructions are easier to understand and follow. Using unnecessary repetition or jargon can confuse the recipient and make the instructions less effective. Therefore, the best approach is to keep the instructions short and simple, using only the necessary words to convey the message clearly.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is an anxiety reduction technique? (Pg 182)

    • A.

      Skills training

    • B.

      Systematic sensitization

    • C.

      Affective restructuring

    • D.

      Positive visualization

    Correct Answer
    A. Skills training
    Explanation
    Skills training is an anxiety reduction technique because it involves teaching individuals specific skills and strategies to manage and cope with their anxiety. This can include techniques such as deep breathing, relaxation exercises, cognitive restructuring, and problem-solving skills. By learning and practicing these skills, individuals can effectively reduce their anxiety levels and improve their overall well-being.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using Instant Messaging? (Pg 171)

    • A.

      Increased access to information

    • B.

      Access to detailed records

    • C.

      Avoiding playing phone tag

    • D.

      Communicating with several people at once

    Correct Answer
    B. Access to detailed records
    Explanation
    Access to detailed records is not an advantage of using Instant Messaging. While instant messaging allows for real-time communication and the ability to communicate with multiple people at once, it does not typically provide a record of the conversation. Unlike email or other forms of communication, instant messaging conversations are often not saved or archived, making it difficult to reference or retrieve information from previous conversations. Therefore, access to detailed records is not a benefit of using instant messaging.

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  • 34. 

    The job-seeker in the case study made which mistake during his interview? (Pg 200)

    • A.

      Difficulty being concise

    • B.

      Bad hand shake

    • C.

      Failure to look at the interviewer when conversing

    • D.

      Lack of interest and enthusiasm

    Correct Answer
    A. Difficulty being concise
    Explanation
    The job-seeker in the case study made the mistake of difficulty being concise during his interview. This means that he had trouble expressing himself in a clear and concise manner, possibly rambling or going off on tangents. This can be seen as a negative trait in an interview, as it may indicate a lack of focus or the inability to effectively communicate ideas.

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  • 35. 

    The opening phase of an interview includes the following basic steps: (Pg 208)

    • A.

      Rapport, orientation, and motivation

    • B.

      Rapport, discussion, and follow-up

    • C.

      Greetings, discussion, and follow-up

    • D.

      Introductions, rapport, and motivation

    Correct Answer
    A. Rapport, orientation, and motivation
    Explanation
    The opening phase of an interview typically involves establishing rapport with the interviewee to create a comfortable and trusting environment. This is followed by providing orientation, which includes explaining the purpose and structure of the interview. Lastly, motivation is important to ensure that the interviewee is engaged and willing to participate fully in the interview process. Therefore, the correct answer is "rapport, orientation, and motivation".

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  • 36. 

    You are an interviewer and have the feeling that the candidate is trying to hide something. What should you do? (Pg 206)

    • A.

      Ask the candidate openly if he or she is trying to hide something.

    • B.

      Ask a series of open-ended questions that allow flexibility in responding to areas that might be related to the problem.

    • C.

      Check his or her references and ask them if they know of something that the candidate might be hiding.

    • D.

      Simply ignore the situation and depend on your personal judgment as to whether to hire the candidate.

    Correct Answer
    B. Ask a series of open-ended questions that allow flexibility in responding to areas that might be related to the problem.
    Explanation
    If the interviewer suspects that the candidate is trying to hide something, asking a series of open-ended questions that allow flexibility in responding to related areas can help uncover any hidden information. This approach encourages the candidate to provide more detailed and honest responses, potentially revealing any undisclosed information or concerns. It also allows the interviewer to gather more information and make a more informed decision about whether to hire the candidate.

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  • 37. 

    What type question is illustrated by the following example: "When you want to know something about a fellow employee, do you go directly to the person or do you depend on those with whom the person works to answer your question?" (Pg 213)

    • A.

      Hypothetical open question

    • B.

      Specific question

    • C.

      Leading question

    • D.

      Closed question

    Correct Answer
    D. Closed question
    Explanation
    The given example is a closed question. A closed question is one that can be answered with a simple "yes" or "no" or with a specific piece of information. In this case, the question asks whether the person goes directly to the person they want to know something about or if they depend on others to answer their question. This can be answered with a simple "yes" or "no" or with a specific response indicating their preferred approach.

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  • 38. 

    The funnel sequence of questioning is probably the (Pg 217)

    • A.

      Least-used method of organizing an interview.

    • B.

      Fastest way to interview.

    • C.

      Best way to find out information about the respondent.

    • D.

      Best way to motivate shy or reluctant persons.

    Correct Answer
    C. Best way to find out information about the respondent.
    Explanation
    The funnel sequence of questioning is the best way to find out information about the respondent. This method involves starting with broad, open-ended questions and gradually narrowing down to more specific and focused questions. This allows the interviewer to gather a comprehensive understanding of the respondent's thoughts, feelings, and experiences. By starting with broad questions, the interviewer can create a comfortable and non-threatening environment, encouraging the respondent to share more information. As the questioning progresses, the interviewer can delve deeper into specific topics, gaining valuable insights from the respondent.

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  • 39. 

    The diamond sequence of questioning begins and ends with which type question? (Pg 218)

    • A.

      Open or third person

    • B.

      Loaded or leading

    • C.

      Open or hypothetical open

    • D.

      Direct or closed

    Correct Answer
    D. Direct or closed
    Explanation
    The diamond sequence of questioning begins and ends with direct or closed questions. These types of questions are straightforward and require a specific and concise answer. They are used to gather factual information and can be easily answered with a "yes" or "no" or a short response. The diamond sequence starts with a direct or closed question to establish a baseline or starting point, and it ends with the same type of question to conclude the questioning process.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following is a direct question? (Pg 213)

    • A.

      "Tell me about your experience in sales."

    • B.

      "How many hours do you have in your major field of study?"

    • C.

      "Which do you enjoy the most--working on your own or working under close supervision?"

    • D.

      "Do you still arrive late to most meetings?"

    Correct Answer
    B. "How many hours do you have in your major field of study?"
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "How many hours do you have in your major field of study?" This is a direct question because it is asking for a specific piece of information and requires a direct response. The other options are not direct questions as they are either statements or asking for an opinion.

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  • 41. 

    Are the following interview questions organized in the (a) funnel sequence, (b) inverted funnel sequence, or (c) none of the above? "Tell me about your last position." "What were your main accomplishments?" "Did you save the company any money?" "How much?" "Which was your greatest accomplishment: saving money for the company or improving employee satisfaction through new management techniques?" (Pg 216-217)

    • A.

      Funnel sequence

    • B.

      Inverted funnel sequence

    • C.

      Neither of the available choices

    Correct Answer
    A. Funnel sequence
    Explanation
    The given interview questions are organized in a funnel sequence. This is because the questions start with a broad and open-ended question ("Tell me about your last position") and gradually narrow down to more specific and detailed questions ("Did you save the company any money?" and "How much?"). This sequence allows the interviewer to gather general information first and then delve deeper into specific areas of interest.

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  • 42. 

    Are the following interview questions "How many years have you been a manager?" "Tell me about your management techniques." "How many employees work for you currently?" "Do you think you could handle any more?" "Do you have any interviewing skills?" (Pg 216-217)

    • A.

      Funnel sequence

    • B.

      Inverted funnel sequence

    • C.

      Neither of the available choices

    Correct Answer
    C. Neither of the available choices
    Explanation
    The given answer "neither of the available choices" is correct because the provided options "funnel sequence" and "inverted funnel sequence" do not accurately describe the pattern or sequence of the interview questions. The questions are not arranged in a funnel-shaped or inverted funnel-shaped sequence. Therefore, neither of the given choices is a suitable explanation for the sequence of the interview questions.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following is not a leading question? (Pg 214)

    • A.

      "You want the kind of job that gets you more money, don't you?"

    • B.

      "We are looking for creative people here. What do you have to offer?"

    • C.

      "Do you think all employees should receive raises?"

    • D.

      "I don't think you have been working up to your potential. What do you think?"

    Correct Answer
    C. "Do you think all employees should receive raises?"
    Explanation
    The question "Do you think all employees should receive raises?" is not a leading question because it does not suggest or imply a particular answer. It is a neutral question that allows the respondent to express their own opinion without any influence or bias from the question itself.

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  • 44. 

    Questions following the inverted funnel sequence (Pg 217)

    • A.

      Begin with specific or closed questions and move to open or hypothetical open questions.

    • B.

      Begin with specific questions and end with specific questions.

    • C.

      Begin with open or hypothetical open questions and move to specific or closed questions.

    • D.

      Begin with open questions and end with open or hypothetical open questions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Begin with specific or closed questions and move to open or hypothetical open questions.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that questions following the inverted funnel sequence begin with specific or closed questions and move to open or hypothetical open questions. This means that the questions start off with a narrow focus and gradually expand to allow for more exploration and creativity. This approach is often used in interviews or problem-solving discussions to gather detailed information before exploring broader concepts or possibilities.

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  • 45. 

    "I thought we might begin by discussing your resume in terms of your work experiences, interest, and educational background. Then we'll pause and give you an opportunity to ask some questions." This statement might be made by an interviewer in what part of the interview? (Pg 209)

    • A.

      Rapport

    • B.

      Orientation

    • C.

      Motivation

    • D.

      Closing

    Correct Answer
    B. Orientation
    Explanation
    This statement might be made by an interviewer in the orientation part of the interview. During the orientation phase, the interviewer typically starts by discussing the candidate's resume, work experiences, interests, and educational background to get to know them better. This phase is usually followed by giving the candidate an opportunity to ask questions.

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  • 46. 

    "Which area of operations do you feel deserves increased attention this year? Fire supervision, fire prevention, or emergency medical services?" This is an example of which type of question? (Pg 213)

    • A.

      Loaded

    • B.

      Third-person

    • C.

      Open

    • D.

      Closed

    Correct Answer
    D. Closed
    Explanation
    This question is an example of a closed question. Closed questions are those that have limited answer options and require the respondent to choose from a set of predetermined options. In this case, the question provides three specific areas of operations (fire supervision, fire prevention, or emergency medical services) and asks the respondent to select which one they feel deserves increased attention. This limits the possible answers and does not allow for open-ended responses or additional explanations.

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  • 47. 

    Informational interviews (Pg 205)

    • A.

      Are one of the least often used.

    • B.

      Are recommended before going on actual interviews.

    • C.

      Take approximately 30 minutes.

    • D.

      Are most effective when detailed notes are taken.

    Correct Answer
    B. Are recommended before going on actual interviews.
    Explanation
    Informational interviews are recommended before going on actual interviews. This is because informational interviews provide an opportunity for individuals to gather information about a specific field, company, or job role from someone who is already working in that field. It helps individuals gain insights, advice, and guidance, which can be beneficial in preparing for actual interviews. Therefore, conducting informational interviews before going on actual interviews is recommended.

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  • 48. 

    Empathic listening, careful paraphrasing, and nonevaluative feedback are particularly necessary communication skills for the _________________ interview. (Pg 201)

    • A.

      Employment

    • B.

      Grievance

    • C.

      Group

    • D.

      Counseling

    Correct Answer
    D. Counseling
    Explanation
    Empathic listening, careful paraphrasing, and nonevaluative feedback are essential communication skills for the counseling interview. In a counseling setting, it is crucial for the interviewer to actively listen to the client's concerns, rephrase their statements to ensure understanding, and provide feedback that is non-judgmental and supportive. These skills help create a safe and trusting environment for the client, allowing them to express their thoughts and emotions freely. Therefore, counseling is the appropriate context for the application of these communication skills.

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  • 49. 

    In a group interview, interviewees should (Pg 204)

    • A.

      Always try to speak first so that they will be eager and participatory.

    • B.

      Speak to the interviewer who asked the question.

    • C.

      Make their answers direct and brief.

    • D.

      All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    C. Make their answers direct and brief.
    Explanation
    In a group interview, it is important for interviewees to make their answers direct and brief. This is because in a group setting, time is limited and there are multiple candidates who need to answer the questions. By providing concise and to-the-point answers, interviewees can ensure that they effectively communicate their thoughts without taking up too much time. This also shows that they are able to articulate their ideas clearly and concisely, which is a valuable skill in many professional settings.

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  • 50. 

    When there are FEWER interviewers than interviewees, the interview is called a (Pg 203)

    • A.

      Group interview.

    • B.

      Board interview.

    • C.

      Panel interview.

    • D.

      Grievance interview.

    Correct Answer
    B. Board interview.
    Explanation
    A board interview is conducted when there are fewer interviewers than interviewees. In this type of interview, a small group of individuals from the organization's board of directors or senior management team interview the candidate. This format allows for a more personalized and focused interview experience, as the board members can ask specific questions and assess the candidate's fit for the organization's leadership positions.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 27, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Patrickamy10
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