2ax5x CDC V3 Trivia Quiz
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- 1.A push-pull rod end engagement is checked by
- A.
Using a depth gage to check end play.
- B.
Ensuring that no lateral movement exists.
- C.
Using an inside caliper to check the rod end bearing.
- D.
Inserting safety wire in the hole in the end of the terminal.
- 2.What is the interval that should be used for installing cushion clips on aircraft tubing?
- A.
15 to 20 inches.
- B.
20 to 25 inches.
- C.
25 to 30 inches.
- D.
30 to 35 inches.
- 3.The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is no deeper than
- A.
10 percent of wall thickness.
- B.
15 percent of wall thickness.
- C.
20 percent of wall thickness.
- D.
25 percent of wall thickness.
- 4.Generally, low-pressure hoses are used for what pressure?
- A.
200 psi and below.
- B.
300 psi and below.
- C.
500 psi and below.
- D.
1,000 psi and below.
- 5.The limit for securing closely spaced bolts in series when using the single-wire safety method is the maximum number of bolts that can be secured using a
- A.
10 inch length of wire.
- B.
12 inch length of wire.
- C.
24 inch length of wire.
- D.
36 inch length of wire.
- 6.When securing widely spaced bolts by the double-twist safetying method, what is the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in series?
- A.
3.
- B.
4.
- C.
5.
- D.
6.
- 7.Which retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed for use with them?
- A.
Snap rings.
- B.
Spiral retaining rings.
- C.
Beveled retaining rings.
- D.
Axially assembled retaining ring.
- 8.Which retaining rings are installed into housings or onto shafts making 360-degree contact with the grove?
- A.
Snap ring.
- B.
Spiral retaining ring.
- C.
Beveled retaining ring.
- D.
Axially assembled retaining ring.
- 9.What part of a cannon plug completes the electrical circuit?
- A.
Metal shells.
- B.
Connector halves.
- C.
Dielectric contacts.
- D.
Pin-and-socket contacts.
- 10.In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12_10PW, the letter P indicates
- A.
Pin.
- B.
Plain.
- C.
Primary.
- D.
Pratt and Whitney.
- 11.What torque wrench indicates the amount of torque or twisting action being applied?
- A.
Indicating type.
- B.
Breakaway type.
- C.
Screwdriver type.
- D.
Internal wrenching type.
- 12.Which torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached?
- A.
Indicating type.
- B.
Breakaway type.
- C.
Screwdriver type.
- D.
Internal wrenching type.
- 13.Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the
- A.
Maximum setting at least four times.
- B.
Maximum setting at least six times.
- C.
Lowest setting at least four times.
- D.
Lowest setting at least six times.
- 14.What are two stresses that a fastener takes when tightened?
- A.
Extension and flexion.
- B.
Tension and torsion.
- C.
Torque and friction.
- D.
Push and pull.
- 15.Which type of friction is defined as the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving?
- A.
Static.
- B.
Tension.
- C.
Dynamic.
- D.
Rotational.
- 16.Use the range button on the Fluke multimeter to
- A.
Check the AC voltages only.
- B.
Check the DC voltages only.
- C.
Initiate the tough-hold mode.
- D.
Move the decimal point.
- 17.When the H symbol is shown on the Fluke multimeter display, the
- A.
Manual range mode is indicated.
- B.
Touch-hold mode is in use.
- C.
Ohms function is selected.
- D.
Meter is zeroing itself.
- 18.Which tool is used to measure the gap between two parts?
- A.
Multimeter.
- B.
Depth gauge.
- C.
Feeler gauge.
- D.
Torque wrench.
- 19.What is the longest possible movement between the micrometer's spindle and anvil?
- A.
0.5 inch.
- B.
1.0 inch.
- C.
1.5 inch.
- D.
2.0 inch.
- 20.Which caliper is joined by a strong hinge, screw, and, adjustment nut?
- A.
Simple calipers.
- B.
Transfer calipers.
- C.
Spring-joint calipers.
- D.
Odd-leg calipers.
- 21.Which caliper is used for finding shaft centers or locating shoulders?
- A.
Slide caliper.
- B.
Center caliper.
- C.
Spring-joint caliper.
- D.
Odd-leg caliper.
- 22.Which caliper has the words "IN" and "OUT" stamped on the frame?
- A.
Slide caliper.
- B.
Simple caliper.
- C.
Transfer caliper.
- D.
Spring-joint caliper.
- 23.Who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced?
- A.
Base commanders.
- B.
Squadron commanders.
- C.
Supervisors at all levels.
- D.
Squadron QA section.
- 24.Bench stock levels are established to provide a
- A.
15-day usage.
- B.
30-day usage.
- C.
60-day usage.
- D.
90-day usage.
- 25.Which form is used to issue an item of equipment for short, specific periods?
- A.
AF 2005.
- B.
AF Form 2413.
- C.
AF IMT 1297.
- D.
DD Form 1348-6.
- 26.All items that come through supply channels are assigned what type of code?
- A.
PDC.
- B.
AAC.
- C.
PACC.
- D.
ERRC.
- 27.Within maintenance the internal control of reparable items is accomplished through the DIFM notice and
- A.
DD Form 1348-6.
- B.
AFTO Form 349.
- C.
AFTO Form 350.
- D.
DD Form 1131.
- 28.Which DD forms are easily identified by their green margins and letters?
- A.
1577-2 and 1577-3.
- B.
1576 and 1576-1.
- C.
1574 and 1574-1.
- D.
1575 and 1575-1.
- 29.Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for
- A.
200 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt.
- B.
100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt.
- C.
200 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt.
- D.
100 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt.
- 30.Which inspection is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft-specific -6 technical order and is a thorough inspection of the entire aerospace vehicle?
- A.
Phased.
- B.
Periodic.
- C.
Isochronal.
- D.
Hourly postflight.
- 31.Which inspection concept uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home station check, major, and minor inspections?
- A.
Phased.
- B.
Periodic.
- C.
Isochronal.
- D.
Hourly postflight.
- 32.Which inspection examines areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond -6 technical order inspection requirements?
- A.
Phased.
- B.
Periodic.
- C.
Isochronal.
- D.
Programmed depot maintenance.
- 33.Minimum aircraft inspection requirements are outlined in
- A.
Sequence charts.
- B.
Inspection workcards.
- C.
-06 work unit code manuals.
- D.
-6 technical order inspection manuals.
- 34.Which inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of systems?
- A.
In progress.
- B.
PR.
- C.
TH.
- D.
EOR.
- 35.
- A.
Prior to going on alert and again before flight after completion of the alert period.
- B.
After flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled.
- C.
Immediately prior to a BPO.
- D.
After the last flight of a specified flying period.
- 36.Which inspection is required if an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days?
- A.
Phase.
- B.
Special.
- C.
Calender.
- D.
Acceptance.
- 37.Which inspection ensures the completeness of historical documents?
- A.
Phase.
- B.
Special.
- C.
Calender.
- D.
Acceptance.
- 38.
- A.
126.
- B.
1149.
- C.
2691.
- D.
2692.
- 39.Which TO should be consulted for detailed information about weight and balance?
- A.
1-21-101.
- B.
1-1-691.
- C.
1-1B-50.
- D.
1-1-5.
- 40.What is used in determining design criteria such as engine requirements, wing area, landing gear requirements, and payload capacity?
- A.
Mission requirements.
- B.
Aircraft dimensions.
- C.
Structure strength.
- D.
Aircraft weight.
- 41.Which medical concept forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy?
- A.
"EMERGENCY".
- B.
"DIAGNOSE".
- C.
"TRIAGE".
- D.
"STAT".
- 42.Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins the instant it is
- A.
Exposed to moist air.
- B.
Exposed to a chemical.
- C.
Connected to another part.
- D.
Fabricated and manufactured.
- 43.Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is
- A.
Painted.
- B.
Heat treated.
- C.
Chemically treated.
- D.
Exhausted or salvaged.
- 44.What type of corrosion can be recognized by a lifting up or swelling of the metal grains?
- A.
Pitting.
- B.
Galvanic.
- C.
Exfoliation.
- D.
Crevice/concentration cell.
- 45.What corrosion type appears as corroded cracks in a metal?
- A.
Stress.
- B.
Intergranular.
- C.
Oxygen concentration cell.
- D.
Metal ion concentration cell.
- 46.Alkaline and solvent cleaners authorized for use on our aircraft are specified in
- A.
TO 00-20-1.
- B.
TO 1-1-3.
- C.
TO 1-1A-8
- D.
TO 1-1-691.
- 47.After treatment which solution is used to neutralize areas affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery?
- A.
Potassium hydroxide.
- B.
Aluminum hydroxide.
- C.
Sodium bicarbonate.
- D.
Boric acid.
- 48.The reservoir supplies hydraulic fluid to a hand pump
- A.
By gravity.
- B.
By the suction effect of the pump.
- C.
By gravity and the suction effect of the pump.
- D.
In response to pressure demand and the suction effect of the pump.
- 49.When pressure in a hydraulic system with a variable-volume pump increases, the fluid-flow
- A.
Stops.
- B.
Increases.
- C.
Decreases.
- D.
Remains the same.
- 50.The purpose of the torsion links on a main landing gear is to
- A.
Reduce oscillation during extension.
- B.
Reduce oscillation during retraction.
- C.
Allow the inner cylinder to rotate within the outer cylinder.
- D.
Prevent the inner cylinder from rotating within the outer cylinder.
- 51.How is the motion of the landing gear control lever transmitted to the selector valve?
- A.
Electrically.
- B.
By push-and-pull rods.
- C.
By a cable system.
- D.
Through hydraulic pressure.
- 52.What prevents the lock solenoid from energizing when the nose landing gear is off center?
- A.
Safety relay.
- B.
Safety switch.
- C.
Centering relay.
- D.
Centering switch.
- 53.Electromagnetic devices capable of sensing magnetically conducive metal targets on landing gears are known as
- A.
Position switches.
- B.
Proximity switches.
- C.
Selector valves.
- D.
Solenoid circuits.
- 54.A unit that is a combination of the landing gear shimmy damper and steering unit is known as
- A.
A steer damper.
- B.
An uplock control.
- C.
A downlock control.
- D.
A servo oscillating damper.
- 55.What position must the landing gear control handle be in before emergency extension of the landing gear?
- A.
UP.
- B.
DN.
- C.
AUX.
- D.
EMRG.
- 56.
- A.
Dampering unit.
- B.
Inline restrictor.
- C.
Orifice check valve.
- D.
Snubbing mechanism.
- 57.The purpose of the landing gear warning horn is to
- A.
Alert the pilot to marker beacons.
- B.
Sound when the gear are not safe.
- C.
Sound when the gear is safe.
- D.
Alert the pilot to a stall.
- 58.Brake fade is defined as a gradual braking action
- A.
Loss due to overheating.
- B.
Increase due to overheating.
- C.
Loss due to pressure increase.
- D.
Increase due to pressure reduction.
- 59.A major disadvantage of multiple disc brakes is that they
- A.
Warp when overheated.
- B.
Shatter during hard landings.
- C.
Must be adjusted after each landing.
- D.
Do not provide maximum stopping grip.
- 60.What automatically compensates for brake wear on the segmented rotor brake?
- A.
Rotors.
- B.
Stators.
- C.
Actuators.
- D.
Adjusters.
- 61.The purpose of the antiskid system is to
- A.
Reduce friction between the wheel and tire.
- B.
Increase friction between the wheel and tire.
- C.
Prevent wheel skid by applying pressure to the skidding wheel.
- D.
Prevent wheel skid by releasing pressure from the skidding wheel.
- 62.The purpose of deboosters is to
- A.
Decrease fluid volume.
- B.
Reduce braking pressure.
- C.
Enlarge running clearance.
- D.
Increase braking pressure.
- 63.Aircraft wheels are normally constructed of
- A.
Steel and/or titanium alloys.
- B.
Chromium and/or titanium alloys.
- C.
Palladium and/or aluminum alloys.
- D.
Magnesium and/or aluminum alloys.
- 64.Split wheels are balanced
- A.
During buildup.
- B.
As an assembly.
- C.
Individually by halves.
- D.
By a self-balancing system.
- 65.What maintains an airtight seal between split wheel halves?
- A.
A rubber liner.
- B.
An O-ring seal.
- C.
A phenolic ring.
- D.
Machined mated surfaces.
- 66.What prevents tire explosion from excessive heat buildup?
- A.
Vent holes.
- B.
Blowout caps.
- C.
Wheel valve stems.
- D.
Thermal relief plugs.
- 67.What type of bearings are used on aircraft wheels?
- A.
Flat roller.
- B.
Straight ball.
- C.
Tapered roller.
- D.
Recessed cone.
- 68.The bearing cone of an aircraft wheel bearing is also called the
- A.
Outer race.
- B.
Inner race.
- C.
Bearing cup.
- D.
Roller mount.
- 69.When cleaning aircraft wheels, you should not use
- A.
A fiber brush.
- B.
A wire brush.
- C.
Clean rags.
- D.
Fiber pads.
- 70.Installed bearing races should be free of scratches, dents, and
- A.
Dye marks.
- B.
Paint marks.
- C.
Blister marks.
- D.
Overheating marks.
- 71.The main parts of an aircraft tire are the tread and sidewall,
- A.
Cord body, and beads.
- B.
Valve core, and beads.
- C.
Cord body, vent holes.
- D.
Valve core, and cord body.
- 72.What prevents pressure buildup and separation of cord plies or tread rubber on an aircraft tire?
- A.
Beads.
- B.
Sidewalls.
- C.
Vent holes.
- D.
Blow out valves.
- 73.For tires 24 inches or greater outside diameter, the tire must be removed when wear reaches the bottom of any tread groove for a continuous length of
- A.
4 inches.
- B.
6 inches.
- C.
12 inches.
- D.
16 inches.
- 74.When the turbine wheel absorbs the fuel energy,
- A.
50 percent is used for accessories.
- B.
60 percent is used for accessories.
- C.
The energy returns to the compressor.
- D.
The energy operates the anti-ice system.
- 75.What effect does the divergent design of a jet engine diffuser have on pressure?
- A.
Increase pressure.
- B.
Decrease pressure.
- C.
Results in pressure fluctuations.
- D.
Has many effect on pressure.
- 76.Air and gases flowing through a jet engine require
- A.
Low velocity at all times.
- B.
Less velocity exiting than entering.
- C.
Equal velocity entering and exiting.
- D.
Greater velocity exiting than entering.
- 77.When a jet engine uses two or more turbine wheels, what is placed directly in front of each turbine wheel?
- A.
Diffuser.
- B.
Jet nozzle.
- C.
Combustion liner.
- D.
Nozzle diaphragm.
- 78.A jet engine derives its name from the fact that
- A.
It is in effect a turbo-supercharger.
- B.
The internal engine nozzles called jets.
- C.
It uses turbine-type compressor to maintain power.
- D.
It uses a exhaust-gas-driven turbine wheel to drive its compressor.
- 79.What are the two types of jet engine compressors?
- A.
Axial-flow and radial.
- B.
Centrifugal and radial.
- C.
Axial-flow and divergent.
- D.
Centrifugal and axial-flow.
- 80.After air is drawn into the guide vanes of a centrifugal jet engine compressor, it is subjected to
- A.
Radial and tangential forces.
- B.
Rotational and tangential forces.
- C.
Rotational and centrifugal forces.
- D.
Tangential and centrifugal forces.
- 81.What determines the N2 compressor RPM of a dual-spool jet engine compressor?
- A.
Starter.
- B.
Fuel pump.
- C.
Fuel control.
- D.
Low-pressure turbine.
- 82.What is the purpose of a front-mounted fan in an axial-flow jet engine compressor?
- A.
Add thrust and decrease efficiency.
- B.
Add air to the engine and decrease efficiency.
- C.
Increase thrust and engine RPM.
- D.
Increase thrust and send air through the compressor core rotor.
- 83.The combustion efficiency of a gas turbine is usually between
- A.
60 and 70 percent.
- B.
65 to 75 percent.
- C.
75 to 95 percent.
- D.
95 to 100 percent.
- 84.Engine design helps prevent igniter plug fouling by
- A.
Splitting the electrode on the plug.
- B.
Directing air around the plug electrode.
- C.
Applying gold plating to plug the electrode.
- D.
Applying ceramic coating on the plug electrode.
- 85.What forms the inner and outer surfaces of an annular-type combustion chamber?
- A.
Interlocking stainless steel bands.
- B.
The inner and outer diffuser case.
- C.
A forged steel casing.
- D.
Solid sheet metal.
- 86.Fuel that accumulates after a failed start or engine shutdown is
- A.
Drained overboard by a drain system.
- B.
Returned to the fuel control tubes.
- C.
Burned on the next start attempt.
- D.
Allowed to evaporate.
- 87.The three turbine designs used in jet engines are
- A.
Shrouded, unshrouded, and fir tree.
- B.
Shrouded, unshrouded, and corrugated.
- C.
Impulse, reaction, and reaction-impulse.
- D.
Impeller, impulse, and reaction-impulse.
- 88.On some jet engines, what secures the turbine bucket in place?
- A.
Screws.
- B.
Cables.
- C.
Lockwire.
- D.
Lockstrips.
- 89.The exhaust duct connects the turbine outlet and the
- A.
Fan duct.
- B.
Jet nozzle.
- C.
Fuel nozzle.
- D.
Augmented the duct.
- 90.What is the purpose of the exhaust duct?
- A.
Swirl exhaust gas-flow.
- B.
Equalize exhaust gas-flow.
- C.
Modulate exhaust gas-flow.
- D.
Straighten exhaust gas-flow.
- 91.One type of variable-area orifice used on augmenters is the
- A.
Flap.
- B.
Segmented.
- C.
Segmented flap.
- D.
Segmented nozzle.
- 92.What augmenter component creates local turbulence and reduces gas velocity?
- A.
Spraybar.
- B.
Flameholder.
- C.
Screech liner.
- D.
Fuel manifold.
- 93.Which engine type used a lot during the early years of jet engine design is the most basic turbine engine design?
- A.
Turbojet.
- B.
Turbofan.
- C.
Turboram.
- D.
Turboprop.
- 94.A turbo fan engine with a bypass ratio of 3:1 is classified as
- A.
Low bypass.
- B.
Low-medium bypass.
- C.
Medium bypass.
- D.
Medium-high bypass.
- 95.The primary function of a hydromechanical fuel control on a jet engine is to
- A.
Generate the proper fuel pressure for all ranges of engine operation.
- B.
Prevent hot starts, overtemperatures, engine overspeeding, and flameouts.
- C.
Propel the right amount of fuel to the fuel nozzels for correct combustion at all times.
- D.
Meter the fuel, making certain that the engine gets the correct quantity for combustion at all times.
- 96.What type of fuel control uses thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids, to help control the engine?
- A.
Pneumatic.
- B.
Fuel injection.
- C.
Hydromechanical.
- D.
Electrohydromechanical.
- 97.The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to
- A.
Heat the fuel and cool the oil.
- B.
Cool the fuel and cool the oil.
- C.
Heat the fuel and heat the oil.
- D.
Cool the fuel and heat the oil.
- 98.When classified according to structure, which of the following is not a type of an oil pump?
- A.
Gear.
- B.
Gerotor.
- C.
Rotogear.
- D.
Sliding vane.
- 99.What jet engine oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing?
- A.
Gear.
- B.
Gerotor.
- C.
Rotogear.
- D.
Rotor-gear.
- 100.A micron is a metric linear measurement equal to
- A.
1/25 of an inch.
- B.
1/.25 of an inch.
- C.
1/2,500 of an inch.
- D.
1/25,000 of an inch.
- 101.The two types of oil coolers used in jet engine oil systems are air/oil and
- A.
Fuel/oil.
- B.
Freon/oil.
- C.
Water/oil.
- D.
Hydraulic/oil.
- 102.What do you use to create a static seal between two stationary parts in the oil system?
- A.
Wadding.
- B.
Packing.
- C.
Gasket.
- D.
Filler.
- 103.What engine component must be rotated to a predetermined speed in order for a jet engine starter to be considered effective?
- A.
Center gearbox.
- B.
Front gearbox.
- C.
Compressor.
- D.
Turbine.
- 104.The air turbine (impingement) starter used on jet engines
- A.
Is usually mounted on the engine accessory drive.
- B.
Uses a starter-clutch assembly to disengage the starter from the engine.
- C.
Has the advantages of less weight and fewer moving parts than other starters.
- D.
Requires high-pressure, low-volume air flow to produce torque necessary for engine start.
- 105.The cartridge-pneumatic starter is a gas-driven turbine wheel coupled to the engine through a reduction gear system and
- A.
A power takeoff shaft.
- B.
A single-entry air diverter.
- C.
An overrunning clutch.
- D.
A cartridge.
- 106.In a gearbox-type starter system, what transmits the torque supplied by the jet fuel starter to the engine gearbox?
- A.
Power takeoff shaft.
- B.
Single-entry air diverter.
- C.
Pneumatic cartridge.
- D.
Overrunning clutch.
- 107.What jet engine alternating current ignition system unit develops 20,000 volts delivered to the igniter plug?
- A.
Inverter.
- B.
Capacitor.
- C.
Generator.
- D.
Transformer.
- 108.A simple direct current ignition system consists of
- A.
Vibrator, alternating current to DC converter, and transformer.
- B.
Transformer, igniter plugs, and AC-to-DC converter.
- C.
Vibrator, igniter plugs, and AC-to-DC converter.
- D.
Vibrator, igniter plugs, and transformer.
- 109.Jet engine tachometer gauges are calibrated in percent of
- A.
Minimum rotations per minute(RPM).
- B.
Maximum torque.
- C.
Minimum torque.
- D.
Maximum RPM.
- 110.The purpose of the jet engine pressure ratio (EPR) indicating system is to give a reference to the engine"s
- A.
Available thrust output.
- B.
Compressor balance.
- C.
Thermal efficiency.
- D.
Turbine efficiency.
- 111.Exhaust gas temperature indicators indicate the engine EGT in
- A.
British thermal units per hour.
- B.
Pounds per square inch.
- C.
Degrees Fahrenheit.
- D.
Degrees Celsius.
- 112.The three benefits of of the Joint Oil Analysis Program (JOAP) are improved safety, reduced maintenance cost, and
- A.
Recycling of used oil.
- B.
Production of wear metals.
- C.
Increased equipment availability.
- D.
Increased length of time between oil changes.
- 113.Through the use of spectrometric oil analysis, aircraft will have a higher in-commission rate because there will be
- A.
More oil sampling.
- B.
More engine removals.
- C.
Less unnecessary maintenance.
- D.
Less wear metal found in the oil.
- 114.At a minimum, what should you wear when taking an oil sample?
- A.
Goggles.
- B.
Goggles and gloves.
- C.
Gloves and long sleeves.
- D.
Goggles and long sleeves.
- 115.What indicates lubricant system contamination by dirt and sand?
- A.
A decrease in carbon.
- B.
A increase in silicon.
- C.
A decrease in graphite.
- D.
An increase in synthetic oils.
- 116.What form must you fill out and submit to the non-destructive inspections (NDI) laboratory with all oil samples?
- A.
DD Form 988.
- B.
DD Form 2026.
- C.
AFTO Form 244.
- D.
AFTO 781 series forms.
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