Neuroanatomy Organization Of Nervous Systems Quiz

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Neuroanatomy Organization Of Nervous Systems Quiz - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The postcentral gyrus is.. 

    • A.

      Located on the temporal lobe. It is location of the primary somatosensory cortex.

    • B.

      Located on the parietal lobe. It is location of the primary somatosensory cortex.

    • C.

      Located on the parietal lobe. It is location of the primary motor cortex.

    • D.

      Located on the occipital lobe. It is location of the primary somatosensory cortex.

    Correct Answer
    B. Located on the parietal lobe. It is location of the primary somatosensory cortex.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is located on the parietal lobe. The postcentral gyrus is the location of the primary somatosensory cortex, which is responsible for processing sensory information from the body such as touch, temperature, and pain. It receives input from the thalamus and sends output to other areas of the brain for further processing and interpretation.

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  • 2. 

    Function of medial geniculate nucleus 

    • A.

      Receiving visual information

    • B.

      Somatosensoy function

    • C.

      Auditory function

    • D.

      Olfactory function

    Correct Answer
    C. Auditory function
    Explanation
    The medial geniculate nucleus is a part of the thalamus that plays a crucial role in processing auditory information. It receives input from the inferior colliculus and projects it to the auditory cortex, allowing for the perception and interpretation of sound. Therefore, the correct answer is auditory function.

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  • 3. 

    The lateral geniculate nucleus is...  

    • A.

      The primary relay center for visual information received from the retina of the eye

    • B.

      The secondary relay center for visual information received from the retina of the eye

    • C.

      The primary relay center for auditory information received from the medial geniculate nucleus

    • D.

      The secondary relay center for auditory information received from the medial geniculate nucleus

    Correct Answer
    A. The primary relay center for visual information received from the retina of the eye
    Explanation
    The lateral geniculate nucleus is the primary relay center for visual information received from the retina of the eye. It receives signals from the retina and sends them to the visual cortex in the brain for further processing and interpretation.

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  • 4. 

    Functions associated with the medial cerebellar zone

    • A.

      The medial zone of the anterior and posterior lobes functions mainly for fine motor control

    • B.

      The medial zone of the anterior and posterior lobes functions mainly for gross motor control

    • C.

      The medial zone of the anterior and posterior lobes functions mainly to fine-tune body and limb movements

    • D.

      The medial zone of the anterior and posterior lobes functions purely for cognitive functions

    Correct Answer
    C. The medial zone of the anterior and posterior lobes functions mainly to fine-tune body and limb movements
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the medial zone of the anterior and posterior lobes functions mainly to fine-tune body and limb movements. This means that this specific area of the cerebellum is responsible for making precise adjustments and coordinating movements in order to achieve smooth and accurate motor control.

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  • 5. 

    Graded membrane potentials... 

    • A.

      Allow cells to function as a battery

    • B.

      Is used from transmitting signals between different cells

    • C.

      Occurs when there is a change in RMP

    • D.

      Occur when there is an opening of the Na/K pump

    Correct Answer
    A. Allow cells to function as a battery
    Explanation
    Graded membrane potentials allow cells to function as a battery. This is because graded potentials are small changes in the membrane potential that can either depolarize or hyperpolarize the cell. These changes in potential can be used to generate electrical signals that can be transmitted within the cell or between different cells. This ability to generate and transmit electrical signals is similar to how a battery functions, as it can store and release electrical energy. Therefore, graded membrane potentials allow cells to function as a battery.

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  • 6. 

    Nociceptor terminals are predominantly located where?

    • A.

      Throughout the spinal thalamic pathway

    • B.

      In the internal capsule

    • C.

      In the basal nucleus

    • D.

      In either the dorsal root ganglia or the trigeminal ganglia

    Correct Answer
    D. In either the dorsal root ganglia or the trigeminal ganglia
    Explanation
    Nociceptor terminals are predominantly located in either the dorsal root ganglia or the trigeminal ganglia. These ganglia are clusters of nerve cell bodies located outside the central nervous system. The nociceptor terminals in these ganglia receive sensory information related to pain and transmit it to the spinal thalamic pathway, which is responsible for processing and transmitting pain signals to the brain. Therefore, nociceptor terminals play a crucial role in the perception and transmission of pain signals.

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  • 7. 

    Which cranial nerves contribute to parasympathetic outflow?

    • A.

      Occulomotor (III), Abducens (VI), Glossopharyngeal (IX), Hypoglossal (XII)

    • B.

      Occulomotor (III), Facial (VII), Glossopharyngeal (IX), Vagus (X)

    • C.

      Occulomotor (III), Trochlear (IV), Glossopharyngeal (IX), Vagus (X)

    • D.

      Occulomotor (III), Trigeminal (V), Vestibulocochlear (VIII) , Spinal Accessory (XI)

    Correct Answer
    B. Occulomotor (III), Facial (VII), Glossopharyngeal (IX), Vagus (X)
    Explanation
    The cranial nerves that contribute to parasympathetic outflow are the Occulomotor (III), Facial (VII), Glossopharyngeal (IX), and Vagus (X) nerves. These cranial nerves innervate various organs and structures in the body, including the salivary glands, lacrimal glands, heart, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract. Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system by these cranial nerves leads to rest and digest responses, such as increased digestive activity, decreased heart rate, and increased secretion of saliva and tears.

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  • 8. 

    The area of brain activated by fast pain fibres is ....

    • A.

      Neospinothalamic tract

    • B.

      Spinothalmic tract

    • C.

      Hypothalamus

    • D.

      VPL/VPM

    Correct Answer
    A. Neospinothalamic tract
    Explanation
    The neospinothalamic tract is responsible for transmitting fast pain signals from the body to the brain. This pathway carries information about sharp, localized pain sensations. The other options, such as the spinothalamic tract, hypothalamus, and VPL/VPM, are not specifically associated with fast pain fibers.

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  • 9. 

    Which brainstem nuclei have a major role in control of pain?

    • A.

      Spinothalamic tract

    • B.

      Neospinothalamic tract

    • C.

      Ascending sensory pathway

    • D.

      Descending sensory pathway

    Correct Answer
    A. Spinothalamic tract
    Explanation
    The spinothalamic tract is a major pathway in the brainstem that plays a crucial role in the control of pain. This tract carries sensory information related to pain and temperature from the spinal cord to the thalamus, which then relays the information to the cerebral cortex for further processing. Therefore, the spinothalamic tract is directly involved in the transmission and perception of pain signals in the brain.

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  • 10. 

    Pain elicited from an innocuous stimulus is ....

    • A.

      Dylodynia

    • B.

      Allodynia

    • C.

      Nociceptors

    • D.

      Idiopathic

    Correct Answer
    B. Allodynia
    Explanation
    Allodynia refers to the sensation of pain caused by a stimulus that is normally not painful. This means that even a harmless or innocuous stimulus, such as a light touch or a gentle pressure, can result in pain. It is a condition where the nerves become hypersensitive and interpret non-painful stimuli as painful. This can occur due to various reasons, such as nerve damage, inflammation, or neurological disorders. Allodynia is different from pain caused by a noxious or harmful stimulus, which is detected by specialized pain receptors called nociceptors.

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  • 11. 

    Factors involved in closing the spinal pain gate......

    • A.

      Sensory (relaxation), cognitive (happy thoughts), emotional (negative attitude)

    • B.

      Sensory (relaxation), cognitive (negative thoughts), emotional (positive attitude)

    • C.

      Sensory (relaxation), cognitive (happy thoughts), emotional (positive attitude)

    • D.

      Sensory (tension), cognitive (happy thoughts), emotional (positive attitude)

    Correct Answer
    C. Sensory (relaxation), cognitive (happy thoughts), emotional (positive attitude)
    Explanation
    The factors involved in closing the spinal pain gate are sensory relaxation, cognitive happy thoughts, and emotional positive attitude. These factors work together to reduce pain perception and promote a sense of well-being. Sensory relaxation techniques such as deep breathing or meditation can help relax the body and reduce muscle tension, which can alleviate pain. Cognitive happy thoughts can shift focus away from pain and promote a more positive mindset. Emotional positive attitude can help reduce stress and promote a sense of optimism, which can also contribute to pain relief.

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  • 12. 

    The .......... marks the transition between which two parts of the brainstem

    • A.

      Pontarddulais junction

    • B.

      Pontomedullary junction

    • C.

      Medullarypons junction

    Correct Answer
    B. Pontomedullary junction
    Explanation
    The pontomedullary junction marks the transition between the pons and the medulla in the brainstem. The pons is located above the medulla and is involved in relaying signals between the cerebrum and the cerebellum, as well as controlling sleep, breathing, and other vital functions. The medulla, on the other hand, is responsible for regulating basic bodily functions such as heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing. Therefore, the pontomedullary junction is an important boundary between these two regions of the brainstem.

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  • 13. 

    Which section of CNS is responsible mainly for BP...

    • A.

      Epithalamus

    • B.

      Medualla Oblongata

    • C.

      Pons

    • D.

      Hypothalamus

    Correct Answer
    D. Hypothalamus
    Explanation
    The hypothalamus is responsible mainly for regulating blood pressure. It controls blood pressure by monitoring the levels of certain hormones and neurotransmitters in the body and adjusting them accordingly. It also plays a role in regulating heart rate and blood vessel diameter, both of which are important factors in maintaining blood pressure.

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  • 14. 

    What section of CNS is responsible for respiration, committing, breathing, vomiting...

    • A.

      Medulla

    • B.

      Pons

    • C.

      Midbrain

    • D.

      Diencephalon

    Correct Answer
    A. Medulla
    Explanation
    The medulla is the section of the central nervous system that is responsible for various vital functions including respiration, coughing, swallowing, vomiting, and regulating blood pressure. It is located at the base of the brainstem and acts as a control center for these involuntary actions. The medulla contains nuclei that coordinate and regulate the muscles involved in these functions, ensuring that they are carried out properly and efficiently.

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  • 15. 

    The circuitry of a normal direct light papillary reflex...

    • A.

      Light in left eye, left pupil constricts direct response. Light in left eye, left pupil then dialates consensual response

    • B.

      Light in left eye, left pupil constricts direct response. Light in left eye, right pupil dialates consensual response

    • C.

      Light in left eye, left pupil constricts direct response. Light in left eye, right pupil constricts consensual response

    • D.

      Light in left eye, left pupil dilates direct response. Light in left eye, right pupil dialates consensual response

    Correct Answer
    C. Light in left eye, left pupil constricts direct response. Light in left eye, right pupil constricts consensual response
    Explanation
    When light is shone in the left eye, the normal direct light papillary reflex causes the left pupil to constrict as a direct response. Additionally, the consensual response occurs, causing the right pupil to constrict as well. This is the correct answer because it accurately describes the normal physiological response of the pupils to light stimulation in the left eye.

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  • 16. 

    Trochlear lesions affect.. 

    • A.

      Eyeball movement

    • B.

      Pupillary constriction

    • C.

      Pupillary dialation

    • D.

      Accommodation of the eye

    Correct Answer
    A. Eyeball movement
    Explanation
    Trochlear lesions affect eyeball movement because the trochlear nerve, also known as the fourth cranial nerve, is responsible for innervating the superior oblique muscle of the eye. This muscle helps to control the movement of the eyeball, specifically in a downward and outward direction. Therefore, any damage or lesion to the trochlear nerve can result in impaired or limited movement of the eyeball, leading to difficulties in looking downwards or outwards.

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  • 17. 

    Abducens lesions affect 

    • A.

      Only upper eyelid and eyeball movements

    • B.

      Upper eyelid and eyeball movements and pupil constriction

    • C.

      Upper eyelid and eyeball movements and pupil dialation

    • D.

      Eyeball movement

    Correct Answer
    D. Eyeball movement
    Explanation
    Abducens lesions affect eyeball movement. The abducens nerve is responsible for controlling the lateral rectus muscle, which moves the eyeball outward. When there is a lesion or damage to the abducens nerve, it can result in a condition called abducens nerve palsy, causing weakness or paralysis of the lateral rectus muscle. This leads to difficulty in moving the affected eye laterally, resulting in impaired horizontal eye movements. Therefore, the correct answer is "Eyeball movement."

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  • 18. 

    Occulomotor lesions affect... 

    • A.

      Upper eyelid and eyeball movements and pupil constriction

    • B.

      Lower eyelid and eyeball movements and pupil constriction

    • C.

      Upper eyelid and eyeball movements and pupil dilation

    • D.

      Accommodation of the eye

    Correct Answer
    A. Upper eyelid and eyeball movements and pupil constriction
    Explanation
    Oculomotor lesions refer to damage or dysfunction of the oculomotor nerve, which controls the movement of the upper eyelid, eyeball, and pupil constriction. This nerve innervates the muscles responsible for lifting the upper eyelid and moving the eye upward, downward, and inward. Additionally, it controls the constriction of the pupil, which is important for regulating the amount of light entering the eye. Therefore, when oculomotor lesions occur, they can result in impaired upper eyelid and eyeball movements as well as pupil constriction.

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  • 19. 

    Primary hyperalgesia (features/characteristics)....

    • A.

      Primary hyperalgesia describes pain sensitivity that occurs directly in the cerebellum

    • B.

      Primary hyperalgesia describes decreased sensitivity that occurs directly in the damaged tissues

    • C.

      Primary hyperalgesia describes pain sensitivity that occurs indirectly in the damaged tissues

    • D.

      Primary hyperalgesia describes pain sensitivity that occurs directly in the damaged tissues

    Correct Answer
    D. Primary hyperalgesia describes pain sensitivity that occurs directly in the damaged tissues
    Explanation
    Primary hyperalgesia refers to an increased sensitivity to pain that occurs directly in the damaged tissues. This means that the pain sensitivity is localized to the area where the tissue damage has occurred. This is in contrast to secondary hyperalgesia, which is pain sensitivity that occurs in surrounding areas of the damaged tissues. So, the correct answer is "Primary hyperalgesia describes pain sensitivity that occurs directly in the damaged tissues."

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  • 20. 

    Multiple sclerosis – symptoms? 

    • A.

      Increased sensitivity, tingling, pins and needles

    • B.

      Numbness, muscle cramps, difficulty moving, ataxia,

    • C.

      Acute or chronic pain, bladder or bowel difficulties

    • D.

      Problems with speech, problems with swallowing, paralysis

    Correct Answer
    C. Acute or chronic pain, bladder or bowel difficulties
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Acute or chronic pain, bladder or bowel difficulties." Multiple sclerosis is a neurological condition that affects the central nervous system. It can cause damage to the nerves, leading to various symptoms. Acute or chronic pain is a common symptom experienced by individuals with multiple sclerosis. This pain can be sharp, stabbing, or burning in nature. Bladder or bowel difficulties are also common symptoms, as multiple sclerosis can affect the nerves that control these functions. This can lead to problems such as urinary urgency, frequency, or incontinence, as well as constipation or difficulty with bowel movements.

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  • 21. 

    Guillain-Barre syndrome – characteristics?  

    • A.

      A disorder affecting the central nervous system

    • B.

      It is an autoimmune disease

    • C.

      Weakness begins in the trunk and migrates towards feet & hands

    • D.

      It does not lead to paralysis

    Correct Answer
    B. It is an autoimmune disease
    Explanation
    Guillain-Barre syndrome is an autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system. It is characterized by weakness that starts in the trunk and then spreads to the feet and hands. Although it can cause severe muscle weakness, it does not typically lead to paralysis.

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  • 22. 

    Neurofibromatosis type 1 – genetic inheritance pattern?

    • A.

      Caused by mutation of chromosome 15 that is responsible for the control of cell division

    • B.

      Caused by mutation of chromosome 7 that is responsible for the control of cell division

    • C.

      Caused by mutation of chromosome 17 that is responsible for the control of cell division

    • D.

      Caused by mutation of chromosome 9 that is responsible for the control of cell division

    • E.

      Caused by mutation of chromosome 14 that is responsible for the control of cell division

    Correct Answer
    C. Caused by mutation of chromosome 17 that is responsible for the control of cell division
    Explanation
    Neurofibromatosis type 1 is caused by a mutation of chromosome 17, which is responsible for the control of cell division. This mutation leads to the development of tumors along nerves throughout the body. The inheritance pattern of this condition is autosomal dominant, meaning that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the mutated gene from either parent in order to develop the disorder.

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  • 23. 

    Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease – causes?

    • A.

      Caused by an infectious agent called prions

    • B.

      Caused by an infectious virus known as TSE

    • C.

      When the brain is affected it decreases in size

    • D.

      Caused by filamentous mould

    Correct Answer
    A. Caused by an infectious agent called prions
    Explanation
    Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by an infectious agent called prions. Prions are abnormal proteins that can cause normal proteins in the brain to become misfolded and form clumps. These clumps then damage brain cells and cause the symptoms of the disease. Unlike viruses or bacteria, prions do not contain genetic material and are not easily destroyed by typical sterilization methods. They can be transmitted through contaminated tissues or medical procedures, leading to the spread of the disease.

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  • 24. 

    Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis – type of disease?

    • A.

      Disease affecting the dienchephalon

    • B.

      Disease affecting sensory pathways

    • C.

      Motor neurone disease

    Correct Answer
    C. Motor neurone disease
    Explanation
    Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, also known as ALS, is a type of motor neurone disease. It is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that affects the motor neurones in the brain and spinal cord. This leads to the degeneration and death of these neurones, resulting in the loss of muscle control and eventual paralysis. ALS specifically affects the upper and lower motor neurones, causing muscle weakness, twitching, and eventually difficulty in speaking, swallowing, and breathing. Therefore, the correct answer is motor neurone disease.

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  • 25. 

    Poliovirus can spread along nerve fiber pathways and destroys motor neurons within the spinal cord, brain stem, or motor cortex

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The given statement is true. Poliovirus is capable of spreading along nerve fiber pathways and causing damage to motor neurons in various parts of the central nervous system, including the spinal cord, brain stem, and motor cortex. This can result in paralysis and other neurological complications commonly associated with polio.

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  • 26. 

    Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease – initial features of disease?

    • A.

      Increase in plaque formation on the teeth

    • B.

      Foot drop, claw toe

    • C.

      Decrease in the protective fluoride layer on the teeth

    • D.

      An extra set of molar teeth

    Correct Answer
    B. Foot drop, claw toe
    Explanation
    The initial features of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease include foot drop and claw toe. This is because Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease is a neurological disorder that affects the muscles and nerves in the legs and feet. Foot drop refers to the inability to lift the front part of the foot, causing it to drag or slap against the ground while walking. Claw toe is a condition where the toes are permanently bent in a claw-like position. These symptoms are commonly seen in the early stages of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease.

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  • 27. 

    Cerebral palsy – characteristics?

    • A.

      A progressive motor condition that causes physical disability in human movement

    • B.

      Variations in muscle tone, no speech impediments

    • C.

      Delays in reaching motor skill milestones, normal gait patterns

    • D.

      Spasticity, rigidity, ataxia

    Correct Answer
    D. Spasticity, rigidity, ataxia
    Explanation
    Cerebral palsy is a condition characterized by spasticity, rigidity, and ataxia. Spasticity refers to muscle stiffness and tightness, which can make movement difficult. Rigidity refers to muscle stiffness that is constant and does not change with movement. Ataxia refers to difficulties with coordination and balance. These characteristics are common in individuals with cerebral palsy and can result in physical disabilities and delays in reaching motor skill milestones.

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  • 28. 

    Tethered cord syndrome – results in? 

    • A.

      Progressive spinal cord damage

    • B.

      Spinal cord hanging loose at the end

    • C.

      A cut in the spinal cord

    Correct Answer
    A. Progressive spinal cord damage
    Explanation
    Tethered cord syndrome is a condition where the spinal cord is abnormally attached to the surrounding tissues, restricting its movement. This can lead to progressive spinal cord damage over time. The abnormal attachment can cause tension on the spinal cord, which can result in various neurological symptoms such as weakness, numbness, and bladder or bowel dysfunction. If left untreated, the progressive spinal cord damage can lead to permanent neurological deficits.

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  • 29. 

    Trigeminal neuralgia is characterised by episodes of intense pain in the face, originating from the trochlear nerve

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    trigeminal

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  • 30. 

    A dysfunction of the cranial nerve VI causing an inability to control facial muscles on the affected side

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    cranial nerve VII

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  • 31. 

    Friedreich’s ataxia ..........

    • A.

      An autosomal recessive inherited disease that causes progressive damage to the nervous system. Associated with diabetes.

    • B.

      An autosomal recessive inherited disease that causes non-progressive damage to the nervous system. Associated with diabetes.

    • C.

      An autosomal recessive inherited disease that causes progressive damage to the nervous system. Associated with hyperlipidemia.

    • D.

      An neuropathic disease that causes progressive damage to the nervous system. Associated with diabetes.

    Correct Answer
    A. An autosomal recessive inherited disease that causes progressive damage to the nervous system. Associated with diabetes.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "An autosomal recessive inherited disease that causes progressive damage to the nervous system. Associated with diabetes." This answer accurately describes Friedreich's ataxia, which is a genetic disorder that causes progressive damage to the nervous system. It is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, meaning that both parents must be carriers of the mutated gene for a child to be affected. Additionally, Friedreich's ataxia is often associated with the development of diabetes in affected individuals.

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  • 32. 

    Cerebral cysticercosis – how acquired?

    • A.

      Tissue infection after exposure to eggs of Taenia saginata

    • B.

      Tissue infection after exposure to eggs of Taenia solium

    • C.

      Tissue infection after exposure to eggs of Thelazia anolabiata

    • D.

      Tissue infection after exposure to eggs of Toxocara canis

    Correct Answer
    B. Tissue infection after exposure to eggs of Taenia solium
    Explanation
    Cerebral cysticercosis is a condition characterized by the presence of cysts in the brain caused by the larvae of the pork tapeworm, Taenia solium. The correct answer states that tissue infection occurs after exposure to eggs of Taenia solium. This means that the infection occurs when a person ingests the eggs of the tapeworm, which then hatch and migrate to the brain, forming cysts. This is a well-known mode of transmission for cerebral cysticercosis, making it the correct answer.

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  • 33. 

    Macular degeneration – disorder of what?

    • A.

      Loss of vision because of damage to the rods/cones

    • B.

      Loss of vision because of damage to the aqueous humor

    • C.

      Loss of vision because of damage to the cilliary muscles

    • D.

      Loss of vision because of damage to the retina

    Correct Answer
    D. Loss of vision because of damage to the retina
    Explanation
    Macular degeneration is a disorder that causes the loss of vision due to damage to the retina. The retina is the light-sensitive tissue at the back of the eye that is responsible for capturing images and sending them to the brain. Damage to the retina can result in a loss of central vision, which is essential for activities such as reading and driving. Therefore, the correct answer is "Loss of vision because of damage to the retina."

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  • 34. 

    Diabetic peripheral neuropathy – results from what (causes/mechanisms)?

    • A.

      Results from injury involving small blood vessels supply the nerves

    • B.

      Results from injury involving small blood vessels supply the spinal cord

    • C.

      Results from injury involving small blood vessels supplying the peripheries

    • D.

      Results from injury involving large blood vessels supply the nerves.

    Correct Answer
    A. Results from injury involving small blood vessels supply the nerves
    Explanation
    Diabetic peripheral neuropathy is a condition that occurs as a result of injury involving small blood vessels that supply the nerves. These blood vessels become damaged due to the effects of diabetes, leading to impaired blood flow and oxygen supply to the nerves. This lack of proper nourishment and oxygenation causes the nerves to become damaged and dysfunctional, resulting in symptoms such as numbness, tingling, and pain in the extremities.

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  • 35. 

    How is tetanus fatal?

    • A.

      Is known as lockjaw

    • B.

      Can cause contraction of breathing muscles

    • C.

      A medical condition characterised by a prolonged contraction of skeletal muscle fibers

    • D.

      Serious bacterial disease

    Correct Answer
    B. Can cause contraction of breathing muscles
    Explanation
    Tetanus is a serious bacterial disease that is also known as lockjaw. It is caused by the Clostridium tetani bacteria and can be fatal. One of the ways in which tetanus can be fatal is by causing the contraction of the breathing muscles. This can lead to difficulty in breathing and ultimately respiratory failure, which can be life-threatening.

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  • 36. 

    Phantom pain – typically occurs when?

    • A.

      Pain relating to a limb or an organ that is not physically part of the body

    • B.

      When the patient's are lying

    • C.

      When the patient's have a history of drug use

    Correct Answer
    A. Pain relating to a limb or an organ that is not physically part of the body
    Explanation
    Phantom pain typically occurs when a person experiences pain in a limb or organ that is no longer physically present in their body. This phenomenon is often reported by individuals who have undergone amputation or organ removal. The brain continues to receive signals from the nerves that used to be connected to the missing body part, leading to the perception of pain. This can be a challenging condition to manage, and various treatment approaches, such as medication, physical therapy, and psychological interventions, may be utilized to alleviate the discomfort.

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  • 37. 

    Adrenoleukodystrophy – commonly affects what structures/cell types?

    • A.

      Myelin in the central nervous system

    • B.

      The adrenal cortex

    • C.

      The Leydig cells in the testes

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All the above
    Explanation
    Adrenoleukodystrophy is a genetic disorder that affects various structures and cell types in the body. It primarily affects the myelin in the central nervous system, leading to the destruction of the protective covering of nerve fibers. Additionally, it also affects the adrenal cortex, which is responsible for producing hormones, and the Leydig cells in the testes, which play a role in testosterone production. Therefore, all the options mentioned (myelin in the central nervous system, adrenal cortex, and Leydig cells in the testes) are correct.

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  • 38. 

    Wernicke’s encephalopathy – major risk factors?

    • A.

      Vomiting, malabsorption, drug use, AIDS

    • B.

      Pancreatitis, chemotherapy, cancer, herpes, pancreatitis

    • C.

      Family history, chemotherapy, cancer, AIDS, pancreatitis, liver dysfunction

    • D.

      Alcohol, chemotherapy, cancer, AIDS, pancreatitis, liver dysfunction

    Correct Answer
    D. Alcohol, chemotherapy, cancer, AIDS, pancreatitis, liver dysfunction
    Explanation
    The major risk factors for Wernicke's encephalopathy include alcohol use, chemotherapy, cancer, AIDS, pancreatitis, and liver dysfunction. These factors can lead to nutritional deficiencies, particularly thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency, which is a key factor in the development of Wernicke's encephalopathy. Alcohol use can impair thiamine absorption and utilization, while chemotherapy, cancer, AIDS, pancreatitis, and liver dysfunction can all disrupt thiamine metabolism and increase the risk of deficiency. Therefore, individuals with these risk factors are more likely to develop Wernicke's encephalopathy.

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  • 39. 

    Herpes zoster – associated with what prior infection?

    • A.

      Cow pox

    • B.

      Varicella zoster virus

    • C.

      AIDS

    Correct Answer
    B. Varicella zoster virus
    Explanation
    Herpes zoster, also known as shingles, is caused by the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus. This virus is the same one that causes chickenpox. After a person recovers from chickenpox, the virus remains dormant in the body and can reactivate later in life, causing herpes zoster. Therefore, the correct answer is Varicella zoster virus.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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    Elizabethalexia
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