Medsurg Blood, Lymph & Immune

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  • 1/76 Questions

    An RN requests the LPNs assistance, as policy requires two nurses be involved in the administration of a blood transfusion.  The LPN observes that the patient's date of birth on the blood bag is incorrect.  What would be the appropriate action for the LPN?

    • Inform the RN, document the discrepancy, and continue with the transfusion
    • Advise the RN and leave her/him to administer the transfusion alone
    • Throw the blood bag out and request a new unit of blood from the blood bank
    • Notify the RN of the discrepancy and do not administer the blood. Inform the blood bank and return the blood to the bank
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About This Quiz

This MedSurg Blood, Lymph & Immune quiz assesses knowledge on lymphatic system components, immune cell functions, and diagnostic steps for HIV. It's designed to enhance understanding of immune mechanisms and prepare for medical exams.

Immune System Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    The LPN requests that an RN assists in beginning a blood transfusion.  After successfully identifying the patient and confirming that the information on the blood bag is correct the infusion is started.  What would be the appropriate action for the LPN to take next?

    • Check on your other patients while the transfusion is running

    • Remain with patient and take vital signs 15 minutes into the transfusion, observing for adverse reactions

    • Advise the CNA to remain with the patient and notify you of any observed changes

    • Administer O2 at 2Lvia nasal cannula to ensure that the patient's oxygen saturation levels remain stable

    Correct Answer
    A. Remain with patient and take vital signs 15 minutes into the transfusion, observing for adverse reactions
    Explanation
    Only a small amount of blood will trigger a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Most adverse reactions occur within the first 15 minutes. Signs & symptoms include hypotension, fever, tachycardia and tachypnea which can be observed when taking vital signs. Remaining with the patient enables early detection which can minimize complications

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  • 3. 

    An LPN is removing an IV from a patient with ITP.  What action should be taken during the IV removal?

    • Avoid the use of band-aid

    • Maintain pressure to control bleeding

    • Clean IV site with NS

    • Send the IV catheter for testing after removal

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintain pressure to control bleeding
    Explanation
    Control of bleeding is essential in care of patients with bleeding disorders.

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  • 4. 

    Due to an increase in WBCs, a person diagnosed with leukemia is NOT prone to infection.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Even though the WBC count in a patient with leukemia is high, the WBCs are immature and are not able to fight infection.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is NOT part of the lymphatic system

    • Lymph nodes

    • Spleen

    • Hypothalamus

    • Lymphatic vessels

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypothalamus
    Explanation
    Lymphatic vessels help to return tissue fluid to the circulatory system. Lymph nodes and nodules are masses of lymphatic tissue. Macrophages in the spleen phagocytize pathogens.

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  • 6. 

    What is true about B cells and T cells.

    • Both are formed in the red bone marrow, with T cells maturing in the Thymus and B cells maturing in the bone marrow.

    • T cells are formed in the thymus

    • B cells are formed in the thymus

    • B cells and T cells are both formed in the spleen

    Correct Answer
    A. Both are formed in the red bone marrow, with T cells maturing in the Thymus and B cells maturing in the bone marrow.
    Explanation
    B cells and T cells are both formed in the red bone marrow. T cells migrate to the thymus to mature before moving to the lymph nodes, nodules, and spleen. B cells remain in the bone marrow to mature and them move directly to the lymphatic tissue.

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  • 7. 

    A blood transfusion is ordered for a patient with a peripheral IV infusion located in the right forearm running Lactated ringers at 80ml/hour.  The nurse begins to prepare another line in the left a/c for the ordered transfusion.  The patient requests that the nurse use the existing site.  Which statement made by the nurse is correct? 

    • I will need to infuse the blood transfusion using a separate line

    • I will ask the doctor if he will approve it

    • That is a good idea since I won't have to stick you again

    • I will just wait to start the blood transfusion

    Correct Answer
    A. I will need to infuse the blood transfusion using a separate line
    Explanation
    Blood transfusions must be administered via a separate IV line with NS and blood tubing containing a filter that removes harmful particles.

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  • 8. 

    A patient who was tested for HIV after a recent exposure had a negative result.  During the post-test counseling session, the nurse tells the patient which of the following?

    • The test should be repeated in 6 months

    • This ensures that you are not infected with the HIV virus

    • You no longer need to protect yourself from sexual partners

    • You probably have immunity to the AIDS virus

    Correct Answer
    A. The test should be repeated in 6 months
    Explanation
    Test should be repeated in 6 months due to a possible false-negative result early in the infection

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  • 9. 

    A patient is diagnosed with HIV.  The nurse prepares a care plan for the patient knowing that HIV is primarily a condition in which?

    • Immunosuppression occurs and is indicated by a T4 lymphocyte count of less than 200/mm3

    • Bacterial infection occurs, causing weakness

    • Fungal infection occurs, causing a rash and pruritus

    • Protozoan infection occurs, causing a fever and non productive cough

    Correct Answer
    A. Immunosuppression occurs and is indicated by a T4 lymphocyte count of less than 200/mm3
    Explanation
    HIV causes immunosuppression and is indicated by a T4 lymphocyte count of less than 200/mm3. Although bacterial, fungal, and protozoa infections can occur, these occur as opportunistic infection as a result of immunosuppression

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  • 10. 

    A patient with AIDS has a nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements.  The nurse plans which of the following goals with this patient?

    • Consume foods and beverages that are high in glucose

    • Plan large menus and cook meals in advance

    • Eat low-calorie snacks between meals

    • Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day

    Correct Answer
    A. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
    Explanation
    Patient with imbalance nutrition should eat small frequent meals throughout the day that are high calorie/high protein. Anti-emetics should be given for N/V as well as vitamin/nutritional supplements

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following blood components is decreased in anemia

    • Erythrocytes

    • Granulocytes

    • Leukocytes

    • Platelets

    Correct Answer
    A. Erythrocytes
    Explanation
    Anemia is the decrease in red blood cells

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  • 12. 

    A blood transfusion is ordered for a patient.  As the nurse explains the procedure, the patient advises that he has had an adverse reaction during a previous blood transfusion. What would be appropriate action for the nurse to take?

    • Inform the patient that the blood has been checked against his blood type and continue with the infusion

    • Hold the transfusion and inform the Doctor of previous reaction

    • Administer corticosteroids prior to giving the infusion

    • Flush the IV line with NS prior to administering the infusion

    Correct Answer
    A. Hold the transfusion and inform the Doctor of previous reaction
    Explanation
    The appropriate action for the nurse to take would be to hold the transfusion and inform the doctor of the patient's previous adverse reaction. This is important because the patient's safety is paramount, and the doctor needs to be aware of the potential risk before proceeding with the transfusion.

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  • 13. 

    A patient is diagnosed with late stage HIV.  She and her family are extremely upset about the diagnosis.  The priority psychosocial nursing intervention for the client and family is to?

    • Tell the client and family to stop smoking because it will predispose the client to respiratory infections

    • Tell the client and family that raw or improperly washed foods can produce microbes

    • Encourage the patient and family to discuss their feelings about the disease

    • Advise the patient to avoid becoming pregnant because of the risk of transmission of the infection

    Correct Answer
    A. Encourage the patient and family to discuss their feelings about the disease
    Explanation
    Discussing feeling about the disease is a psychosocial intervention

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  • 14. 

    A patient with pernicious anemia asks why she must take vitamin B12 injections for the rest of her life.  What is the nurse's best response?

    • "Your vitamin deficiency is an inability to absorb the vitamin because the stomach is not producing sufficient acid"

    • "Your vitamin deficiency is an inability to absorb the vitamin because the stomach is not producing sufficient intrinsic factor."

    • "Your vitamin deficiency is due to an excessive excretion of the vitamin because of kidney dysfunction."

    • "Your vitamin deficiency is due to an increased requirement for the vitamin because of rapid red blood cell production."

    Correct Answer
    A. "Your vitamin deficiency is an inability to absorb the vitamin because the stomach is not producing sufficient intrinsic factor."
    Explanation
    Patients with pernicious anemia have deficient production of intrinsic factor in the stomach, which is needed for the body to absorb vitamin B12

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  • 15. 

    What are the functions of T cells in cell mediated immunity?

    • Helper T cells stimulate B cells

    • T cells attach to infected cells for transport to the kidneys in order to be excreted in urine

    • They alert WBCs of foreign objects

    • Helper T cells (CD4) stimulate Killer T cells (CD8) which are cytotoxic and lyse infected cells, malignant cells, or foreign tissue. Memory T cells remember for future invasion

    Correct Answer
    A. Helper T cells (CD4) stimulate Killer T cells (CD8) which are cytotoxic and lyse infected cells, malignant cells, or foreign tissue. Memory T cells remember for future invasion
    Explanation
    Cell-mediated immunity only involves T cells.

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  • 16. 

    A patient receiving clotting factor VIII has this hematologic disorder?

    • Thrombodytopenia

    • Anemia

    • Hemophilia A

    • Splenectomy

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemophilia A
    Explanation
    Hemophilia A is the correct answer because it is a hematologic disorder characterized by a deficiency or dysfunction of clotting factor VIII. This disorder leads to impaired blood clotting, resulting in prolonged bleeding and easy bruising. Thrombocytopenia refers to a low platelet count, anemia refers to a low red blood cell count, and splenectomy refers to the surgical removal of the spleen, none of which are specifically related to clotting factor VIII deficiency.

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  • 17. 

    An anemic patient would be fatigued due to what?

    • CO2 deficiency

    • Oxygen deficiency

    • Factor IX

    • B-cell antibodies

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxygen deficiency
    Explanation
    Anemia is the decrease of RBCs which causes a decrease in the O2 carried in the blood

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  • 18. 

    A patient arrives to the emergency room and has a normal blood volume but has a decrease in RBCs and Hgb, What type of blood transfusion would they need?

    • Packed red blood cells

    • Platelets

    • Plasma

    • Frozen red blood cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Packed red blood cells
    Explanation
    Packed red blood cells contain no plasma and are used when blood volume is normal. Platelets are given to a patient with active bleeding and a low platelet count. Plasma is given to patients with bleeding disorders and are used to replace blood volume. Frozen red blood cells are taken from a patient prior to surgery.

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  • 19. 

    The ability to destroy pathogens, foreign materials, or prevent future invasion by the same organism is called?

    • Neutralization

    • Auto-sensitivity

    • Immunity

    • Inflammation

    Correct Answer
    A. Immunity
    Explanation
    Immunity refers to the body's ability to defend itself against pathogens, foreign materials, or prevent future invasion by the same organism. It involves the recognition and response to specific antigens, which can be achieved through the production of antibodies or activation of immune cells. Immunity plays a crucial role in protecting the body from infections and diseases, and can be acquired naturally or through vaccination.

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  • 20. 

    One of the most important teaching for a patient with polycythemia is to drink at least 3 L of water daily.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Drinking at least 3 liters of water daily increases fluid volume and in turn reduces blood viscosity.

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  • 21. 

    Many studies show that breastfeeding a newborn provides them with antibodies that help protect them against infection.  What type of immunity is this?

    • Naturally acquired passive immunity

    • Artificially acquired passive immunity

    • Naturally acquired active immunity

    • Artificially acquired active immunity

    Correct Answer
    A. Naturally acquired passive immunity
    Explanation
    Passive immunity occurs when antibodies are NOT produced by the person. Active immunity occurs when a person produces their own antibodies due to illness or vaccine. Naturally acquired passive immunity is a result in placental or breast milk transmission from a mother to newborn.

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  • 22. 

    The nurse is assisting with data collection.  Which of the following past surgeries found in the history may influence immune system dysfunction?

    • Splenectomy

    • Thyroidectomy

    • Pneumonectomy

    • Parathyroidectomy

    Correct Answer
    A. Splenectomy
    Explanation
    Removal of the spleen results in altered lymphocyte and plasma cell production which affects the humoral ummune response.

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  • 23. 

    Before beginning a blood transfusion what assessment of the patient will the nurse make?

    • Hematocrit level

    • Urine output

    • Prothrombin time

    • Vital signs

    Correct Answer
    A. Vital signs
    Explanation
    Baseline vital signs should be taken for comparison in case of adverse reaction.

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  • 24. 

    What is the MOST effective treatment for aplastic anemia?

    • Bone marrow transplant

    • Blood transfusion

    • Steroids

    • Colony-stimulating factors

    Correct Answer
    A. Bone marrow transplant
    Explanation
    Each treatment listed is used to treat aplastic anemia, but a bone marrow transplant is the most effective.

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  • 25. 

    What would be the appropriate treatment for a patient whose spleen is enlarged or whose spleen function is causing too many RBCs & Platelets to be removed from the blood would?

    • Increase fluid intake

    • Blood transfusion

    • Chemotherapy

    • Splenectomy

    Correct Answer
    A. Splenectomy
    Explanation
    Splenectomy would be the appropriate treatment for a patient whose spleen is enlarged or whose spleen function is causing too many RBCs and platelets to be removed from the blood. A splenectomy is the surgical removal of the spleen, which helps to alleviate the excessive removal of red blood cells and platelets from the bloodstream. This procedure can effectively treat conditions such as an enlarged spleen, certain blood disorders, and immune system disorders.

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  • 26. 

    What would the nurse caring for a patient diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation syndrome include in her patient teaching?

    • Eat green leafy vegetables

    • Increase fluid intake

    • Keep record of intake and output

    • Observe for bleeding and bruising

    Correct Answer
    A. Observe for bleeding and bruising
    Explanation
    The nurse caring for a patient diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation syndrome would include in her patient teaching to observe for bleeding and bruising. This is because disseminated intravascular coagulation syndrome is a condition characterized by abnormal blood clotting and excessive bleeding. Therefore, it is important for the patient to be aware of any signs of bleeding or bruising so that prompt medical attention can be sought if necessary.

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  • 27. 

    Following a CBC result that showed low values of RBCs, WBCs, and Platelets, it is assumed that a patient suffers from aplastic anemia.  What test would confirm this diagnosis?

    • Bleeding Time

    • Lymph Node Biopsy

    • Bone Marrow Biopsy

    • Prothrombin Time

    Correct Answer
    A. Bone Marrow Biopsy
    Explanation
    The most definitive test is a bone marrow biopsy. The bone marrow will be dead, with only pale, fatty, yellow bone marrow extracted.

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  • 28. 

    What equipment would be needed for the administration of a blood transfusion? (select all that apply)

    • Normal Saline

    • Lactated Ringers

    • Tubing with a filter

    • #18 or #20 gauge IV catheter

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Normal Saline
    A. Tubing with a filter
    A. #18 or #20 gauge IV catheter
    Explanation
    All blood is hung with Normal Saline and special tubing containing a filter that filters out harmful particles. An #18 or #20 gauge catheter is appropriate for the viscosity and amount to be transfused.

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  • 29. 

    A nurse monitoring a postoperative patient after a splenectomy notes that the patient's temperature is 102. What would be the appropriate action for the nurse to take?

    • Encourage TCDB

    • Notify the MD

    • Continue monitoring VS

    • Give the patient tylenol

    Correct Answer
    A. Notify the MD
    Explanation
    MD should be notified for any temperature over 101. TCDB would be appropriate for patients with a low grade fever.

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  • 30. 

    A 69 y/o male arrives to the emergency department with a flu-like symptoms and a fever.  His wife states that he has had a splenectomy in 14 years ago.  You would assess that the patient is most likely suffering from?

    • Overwhelming Post Splenectomy Infection

    • Food poisoning

    • Polycythemia

    • Hemophilia

    Correct Answer
    A. Overwhelming Post Splenectomy Infection
    Explanation
    OPSI begins with a fever and malaise and quickly progresses to sepsis and death within a few hours. Strep & Flu are the #1 causes

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  • 31. 

    What would be the next course of action following a positive ELISA HIV test?

    • Advise the patient that they should begin to see symptoms within the next 2-3 weeks

    • Patient is started on antiretroviral agents

    • Western blot test is performed

    • None. A positive ELISA test is good news

    Correct Answer
    A. Western blot test is performed
    Explanation
    The ELISA test is used to determine if HIV antibodies are present. A positive test will then need to beconfirmed by the Western Blot test which determines if HIV antigens are present.

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  • 32. 

    A nurse is giving discharge instruction to a patient that has had a splenectomy.  What would NOT be part of the patient teaching given by the nurse?

    • Keep Flu & Pneumonia vaccinations current

    • Notify MD immediately if you have any new abdominal pain

    • The kidneys will now take over the functions of the spleen

    • You must notify the MD immediately if you have strep or flu

    Correct Answer
    A. The kidneys will now take over the functions of the spleen
    Explanation
    The liver and red bone marrow will remove RBCs from circulation. A person without a spleen is not more susceptible to infections such as flu and pneumonia. Abdominal pain may be due to formation of a fistula due to pancreatitis. Overwhelming Post Splenectomy Infection (OPSI) can occur up to 20 years post op which is caused by strep & flu

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  • 33. 

    Chemical markers that identify cells or molecules are called?

    • Antigens

    • Antibodies

    • Lymphocytes

    • Natural Killer Cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Antigens
    Explanation
    The human body has "self" antigens that identify cells belonging to the body. If antigens of foreign cells do not match, they are recognized and destroyed.

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  • 34. 

    What are IgE antibodies responsible for?

    • Provides passive immunity in newborns

    • First antibodies produces during an infection

    • Provide immunity following a vaccination or illness

    • Response to allergic reactions and cause release of histamine which cause an inflammatory response

    Correct Answer
    A. Response to allergic reactions and cause release of histamine which cause an inflammatory response
    Explanation
    IgE antibodies are important in allergic reactions. IgG antibodies cross the placenta to provide immunity to newborns and also provide immunity after a vaccine or illness. IgM antibodies are produced first during an infection.

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  • 35. 

    The nurse understands that the client with pernicious anemia will have which distinguishing laboratory finding?

    • Schilling's test, elevated

    • Intrinsic factor, absent

    • Sedimentation rate, 16 mm/hour

    • RBCs 5.0 million

    Correct Answer
    A. Intrinsic factor, absent
    Explanation
    Pernicious anemia is due to antibodies that destroy gastric parietal cells leading to a decreased production of intrinsic factor.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following results from a deficiency of factor VIII?

    • Sickle cell disease

    • Christmas disease

    • Hemophilia A

    • Hemophilia B

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemophilia A
    Explanation
    Hemophilia A results from a deficiency of factor VIII

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  • 37. 

    The nurse is preparing to teach a client with microcytic hypochromic anemia about the diet to follow after discharge.  which of the following foods should be included in the diet?

    • Eggs

    • Lettuce

    • Citrus fruits

    • Cheese

    Correct Answer
    A. Eggs
    Explanation
    Foods high in iron include eggs, organ and muscle meats, shellfish, shrimp, tuna, whole-grain and fortified cereals and breads, legumes, nuts, dried fruits, beans, oatmeal, and sweet potatoes

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  • 38. 

    A patient receiving a blood transfusion begins to complain of low back pain.  You observe that he begins to wheeze, has chills, and is SOB.  The nurse would know that this is probably what type of reaction?

    • A normal reaction to receiving new blood

    • Hemolytic transfusion reaction

    • The blood is cold and needs to be warmed

    • Anaphylactic reaction

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemolytic transfusion reaction
    Explanation
    Signs and symptoms of a hemolytic transfusion reaction are low back or chest pain, hypotension, fever, chills, tachycardia, tachypnea, wheezing, edema, cough, hives, N/V. An anaphylactic reaction would result in narrowing of the bronchial, wheezing and respiratory arrest.

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  • 39. 

    How long does passive immunity last?

    • Temporary

    • For life

    • 15 minutes

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Temporary
    Explanation
    Passive immunity is acquired through the transfer of antibodies from another source, such as through breastfeeding or receiving a vaccine. Unlike active immunity, which is developed by the body's own immune system, passive immunity is temporary because the transferred antibodies eventually break down and are eliminated from the body. Therefore, the correct answer is "Temporary."

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  • 40. 

    A nurse would monitor for changes in which of the following when caring for a patient diagnosed with aplastic anemia?

    • Bleeding tendencies

    • Intake and output

    • Peripheral sensation

    • Bowel function

    Correct Answer
    A. Bleeding tendencies
    Explanation
    Aplastic anemia decreases the bone marrow production of RBCs, WBCs and platelets. Due to platelet decrease, the patient is at an increased risk for bleeding and bruising.

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  • 41. 

    A 14 y/o that had chicken pox when she was 9 has developed what type of immunity?

    • Artificially acquired passive immunity

    • Naturally acquired passive immunity

    • Naturally acquired active immunity

    • Artificially acquired active immunity

    Correct Answer
    A. Naturally acquired active immunity
    Explanation
    The 14-year-old who had chickenpox when she was 9 has developed naturally acquired active immunity. This means that her immune system has produced antibodies in response to the infection, providing long-term protection against future chickenpox infections.

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  • 42. 

    What type of anemia is due to bone marrow not producing adequate RBCs?

    • Polycythemia

    • Pernicious anemia

    • Aplastic anemia

    • Iron deficiency anemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Aplastic anemia
    Explanation
    Also known as hypoplastic anemia, the bone marrow becomes fatty and is unable to produce the needed amount of RBCs. Pancytopenia is also a result.

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  • 43. 

    A patient has an order for a unit of packed RBCs to be administered.  At 0600 the transfusion is started.  At 1000, it is noted that the IV line has clotted with only 80% of the transfusion complete.  What intervention should the nurse take?

    • Call the blood bank and order another unit of blood

    • Flush the line with NS and continue to infuse the remaining 20%

    • Discontinue the blood infusion, notify the blood bank and document the findings

    • Start another IV line and continue to infuse the remaining 20%

    Correct Answer
    A. Discontinue the blood infusion, notify the blood bank and document the findings
    Explanation
    Blood must be infused within 4 hours or be discontinued. Blood and packaging should be returned to the blood bank.

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  • 44. 

    A patient with a Hemoglobin level of 20 mg/dL, and a Hematocrit level of 61% will be undergoing phlebotomy treatment.  What is the purpose of this treatment?

    • To remove RBCs and decrease the viscosity

    • To remove RBCs, WBCs and platelets which decreases the viscosity

    • To increase the amount of RBCs

    • To increase fluid volume

    Correct Answer
    A. To remove RBCs and decrease the viscosity
    Explanation
    The removal of the concentration of RBC will decrease the thickness of the patients blood

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  • 45. 

    How would a nurse administer clotting factors to a patient with severe hemophilia?

    • Mix into applesauce and give to the patient PO

    • Reconstitute with water and administer via IV

    • Subcutaneous injection

    • Sublingual

    Correct Answer
    A. Reconstitute with water and administer via IV
    Explanation
    Clotting factors are available as a freeze-dried powder that must be reconstituted with water.

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  • 46. 

    A patient suspected of having leukemia has a CBC that shows there is an increase of immature WBC. What test would be performed to confirm the diagnosis?

    • Urinalysis

    • PTT

    • ELISA

    • Bone marrow aspiration

    Correct Answer
    A. Bone marrow aspiration
    Explanation
    A bone marrow aspiration would be performed to confirm the diagnosis of leukemia in a patient with an increase of immature white blood cells (WBC) in their complete blood count (CBC). This test involves taking a sample of the patient's bone marrow, usually from the hip bone, and examining it under a microscope to assess the presence of abnormal cells or other signs of leukemia. This procedure is considered the gold standard for diagnosing leukemia and can provide important information about the type and stage of the disease.

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  • 47. 

    A patient is pre-op for a splenectomy.  What would most likely be administered prior to surgery?

    • Blood transfusion

    • Normal saline

    • Vitamin K

    • Both A and C

    Correct Answer
    A. Both A and C
    Explanation
    Pre-op care for a patient having a splenectomy include blood transfusion if they anemic and vitamin K for bleeding.

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  • 48. 

    The hematologic disorder in which there is a overabundance of red blood cells causing the blood to become thick is known as?

    • Hemophilia

    • Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

    • Polycythemia

    • Multiple Myeloma

    Correct Answer
    A. Polycythemia
    Explanation
    Poly = many, cyt = cells, emia = in the blood

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  • 49. 

    The destruction of platelets by the immune system that results in an increased risk for bleeding is called?

    • Anemia

    • Leukemia

    • Idopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

    • Hemophilia

    Correct Answer
    A. Idopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
    Explanation
    ITP is an immune system dysfunction that results in antibodies causing the destruction of platelets

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  • Mar 21, 2023
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  • Sep 19, 2014
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