2AX5X CDC v3 trivia quiz

1. When cleaning aircraft wheels, you should not use

A fiber brush.

A wire brush.

Clean rags.

Fiber pads.

Using a wire brush to clean aircraft wheels can cause damage to the surface of the wheel. The bristles of a wire brush are often too abrasive and can scratch or gouge the wheel, leading to potential structural integrity issues. It is important to use softer materials, such as fiber brushes, clean rags, or fiber pads, to avoid any damage and ensure proper cleaning without compromising the safety of the aircraft.

Explanation

Using a wire brush to clean aircraft wheels can cause damage to the surface of the wheel. The bristles of a wire brush are often too abrasive and can scratch or gouge the wheel, leading to potential structural integrity issues. It is important to use softer materials, such as fiber brushes, clean rags, or fiber pads, to avoid any damage and ensure proper cleaning without compromising the safety of the aircraft.

2. At a minimum, what should you wear when taking an oil sample?

Goggles.

Goggles and gloves.

Gloves and long sleeves.

Goggles and long sleeves.

When taking an oil sample, it is important to wear goggles and gloves as a minimum requirement. Goggles protect the eyes from any splashes or spills that may occur during the sampling process. Gloves, on the other hand, provide protection for the hands, preventing direct contact with the oil which may contain harmful chemicals or contaminants. Wearing both goggles and gloves ensures the safety of the person taking the sample by minimizing the risk of any potential hazards.

Explanation

When taking an oil sample, it is important to wear goggles and gloves as a minimum requirement. Goggles protect the eyes from any splashes or spills that may occur during the sampling process. Gloves, on the other hand, provide protection for the hands, preventing direct contact with the oil which may contain harmful chemicals or contaminants. Wearing both goggles and gloves ensures the safety of the person taking the sample by minimizing the risk of any potential hazards.

3. Which torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached?

Indicating type.

Breakaway type.

Screwdriver type.

Internal wrenching type.

A breakaway type torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached. This type of torque wrench is commonly used in applications where over-tightening can cause damage or failure. When the desired torque is reached, the wrench will "breakaway" or disengage, preventing any further torque from being applied. This feature ensures that the torque is accurately and consistently applied without the risk of over-tightening.

Explanation

A breakaway type torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached. This type of torque wrench is commonly used in applications where over-tightening can cause damage or failure. When the desired torque is reached, the wrench will "breakaway" or disengage, preventing any further torque from being applied. This feature ensures that the torque is accurately and consistently applied without the risk of over-tightening.

4. Who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced?

Base commanders.

Squadron commanders.

Supervisors at all levels.

Squadron QA section.

Supervisors at all levels are responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced. This means that it is the duty of supervisors, regardless of their rank or position, to oversee and enforce proper supply management practices within their respective areas of responsibility. By doing so, supervisors can ensure that supplies are properly accounted for, stored, and distributed, minimizing waste and ensuring efficient use of resources. This responsibility extends to all levels of supervision, from base commanders down to squadron commanders, as they play a crucial role in promoting and maintaining good supply discipline.

Explanation

Supervisors at all levels are responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced. This means that it is the duty of supervisors, regardless of their rank or position, to oversee and enforce proper supply management practices within their respective areas of responsibility. By doing so, supervisors can ensure that supplies are properly accounted for, stored, and distributed, minimizing waste and ensuring efficient use of resources. This responsibility extends to all levels of supervision, from base commanders down to squadron commanders, as they play a crucial role in promoting and maintaining good supply discipline.

5. The purpose of the landing gear warning horn is to

Alert the pilot to marker beacons.

Sound when the gear are not safe.

Sound when the gear is safe.

Alert the pilot to a stall.

The landing gear warning horn is designed to sound when the gear are not safe. This is an important safety feature that alerts the pilot if the landing gear is not properly deployed or locked in place before landing. By sounding the warning horn, it helps prevent accidents or damage to the aircraft that could occur if the gear were not in the correct position.

Explanation

The landing gear warning horn is designed to sound when the gear are not safe. This is an important safety feature that alerts the pilot if the landing gear is not properly deployed or locked in place before landing. By sounding the warning horn, it helps prevent accidents or damage to the aircraft that could occur if the gear were not in the correct position.

6. The two types of oil coolers used in jet engine oil systems are air/oil and

Fuel/oil.

Freon/oil.

Water/oil.

Hydraulic/oil.

In jet engine oil systems, the two types of oil coolers used are air/oil and fuel/oil. Air/oil coolers use the flow of air to cool the oil, while fuel/oil coolers use the flow of fuel to cool the oil. This helps in maintaining the optimal temperature of the oil, preventing it from overheating and ensuring efficient engine operation.

Explanation

In jet engine oil systems, the two types of oil coolers used are air/oil and fuel/oil. Air/oil coolers use the flow of air to cool the oil, while fuel/oil coolers use the flow of fuel to cool the oil. This helps in maintaining the optimal temperature of the oil, preventing it from overheating and ensuring efficient engine operation.

7. What part of a cannon plug completes the electrical circuit?

Metal shells.

Connector halves.

Dielectric contacts.

Pin-and-socket contacts.

Pin-and-socket contacts complete the electrical circuit in a cannon plug. These contacts consist of pins on one half of the connector and sockets on the other half. When the plug is inserted into the corresponding socket, the pins and sockets make contact, allowing the flow of electricity between the two halves of the connector. This completes the electrical circuit and enables the transfer of signals or power through the cannon plug.

Explanation

Pin-and-socket contacts complete the electrical circuit in a cannon plug. These contacts consist of pins on one half of the connector and sockets on the other half. When the plug is inserted into the corresponding socket, the pins and sockets make contact, allowing the flow of electricity between the two halves of the connector. This completes the electrical circuit and enables the transfer of signals or power through the cannon plug.

8. Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the

Maximum setting at least four times.

Maximum setting at least six times.

Lowest setting at least four times.

Lowest setting at least six times.

The correct answer is to cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the maximum setting at least six times. This is because cycling the torque wrench multiple times helps to ensure that it is properly calibrated and ready for use. By doing this at the maximum setting, any potential issues or inconsistencies in the torque wrench can be identified and addressed. Cycling it six times provides a more thorough check and increases the likelihood of detecting any problems.

Explanation

The correct answer is to cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the maximum setting at least six times. This is because cycling the torque wrench multiple times helps to ensure that it is properly calibrated and ready for use. By doing this at the maximum setting, any potential issues or inconsistencies in the torque wrench can be identified and addressed. Cycling it six times provides a more thorough check and increases the likelihood of detecting any problems.

9. A major disadvantage of multiple disc brakes is that they

Warp when overheated.

Shatter during hard landings.

Must be adjusted after each landing.

Do not provide maximum stopping grip.

Multiple disc brakes are prone to warping when overheated. This is because excessive heat causes the metal discs to expand unevenly, resulting in a warped shape. This warping can lead to a loss of braking performance and cause vibrations or pulsations when the brakes are applied. It is important to prevent overheating of the brakes by using proper braking techniques and allowing them to cool down between heavy use to avoid this disadvantage.

Explanation

Multiple disc brakes are prone to warping when overheated. This is because excessive heat causes the metal discs to expand unevenly, resulting in a warped shape. This warping can lead to a loss of braking performance and cause vibrations or pulsations when the brakes are applied. It is important to prevent overheating of the brakes by using proper braking techniques and allowing them to cool down between heavy use to avoid this disadvantage.

10. What are two stresses that a fastener takes when tightened?

Extension and flexion.

Tension and torsion.

Torque and friction.

Push and pull.

When a fastener is tightened, it experiences tension and torsion stresses. Tension refers to the stretching force applied to the fastener, while torsion refers to the twisting or rotational force applied to it. These stresses are important to consider because they can affect the integrity and strength of the fastener, ensuring that it can securely hold the components together.

Explanation

When a fastener is tightened, it experiences tension and torsion stresses. Tension refers to the stretching force applied to the fastener, while torsion refers to the twisting or rotational force applied to it. These stresses are important to consider because they can affect the integrity and strength of the fastener, ensuring that it can securely hold the components together.

11. The TH inspection is normally performed

Prior to going on alert and again before flight after completion of the alert period.

After flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled.

Immediately prior to a BPO.

After the last flight of a specified flying period.

The correct answer is after flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled. This means that the TH inspection is conducted after the completion of a flight when there is a plan for a quick turnaround or continuation flight. This ensures that the aircraft is thoroughly inspected and any necessary maintenance or repairs can be carried out before the next flight.

Explanation

The correct answer is after flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled. This means that the TH inspection is conducted after the completion of a flight when there is a plan for a quick turnaround or continuation flight. This ensures that the aircraft is thoroughly inspected and any necessary maintenance or repairs can be carried out before the next flight.

12. Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins the instant it is

Exposed to moist air.

Exposed to a chemical.

Connected to another part.

Fabricated and manufactured.

When a metal part is fabricated and manufactured, it goes through various processes such as cutting, shaping, and joining. These processes can introduce imperfections or alter the surface of the metal, making it more susceptible to corrosion or deterioration. This is why the corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins once it has been fabricated and manufactured.

Explanation

When a metal part is fabricated and manufactured, it goes through various processes such as cutting, shaping, and joining. These processes can introduce imperfections or alter the surface of the metal, making it more susceptible to corrosion or deterioration. This is why the corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins once it has been fabricated and manufactured.

13. What type of corrosion can be recognized by a lifting up or swelling of the metal grains?

Pitting.

Galvanic.

Exfoliation.

Crevice/concentration cell.

Exfoliation corrosion is a type of corrosion that occurs when a metal's grains are lifted up or swollen. This type of corrosion typically happens in alloys, where one metal is more susceptible to corrosion than the other. The corrosion starts at the grain boundaries and progresses inward, causing the grains to lift up or swell. This can weaken the metal and lead to structural failure. Pitting corrosion, on the other hand, involves the formation of small pits or holes on the metal's surface. Galvanic corrosion occurs when two dissimilar metals are in contact in the presence of an electrolyte. Crevice or concentration cell corrosion occurs in narrow crevices or gaps where the concentration of corrosive agents is higher.

Explanation

Exfoliation corrosion is a type of corrosion that occurs when a metal's grains are lifted up or swollen. This type of corrosion typically happens in alloys, where one metal is more susceptible to corrosion than the other. The corrosion starts at the grain boundaries and progresses inward, causing the grains to lift up or swell. This can weaken the metal and lead to structural failure. Pitting corrosion, on the other hand, involves the formation of small pits or holes on the metal's surface. Galvanic corrosion occurs when two dissimilar metals are in contact in the presence of an electrolyte. Crevice or concentration cell corrosion occurs in narrow crevices or gaps where the concentration of corrosive agents is higher.

14. What maintains an airtight seal between split wheel halves?

A rubber liner.

An O-ring seal.

A phenolic ring.

Machined mated surfaces.

An O-ring seal is used to maintain an airtight seal between split wheel halves. O-rings are made of rubber or other elastomers and are designed to fit into a groove between two mating surfaces. When compressed, the O-ring creates a tight seal that prevents any leakage of air or other fluids. This makes it an effective choice for maintaining an airtight seal in split wheel halves.

Explanation

An O-ring seal is used to maintain an airtight seal between split wheel halves. O-rings are made of rubber or other elastomers and are designed to fit into a groove between two mating surfaces. When compressed, the O-ring creates a tight seal that prevents any leakage of air or other fluids. This makes it an effective choice for maintaining an airtight seal in split wheel halves.

15. Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is

Painted.

Heat treated.

Chemically treated.

Exhausted or salvaged.

Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is exhausted or salvaged. This means that the corrosion process will continue until the metal part is completely worn out or until it is salvaged, which involves repairing or restoring the part to its original condition. Painting, heat treatment, and chemical treatment may help prevent or slow down corrosion, but they do not completely stop it. Therefore, the only way to fully address the corrosion is by either using the part until it is no longer functional or salvaging it.

Explanation

Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is exhausted or salvaged. This means that the corrosion process will continue until the metal part is completely worn out or until it is salvaged, which involves repairing or restoring the part to its original condition. Painting, heat treatment, and chemical treatment may help prevent or slow down corrosion, but they do not completely stop it. Therefore, the only way to fully address the corrosion is by either using the part until it is no longer functional or salvaging it.

16. What position must the landing gear control handle be in before emergency extension of the landing gear?

UP.

DN.

AUX.

EMRG.

Before emergency extension of the landing gear, the landing gear control handle must be in the "DN" position. This indicates that the landing gear is being manually lowered and locked into place. The "UP" position would indicate that the landing gear is being retracted, while the "AUX" and "EMRG" positions are not relevant for emergency extension.

Explanation

Before emergency extension of the landing gear, the landing gear control handle must be in the "DN" position. This indicates that the landing gear is being manually lowered and locked into place. The "UP" position would indicate that the landing gear is being retracted, while the "AUX" and "EMRG" positions are not relevant for emergency extension.

17. Through the use of spectrometric oil analysis, aircraft will have a higher in-commission rate because there will be

More oil sampling.

More engine removals.

Less unnecessary maintenance.

Less wear metal found in the oil.

The correct answer is "less unnecessary maintenance." Spectrometric oil analysis allows for the detection of wear metals in the oil, which can indicate potential engine problems. By identifying these issues early on, maintenance can be performed only when necessary, reducing the need for unnecessary maintenance. This leads to a higher in-commission rate for aircraft as they spend less time in maintenance and more time in operation.

Explanation

The correct answer is "less unnecessary maintenance." Spectrometric oil analysis allows for the detection of wear metals in the oil, which can indicate potential engine problems. By identifying these issues early on, maintenance can be performed only when necessary, reducing the need for unnecessary maintenance. This leads to a higher in-commission rate for aircraft as they spend less time in maintenance and more time in operation.

18. Which tool is used to measure the gap between two parts?

Multimeter.

Depth gauge.

Feeler gauge.

Torque wrench.

A feeler gauge is a tool used to measure the gap between two parts. It consists of a series of thin metal strips of different thicknesses. By inserting the appropriate strip into the gap, the user can determine the size of the gap based on which strip fits snugly. This tool is commonly used in automotive and mechanical applications to ensure proper clearance between parts, such as spark plug gaps or valve clearances.

Explanation

A feeler gauge is a tool used to measure the gap between two parts. It consists of a series of thin metal strips of different thicknesses. By inserting the appropriate strip into the gap, the user can determine the size of the gap based on which strip fits snugly. This tool is commonly used in automotive and mechanical applications to ensure proper clearance between parts, such as spark plug gaps or valve clearances.

19. The purpose of the antiskid system is to

Reduce friction between the wheel and tire.

Increase friction between the wheel and tire.

Prevent wheel skid by applying pressure to the skidding wheel.

Prevent wheel skid by releasing pressure from the skidding wheel.

The antiskid system is designed to prevent wheel skid by releasing pressure from the skidding wheel. When a wheel begins to skid, the antiskid system detects this and reduces the brake pressure on that wheel, allowing it to regain traction. By releasing pressure, the system helps to prevent the wheel from locking up and sliding, which can lead to loss of control and accidents. This allows the driver to maintain steering control and stability, improving overall safety.

Explanation

The antiskid system is designed to prevent wheel skid by releasing pressure from the skidding wheel. When a wheel begins to skid, the antiskid system detects this and reduces the brake pressure on that wheel, allowing it to regain traction. By releasing pressure, the system helps to prevent the wheel from locking up and sliding, which can lead to loss of control and accidents. This allows the driver to maintain steering control and stability, improving overall safety.

20. Installed bearing races should be free of scratches, dents, and

Dye marks.

Paint marks.

Blister marks.

Overheating marks.

When bearings are subjected to overheating, it can cause discoloration or marks on the races. These marks are a result of excessive heat and can indicate potential damage or wear on the bearing. Therefore, installed bearing races should be free of overheating marks to ensure their proper functioning and longevity.

Explanation

When bearings are subjected to overheating, it can cause discoloration or marks on the races. These marks are a result of excessive heat and can indicate potential damage or wear on the bearing. Therefore, installed bearing races should be free of overheating marks to ensure their proper functioning and longevity.

21. When securing widely spaced bolts by the double-twist safetying method, what is the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in series?

3.

4.

5.

6.

When securing bolts by the double-twist safetying method, the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in series is 3. This means that you can connect up to 3 bolts together using wire to secure them. Wiring more than 3 bolts in series may compromise the effectiveness of the safetying method and increase the risk of bolts coming loose. Therefore, it is recommended to wire a maximum of 3 bolts in series to ensure proper security.

Explanation

When securing bolts by the double-twist safetying method, the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in series is 3. This means that you can connect up to 3 bolts together using wire to secure them. Wiring more than 3 bolts in series may compromise the effectiveness of the safetying method and increase the risk of bolts coming loose. Therefore, it is recommended to wire a maximum of 3 bolts in series to ensure proper security.

22. What torque wrench indicates the amount of torque or twisting action being applied?

Indicating type.

Breakaway type.

Screwdriver type.

Internal wrenching type.

An indicating type torque wrench is designed to show the amount of torque or twisting action being applied. This type of wrench typically has a gauge or display that provides a visual indication of the torque being applied, allowing the user to accurately measure and control the amount of torque being used. This is useful in applications where precise torque is required to ensure proper fastening or assembly.

Explanation

An indicating type torque wrench is designed to show the amount of torque or twisting action being applied. This type of wrench typically has a gauge or display that provides a visual indication of the torque being applied, allowing the user to accurately measure and control the amount of torque being used. This is useful in applications where precise torque is required to ensure proper fastening or assembly.

23. Which medical concept forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy?

"EMERGENCY".

"DIAGNOSE".

"TRIAGE".

"STAT".

Triage is the process of determining the priority of patients' treatments based on the severity of their condition. It is a fundamental concept in emergency medicine and forms the basis of the ABDR (Assessment, Brief Intervention, and Referral to Treatment) assessment philosophy. Triage helps healthcare professionals allocate limited resources effectively and efficiently, ensuring that the most critical patients receive immediate attention.

Explanation

Triage is the process of determining the priority of patients' treatments based on the severity of their condition. It is a fundamental concept in emergency medicine and forms the basis of the ABDR (Assessment, Brief Intervention, and Referral to Treatment) assessment philosophy. Triage helps healthcare professionals allocate limited resources effectively and efficiently, ensuring that the most critical patients receive immediate attention.

24. Aircraft wheels are normally constructed of

Steel and/or titanium alloys.

Chromium and/or titanium alloys.

Palladium and/or aluminum alloys.

Magnesium and/or aluminum alloys.

Aircraft wheels are typically made of magnesium and/or aluminum alloys. These materials are chosen for their lightweight properties, which help reduce the overall weight of the aircraft and improve fuel efficiency. Magnesium alloys offer high strength-to-weight ratio, while aluminum alloys provide good corrosion resistance. The combination of these two alloys allows for a strong and durable wheel that can withstand the stresses and forces experienced during takeoff, landing, and taxiing.

Explanation

Aircraft wheels are typically made of magnesium and/or aluminum alloys. These materials are chosen for their lightweight properties, which help reduce the overall weight of the aircraft and improve fuel efficiency. Magnesium alloys offer high strength-to-weight ratio, while aluminum alloys provide good corrosion resistance. The combination of these two alloys allows for a strong and durable wheel that can withstand the stresses and forces experienced during takeoff, landing, and taxiing.

25. Split wheels are balanced

During buildup.

As an assembly.

Individually by halves.

By a self-balancing system.

The correct answer is "individually by halves." This means that each wheel is balanced separately, with each half of the wheel being balanced individually. This is done to ensure that each wheel is properly balanced and does not cause any vibrations or uneven wear on the tires. By balancing the wheels individually by halves, any imbalances in weight or distribution can be corrected, resulting in a smoother and safer ride.

Explanation

The correct answer is "individually by halves." This means that each wheel is balanced separately, with each half of the wheel being balanced individually. This is done to ensure that each wheel is properly balanced and does not cause any vibrations or uneven wear on the tires. By balancing the wheels individually by halves, any imbalances in weight or distribution can be corrected, resulting in a smoother and safer ride.

26. Air and gases flowing through a jet engine require

Low velocity at all times.

Less velocity exiting than entering.

Equal velocity entering and exiting.

Greater velocity exiting than entering.

In a jet engine, the air and gases need to exit the engine at a greater velocity than they entered in order to generate thrust. This is achieved through the process of combustion and expansion, where the fuel is burned and the resulting hot gases are accelerated and expelled at high speed. This high velocity of the exhaust gases creates a reaction force in the opposite direction, propelling the aircraft forward. Therefore, the correct answer is that the velocity exiting the engine is greater than the velocity entering.

Explanation

In a jet engine, the air and gases need to exit the engine at a greater velocity than they entered in order to generate thrust. This is achieved through the process of combustion and expansion, where the fuel is burned and the resulting hot gases are accelerated and expelled at high speed. This high velocity of the exhaust gases creates a reaction force in the opposite direction, propelling the aircraft forward. Therefore, the correct answer is that the velocity exiting the engine is greater than the velocity entering.

27. After air is drawn into the guide vanes of a centrifugal jet engine compressor, it is subjected to

Radial and tangential forces.

Rotational and tangential forces.

Rotational and centrifugal forces.

Tangential and centrifugal forces.

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Explanation

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28. The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to

Heat the fuel and cool the oil.

Cool the fuel and cool the oil.

Heat the fuel and heat the oil.

Cool the fuel and heat the oil.

The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to heat the fuel and cool the oil. This is important because fuel needs to be at a certain temperature in order to efficiently combust and provide power to the engine. By heating the fuel, it ensures that it is at the optimal temperature for combustion. On the other hand, cooling the oil is necessary to prevent it from overheating and losing its lubricating properties. This helps to maintain the overall performance and longevity of the engine.

Explanation

The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to heat the fuel and cool the oil. This is important because fuel needs to be at a certain temperature in order to efficiently combust and provide power to the engine. By heating the fuel, it ensures that it is at the optimal temperature for combustion. On the other hand, cooling the oil is necessary to prevent it from overheating and losing its lubricating properties. This helps to maintain the overall performance and longevity of the engine.

29. In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12_10PW, the letter P indicates

Pin.

Plain.

Primary.

Pratt and Whitney.

In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12_10PW, the letter P indicates "pin". The letter P is commonly used in electrical connectors to denote the pin configuration. In this case, it suggests that the connector has pins for electrical connections.

Explanation

In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12_10PW, the letter P indicates "pin". The letter P is commonly used in electrical connectors to denote the pin configuration. In this case, it suggests that the connector has pins for electrical connections.

30. When the H symbol is shown on the Fluke multimeter display, the

Manual range mode is indicated.

Touch-hold mode is in use.

Ohms function is selected.

Meter is zeroing itself.

The H symbol on the Fluke multimeter display indicates that the touch-hold mode is in use. In this mode, the meter "freezes" the measurement value on the display until it is manually reset. This can be useful when taking measurements in difficult or dangerous conditions where it may be challenging to read the display in real-time.

Explanation

The H symbol on the Fluke multimeter display indicates that the touch-hold mode is in use. In this mode, the meter "freezes" the measurement value on the display until it is manually reset. This can be useful when taking measurements in difficult or dangerous conditions where it may be challenging to read the display in real-time.

31. All items that come through supply channels are assigned what type of code?

PDC.

AAC.

PACC.

ERRC.

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Explanation

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32. Which inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of systems?

In progress.

PR.

TH.

EOR.

The correct answer is EOR. EOR stands for Engine-Off Run-up, which is an inspection usually performed just prior to takeoff. During this inspection, the engine is shut down and then restarted to check the operational systems such as the fuel, electrical, and hydraulic systems. This inspection ensures that all systems are functioning properly before the aircraft takes off.

Explanation

The correct answer is EOR. EOR stands for Engine-Off Run-up, which is an inspection usually performed just prior to takeoff. During this inspection, the engine is shut down and then restarted to check the operational systems such as the fuel, electrical, and hydraulic systems. This inspection ensures that all systems are functioning properly before the aircraft takes off.

33. The purpose of the torsion links on a main landing gear is to

Reduce oscillation during extension.

Reduce oscillation during retraction.

Allow the inner cylinder to rotate within the outer cylinder.

Prevent the inner cylinder from rotating within the outer cylinder.

The purpose of the torsion links on a main landing gear is to prevent the inner cylinder from rotating within the outer cylinder. Torsion links are designed to provide structural support and limit rotational movement between the inner and outer cylinders of the landing gear. This prevents any unwanted rotation or twisting motion during the extension or retraction of the landing gear, ensuring the stability and proper functioning of the aircraft's landing gear system.

Explanation

The purpose of the torsion links on a main landing gear is to prevent the inner cylinder from rotating within the outer cylinder. Torsion links are designed to provide structural support and limit rotational movement between the inner and outer cylinders of the landing gear. This prevents any unwanted rotation or twisting motion during the extension or retraction of the landing gear, ensuring the stability and proper functioning of the aircraft's landing gear system.

34. For tires 24 inches or greater outside diameter, the tire must be removed when wear reaches the bottom of any tread groove for a continuous length of

4 inches.

6 inches.

12 inches.

16 inches.

When the tires have a diameter of 24 inches or more, it is necessary to remove them once the wear reaches the bottom of any tread groove for a continuous length of 12 inches. This means that if the tread groove has worn down to the bottom for a distance of 12 inches, the tire must be replaced.

Explanation

When the tires have a diameter of 24 inches or more, it is necessary to remove them once the wear reaches the bottom of any tread groove for a continuous length of 12 inches. This means that if the tread groove has worn down to the bottom for a distance of 12 inches, the tire must be replaced.

35. Fuel that accumulates after a failed start or engine shutdown is

Drained overboard by a drain system.

Returned to the fuel control tubes.

Burned on the next start attempt.

Allowed to evaporate.

After a failed start or engine shutdown, the fuel that accumulates needs to be removed from the system. This is done by draining it overboard using a drain system. This ensures that the excess fuel does not remain in the engine or fuel control tubes, which could cause issues during the next start attempt. Burning the fuel on the next start attempt or allowing it to evaporate would not be efficient or safe methods of removing the excess fuel.

Explanation

After a failed start or engine shutdown, the fuel that accumulates needs to be removed from the system. This is done by draining it overboard using a drain system. This ensures that the excess fuel does not remain in the engine or fuel control tubes, which could cause issues during the next start attempt. Burning the fuel on the next start attempt or allowing it to evaporate would not be efficient or safe methods of removing the excess fuel.

36. What is the purpose of the exhaust duct?

Swirl exhaust gas-flow.

Equalize exhaust gas-flow.

Modulate exhaust gas-flow.

Straighten exhaust gas-flow.

The purpose of the exhaust duct is to straighten the flow of exhaust gas. This is important because exhaust gas often exits the system in a turbulent manner, and straightening the flow helps to reduce turbulence and improve the efficiency of the exhaust system. Straightening the flow also helps to minimize pressure drop and improve the overall performance of the system.

Explanation

The purpose of the exhaust duct is to straighten the flow of exhaust gas. This is important because exhaust gas often exits the system in a turbulent manner, and straightening the flow helps to reduce turbulence and improve the efficiency of the exhaust system. Straightening the flow also helps to minimize pressure drop and improve the overall performance of the system.

37. What do you use to create a static seal between two stationary parts in the oil system?

Wadding.

Packing.

Gasket.

Filler.

A gasket is used to create a static seal between two stationary parts in the oil system. It is a mechanical seal made of a compressible material, such as rubber or metal, that fills the gap between the two parts, preventing any leakage of oil or fluid. Gaskets are commonly used in engines, pumps, and other machinery where a reliable seal is required to maintain the integrity of the oil system.

Explanation

A gasket is used to create a static seal between two stationary parts in the oil system. It is a mechanical seal made of a compressible material, such as rubber or metal, that fills the gap between the two parts, preventing any leakage of oil or fluid. Gaskets are commonly used in engines, pumps, and other machinery where a reliable seal is required to maintain the integrity of the oil system.

38. Use the range button on the Fluke multimeter to

Check the AC voltages only.

Check the DC voltages only.

Initiate the tough-hold mode.

Move the decimal point.

The range button on the Fluke multimeter is used to adjust the measurement range of the meter. By pressing the range button, the user can change the scale of the display, which can include moving the decimal point. This allows for more accurate readings of different voltage levels, as the user can select the appropriate range to match the voltage being measured. Therefore, the correct answer is to move the decimal point.

Explanation

The range button on the Fluke multimeter is used to adjust the measurement range of the meter. By pressing the range button, the user can change the scale of the display, which can include moving the decimal point. This allows for more accurate readings of different voltage levels, as the user can select the appropriate range to match the voltage being measured. Therefore, the correct answer is to move the decimal point.

39. A push-pull rod end engagement is checked by

Using a depth gage to check end play.

Ensuring that no lateral movement exists.

Using an inside caliper to check the rod end bearing.

Inserting safety wire in the hole in the end of the terminal.

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Explanation

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40. What is the longest possible movement between the micrometer's spindle and anvil?

0.5 inch.

1.0 inch.

1.5 inch.

2.0 inch.

The longest possible movement between the micrometer's spindle and anvil is 1.0 inch. This means that the micrometer can measure objects with a maximum thickness or length of 1.0 inch.

Explanation

The longest possible movement between the micrometer's spindle and anvil is 1.0 inch. This means that the micrometer can measure objects with a maximum thickness or length of 1.0 inch.

41. A unit that is a combination of the landing gear shimmy damper and steering unit is known as

A steer damper.

An uplock control.

A downlock control.

A servo oscillating damper.

A unit that combines the landing gear shimmy damper and steering unit is known as a steer damper. This device helps to reduce shimmy vibrations and provides steering control for the landing gear. It is designed to stabilize the landing gear and prevent excessive oscillations during taxiing and landing. The term "steer damper" accurately describes the function and purpose of this unit.

Explanation

A unit that combines the landing gear shimmy damper and steering unit is known as a steer damper. This device helps to reduce shimmy vibrations and provides steering control for the landing gear. It is designed to stabilize the landing gear and prevent excessive oscillations during taxiing and landing. The term "steer damper" accurately describes the function and purpose of this unit.

42. What type of bearings are used on aircraft wheels?

Flat roller.

Straight ball.

Tapered roller.

Recessed cone.

Tapered roller bearings are used on aircraft wheels because they can handle both radial and axial loads. They have a conical shape, with the inner and outer races tapered towards each other. This design allows for better distribution of the load, reducing friction and increasing the bearing's ability to support heavy loads. Tapered roller bearings also provide stability and smooth operation, making them ideal for use on aircraft wheels that experience high speeds and heavy loads during takeoff and landing.

Explanation

Tapered roller bearings are used on aircraft wheels because they can handle both radial and axial loads. They have a conical shape, with the inner and outer races tapered towards each other. This design allows for better distribution of the load, reducing friction and increasing the bearing's ability to support heavy loads. Tapered roller bearings also provide stability and smooth operation, making them ideal for use on aircraft wheels that experience high speeds and heavy loads during takeoff and landing.

43. What type of fuel control uses thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids, to help control the engine?

Pneumatic.

Fuel injection.

Hydromechanical.

Electrohydromechanical.

Electrohydromechanical fuel control uses a combination of thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids to help control the engine. This type of system utilizes electrical signals to regulate the flow of fuel, ensuring optimal performance and efficiency. The thermocouples measure the temperature and provide feedback, which is then processed by the relays and amplifiers to activate the solenoids. These solenoids control the flow of fuel, adjusting it based on the engine's requirements. Therefore, electrohydromechanical fuel control is the correct answer for this question.

Explanation

Electrohydromechanical fuel control uses a combination of thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids to help control the engine. This type of system utilizes electrical signals to regulate the flow of fuel, ensuring optimal performance and efficiency. The thermocouples measure the temperature and provide feedback, which is then processed by the relays and amplifiers to activate the solenoids. These solenoids control the flow of fuel, adjusting it based on the engine's requirements. Therefore, electrohydromechanical fuel control is the correct answer for this question.

44. What indicates lubricant system contamination by dirt and sand?

A decrease in carbon.

A increase in silicon.

A decrease in graphite.

An increase in synthetic oils.

An increase in silicon indicates lubricant system contamination by dirt and sand. Silicon is commonly found in dirt and sand particles, so an increase in silicon levels in the lubricant suggests that dirt and sand have entered the system and contaminated the lubricant.

Explanation

An increase in silicon indicates lubricant system contamination by dirt and sand. Silicon is commonly found in dirt and sand particles, so an increase in silicon levels in the lubricant suggests that dirt and sand have entered the system and contaminated the lubricant.

45. Which caliper has the words "IN" and "OUT" stamped on the frame?

Slide caliper.

Simple caliper.

Transfer caliper.

Spring-joint caliper.

The slide caliper is the correct answer because it is the type of caliper that has the words "IN" and "OUT" stamped on the frame. The "IN" and "OUT" markings on the slide caliper indicate the direction in which the sliding jaw moves to measure the inside and outside dimensions of an object.

Explanation

The slide caliper is the correct answer because it is the type of caliper that has the words "IN" and "OUT" stamped on the frame. The "IN" and "OUT" markings on the slide caliper indicate the direction in which the sliding jaw moves to measure the inside and outside dimensions of an object.

46. Bench stock levels are established to provide a

15-day usage.

30-day usage.

60-day usage.

90-day usage.

Bench stock levels are established to provide a 30-day usage. This means that the stock is maintained at a level that can cover the average demand for a period of 30 days. By having enough stock for 30 days, a company can ensure that they have an adequate supply of materials or products to meet their needs without experiencing shortages or delays. This level of stock is considered a balance between having enough inventory to meet demand and minimizing excess inventory costs.

Explanation

Bench stock levels are established to provide a 30-day usage. This means that the stock is maintained at a level that can cover the average demand for a period of 30 days. By having enough stock for 30 days, a company can ensure that they have an adequate supply of materials or products to meet their needs without experiencing shortages or delays. This level of stock is considered a balance between having enough inventory to meet demand and minimizing excess inventory costs.

47. Within maintenance the internal control of reparable items is accomplished through the DIFM notice and

DD Form 1348-6.

AFTO Form 349.

AFTO Form 350.

DD Form 1131.

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Explanation

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48. The three benefits of of the Joint Oil Analysis Program (JOAP) are improved safety, reduced maintenance cost, and

Recycling of used oil.

Production of wear metals.

Increased equipment availability.

Increased length of time between oil changes.

The Joint Oil Analysis Program (JOAP) provides three benefits: improved safety, reduced maintenance cost, and increased equipment availability. While the other options may also have some benefits, increased equipment availability is a direct result of the JOAP. By analyzing oil samples regularly, potential equipment failures can be detected early, allowing for timely maintenance and repairs. This minimizes downtime and ensures that equipment is available and operational when needed, thereby increasing equipment availability.

Explanation

The Joint Oil Analysis Program (JOAP) provides three benefits: improved safety, reduced maintenance cost, and increased equipment availability. While the other options may also have some benefits, increased equipment availability is a direct result of the JOAP. By analyzing oil samples regularly, potential equipment failures can be detected early, allowing for timely maintenance and repairs. This minimizes downtime and ensures that equipment is available and operational when needed, thereby increasing equipment availability.

49. After treatment which solution is used to neutralize areas affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery?

Potassium hydroxide.

Aluminum hydroxide.

Sodium bicarbonate.

Boric acid.

Sodium bicarbonate is used to neutralize areas affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery. This is because sodium bicarbonate is a mild alkaline substance that can effectively neutralize the acidic electrolyte. It helps to restore the pH balance and prevent further damage to the affected areas. Potassium hydroxide, aluminum hydroxide, and boric acid are not commonly used for neutralizing electrolyte from a lead-acid battery.

Explanation

Sodium bicarbonate is used to neutralize areas affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery. This is because sodium bicarbonate is a mild alkaline substance that can effectively neutralize the acidic electrolyte. It helps to restore the pH balance and prevent further damage to the affected areas. Potassium hydroxide, aluminum hydroxide, and boric acid are not commonly used for neutralizing electrolyte from a lead-acid battery.

50. The combustion efficiency of a gas turbine is usually between

60 and 70 percent.

65 to 75 percent.

75 to 95 percent.

95 to 100 percent.

The combustion efficiency of a gas turbine refers to how effectively it converts fuel into usable energy. A higher combustion efficiency indicates less fuel wastage and more efficient energy production. The range of 95 to 100 percent suggests that the gas turbine is highly efficient, with minimal fuel wastage and maximum energy conversion.

Explanation

The combustion efficiency of a gas turbine refers to how effectively it converts fuel into usable energy. A higher combustion efficiency indicates less fuel wastage and more efficient energy production. The range of 95 to 100 percent suggests that the gas turbine is highly efficient, with minimal fuel wastage and maximum energy conversion.

51. Engine design helps prevent igniter plug fouling by

Splitting the electrode on the plug.

Directing air around the plug electrode.

Applying gold plating to plug the electrode.

Applying ceramic coating on the plug electrode.

Directing air around the plug electrode helps prevent igniter plug fouling because it helps to cool the plug and prevent the build-up of carbon deposits. When the air is directed around the electrode, it helps to keep the temperature of the plug lower, reducing the chances of fouling. This is important because fouling can lead to decreased engine performance and misfires. By directing air around the plug electrode, the design helps to maintain optimal conditions for ignition and combustion, improving overall engine efficiency.

Explanation

Directing air around the plug electrode helps prevent igniter plug fouling because it helps to cool the plug and prevent the build-up of carbon deposits. When the air is directed around the electrode, it helps to keep the temperature of the plug lower, reducing the chances of fouling. This is important because fouling can lead to decreased engine performance and misfires. By directing air around the plug electrode, the design helps to maintain optimal conditions for ignition and combustion, improving overall engine efficiency.

52. A micron is a metric linear measurement equal to

1/25 of an inch.

1/.25 of an inch.

1/2,500 of an inch.

1/25,000 of an inch.

A micron is a unit of measurement commonly used to measure very small distances, particularly in the field of science and technology. It is equal to 1/25,000 of an inch, which means that it is a very tiny measurement. This answer is correct because it accurately represents the relationship between a micron and an inch, showing that a micron is much smaller than an inch.

Explanation

A micron is a unit of measurement commonly used to measure very small distances, particularly in the field of science and technology. It is equal to 1/25,000 of an inch, which means that it is a very tiny measurement. This answer is correct because it accurately represents the relationship between a micron and an inch, showing that a micron is much smaller than an inch.

53. Jet engine tachometer gauges are calibrated in percent of

Minimum rotations per minute(RPM).

Maximum torque.

Minimum torque.

Maximum RPM.

Jet engine tachometer gauges are calibrated in percent of maximum RPM because it is important to monitor and control the speed of the engine for optimal performance and safety. The tachometer measures the rotational speed of the engine, and calibrating it in terms of maximum RPM allows pilots and technicians to easily interpret and maintain the engine within its safe operating limits. By monitoring the percentage of maximum RPM, they can ensure that the engine is not being overworked or underutilized, helping to prevent damage and maintain efficiency.

Explanation

Jet engine tachometer gauges are calibrated in percent of maximum RPM because it is important to monitor and control the speed of the engine for optimal performance and safety. The tachometer measures the rotational speed of the engine, and calibrating it in terms of maximum RPM allows pilots and technicians to easily interpret and maintain the engine within its safe operating limits. By monitoring the percentage of maximum RPM, they can ensure that the engine is not being overworked or underutilized, helping to prevent damage and maintain efficiency.

54. What is used in determining design criteria such as engine requirements, wing area, landing gear requirements, and payload capacity?

Mission requirements.

Aircraft dimensions.

Structure strength.

Aircraft weight.

Aircraft weight is used in determining design criteria such as engine requirements, wing area, landing gear requirements, and payload capacity. The weight of the aircraft directly affects the performance and capabilities of the aircraft. It determines the size and power of the engines needed to propel the aircraft, the wing area required for lift, the strength and size of the landing gear needed to support the weight during landing and takeoff, and the payload capacity that the aircraft can carry. Therefore, aircraft weight is a crucial factor in the design process.

Explanation

Aircraft weight is used in determining design criteria such as engine requirements, wing area, landing gear requirements, and payload capacity. The weight of the aircraft directly affects the performance and capabilities of the aircraft. It determines the size and power of the engines needed to propel the aircraft, the wing area required for lift, the strength and size of the landing gear needed to support the weight during landing and takeoff, and the payload capacity that the aircraft can carry. Therefore, aircraft weight is a crucial factor in the design process.

55. Electromagnetic devices capable of sensing magnetically conducive metal targets on landing gears are known as

Position switches.

Proximity switches.

Selector valves.

Solenoid circuits.

Proximity switches are electromagnetic devices that are capable of sensing magnetically conducive metal targets on landing gears. These switches are designed to detect the presence or absence of an object without physical contact. They are commonly used in various industries for automation and control purposes, such as detecting the position of objects, monitoring the movement of machinery, and ensuring safety in manufacturing processes. Therefore, proximity switches are the correct answer in this case.

Explanation

Proximity switches are electromagnetic devices that are capable of sensing magnetically conducive metal targets on landing gears. These switches are designed to detect the presence or absence of an object without physical contact. They are commonly used in various industries for automation and control purposes, such as detecting the position of objects, monitoring the movement of machinery, and ensuring safety in manufacturing processes. Therefore, proximity switches are the correct answer in this case.

56. Brake fade is defined as a gradual braking action

Loss due to overheating.

Increase due to overheating.

Loss due to pressure increase.

Increase due to pressure reduction.

Brake fade refers to a gradual decrease in braking effectiveness caused by overheating. When the brakes get too hot, the friction between the brake pads and the rotors or drums decreases, resulting in a loss of braking power. This can happen during prolonged or intense braking, such as when driving downhill or towing heavy loads. Overheating can lead to brake fade, making it important to allow the brakes to cool down to regain their full braking capability.

Explanation

Brake fade refers to a gradual decrease in braking effectiveness caused by overheating. When the brakes get too hot, the friction between the brake pads and the rotors or drums decreases, resulting in a loss of braking power. This can happen during prolonged or intense braking, such as when driving downhill or towing heavy loads. Overheating can lead to brake fade, making it important to allow the brakes to cool down to regain their full braking capability.

57. The main parts of an aircraft tire are the tread and sidewall,

Cord body, and beads.

Valve core, and beads.

Cord body, vent holes.

Valve core, and cord body.

The main parts of an aircraft tire are the cord body and beads. The cord body provides strength and stability to the tire, while the beads are the reinforced loops of steel wire that hold the tire onto the rim. These two components work together to ensure the tire can withstand the weight and pressure of the aircraft during takeoff, landing, and while in flight.

Explanation

The main parts of an aircraft tire are the cord body and beads. The cord body provides strength and stability to the tire, while the beads are the reinforced loops of steel wire that hold the tire onto the rim. These two components work together to ensure the tire can withstand the weight and pressure of the aircraft during takeoff, landing, and while in flight.

58. Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for

200 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt.

100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt.

200 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt.

100 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt.

Engines that have been overhauled by the depot are protected against any defects in workmanship for a period of 100 hours of operation or one year from the date they were received. This means that if any issues arise within this time frame, the depot will be responsible for addressing and resolving them.

Explanation

Engines that have been overhauled by the depot are protected against any defects in workmanship for a period of 100 hours of operation or one year from the date they were received. This means that if any issues arise within this time frame, the depot will be responsible for addressing and resolving them.

59. Exhaust gas temperature indicators indicate the engine EGT in

British thermal units per hour.

Pounds per square inch.

Degrees Fahrenheit.

Degrees Celsius.

Exhaust gas temperature indicators are used to measure the temperature of the engine's exhaust gases. The most common unit of measurement for temperature is degrees Celsius. Therefore, the correct answer is degrees Celsius.

Explanation

Exhaust gas temperature indicators are used to measure the temperature of the engine's exhaust gases. The most common unit of measurement for temperature is degrees Celsius. Therefore, the correct answer is degrees Celsius.

60. Which type of friction is defined as the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving?

Static.

Tension.

Dynamic.

Rotational.

Static friction is the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving. It is the friction that acts on objects that are not in motion. When an object is at rest, the static friction force will match and oppose any force applied to it, preventing the object from moving. Once the applied force exceeds the maximum static friction force, the object will start to move and dynamic friction will come into play.

Explanation

Static friction is the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving. It is the friction that acts on objects that are not in motion. When an object is at rest, the static friction force will match and oppose any force applied to it, preventing the object from moving. Once the applied force exceeds the maximum static friction force, the object will start to move and dynamic friction will come into play.

61. Which DD forms are easily identified by their green margins and letters?

1577-2 and 1577-3.

1576 and 1576-1.

1574 and 1574-1.

1575 and 1575-1.

DD forms 1577-2 and 1577-3 can be easily identified by their green margins and letters.

Explanation

DD forms 1577-2 and 1577-3 can be easily identified by their green margins and letters.

62. Which inspection is required if an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days?

Phase.

Special.

Calender.

Acceptance.

If an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days, a calendar inspection is required. This type of inspection is based on a specific time interval rather than the number of flight hours or cycles. It ensures that the aircraft is checked for any potential issues or maintenance requirements that may have arisen during its idle period. This is important to ensure the aircraft's safety and airworthiness before it is put back into service.

Explanation

If an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days, a calendar inspection is required. This type of inspection is based on a specific time interval rather than the number of flight hours or cycles. It ensures that the aircraft is checked for any potential issues or maintenance requirements that may have arisen during its idle period. This is important to ensure the aircraft's safety and airworthiness before it is put back into service.

63. What corrosion type appears as corroded cracks in a metal?

Stress.

Intergranular.

Oxygen concentration cell.

Metal ion concentration cell.

Stress corrosion occurs when a metal is exposed to a corrosive environment and subjected to tensile stress. This type of corrosion appears as corroded cracks in the metal, which can lead to catastrophic failure if not detected and addressed. The combination of stress and corrosion weakens the metal, causing it to crack and corrode. This corrosion type is often found in materials such as stainless steel, aluminum alloys, and brass, and is commonly seen in industries such as aerospace, automotive, and marine.

Explanation

Stress corrosion occurs when a metal is exposed to a corrosive environment and subjected to tensile stress. This type of corrosion appears as corroded cracks in the metal, which can lead to catastrophic failure if not detected and addressed. The combination of stress and corrosion weakens the metal, causing it to crack and corrode. This corrosion type is often found in materials such as stainless steel, aluminum alloys, and brass, and is commonly seen in industries such as aerospace, automotive, and marine.

64. On some jet engines, what secures the turbine bucket in place?

Screws.

Cables.

Lockwire.

Lockstrips.

Lockstrips are used to secure the turbine bucket in place on some jet engines. These are thin metal strips that are wrapped tightly around the turbine bucket and its housing, preventing any movement or rotation. The lockstrips provide a secure and reliable method of keeping the turbine bucket in its correct position during the operation of the jet engine.

Explanation

Lockstrips are used to secure the turbine bucket in place on some jet engines. These are thin metal strips that are wrapped tightly around the turbine bucket and its housing, preventing any movement or rotation. The lockstrips provide a secure and reliable method of keeping the turbine bucket in its correct position during the operation of the jet engine.

65. Which engine type used a lot during the early years of jet engine design is the most basic turbine engine design?

Turbojet.

Turbofan.

Turboram.

Turboprop.

During the early years of jet engine design, the most basic turbine engine design used was the turbojet. The turbojet engine consists of a compressor, combustion chamber, and turbine. Air is compressed by the compressor, mixed with fuel in the combustion chamber, and ignited. The hot gases then expand through the turbine, which drives the compressor and provides thrust. This design was widely used in the early years of jet engine development before more advanced designs such as turbofan engines were introduced.

Explanation

During the early years of jet engine design, the most basic turbine engine design used was the turbojet. The turbojet engine consists of a compressor, combustion chamber, and turbine. Air is compressed by the compressor, mixed with fuel in the combustion chamber, and ignited. The hot gases then expand through the turbine, which drives the compressor and provides thrust. This design was widely used in the early years of jet engine development before more advanced designs such as turbofan engines were introduced.

66. What jet engine oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing?

Gear.

Gerotor.

Rotogear.

Rotor-gear.

A gerotor is a type of positive displacement pump that consists of a gear and rotor within a housing. The gear and rotor work together to create a pumping action, drawing in and moving the oil through the engine. This design is commonly used in jet engine oil pumps due to its efficiency and reliability.

Explanation

A gerotor is a type of positive displacement pump that consists of a gear and rotor within a housing. The gear and rotor work together to create a pumping action, drawing in and moving the oil through the engine. This design is commonly used in jet engine oil pumps due to its efficiency and reliability.

67. What automatically compensates for brake wear on the segmented rotor brake?

Rotors.

Stators.

Actuators.

Adjusters.

Adjusters automatically compensate for brake wear on the segmented rotor brake. As the brake pads wear down over time, the adjusters ensure that the brake pads maintain proper contact with the rotor, allowing for optimal braking performance. This helps to prevent excessive wear on the brake pads and ensures that the brakes continue to function effectively. Rotors, stators, and actuators do not have the specific function of compensating for brake wear in this context.

Explanation

Adjusters automatically compensate for brake wear on the segmented rotor brake. As the brake pads wear down over time, the adjusters ensure that the brake pads maintain proper contact with the rotor, allowing for optimal braking performance. This helps to prevent excessive wear on the brake pads and ensures that the brakes continue to function effectively. Rotors, stators, and actuators do not have the specific function of compensating for brake wear in this context.

68. When the turbine wheel absorbs the fuel energy,

50 percent is used for accessories.

60 percent is used for accessories.

The energy returns to the compressor.

The energy operates the anti-ice system.

When the turbine wheel absorbs the fuel energy, a portion of it is used for accessories, but the majority of the energy is returned to the compressor. This is because the turbine wheel is connected to the compressor through a shaft, and as the turbine wheel rotates, it drives the compressor to draw in and compress more air for combustion. Therefore, the energy from the turbine wheel is primarily utilized to power the compressor and maintain the continuous flow of air through the engine.

Explanation

When the turbine wheel absorbs the fuel energy, a portion of it is used for accessories, but the majority of the energy is returned to the compressor. This is because the turbine wheel is connected to the compressor through a shaft, and as the turbine wheel rotates, it drives the compressor to draw in and compress more air for combustion. Therefore, the energy from the turbine wheel is primarily utilized to power the compressor and maintain the continuous flow of air through the engine.

69. What are the two types of jet engine compressors?

Axial-flow and radial.

Centrifugal and radial.

Axial-flow and divergent.

Centrifugal and axial-flow.

The two types of jet engine compressors are centrifugal and axial-flow. A centrifugal compressor uses centrifugal force to compress the air, while an axial-flow compressor uses a series of rotating and stationary blades to compress the air in a linear direction. These two types of compressors are commonly used in jet engines to increase the pressure and density of the incoming air before it enters the combustion chamber.

Explanation

The two types of jet engine compressors are centrifugal and axial-flow. A centrifugal compressor uses centrifugal force to compress the air, while an axial-flow compressor uses a series of rotating and stationary blades to compress the air in a linear direction. These two types of compressors are commonly used in jet engines to increase the pressure and density of the incoming air before it enters the combustion chamber.

70. What is the purpose of a front-mounted fan in an axial-flow jet engine compressor?

Add thrust and decrease efficiency.

Add air to the engine and decrease efficiency.

Increase thrust and engine RPM.

Increase thrust and send air through the compressor core rotor.

The purpose of a front-mounted fan in an axial-flow jet engine compressor is to increase thrust and send air through the compressor core rotor. The fan helps to draw in large amounts of air and accelerate it, increasing the thrust produced by the engine. Additionally, the fan sends the air through the compressor core rotor, which is responsible for compressing the air before it enters the combustion chamber. This ensures that the air is properly compressed and prepared for combustion, improving the overall efficiency of the engine.

Explanation

The purpose of a front-mounted fan in an axial-flow jet engine compressor is to increase thrust and send air through the compressor core rotor. The fan helps to draw in large amounts of air and accelerate it, increasing the thrust produced by the engine. Additionally, the fan sends the air through the compressor core rotor, which is responsible for compressing the air before it enters the combustion chamber. This ensures that the air is properly compressed and prepared for combustion, improving the overall efficiency of the engine.

71. The limit for securing closely spaced bolts in series when using the single-wire safety method is the maximum number of bolts that can be secured using a

10 inch length of wire.

12 inch length of wire.

24 inch length of wire.

36 inch length of wire.

The single-wire safety method involves securing bolts in series using a length of wire. The limit for securing closely spaced bolts in series is determined by the maximum number of bolts that can be secured using a certain length of wire. In this case, the correct answer is 24 inch length of wire, which means that the maximum number of bolts that can be secured in series using this method is determined by the length of a 24 inch wire.

Explanation

The single-wire safety method involves securing bolts in series using a length of wire. The limit for securing closely spaced bolts in series is determined by the maximum number of bolts that can be secured using a certain length of wire. In this case, the correct answer is 24 inch length of wire, which means that the maximum number of bolts that can be secured in series using this method is determined by the length of a 24 inch wire.

72. The purpose of deboosters is to

Decrease fluid volume.

Reduce braking pressure.

Enlarge running clearance.

Increase braking pressure.

Deboosters are designed to reduce braking pressure. When the brake pedal is pressed, the deboosters act as a mechanical linkage between the pedal and the master cylinder, decreasing the force applied to the brake fluid. This reduction in pressure allows for more precise control over braking, preventing sudden or excessive braking force that could lead to skidding or loss of control. By reducing braking pressure, deboosters help to enhance the safety and effectiveness of the braking system.

Explanation

Deboosters are designed to reduce braking pressure. When the brake pedal is pressed, the deboosters act as a mechanical linkage between the pedal and the master cylinder, decreasing the force applied to the brake fluid. This reduction in pressure allows for more precise control over braking, preventing sudden or excessive braking force that could lead to skidding or loss of control. By reducing braking pressure, deboosters help to enhance the safety and effectiveness of the braking system.

73. What determines the N2 compressor RPM of a dual-spool jet engine compressor?

Starter.

Fuel pump.

Fuel control.

Low-pressure turbine.

The N2 compressor RPM of a dual-spool jet engine compressor is determined by the fuel control. The fuel control regulates the amount of fuel being supplied to the engine, which in turn affects the speed of the compressor. By adjusting the fuel flow, the fuel control can increase or decrease the RPM of the compressor to maintain the desired engine performance. The starter is responsible for initiating the engine's rotation, the fuel pump supplies fuel to the engine, and the low-pressure turbine extracts energy from the exhaust gases, but none of these directly determine the N2 compressor RPM.

Explanation

The N2 compressor RPM of a dual-spool jet engine compressor is determined by the fuel control. The fuel control regulates the amount of fuel being supplied to the engine, which in turn affects the speed of the compressor. By adjusting the fuel flow, the fuel control can increase or decrease the RPM of the compressor to maintain the desired engine performance. The starter is responsible for initiating the engine's rotation, the fuel pump supplies fuel to the engine, and the low-pressure turbine extracts energy from the exhaust gases, but none of these directly determine the N2 compressor RPM.

74. What augmenter component creates local turbulence and reduces gas velocity?

Spraybar.

Flameholder.

Screech liner.

Fuel manifold.

A flameholder is a component that creates local turbulence and reduces gas velocity in a combustion system. It is designed to stabilize the flame by creating recirculation zones and promoting fuel-air mixing. This turbulence helps to maintain a stable flame and prevent flame blowout. In contrast, a spraybar is used to distribute fuel in a spray pattern, a screech liner is used to control supersonic flow, and a fuel manifold is used to distribute fuel to different burners.

Explanation

A flameholder is a component that creates local turbulence and reduces gas velocity in a combustion system. It is designed to stabilize the flame by creating recirculation zones and promoting fuel-air mixing. This turbulence helps to maintain a stable flame and prevent flame blowout. In contrast, a spraybar is used to distribute fuel in a spray pattern, a screech liner is used to control supersonic flow, and a fuel manifold is used to distribute fuel to different burners.

75. The primary function of a hydromechanical fuel control on a jet engine is to

Generate the proper fuel pressure for all ranges of engine operation.

Prevent hot starts, overtemperatures, engine overspeeding, and flameouts.

Propel the right amount of fuel to the fuel nozzels for correct combustion at all times.

Meter the fuel, making certain that the engine gets the correct quantity for combustion at all times.

The primary function of a hydromechanical fuel control on a jet engine is to meter the fuel, making certain that the engine gets the correct quantity for combustion at all times. This means that the fuel control is responsible for regulating the flow of fuel to the engine, ensuring that it receives the appropriate amount of fuel for efficient and effective combustion. By accurately metering the fuel, the control helps to maintain the engine's performance, prevent fuel-related issues such as hot starts, overtemperatures, engine overspeeding, and flameouts, and optimize fuel efficiency.

Explanation

The primary function of a hydromechanical fuel control on a jet engine is to meter the fuel, making certain that the engine gets the correct quantity for combustion at all times. This means that the fuel control is responsible for regulating the flow of fuel to the engine, ensuring that it receives the appropriate amount of fuel for efficient and effective combustion. By accurately metering the fuel, the control helps to maintain the engine's performance, prevent fuel-related issues such as hot starts, overtemperatures, engine overspeeding, and flameouts, and optimize fuel efficiency.

76. The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is no deeper than

10 percent of wall thickness.

15 percent of wall thickness.

20 percent of wall thickness.

25 percent of wall thickness.

The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is 15 percent of the wall thickness. This means that any nicks or scratches on the tubing should not exceed 15 percent of the thickness of the tubing's wall. This limit is set to ensure the structural integrity and safety of the aircraft tubing, as deeper nicks or scratches could weaken the tubing and potentially lead to failure or damage during flight.

Explanation

The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is 15 percent of the wall thickness. This means that any nicks or scratches on the tubing should not exceed 15 percent of the thickness of the tubing's wall. This limit is set to ensure the structural integrity and safety of the aircraft tubing, as deeper nicks or scratches could weaken the tubing and potentially lead to failure or damage during flight.

77. Generally, low-pressure hoses are used for what pressure?

200 psi and below.

300 psi and below.

500 psi and below.

1,000 psi and below.

Low-pressure hoses are generally used for pressures that are 300 psi and below. This means that these hoses are suitable for applications where the pressure does not exceed 300 psi. Using low-pressure hoses for higher pressures can result in hose failure and potential safety hazards. Therefore, it is important to select the appropriate hose based on the pressure requirements of the application.

Explanation

Low-pressure hoses are generally used for pressures that are 300 psi and below. This means that these hoses are suitable for applications where the pressure does not exceed 300 psi. Using low-pressure hoses for higher pressures can result in hose failure and potential safety hazards. Therefore, it is important to select the appropriate hose based on the pressure requirements of the application.

78. How is the motion of the landing gear control lever transmitted to the selector valve?

Electrically.

By push-and-pull rods.

By a cable system.

Through hydraulic pressure.

The motion of the landing gear control lever is transmitted to the selector valve through a cable system. This means that there is a series of cables that connect the control lever to the valve, allowing for the movement of the lever to be translated into a corresponding action in the valve. This cable system ensures that the desired position of the landing gear control lever is accurately communicated to the selector valve, enabling the proper functioning of the landing gear system.

Explanation

The motion of the landing gear control lever is transmitted to the selector valve through a cable system. This means that there is a series of cables that connect the control lever to the valve, allowing for the movement of the lever to be translated into a corresponding action in the valve. This cable system ensures that the desired position of the landing gear control lever is accurately communicated to the selector valve, enabling the proper functioning of the landing gear system.

79. What prevents pressure buildup and separation of cord plies or tread rubber on an aircraft tire?

Beads.

Sidewalls.

Vent holes.

Blow out valves.

Vent holes prevent pressure buildup and separation of cord plies or tread rubber on an aircraft tire. These holes allow the air inside the tire to escape, preventing excessive pressure from building up. This helps to maintain the integrity of the tire and prevent any potential damage or separation of the tire components.

Explanation

Vent holes prevent pressure buildup and separation of cord plies or tread rubber on an aircraft tire. These holes allow the air inside the tire to escape, preventing excessive pressure from building up. This helps to maintain the integrity of the tire and prevent any potential damage or separation of the tire components.

80. A jet engine derives its name from the fact that

It is in effect a turbo-supercharger.

The internal engine nozzles called jets.

It uses turbine-type compressor to maintain power.

It uses a exhaust-gas-driven turbine wheel to drive its compressor.

The correct answer is that a jet engine uses an exhaust-gas-driven turbine wheel to drive its compressor. This explanation is based on the understanding that a jet engine operates by sucking in air and compressing it using a turbine-driven compressor. The compressed air is then mixed with fuel and ignited, creating a high-pressure exhaust gas. This exhaust gas is expelled through a nozzle, and as it passes through the turbine wheel, it drives the compressor, maintaining the engine's power.

Explanation

The correct answer is that a jet engine uses an exhaust-gas-driven turbine wheel to drive its compressor. This explanation is based on the understanding that a jet engine operates by sucking in air and compressing it using a turbine-driven compressor. The compressed air is then mixed with fuel and ignited, creating a high-pressure exhaust gas. This exhaust gas is expelled through a nozzle, and as it passes through the turbine wheel, it drives the compressor, maintaining the engine's power.

81. A turbo fan engine with a bypass ratio of 3:1 is classified as

Low bypass.

Low-medium bypass.

Medium bypass.

Medium-high bypass.

A turbofan engine with a bypass ratio of 3:1 is classified as a medium bypass engine. The bypass ratio refers to the ratio of the amount of air bypassing the engine core (the fan air) to the amount of air going through the engine core (the combustion process). A bypass ratio of 3:1 means that for every unit of air going through the engine core, 3 units of air bypass it. This indicates a moderate amount of air bypassing the core, making it a medium bypass engine.

Explanation

A turbofan engine with a bypass ratio of 3:1 is classified as a medium bypass engine. The bypass ratio refers to the ratio of the amount of air bypassing the engine core (the fan air) to the amount of air going through the engine core (the combustion process). A bypass ratio of 3:1 means that for every unit of air going through the engine core, 3 units of air bypass it. This indicates a moderate amount of air bypassing the core, making it a medium bypass engine.

82. Which caliper is joined by a strong hinge, screw, and, adjustment nut?

Simple calipers.

Transfer calipers.

Spring-joint calipers.

Odd-leg calipers.

Spring-joint calipers are joined by a strong hinge, screw, and adjustment nut. This type of caliper uses a spring mechanism to hold the jaws in place, allowing for easy adjustment and precise measurements. The hinge provides flexibility and the screw and adjustment nut allow for fine-tuning of the jaws' position. Simple calipers do not have these features, transfer calipers are used for transferring measurements, and odd-leg calipers have one fixed and one adjustable leg.

Explanation

Spring-joint calipers are joined by a strong hinge, screw, and adjustment nut. This type of caliper uses a spring mechanism to hold the jaws in place, allowing for easy adjustment and precise measurements. The hinge provides flexibility and the screw and adjustment nut allow for fine-tuning of the jaws' position. Simple calipers do not have these features, transfer calipers are used for transferring measurements, and odd-leg calipers have one fixed and one adjustable leg.

83. The three turbine designs used in jet engines are

Shrouded, unshrouded, and fir tree.

Shrouded, unshrouded, and corrugated.

Impulse, reaction, and reaction-impulse.

Impeller, impulse, and reaction-impulse.

The correct answer is "impulse, reaction, and reaction-impulse." In jet engines, the three turbine designs used are based on the principles of impulse and reaction. The impulse turbine design is used in the high-pressure stage, where the expanding gases from the combustion chamber directly impact the turbine blades, causing them to rotate. The reaction turbine design is used in the low-pressure stage, where the gases are guided through a series of fixed and moving blades, creating a reaction force that rotates the turbine. The reaction-impulse turbine design combines elements of both impulse and reaction principles to optimize efficiency and power output.

Explanation

The correct answer is "impulse, reaction, and reaction-impulse." In jet engines, the three turbine designs used are based on the principles of impulse and reaction. The impulse turbine design is used in the high-pressure stage, where the expanding gases from the combustion chamber directly impact the turbine blades, causing them to rotate. The reaction turbine design is used in the low-pressure stage, where the gases are guided through a series of fixed and moving blades, creating a reaction force that rotates the turbine. The reaction-impulse turbine design combines elements of both impulse and reaction principles to optimize efficiency and power output.

84. Minimum aircraft inspection requirements are outlined in

Sequence charts.

Inspection workcards.

-06 work unit code manuals.

-6 technical order inspection manuals.

The correct answer is inspection workcards. This is because inspection workcards provide detailed instructions and checklists for conducting aircraft inspections. They outline the specific areas and components that need to be inspected, as well as the procedures to be followed during the inspection process. Sequence charts may provide a general overview of the inspection process, but they do not provide the level of detail and specific instructions that inspection workcards do. Similarly, -06 work unit code manuals and -6 technical order inspection manuals may provide general guidelines for inspections, but they do not serve as the primary source of minimum inspection requirements.

Explanation

The correct answer is inspection workcards. This is because inspection workcards provide detailed instructions and checklists for conducting aircraft inspections. They outline the specific areas and components that need to be inspected, as well as the procedures to be followed during the inspection process. Sequence charts may provide a general overview of the inspection process, but they do not provide the level of detail and specific instructions that inspection workcards do. Similarly, -06 work unit code manuals and -6 technical order inspection manuals may provide general guidelines for inspections, but they do not serve as the primary source of minimum inspection requirements.

85. Which TO should be consulted for detailed information about weight and balance?

1-21-101.

1-1-691.

1-1B-50.

1-1-5.

The correct answer is 1-1B-50. This TO (Technical Order) provides detailed information about weight and balance.

Explanation

The correct answer is 1-1B-50. This TO (Technical Order) provides detailed information about weight and balance.

86. What prevents the lock solenoid from energizing when the nose landing gear is off center?

Safety relay.

Safety switch.

Centering relay.

Centering switch.

The centering switch prevents the lock solenoid from energizing when the nose landing gear is off center. This switch is designed to detect the position of the gear and ensure that it is properly centered before allowing the lock solenoid to engage. If the gear is not centered, the switch will prevent the solenoid from activating, preventing any potential safety hazards that could occur if the gear were to lock in an off-center position.

Explanation

The centering switch prevents the lock solenoid from energizing when the nose landing gear is off center. This switch is designed to detect the position of the gear and ensure that it is properly centered before allowing the lock solenoid to engage. If the gear is not centered, the switch will prevent the solenoid from activating, preventing any potential safety hazards that could occur if the gear were to lock in an off-center position.

87. What prevents tire explosion from excessive heat buildup?

Vent holes.

Blowout caps.

Wheel valve stems.

Thermal relief plugs.

Thermal relief plugs prevent tire explosion from excessive heat buildup. These plugs are designed to release built-up pressure and heat, ensuring that the tire does not overheat and explode. Vent holes, blowout caps, and wheel valve stems do not serve this specific purpose of relieving thermal pressure.

Explanation

Thermal relief plugs prevent tire explosion from excessive heat buildup. These plugs are designed to release built-up pressure and heat, ensuring that the tire does not overheat and explode. Vent holes, blowout caps, and wheel valve stems do not serve this specific purpose of relieving thermal pressure.

88. One type of variable-area orifice used on augmenters is the

Flap.

Segmented.

Segmented flap.

Segmented nozzle.

A segmented flap is a type of variable-area orifice used on augmenters. This means that it can be adjusted to control the flow of fluid or gas passing through it. The term "segmented" suggests that the flap is divided into separate sections or segments, which can be individually adjusted to vary the size of the orifice. This allows for precise control over the flow rate, making it a suitable choice for augmenters where the flow needs to be regulated. A segmented nozzle, on the other hand, refers to a nozzle with separate sections that can be adjusted, but it may not specifically be designed for augmenters.

Explanation

A segmented flap is a type of variable-area orifice used on augmenters. This means that it can be adjusted to control the flow of fluid or gas passing through it. The term "segmented" suggests that the flap is divided into separate sections or segments, which can be individually adjusted to vary the size of the orifice. This allows for precise control over the flow rate, making it a suitable choice for augmenters where the flow needs to be regulated. A segmented nozzle, on the other hand, refers to a nozzle with separate sections that can be adjusted, but it may not specifically be designed for augmenters.

89. What form must you fill out and submit to the non-destructive inspections (NDI) laboratory with all oil samples?

DD Form 988.

DD Form 2026.

AFTO Form 244.

AFTO 781 series forms.

The correct answer is DD Form 2026. This form must be filled out and submitted to the non-destructive inspections (NDI) laboratory with all oil samples.

Explanation

The correct answer is DD Form 2026. This form must be filled out and submitted to the non-destructive inspections (NDI) laboratory with all oil samples.

90. What is the interval that should be used for installing cushion clips on aircraft tubing?

15 to 20 inches.

20 to 25 inches.

25 to 30 inches.

30 to 35 inches.

The correct interval for installing cushion clips on aircraft tubing is 15 to 20 inches. This means that the cushion clips should be spaced 15 to 20 inches apart along the tubing. This spacing ensures that the tubing is properly supported and secured, preventing any potential damage or failure.

Explanation

The correct interval for installing cushion clips on aircraft tubing is 15 to 20 inches. This means that the cushion clips should be spaced 15 to 20 inches apart along the tubing. This spacing ensures that the tubing is properly supported and secured, preventing any potential damage or failure.

91. Which retaining rings are installed into housings or onto shafts making 360-degree contact with the grove?

Snap ring.

Spiral retaining ring.

Beveled retaining ring.

Axially assembled retaining ring.

Spiral retaining rings are installed into housings or onto shafts making 360-degree contact with the groove. This means that the ring wraps around the entire circumference of the groove, providing a secure and uniform grip. Snap rings, beveled retaining rings, and axially assembled retaining rings may not make full contact with the groove, making them less suitable for applications requiring complete 360-degree contact. Therefore, the correct answer is spiral retaining ring.

Explanation

Spiral retaining rings are installed into housings or onto shafts making 360-degree contact with the groove. This means that the ring wraps around the entire circumference of the groove, providing a secure and uniform grip. Snap rings, beveled retaining rings, and axially assembled retaining rings may not make full contact with the groove, making them less suitable for applications requiring complete 360-degree contact. Therefore, the correct answer is spiral retaining ring.

92. Which inspection concept uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home station check, major, and minor inspections?

Phased.

Periodic.

Isochronal.

Hourly postflight.

The correct answer is isochronal. Isochronal inspection is a type of phased inspection concept that uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule. It consists of the home station check, major, and minor inspections. The isochronal inspection ensures that the aircraft is thoroughly inspected and maintained at regular intervals to prevent any potential issues or failures.

Explanation

The correct answer is isochronal. Isochronal inspection is a type of phased inspection concept that uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule. It consists of the home station check, major, and minor inspections. The isochronal inspection ensures that the aircraft is thoroughly inspected and maintained at regular intervals to prevent any potential issues or failures.

93. Which inspection examines areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond -6 technical order inspection requirements?

Phased.

Periodic.

Isochronal.

Programmed depot maintenance.

Programmed depot maintenance is the correct answer because it involves a comprehensive inspection of areas, components, and systems that goes beyond the requirements of a technical order inspection. This type of maintenance is typically performed at a depot-level facility and includes extensive testing, repairs, and upgrades to ensure the equipment or system is in optimal condition. Phased, periodic, and isochronal inspections may also involve inspections and maintenance activities, but they do not necessarily go beyond the technical order requirements to the same degree as programmed depot maintenance.

Explanation

Programmed depot maintenance is the correct answer because it involves a comprehensive inspection of areas, components, and systems that goes beyond the requirements of a technical order inspection. This type of maintenance is typically performed at a depot-level facility and includes extensive testing, repairs, and upgrades to ensure the equipment or system is in optimal condition. Phased, periodic, and isochronal inspections may also involve inspections and maintenance activities, but they do not necessarily go beyond the technical order requirements to the same degree as programmed depot maintenance.

94. To transfer -21 equipment through transportation channels, you sould use a DD Form

126.

1149.

2691.

2692.

To transfer -21 equipment through transportation channels, you should use a DD Form 1149.

Explanation

To transfer -21 equipment through transportation channels, you should use a DD Form 1149.

95. In a gearbox-type starter system, what transmits the torque supplied by the jet fuel starter to the engine gearbox?

Power takeoff shaft.

Single-entry air diverter.

Pneumatic cartridge.

Overrunning clutch.

The power takeoff shaft is responsible for transmitting the torque supplied by the jet fuel starter to the engine gearbox in a gearbox-type starter system. This shaft connects the starter system to the engine gearbox, allowing the torque to be transferred and the engine to start. The other options, such as the single-entry air diverter, pneumatic cartridge, and overrunning clutch, do not play a role in transmitting torque in this particular system.

Explanation

The power takeoff shaft is responsible for transmitting the torque supplied by the jet fuel starter to the engine gearbox in a gearbox-type starter system. This shaft connects the starter system to the engine gearbox, allowing the torque to be transferred and the engine to start. The other options, such as the single-entry air diverter, pneumatic cartridge, and overrunning clutch, do not play a role in transmitting torque in this particular system.

96. Which form is used to issue an item of equipment for short, specific periods?

AF 2005.

AF Form 2413.

AF IMT 1297.

DD Form 1348-6.

AF IMT 1297 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force form used to issue an item of equipment for short, specific periods. The other forms listed are not specifically used for this purpose.

Explanation

AF IMT 1297 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force form used to issue an item of equipment for short, specific periods. The other forms listed are not specifically used for this purpose.

97. The bearing cone of an aircraft wheel bearing is also called the

Outer race.

Inner race.

Bearing cup.

Roller mount.

The bearing cone of an aircraft wheel bearing is referred to as the inner race. The inner race is a ring-shaped component that holds the rolling elements (such as balls or rollers) of the bearing in place. It is located on the inside of the bearing assembly and is designed to rotate with the shaft or axle while providing support and reducing friction. The inner race is responsible for transmitting the load from the rotating shaft to the rolling elements, allowing for smooth and efficient operation of the wheel bearing.

Explanation

The bearing cone of an aircraft wheel bearing is referred to as the inner race. The inner race is a ring-shaped component that holds the rolling elements (such as balls or rollers) of the bearing in place. It is located on the inside of the bearing assembly and is designed to rotate with the shaft or axle while providing support and reducing friction. The inner race is responsible for transmitting the load from the rotating shaft to the rolling elements, allowing for smooth and efficient operation of the wheel bearing.

98. What forms the inner and outer surfaces of an annular-type combustion chamber?

Interlocking stainless steel bands.

The inner and outer diffuser case.

A forged steel casing.

Solid sheet metal.

The correct answer is interlocking stainless steel bands. In an annular-type combustion chamber, the inner and outer surfaces are formed by interlocking stainless steel bands. These bands are designed to provide structural support and ensure a secure enclosure for the combustion process. The interlocking mechanism helps to maintain the integrity of the chamber, preventing any leaks or failures that could compromise the efficiency and safety of the combustion process. Stainless steel is chosen for its high temperature resistance and durability, making it an ideal material for this application.

Explanation

The correct answer is interlocking stainless steel bands. In an annular-type combustion chamber, the inner and outer surfaces are formed by interlocking stainless steel bands. These bands are designed to provide structural support and ensure a secure enclosure for the combustion process. The interlocking mechanism helps to maintain the integrity of the chamber, preventing any leaks or failures that could compromise the efficiency and safety of the combustion process. Stainless steel is chosen for its high temperature resistance and durability, making it an ideal material for this application.

99. What engine component must be rotated to a predetermined speed in order for a jet engine starter to be considered effective?

Center gearbox.

Front gearbox.

Compressor.

Turbine.

The compressor is the engine component that must be rotated to a predetermined speed in order for a jet engine starter to be considered effective. The compressor is responsible for drawing in air and compressing it before it enters the combustion chamber. By rotating the compressor at a sufficient speed, it creates the necessary airflow and pressure for the engine to start and operate effectively. The other options, such as the center gearbox, front gearbox, and turbine, are not directly involved in the starting process of the engine.

Explanation

The compressor is the engine component that must be rotated to a predetermined speed in order for a jet engine starter to be considered effective. The compressor is responsible for drawing in air and compressing it before it enters the combustion chamber. By rotating the compressor at a sufficient speed, it creates the necessary airflow and pressure for the engine to start and operate effectively. The other options, such as the center gearbox, front gearbox, and turbine, are not directly involved in the starting process of the engine.

100. The purpose of the jet engine pressure ratio (EPR) indicating system is to give a reference to the engine"s

Available thrust output.

Compressor balance.

Thermal efficiency.

Turbine efficiency.

The purpose of the jet engine pressure ratio (EPR) indicating system is to give a reference to the engine's available thrust output. The EPR is a ratio of the total pressure at the compressor discharge to the total pressure at the engine inlet. By monitoring the EPR, pilots and engineers can determine the engine's thrust output and make adjustments as necessary. This information is crucial for maintaining optimal performance and ensuring the engine is operating within safe limits.

Explanation

The purpose of the jet engine pressure ratio (EPR) indicating system is to give a reference to the engine's available thrust output. The EPR is a ratio of the total pressure at the compressor discharge to the total pressure at the engine inlet. By monitoring the EPR, pilots and engineers can determine the engine's thrust output and make adjustments as necessary. This information is crucial for maintaining optimal performance and ensuring the engine is operating within safe limits.

101. What jet engine alternating current ignition system unit develops 20,000 volts delivered to the igniter plug?

Inverter.

Capacitor.

Generator.

Transformer.

A transformer is a device that is used to increase or decrease the voltage of an alternating current. In the context of a jet engine ignition system, a transformer would be responsible for increasing the voltage to 20,000 volts, which is then delivered to the igniter plug. The other options, such as inverter, capacitor, and generator, do not specifically mention their ability to develop or deliver such high voltage, making transformer the most suitable option.

Explanation

A transformer is a device that is used to increase or decrease the voltage of an alternating current. In the context of a jet engine ignition system, a transformer would be responsible for increasing the voltage to 20,000 volts, which is then delivered to the igniter plug. The other options, such as inverter, capacitor, and generator, do not specifically mention their ability to develop or deliver such high voltage, making transformer the most suitable option.

102. Which caliper is used for finding shaft centers or locating shoulders?

Slide caliper.

Center caliper.

Spring-joint caliper.

Odd-leg caliper.

The odd-leg caliper is used for finding shaft centers or locating shoulders. This type of caliper has one leg that is longer than the other, allowing it to be placed against a shoulder or center point while the other leg measures the distance. This makes it a useful tool for accurately determining the center of a shaft or locating specific points on a workpiece.

Explanation

The odd-leg caliper is used for finding shaft centers or locating shoulders. This type of caliper has one leg that is longer than the other, allowing it to be placed against a shoulder or center point while the other leg measures the distance. This makes it a useful tool for accurately determining the center of a shaft or locating specific points on a workpiece.

103. Alkaline and solvent cleaners authorized for use on our aircraft are specified in

TO 00-20-1.

TO 1-1-3.

TO 1-1A-8

TO 1-1-691.

The correct answer is TO 1-1-691. This technical order specifies the alkaline and solvent cleaners that are authorized for use on our aircraft. It provides guidelines and instructions on the proper cleaning procedures and the approved cleaning agents to ensure the safety and maintenance of the aircraft.

Explanation

The correct answer is TO 1-1-691. This technical order specifies the alkaline and solvent cleaners that are authorized for use on our aircraft. It provides guidelines and instructions on the proper cleaning procedures and the approved cleaning agents to ensure the safety and maintenance of the aircraft.

104. When pressure in a hydraulic system with a variable-volume pump increases, the fluid-flow

Stops.

Increases.

Decreases.

Remains the same.

When pressure in a hydraulic system with a variable-volume pump increases, the fluid-flow decreases. This is because as the pressure increases, it becomes more difficult for the fluid to flow through the system. The increased pressure creates resistance, causing the fluid-flow to slow down or decrease.

Explanation

When pressure in a hydraulic system with a variable-volume pump increases, the fluid-flow decreases. This is because as the pressure increases, it becomes more difficult for the fluid to flow through the system. The increased pressure creates resistance, causing the fluid-flow to slow down or decrease.

105. A simple direct current ignition system consists of

Vibrator, alternating current to DC converter, and transformer.

Transformer, igniter plugs, and AC-to-DC converter.

Vibrator, igniter plugs, and AC-to-DC converter.

Vibrator, igniter plugs, and transformer.

A simple direct current ignition system requires a vibrator to generate the high voltage pulses, an igniter plug to ignite the fuel-air mixture, and a transformer to step up the voltage from the battery to a level sufficient for spark generation. The alternating current to DC converter is not necessary in this system as it is designed to operate on direct current. Therefore, the correct answer is vibrator, igniter plugs, and transformer.

Explanation

A simple direct current ignition system requires a vibrator to generate the high voltage pulses, an igniter plug to ignite the fuel-air mixture, and a transformer to step up the voltage from the battery to a level sufficient for spark generation. The alternating current to DC converter is not necessary in this system as it is designed to operate on direct current. Therefore, the correct answer is vibrator, igniter plugs, and transformer.

106. The reservoir supplies hydraulic fluid to a hand pump

By gravity.

By the suction effect of the pump.

By gravity and the suction effect of the pump.

In response to pressure demand and the suction effect of the pump.

The correct answer is "by gravity and the suction effect of the pump." This means that the reservoir supplies hydraulic fluid to the hand pump both through the force of gravity and the suction effect created by the pump. The force of gravity allows the fluid to flow from the reservoir to the pump, while the suction effect of the pump helps to draw the fluid into the pump for further use.

Explanation

The correct answer is "by gravity and the suction effect of the pump." This means that the reservoir supplies hydraulic fluid to the hand pump both through the force of gravity and the suction effect created by the pump. The force of gravity allows the fluid to flow from the reservoir to the pump, while the suction effect of the pump helps to draw the fluid into the pump for further use.

107. Which retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed for use with them?

Snap rings.

Spiral retaining rings.

Beveled retaining rings.

Axially assembled retaining ring.

Axially assembled retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed for use with them. This type of retaining ring is designed to be assembled in an axial direction, meaning it is inserted into a groove in a shaft or housing and then expanded to secure the assembly. The small holes in the lugs allow for easy removal and installation using pliers, making it a convenient option for certain applications.

Explanation

Axially assembled retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed for use with them. This type of retaining ring is designed to be assembled in an axial direction, meaning it is inserted into a groove in a shaft or housing and then expanded to secure the assembly. The small holes in the lugs allow for easy removal and installation using pliers, making it a convenient option for certain applications.

108. What effect does the divergent design of a jet engine diffuser have on pressure?

Increase pressure.

Decrease pressure.

Results in pressure fluctuations.

Has many effect on pressure.

The divergent design of a jet engine diffuser increases pressure. A divergent diffuser is designed to gradually increase the cross-sectional area of the airflow, which slows down the flow and increases its pressure. This is achieved by creating a larger space for the air to expand into, causing it to compress and increase in pressure.

Explanation

The divergent design of a jet engine diffuser increases pressure. A divergent diffuser is designed to gradually increase the cross-sectional area of the airflow, which slows down the flow and increases its pressure. This is achieved by creating a larger space for the air to expand into, causing it to compress and increase in pressure.

109. When classified according to structure, which of the following is not a type of an oil pump?

Gear.

Gerotor.

Rotogear.

Sliding vane.

Rotogear is not a type of oil pump when classified according to structure. The other options mentioned, Gear, Gerotor, and Sliding vane, are all types of oil pumps. However, Rotogear is not a commonly recognized type of oil pump, suggesting that it is not a correct answer.

Explanation

Rotogear is not a type of oil pump when classified according to structure. The other options mentioned, Gear, Gerotor, and Sliding vane, are all types of oil pumps. However, Rotogear is not a commonly recognized type of oil pump, suggesting that it is not a correct answer.

110. The air turbine (impingement) starter used on jet engines

Is usually mounted on the engine accessory drive.

Uses a starter-clutch assembly to disengage the starter from the engine.

Has the advantages of less weight and fewer moving parts than other starters.

Requires high-pressure, low-volume air flow to produce torque necessary for engine start.

The correct answer states that the air turbine (impingement) starter used on jet engines has the advantages of less weight and fewer moving parts than other starters. This means that compared to other types of starters, the air turbine starter is lighter in weight and has fewer components that can potentially fail or require maintenance. This makes it a more efficient and reliable option for starting jet engines.

Explanation

The correct answer states that the air turbine (impingement) starter used on jet engines has the advantages of less weight and fewer moving parts than other starters. This means that compared to other types of starters, the air turbine starter is lighter in weight and has fewer components that can potentially fail or require maintenance. This makes it a more efficient and reliable option for starting jet engines.

111. The cartridge-pneumatic starter is a gas-driven turbine wheel coupled to the engine through a reduction gear system and

A power takeoff shaft.

A single-entry air diverter.

An overrunning clutch.

A cartridge.

The cartridge-pneumatic starter is a gas-driven turbine wheel coupled to the engine through a reduction gear system and an overrunning clutch. The purpose of the overrunning clutch is to allow the turbine wheel to spin freely in one direction while preventing it from rotating in the opposite direction. This is important because the turbine wheel needs to accelerate quickly to start the engine, but once the engine is running, the turbine wheel should not be driven by the engine's rotation. The overrunning clutch ensures that the turbine wheel only drives the engine during startup and does not impede its operation once it is running.

Explanation

The cartridge-pneumatic starter is a gas-driven turbine wheel coupled to the engine through a reduction gear system and an overrunning clutch. The purpose of the overrunning clutch is to allow the turbine wheel to spin freely in one direction while preventing it from rotating in the opposite direction. This is important because the turbine wheel needs to accelerate quickly to start the engine, but once the engine is running, the turbine wheel should not be driven by the engine's rotation. The overrunning clutch ensures that the turbine wheel only drives the engine during startup and does not impede its operation once it is running.

112. The exhaust duct connects the turbine outlet and the

Fan duct.

Jet nozzle.

Fuel nozzle.

Augmented the duct.

The exhaust duct connects the turbine outlet and the jet nozzle. The exhaust gases produced by the turbine flow through the exhaust duct and exit the engine through the jet nozzle. The jet nozzle is responsible for accelerating the exhaust gases and creating the thrust necessary for propulsion. Therefore, it is the correct answer in this context.

Explanation

The exhaust duct connects the turbine outlet and the jet nozzle. The exhaust gases produced by the turbine flow through the exhaust duct and exit the engine through the jet nozzle. The jet nozzle is responsible for accelerating the exhaust gases and creating the thrust necessary for propulsion. Therefore, it is the correct answer in this context.

113. When a jet engine uses two or more turbine wheels, what is placed directly in front of each turbine wheel?

Diffuser.

Jet nozzle.

Combustion liner.

Nozzle diaphragm.

The correct answer is nozzle diaphragm. In a jet engine with multiple turbine wheels, the nozzle diaphragm is placed directly in front of each turbine wheel. The nozzle diaphragm helps to direct and control the flow of exhaust gases from the combustion chamber into the turbine section, where the gases drive the turbine blades and produce thrust. It acts as a barrier between the combustion chamber and the turbine section, ensuring that the gases are efficiently and effectively directed towards the turbine blades for maximum power output.

Explanation

The correct answer is nozzle diaphragm. In a jet engine with multiple turbine wheels, the nozzle diaphragm is placed directly in front of each turbine wheel. The nozzle diaphragm helps to direct and control the flow of exhaust gases from the combustion chamber into the turbine section, where the gases drive the turbine blades and produce thrust. It acts as a barrier between the combustion chamber and the turbine section, ensuring that the gases are efficiently and effectively directed towards the turbine blades for maximum power output.

114. Which inspection is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft-specific -6 technical order and is a thorough inspection of the entire aerospace vehicle?

Phased.

Periodic.

Isochronal.

Hourly postflight.

A periodic inspection is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft-specific -6 technical order. It is a thorough inspection of the entire aerospace vehicle. This type of inspection ensures that the aircraft is in compliance with maintenance and safety standards and helps identify any potential issues or wear and tear that may have occurred during operation.

Explanation

A periodic inspection is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft-specific -6 technical order. It is a thorough inspection of the entire aerospace vehicle. This type of inspection ensures that the aircraft is in compliance with maintenance and safety standards and helps identify any potential issues or wear and tear that may have occurred during operation.

115. What slows the free fall of the main landing gear during the emergency extension sequence?

Dampering unit.

Inline restrictor.

Orifice check valve.

Snubbing mechanism.

The dampering unit slows the free fall of the main landing gear during the emergency extension sequence. This unit is designed to provide controlled and gradual extension of the landing gear in case of an emergency. It helps to prevent sudden and jarring movements that could potentially damage the aircraft or cause injury to the occupants. By slowing down the descent of the landing gear, the dampering unit ensures a safer and more controlled emergency landing.

Explanation

The dampering unit slows the free fall of the main landing gear during the emergency extension sequence. This unit is designed to provide controlled and gradual extension of the landing gear in case of an emergency. It helps to prevent sudden and jarring movements that could potentially damage the aircraft or cause injury to the occupants. By slowing down the descent of the landing gear, the dampering unit ensures a safer and more controlled emergency landing.

116. Which inspection ensures the completeness of historical documents?

Phase.

Special.

Calender.

Acceptance.

The correct answer is "Phase." In the context of the question, the term "inspection" refers to a systematic examination or review of historical documents. The word "phase" suggests that this inspection is part of a larger process or project, indicating that it is a comprehensive and thorough examination that ensures the completeness of historical documents. The other options - "Special," "Calender," and "Acceptance" - do not specifically relate to the concept of inspecting historical documents for completeness.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Phase." In the context of the question, the term "inspection" refers to a systematic examination or review of historical documents. The word "phase" suggests that this inspection is part of a larger process or project, indicating that it is a comprehensive and thorough examination that ensures the completeness of historical documents. The other options - "Special," "Calender," and "Acceptance" - do not specifically relate to the concept of inspecting historical documents for completeness.

2AX5X CDC V3 Trivia Quiz

1. When cleaning aircraft wheels, you should not use

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. At a minimum, what should you wear when taking an oil sample?

3. Which torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached?

4. Who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced?

5. The purpose of the landing gear warning horn is to

6. The two types of oil coolers used in jet engine oil systems are air/oil and

7. What part of a cannon plug completes the electrical circuit?

8. Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the

9. A major disadvantage of multiple disc brakes is that they

10. What are two stresses that a fastener takes when tightened?

11. The TH inspection is normally performed

12. Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins the instant it is

13. What type of corrosion can be recognized by a lifting up or swelling of the metal grains?

14. What maintains an airtight seal between split wheel halves?

15. Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is

16. What position must the landing gear control handle be in before emergency extension of the landing gear?

17. Through the use of spectrometric oil analysis, aircraft will have a higher in-commission rate because there will be

18. Which tool is used to measure the gap between two parts?

19. The purpose of the antiskid system is to

20. Installed bearing races should be free of scratches, dents, and

21. When securing widely spaced bolts by the double-twist safetying method, what is the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in series?

22. What torque wrench indicates the amount of torque or twisting action being applied?

23. Which medical concept forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy?

24. Aircraft wheels are normally constructed of

25. Split wheels are balanced

26. Air and gases flowing through a jet engine require

27. After air is drawn into the guide vanes of a centrifugal jet engine compressor, it is subjected to

28. The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to

29. In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12_10PW, the letter P indicates

30. When the H symbol is shown on the Fluke multimeter display, the

31. All items that come through supply channels are assigned what type of code?

32. Which inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of systems?

33. The purpose of the torsion links on a main landing gear is to

34. For tires 24 inches or greater outside diameter, the tire must be removed when wear reaches the bottom of any tread groove for a continuous length of

35. Fuel that accumulates after a failed start or engine shutdown is

36. What is the purpose of the exhaust duct?

37. What do you use to create a static seal between two stationary parts in the oil system?

38. Use the range button on the Fluke multimeter to

39. A push-pull rod end engagement is checked by

40. What is the longest possible movement between the micrometer's spindle and anvil?

41. A unit that is a combination of the landing gear shimmy damper and steering unit is known as

42. What type of bearings are used on aircraft wheels?

43. What type of fuel control uses thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids, to help control the engine?

44. What indicates lubricant system contamination by dirt and sand?

45. Which caliper has the words "IN" and "OUT" stamped on the frame?

46. Bench stock levels are established to provide a

47. Within maintenance the internal control of reparable items is accomplished through the DIFM notice and

48. The three benefits of of the Joint Oil Analysis Program (JOAP) are improved safety, reduced maintenance cost, and

49. After treatment which solution is used to neutralize areas affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery?

50. The combustion efficiency of a gas turbine is usually between

51. Engine design helps prevent igniter plug fouling by

52. A micron is a metric linear measurement equal to

53. Jet engine tachometer gauges are calibrated in percent of

54. What is used in determining design criteria such as engine requirements, wing area, landing gear requirements, and payload capacity?

55. Electromagnetic devices capable of sensing magnetically conducive metal targets on landing gears are known as

56. Brake fade is defined as a gradual braking action

57. The main parts of an aircraft tire are the tread and sidewall,

58. Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for

59. Exhaust gas temperature indicators indicate the engine EGT in

60. Which type of friction is defined as the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving?

61. Which DD forms are easily identified by their green margins and letters?

62. Which inspection is required if an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days?

63. What corrosion type appears as corroded cracks in a metal?

64. On some jet engines, what secures the turbine bucket in place?

65. Which engine type used a lot during the early years of jet engine design is the most basic turbine engine design?

66. What jet engine oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing?

67. What automatically compensates for brake wear on the segmented rotor brake?

68. When the turbine wheel absorbs the fuel energy,

69. What are the two types of jet engine compressors?

70. What is the purpose of a front-mounted fan in an axial-flow jet engine compressor?

71. The limit for securing closely spaced bolts in series when using the single-wire safety method is the maximum number of bolts that can be secured using a

72. The purpose of deboosters is to

73. What determines the N2 compressor RPM of a dual-spool jet engine compressor?

74. What augmenter component creates local turbulence and reduces gas velocity?

75. The primary function of a hydromechanical fuel control on a jet engine is to

76. The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is no deeper than

77. Generally, low-pressure hoses are used for what pressure?