Honors Biology Final Review

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Honors Biology Final Review - Quiz


Quiz Description


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Anions

    • A.

      Have a negative charge

    • B.

      Have a positive charge

    • C.

      Are formed when they gain an electron

    • D.

      Are formed when they lose an electron

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Have a negative charge
    C. Are formed when they gain an electron
    Explanation
    Anions are negatively charged ions. They are formed when an atom gains one or more electrons. When an atom gains an electron, it becomes negatively charged because the number of electrons exceeds the number of protons. Therefore, the correct answer is "Have a negative charge" and "Are formed when they gain an electron".

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  • 2. 

    Cations

    • A.

      Have a negative charge

    • B.

      Have a positive charge

    • C.

      Are formed when they gain an electron

    • D.

      Are formed when they lose an electron

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Have a positive charge
    D. Are formed when they lose an electron
    Explanation
    Cations are formed when atoms lose electrons. This loss of electrons creates a positive charge on the cation. Therefore, the correct answer is "Have a positive charge" and "Are formed when they lose an electron".

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  • 3. 

    All cells use energy carried by ___________ 

    Correct Answer(s)
    phosphate
    ATP
    Explanation
    All cells use energy carried by phosphate and ATP. Phosphate is an essential component of ATP, which is the main energy currency in cells. When ATP is broken down into ADP (adenosine diphosphate) and inorganic phosphate, energy is released and can be used by cells for various processes such as muscle contraction, active transport, and synthesis of molecules. Therefore, both phosphate and ATP play crucial roles in cellular energy metabolism.

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  • 4. 

    What are the reactants and products of the light dependent reaction in photosynthesis

    • A.

      Reactants: water and sunlight

    • B.

      Products: ATP/energy

    • C.

      Products: sugar

    • D.

      Reactants: 6O2 and ADP/energy

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Reactants: water and sunlight
    B. Products: ATP/energy
    Explanation
    The light dependent reaction in photosynthesis involves the conversion of light energy into chemical energy. Water and sunlight are the reactants in this process, as water molecules are broken down to release electrons and oxygen, while sunlight provides the energy needed for this reaction to occur. The products of the light dependent reaction are ATP (adenosine triphosphate) and energy, which are used to power the subsequent reactions in photosynthesis. The given answer correctly identifies water and sunlight as the reactants and ATP/energy as the products of the light dependent reaction.

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  • 5. 

    What are the reactants and products of the light independent reaction in photosynthesis

    • A.

      Reactants: water and sunlight

    • B.

      Products: ATP/energy

    • C.

      Products: sugar

    • D.

      Reactants: 6O2 and ADP/energy

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Products: sugar
    D. Reactants: 6O2 and ADP/energy
    Explanation
    The given answer is incorrect. The reactants of the light-independent reaction in photosynthesis are carbon dioxide (CO2) and ATP/energy. The products of this reaction are sugar (glucose) and ADP/energy.

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  • 6. 

    Select all true about GLYCOLYSIS: (4 Answers)

    • A.

      Breaks a 6 carbon glucose into 2 molecules of pyruvic acid each which have 2 carbons

    • B.

      It is an anaerobic process (no oxygen)

    • C.

      Its a aerobic process (yes oxygen)

    • D.

      Takes place in the cytoplasm

    • E.

      Makes 2 ATP

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Breaks a 6 carbon glucose into 2 molecules of pyruvic acid each which have 2 carbons
    B. It is an anaerobic process (no oxygen)
    D. Takes place in the cytoplasm
    E. Makes 2 ATP
    Explanation
    GLYCOLYSIS is a metabolic pathway that breaks down a 6 carbon glucose molecule into two molecules of pyruvic acid, each containing 2 carbons. It is an anaerobic process, meaning it does not require oxygen. GLYCOLYSIS takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell and results in the production of 2 ATP molecules.

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  • 7. 

    Select all true about GLYCOLYSIS:(4 answers)

    • A.

      Makes 2 ATP

    • B.

      Breaks a 6 carbon glucose into 2 molecules of pyruvic acid each which have 2 carbons

    • C.

      Its a aerobic process (yes oxygen)

    • D.

      It is an anaerobic process (no oxygen)

    • E.

      Takes place in the cytoplasm

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Makes 2 ATP
    B. Breaks a 6 carbon glucose into 2 molecules of pyruvic acid each which have 2 carbons
    D. It is an anaerobic process (no oxygen)
    E. Takes place in the cytoplasm
    Explanation
    GLYCOLYSIS is a metabolic pathway that breaks down a 6 carbon glucose molecule into 2 molecules of pyruvic acid, each containing 2 carbons. It is an anaerobic process, meaning it does not require oxygen. It takes place in the cytoplasm of cells. Additionally, it produces 2 ATP molecules, which are a source of energy for cellular processes.

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  • 8. 

    Select all true about KREBS CYCLE: (4 answers)

    • A.

      Breakdown of the 3 carbon molecules of pyruvic acid in GLYCOLYSIS

    • B.

      Makes 2 ATP

    • C.

      Takes place in the interior mitochondria

    • D.

      CO2 is one main product

    • E.

      Its before Glycolysis

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Breakdown of the 3 carbon molecules of pyruvic acid in GLYCOLYSIS
    B. Makes 2 ATP
    C. Takes place in the interior mitochondria
    D. CO2 is one main product
    Explanation
    The Krebs cycle involves the breakdown of the 3 carbon molecules of pyruvic acid in glycolysis. It produces 2 ATP molecules and takes place in the interior of the mitochondria. One of the main products of the Krebs cycle is CO2.

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  • 9. 

    Select all true about ELECTRON TRANSPORT CHAIN: (3 answers)

    • A.

      Oxygen enters the process to make h2o

    • B.

      Makes 32 ATP

    • C.

      Takes place in the inner membrane of the mitochondria

    • D.

      CO2 is one main product

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Oxygen enters the process to make h2o
    B. Makes 32 ATP
    C. Takes place in the inner membrane of the mitochondria
    Explanation
    The electron transport chain is a series of protein complexes located in the inner membrane of the mitochondria. It is responsible for the production of ATP through oxidative phosphorylation. Oxygen is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain, and it combines with hydrogen ions to form water (H2O). This process generates a total of 32 ATP molecules. The electron transport chain does not produce CO2 as a main product; instead, CO2 is produced during the Krebs cycle.

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  • 10. 

    What equation is this?

    Correct Answer(s)
    Photosynthesis
  • 11. 

    What is this equation?

    Correct Answer(s)
    Respiration
    cellular respiration
    Explanation
    The equation mentioned in the answer is likely referring to the process of cellular respiration, which is the process by which cells convert glucose and oxygen into carbon dioxide, water, and energy in the form of ATP. This process is essential for the survival of cells and organisms, as it provides the energy needed for various cellular functions.

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  • 12. 

    In what phase(S) does the chromosome take on the form?

    • A.

      G2

    • B.

      S

    • C.

      Telophase

    • D.

      Prophase

    • E.

      Metaphase

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. G2
    B. S
    D. Prophase
    E. Metaphase
    Explanation
    During the G2 phase of the cell cycle, the chromosome takes on the X form. This is because the DNA has replicated during the S phase and each chromosome now consists of two identical sister chromatids held together at the centromere. In prophase and metaphase, the chromosomes condense further and become visible under a microscope, but they do not specifically take on the X form. Therefore, the correct answer is G2.

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  • 13. 

    In what phase(S) does the chromosome take on the > (single lined) form?

    • A.

      G1

    • B.

      Cytokinesis

    • C.

      Anaphase

    • D.

      Metaphase

    • E.

      Telophase

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. G1
    B. Cytokinesis
    C. Anaphase
    E. Telophase
    Explanation
    During the G1 phase of the cell cycle, the chromosome takes on a single lined form. The G1 phase is the first phase of interphase, where the cell grows and carries out its normal functions. Cytokinesis is the phase where the cytoplasm divides, resulting in two separate daughter cells. Anaphase is the phase where the sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles of the cell. Telophase is the final phase of mitosis, where the chromosomes decondense and nuclear envelopes form around each set of chromosomes.

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  • 14. 

    Homologous Chromosomes are ones that come from _____________

    Correct Answer(s)
    each parent
    Explanation
    Homologous chromosomes are pairs of chromosomes that come from each parent. In humans, each parent contributes 23 chromosomes, resulting in a total of 46 chromosomes. Homologous chromosomes have the same genes in the same order but may have different versions of those genes (alleles). During meiosis, homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange genetic material through a process called recombination, leading to genetic diversity in offspring.

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  • 15. 

    An allele is:

    • A.

      A different form of a gene

    • B.

      The genetic information inside a gene

    Correct Answer
    A. A different form of a gene
    Explanation
    An allele refers to a different form or variant of a gene. Genes are segments of DNA that contain the instructions for the development and functioning of living organisms. Each gene can have multiple alleles, which are alternative versions of the same gene that can result in different traits or characteristics. These alleles can differ in their DNA sequence, resulting in variations in the expression or function of the gene. Therefore, the correct answer is "A different form of a gene."

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  • 16. 

    An phenotype is:

    • A.

      A different form of a gene

    • B.

      What is expressed on the outside "what we see"

    Correct Answer
    B. What is expressed on the outside "what we see"
    Explanation
    A phenotype refers to the observable characteristics or traits of an organism, which are determined by the expression of genes. It represents what is visible or expressed on the outside, such as physical appearance, behavior, or other observable traits. This answer accurately describes the concept of a phenotype being the manifestation of genetic information in an organism's observable traits.

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  • 17. 

    What is NOT true about REPLICATION?

    • A.

      The making of an identical copy of itself (genetic info)

    • B.

      Takes place in cytoplasm in prokaryotic cells

    • C.

      Takes place in cytoplasm in eukaryotic cells

    • D.

      Takes place in nucleus in eukaryotic cells

    • E.

      The steps are: 1. DNA must unzip 2. Bases line up 3. Backbone bonds

    Correct Answer
    C. Takes place in cytoplasm in eukaryotic cells
    Explanation
    Replication does not take place in the cytoplasm in eukaryotic cells. In eukaryotic cells, replication occurs in the nucleus. The cytoplasm is the location where other cellular processes, such as protein synthesis, take place. Replication involves the unwinding of DNA, the lining up of bases, and the bonding of the backbone, but the location of these steps varies between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

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  • 18. 

    What is NOT true about TRANSCRIPTION?

    • A.

      It is the conversion of DNA to RNA

    • B.

      It is the conversion of RNA to DNA

    • C.

      RNA acts a messenger between nucleus and protein synthesis in cytoplasm

    • D.

      The steps are: 1. DNA unwinds a site (promoter) 2. An RNA strand is made using a complementary DNA strand 3. RNA strand detaches and DNA reconnects

    Correct Answer
    B. It is the conversion of RNA to DNA
    Explanation
    Transcription is the process of converting DNA into RNA, not the other way around. RNA acts as a messenger between the nucleus and protein synthesis in the cytoplasm. The steps of transcription include DNA unwinding at a specific site (promoter), the creation of an RNA strand using a complementary DNA strand, and the detachment of the RNA strand while the DNA reconnects.

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  • 19. 

    What is NOT true about TRANSLATION?

    • A.

      It is the interpretation of mRNA into a string of amino acids

    • B.

      It takes place in the cytoplasm in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

    Correct Answer
    B. It takes place in the cytoplasm in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
    Explanation
    Translation is the process of converting mRNA into a string of amino acids, which is true according to the given statement. However, it is not true that translation takes place in the cytoplasm in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. In prokaryotic cells, translation occurs in the cytoplasm, but in eukaryotic cells, it takes place in the cytoplasm on ribosomes or in the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

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  • 20. 

    A codon is three bases on an mRNA molecule that code for a specific amino acid 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A codon is a sequence of three bases on an mRNA molecule that corresponds to a specific amino acid. This means that each codon codes for a particular amino acid, which is essential for protein synthesis. Therefore, the statement "a codon is three bases on an mRNA molecule that code for a specific amino acid" is true.

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  • 21. 

    An anti-codon is three bases on a tRNA molecule that match up with the codons (are complementary to them) on the mRNA.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    An anti-codon is a sequence of three nucleotides on a tRNA molecule that is complementary to a specific codon on the mRNA. This complementary base pairing allows the tRNA to recognize and bind to the mRNA during protein synthesis. Therefore, the statement that an anti-codon matches up with the codons on the mRNA is true.

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  • 22. 

    Which is not a type of mutation?

    • A.

      Chromosomal mutation

    • B.

      Point mutation

    • C.

      Switched mutation

    • D.

      Frameshift mutation

    Correct Answer
    C. Switched mutation
    Explanation
    Switched mutation is not a recognized type of mutation. Chromosomal mutation refers to changes in the structure or number of chromosomes. Point mutation refers to a change in a single nucleotide base pair. Frameshift mutation refers to the insertion or deletion of nucleotide bases, causing a shift in the reading frame of the genetic code. However, switched mutation is not a commonly recognized term in the field of genetics and is not associated with any specific type of genetic alteration.

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  • 23. 

    What did Darwin find out about the animals living in S. America, Africa, and Australia? (2 answers)

    • A.

      Similar organisms lived in similar environments

    • B.

      Related yet different species lived in different habitats in a local area

    • C.

      They all looked the same

    • D.

      Extinct species fossils looked nothing like modern species

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Similar organisms lived in similar environments
    B. Related yet different species lived in different habitats in a local area
    Explanation
    Darwin found that similar organisms lived in similar environments, which suggests that the environment plays a significant role in shaping the characteristics and adaptations of species. He also discovered that related yet different species lived in different habitats in a local area, indicating that species diversify and adapt to their specific ecological niches. This supports the concept of natural selection and the idea that different environments can lead to the development of distinct species.

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  • 24. 

    Darwin found that tortoises shells varied based on the islands in the Galapagos Islands

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Darwin discovered that the shells of tortoises varied depending on the specific islands within the Galapagos archipelago. This observation supports the concept of adaptive radiation, where species adapt and evolve differently in different environments. The variation in tortoise shells is a result of natural selection acting on the populations of tortoises on each island, leading to unique shell characteristics that are suited to the specific conditions and resources available on each island.

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  • 25. 

    Darwin saw that the glyptodont and the armadillo were nothing alike

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False: the armadillo was almost a smaller version of the glyptodont and they lived in about the same region

    Correct Answer
    B. False: the armadillo was almost a smaller version of the glyptodont and they lived in about the same region
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that Darwin observed that the glyptodont and the armadillo were not similar to each other. However, the correct answer states that this statement is false. In reality, Darwin found that the armadillo was actually a smaller version of the glyptodont and that they lived in the same region.

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  • 26. 

    Is this order correct? Levels of Organization
    1. Ecosystem 
    2. Community
    3. Population
    4. Biome

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False: It is 1. Biome 2. Ecosystem 3. Community 4. Population

    Correct Answer
    B. False: It is 1. Biome 2. Ecosystem 3. Community 4. Population
    Explanation
    The given order of levels of organization is correct. The correct order is Biome, Ecosystem, Community, and Population. This order represents the hierarchical structure of ecological systems, starting from the largest and most inclusive level (biome) to the smallest and most specific level (population). A biome is a large geographical area characterized by its climate and vegetation. An ecosystem is a smaller unit within a biome, consisting of all living organisms and their physical environment. A community refers to the different populations of species living together in an ecosystem. Finally, a population refers to a group of individuals of the same species living in a specific area.

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  • 27. 

    A group of the same species that lives in one area

    • A.

      Population

    • B.

      Biome

    • C.

      Community

    • D.

      Ecosystem

    Correct Answer
    A. Population
    Explanation
    A population refers to a group of the same species that lives in one area. It specifically focuses on individuals of the same species and their interactions within a given geographic location. It does not include other species or the physical environment.

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  • 28. 

    community

    • A.

      The same species that lives in one area

    • B.

      All the organisms, climate, soil, water, rock

    • C.

      A group of different species that live in one area

    • D.

      Global community

    Correct Answer
    C. A group of different species that live in one area
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "a group of different species that live in one area." This answer accurately describes a community as a collection of various species that coexist in a specific geographical location. It implies that within this area, multiple organisms interact and depend on each other for survival, forming a complex ecological network. The other options either focus on a single species or fail to encompass the diversity of species within a community.

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  • 29. 

    abiotic factor= living  biotic factor= nonliving

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False: abiotic factor= nonliving biotic factor= living

    Correct Answer
    B. False: abiotic factor= nonliving biotic factor= living
    Explanation
    The given answer is correct because it states that abiotic factors are nonliving and biotic factors are living. Abiotic factors refer to the nonliving components of an ecosystem, such as temperature, sunlight, water, and soil. Biotic factors, on the other hand, include all living organisms present in an ecosystem, including plants, animals, and microorganisms. This distinction between living and nonliving factors is essential in understanding the interactions and dynamics within an ecosystem.

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  • 30. 

    What is the specific keystone species talked about in class

    • A.

      The beaver (with its dam)

    • B.

      The bee (with pollination)

    • C.

      The alligator (with their burrows)

    • D.

      The jaguar (with stabilizing species by being a predator)

    Correct Answer
    A. The beaver (with its dam)
    Explanation
    The specific keystone species talked about in class is the beaver with its dam. Keystone species are crucial for maintaining the balance and health of an ecosystem. Beavers create dams that alter the flow of water and create wetland habitats, which benefit a wide range of other species. These dams provide shelter, food, and breeding grounds for many other organisms, making the beaver a keystone species.

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  • 31. 

    If you aren't too familiar with Meiosis this should help! Open in a new tab and you can press skip If you don't need it or are done Also you don't need to type anything in the box below  https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=qCLmR9-YY7o

    Correct Answer
    You can just press skip when done or if you don't need this
  • 32. 

    The three domains are:

    • A.

      Bacteria

    • B.

      Archaea

    • C.

      Phylum

    • D.

      Domain

    • E.

      Eukarya

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Bacteria
    B. Archaea
    E. Eukarya
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the three domains are Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya. These three domains represent the highest level of classification for all living organisms. Bacteria and Archaea are both prokaryotic domains, meaning their cells lack a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. Eukarya, on the other hand, is the domain that includes all eukaryotic organisms, which have cells that contain a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. This classification system helps scientists categorize and understand the diversity of life on Earth.

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  • 33. 

    Bacteria is NOT.....

    • A.

      Prokaryotes

    • B.

      Multicelluar

    • C.

      Largest group of organisms on earth

    Correct Answer
    B. Multicelluar
    Explanation
    Bacteria are prokaryotes, which means they lack a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. They are unicellular organisms, meaning they consist of a single cell. Therefore, bacteria are not multicellular.

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  • 34. 

    Archaea is NOT....

    • A.

      Single celled

    • B.

      Prokaryotes

    • C.

      Cell wall different than bacteria

    • D.

      Oldest organisms

    • E.

      Live in comfortable environments not extreme ones

    Correct Answer
    E. Live in comfortable environments not extreme ones
    Explanation
    Archaea are single-celled prokaryotes that have a cell wall different from bacteria. They are known to be some of the oldest organisms on Earth and are capable of surviving in extreme environments such as hot springs, deep-sea hydrothermal vents, and salt lakes. Therefore, the statement that archaea live in comfortable environments, not extreme ones, is incorrect.

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  • 35. 

    Eukarya is... (four answers)

    • A.

      Some single celled

    • B.

      Some multicelluar

    • C.

      Eukaryotic

    • D.

      Includes five of the six kingdoms

    • E.

      Includes four of the six kingdoms (protista, fungi, plantae, and animalia)

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Some single celled
    B. Some multicelluar
    C. Eukaryotic
    E. Includes four of the six kingdoms (protista, fungi, plantae, and animalia)
    Explanation
    Eukarya is a domain that includes both single-celled and multicellular organisms. These organisms are eukaryotic, meaning they have cells with a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. Eukarya includes four of the six kingdoms: Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia. This means that a wide range of organisms, including algae, fungi, plants, and animals, are classified under the domain Eukarya.

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  • 36. 

    What is NOT one way prokaryotes are identified?

    • A.

      Shape

    • B.

      Gram Staining

    • C.

      How they reproduce

    • D.

      Anaerobic/aerobic

    • E.

      Where they are found

    Correct Answer
    E. Where they are found
    Explanation
    Prokaryotes are identified by various characteristics, such as shape, Gram staining, how they reproduce, and whether they are anaerobic or aerobic. However, their identification is not based on where they are found. The location of their habitat does not provide specific information about their identity or classification. Therefore, "where they are found" is not one of the ways prokaryotes are identified.

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  • 37. 

    A virus is an infectious particle made of DNA/RNA with a protein coat called a capsid

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A virus is indeed an infectious particle made of DNA or RNA with a protein coat called a capsid. Viruses are not considered living organisms as they cannot reproduce or carry out metabolic activities on their own. Instead, they rely on host cells to replicate and cause infection. The genetic material (DNA or RNA) of the virus is enclosed within the protein coat, which protects it and allows the virus to enter host cells. Therefore, the statement "A virus is an infectious particle made of DNA/RNA with a protein coat called a capsid" is true.

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  • 38. 

    Xylem tissue is a vascular tissue that transports ____________________

    Correct Answer
    water and nutrients
    water
    Explanation
    Xylem tissue is a type of vascular tissue found in plants that is responsible for transporting water and nutrients throughout the plant. It consists of specialized cells called tracheids and vessel elements that form long tubes, allowing for the efficient movement of water and dissolved nutrients from the roots to the leaves. This transportation system is essential for the plant's survival and proper functioning, as water is needed for photosynthesis and nutrient uptake. Therefore, the correct answer is "water and nutrients, water."

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  • 39. 

    phloem is a vascular tissue that carries _________________________

    Correct Answer
    sugars and minerals
    food
    Explanation
    Phloem is a type of vascular tissue in plants that is responsible for transporting sugars and minerals throughout the plant. This transportation system allows for the distribution of food, which is in the form of sugars, to different parts of the plant. Therefore, the correct answer is "sugars and minerals, food."

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  • 40. 

    What is NOT a characteristic of a chordate in their life cycle?

    • A.

      Have a notochord, a flexible skeletal support rod in the animals back

    • B.

      Have a hollow nerve cord which eventually becomes the brain and spinal cord

    • C.

      Have pharyngeal slits which later become gills

    • D.

      A tail

    • E.

      Fur

    Correct Answer
    E. Fur
    Explanation
    A characteristic of a chordate in their life cycle is the presence of fur. However, the question asks for a characteristic that is NOT present in chordates. Therefore, fur is not a characteristic of chordates in their life cycle.

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  • 41. 

    What were the specific examples of pluripotent stem cells in class

    • A.

      Neurons, skin, stomach

    • B.

      Neurons, skin, muscle, kidney

    • C.

      Neurons, skin, hair

    Correct Answer
    B. Neurons, skin, muscle, kidney
    Explanation
    The specific examples of pluripotent stem cells discussed in class were neurons, skin, muscle, and kidney. These cells have the ability to differentiate into various cell types and are capable of self-renewal. Pluripotent stem cells are important in medical research and regenerative medicine as they hold the potential to treat a wide range of diseases and injuries.

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  • 42. 

    What are the four main pieces for homeostasis below: (4 answers)

    • A.

      Sensors (gather info about conditions inside/outside the body)

    • B.

      Control Center (receives info from sensors and responds)

    • C.

      Communication System (controlled by nervous and endocrine system and carry messages to all parts of the body)

    • D.

      Targets (any organ tissue or cell that changes its level of activity in response to messages)

    • E.

      Delivery Center (manufactures impulses to send out to the body)

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Sensors (gather info about conditions inside/outside the body)
    B. Control Center (receives info from sensors and responds)
    C. Communication System (controlled by nervous and endocrine system and carry messages to all parts of the body)
    D. Targets (any organ tissue or cell that changes its level of activity in response to messages)
    Explanation
    The four main pieces for homeostasis are sensors, control center, communication system, and targets. Sensors gather information about the conditions inside or outside the body. The control center receives information from the sensors and responds accordingly. The communication system, which is controlled by the nervous and endocrine systems, carries messages to all parts of the body. Targets refer to any organ tissue or cell that changes its level of activity in response to these messages.

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  • 43. 

    The stomachs main function is: to break down food after feeding and extract the nutrients necessary to the body by putting in a mixture called chyme

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The stomach's main function is to break down food after feeding and extract the necessary nutrients to the body by putting it in a mixture called chyme. This process is known as digestion and is crucial for the body to obtain the energy and nutrients it needs to function properly. Therefore, the statement "True" accurately reflects the main function of the stomach.

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  • 44. 

    the main role of the pancreas is to: excrete digestive enzymes to aid the digestion of proteins 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The pancreas plays a crucial role in the digestion process by secreting digestive enzymes that help break down proteins. These enzymes, such as trypsin and chymotrypsin, are released into the small intestine where they assist in the breakdown of proteins into smaller peptides and amino acids, which can be absorbed by the body. Therefore, the statement that the main role of the pancreas is to excrete digestive enzymes to aid the digestion of proteins is true.

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  • 45. 

    The gallbladder produces bile which aids in digestion and absorption of fats and substances such as vitamins A, D, E, and K 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False: its the liver not the gallbladder

    Correct Answer
    B. False: its the liver not the gallbladder
    Explanation
    The statement is false because it is the liver, not the gallbladder, that produces bile. Bile is a substance that aids in the digestion and absorption of fats and certain vitamins. The gallbladder's main function is to store and concentrate bile produced by the liver. When needed, the gallbladder releases the bile into the small intestine to assist in the digestion process. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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  • 46. 

    The main function of the small intestine is to absorb nutrients found within the food

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The small intestine is responsible for the majority of nutrient absorption in the digestive system. It has a large surface area due to its numerous folds and villi, which increases the efficiency of nutrient absorption. The small intestine absorbs nutrients such as carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals from the food we eat, allowing them to enter the bloodstream and be transported to cells throughout the body. Therefore, the statement that the main function of the small intestine is to absorb nutrients found within the food is true.

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  • 47. 

    The primary function of the large intestine is the transportation of waste and re-absorption of water from it before it is excreted.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The large intestine, also known as the colon, plays a crucial role in the digestive system. Its primary function is to transport waste materials from the small intestine to the rectum for elimination. Additionally, the large intestine is responsible for absorbing water and electrolytes from the waste material, which helps in maintaining the body's fluid balance. This process ensures that the waste material becomes more solid and compact before being excreted as feces. Therefore, the statement that the primary function of the large intestine is the transportation of waste and re-absorption of water from it before it is excreted is true.

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  • 48. 

    Which is not an agranulocyte?

    • A.

      Monocytes (which become macrophages and dendritic cells)

    • B.

      Antibodies

    • C.

      Lymphocytes (B and T cells)

    • D.

      NK cells (natural killer)

    Correct Answer
    B. Antibodies
    Explanation
    Antibodies are not agranulocytes because they are not cells. They are proteins produced by certain white blood cells called B cells. Agranulocytes are a type of white blood cell that lack granules in their cytoplasm, which includes monocytes, lymphocytes, and NK cells.

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  • 49. 

    What do CD4 helper cells don't do?

    • A.

      Activate and regulate B and T cells

    • B.

      Clone into memory T cell or effector T cell

    • C.

      Kill virus infected cells

    Correct Answer
    C. Kill virus infected cells
    Explanation
    CD4 helper cells do not kill virus infected cells. Their main function is to activate and regulate B and T cells, helping to coordinate the immune response. They can also clone into memory T cells or effector T cells, which play a role in immune memory and the elimination of pathogens. However, the direct killing of virus infected cells is not a function of CD4 helper cells.

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  • 50. 

    What do CD8 cytotoxic cells do?

    • A.

      Kill virus-infected cells and tumor cells

    • B.

      Clone into memory and effector cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Kill virus-infected cells and tumor cells
    Explanation
    CD8 cytotoxic cells are a type of immune cells that play a crucial role in eliminating virus-infected cells and tumor cells. These cells recognize specific antigens on the surface of infected or abnormal cells and release toxic substances, such as perforin and granzymes, to induce cell death. By targeting and eliminating these harmful cells, CD8 cytotoxic cells help to control viral infections and prevent the development and spread of tumors.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 10, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 17, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Ashleymanzo5899
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