2A651 EOC Practice Test

523 Questions | Total Attempts: 402

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2A651 Quizzes & Trivia

2A651 EOC Practice Test


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (001) Which squadrons form a maintenance group?
    • A. 

      Operations, aircraft maintenance, flying.

    • B. 

      Maintenance, operations, quality assurance.

    • C. 

      Quality assurance, support, aircraft maintenance.

    • D. 

      Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance.

  • 2. 
    (001) QA recommends possible corrective actions to which level?
    • A. 

      Supervisors.

    • B. 

      Flight commanders.

    • C. 

      Group commanders.

    • D. 

      Squadron commanders.

  • 3. 
    (001) Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules, and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?
    • A. 

      Operations support center.

    • B. 

      Logistics support squadron.

    • C. 

      Operations support squadron.

    • D. 

      Maintenance operations center.

  • 4. 
    (001) When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be assigned?
    • A. 

      Debrief.

    • B. 

      Training.

    • C. 

      Specialist.

    • D. 

      Deployment.

  • 5. 
    (002) What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?
    • A. 

      NCO academy.

    • B. 

      On-the-job training.

    • C. 

      Career development course.

    • D. 

      Task qualification training.

  • 6. 
    (002) You may attend the ALS after having how many months in the Air Force?
    • A. 

      24.

    • B. 

      36.

    • C. 

      48.

    • D. 

      60.

  • 7. 
    (003) Which program’s purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees?
    • A. 

      ORM.

    • B. 

      MSDS.

    • C. 

      AFOSH.

    • D. 

      Flightline safety.

  • 8. 
    (003) Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series
    • A. 

      91.

    • B. 

      66.

    • C. 

      127.

    • D. 

      161.

  • 9. 
    (003) Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?
    • A. 

      00–5–1.

    • B. 

      00–20–1.

    • C. 

      21–101.

    • D. 

      36–2108.

  • 10. 
    (004) Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed?
    • A. 

      Lock and pin the work stands.

    • B. 

      Check the AFTO Form 781K.

    • C. 

      Check the intake for FOD.

    • D. 

      Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft.

  • 11. 
    (004) How far does a propeller’s axis of rotation extend?
    • A. 

      20 feet to the front and 15 feet from the rear.

    • B. 

      15 feet to the front and 10 feet from the rear.

    • C. 

      10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.

    • D. 

      5 feet to the front and 1 foot from the rear.

  • 12. 
    (004) To avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance in feet to the rear of the aircraft?
    • A. 

      100.

    • B. 

      200.

    • C. 

      300.

    • D. 

      400.

  • 13. 
    (005) FOD is normally caused by
    • A. 

      People.

    • B. 

      Animals.

    • C. 

      Weather.

    • D. 

      Mechanical failure.

  • 14. 
    (005) Who has overall responsibility for the FOD program?
    • A. 

      Quality assurance.

    • B. 

      Squadron commander.

    • C. 

      Production supervisor.

    • D. 

      Maintenance group commander.

  • 15. 
    (006) During flightline and test cell operations, you may be exposed to
    • A. 

      Acetone.

    • B. 

      Toluene.

    • C. 

      Carbon dioxide.

    • D. 

      Carbon monoxide.

  • 16. 
    (006) Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of
    • A. 

      Aerosols.

    • B. 

      Liquids.

    • C. 

      Solids.

    • D. 

      Gases.

  • 17. 
    (007) Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment?
    • A. 

      Safety.

    • B. 

      Hospital.

    • C. 

      Supervisor.

    • D. 

      Environmental.

  • 18. 
    (007) Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent
    • A. 

      Explosions.

    • B. 

      Unauthorized entry.

    • C. 

      Overflow of materials.

    • D. 

      Mixing of unlike materials.

  • 19. 
    (007) A common method for disposing of hazardous wasted is
    • A. 

      Dilution.

    • B. 

      Incineration.

    • C. 

      Land disposal.

    • D. 

      Biodegradation.

  • 20. 
    (007) For hazardous waste disposal, it is unlikely the Air Force can justify
    • A. 

      Incineration.

    • B. 

      Land disposal.

    • C. 

      Biodegradation.

    • D. 

      Chemico-physical treatment.

  • 21. 
    (008) A specialized function of the supply mission is
    • A. 

      Repair.

    • B. 

      Service.

    • C. 

      Disposal.

    • D. 

      Retrieval.

  • 22. 
    (008) From what perspective does the RSS manage supply?
    • A. 

      Base system.

    • B. 

      Weapons system.

    • C. 

      Inventory system.

    • D. 

      Geographical system.

  • 23. 
    (008) Which Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system?
    • A. 

      Depot Level Repair System.

    • B. 

      Repair Cycle Support System.

    • C. 

      Standard Base Supply System.

    • D. 

      Precious Metals Recovery System.

  • 24. 
    (008) Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require
    • A. 

      Overhaul.

    • B. 

      Retest OK.

    • C. 

      Time change.

    • D. 

      Repair cycle support.

  • 25. 
    (008) Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the SBSS?
    • A. 

      Priority Monitor Report (D18).

    • B. 

      Daily Document Register (D04).

    • C. 

      Due-out Validation Listing (M30).

    • D. 

      Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23).

  • 26. 
    (008) Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of what difference in each organization?
    • A. 

      Mission.

    • B. 

      Contract.

    • C. 

      Location.

    • D. 

      Type of aircraft.

  • 27. 
    (009) What does a completed AFTO Form 350 serve to identify?
    • A. 

      Origin of an item.

    • B. 

      Why the item broke.

    • C. 

      How long the item will take to repair.

    • D. 

      The responsible reparable processing center.

  • 28. 
    (009) Which provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag?
    • A. 

      AFMAN 23–110.

    • B. 

      TO 00–20–2.

    • C. 

      AFI 91–301.

    • D. 

      TO 00–5–1.

  • 29. 
    (010) If you are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part?
    • A. 

      AF IMT 2005.

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 349.

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 350.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1574.

  • 30. 
    (010) If you need detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, refer to AFMAN
    • A. 

      23–110.

    • B. 

      23–254.

    • C. 

      91–110.

    • D. 

      91–254.

  • 31. 
    (011) Which form is attached to items that are awaiting parts or maintenance?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1574.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1575.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1577–2.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1577–3.

  • 32. 
    (012) Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time?
    • A. 

      Supply.

    • B. 

      Shelf-life.

    • C. 

      Inspection.

    • D. 

      Bench stock.

  • 33. 
    (012) When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means the item
    • A. 

      Has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended.

    • B. 

      Should be returned to supply after expiration date.

    • C. 

      Has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life.

    • D. 

      Should be inspected or tested.

  • 34. 
    (013) A Category I DR is used to report a deficiency
    • A. 

      That is required for tracking by agreement of the single manager.

    • B. 

      Found during an initial acceptance inspection (critical or major defects only).

    • C. 

      That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system.

    • D. 

      That identifies a potential enhancement (applies to enhancements noted during the acquisition cycle).

  • 35. 
    (013) Within how many hours must Category I DR be forwarded to the screening point?
    • A. 

      8.

    • B. 

      12.

    • C. 

      24.

    • D. 

      72.

  • 36. 
    (014) Which type of items must be reflected on the CA/CRL?
    • A. 

      Shelf-life.

    • B. 

      Bench stock.

    • C. 

      Hazardous materials.

    • D. 

      Equipment Authorization Inventory Data.

  • 37. 
    (014) To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the
    • A. 

      Shop chief.

    • B. 

      Supervisor.

    • C. 

      Commander.

    • D. 

      Supply chief.

  • 38. 
    (015) The first part of a TO number identifies the
    • A. 

      Sectionalization of the TO.

    • B. 

      Type of instructions found in the TO.

    • C. 

      Category and type of equipment in the TO.

    • D. 

      Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO.

  • 39. 
    (015) The second part of a TO number gives the
    • A. 

      TO classification.

    • B. 

      Type of equipment in the TO.

    • C. 

      Type of instructions found in the TO.

    • D. 

      Model and series for equipment type in the TO.

  • 40. 
    (016) In which type of TO would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment?
    • A. 

      Index.

    • B. 

      Preliminary.

    • C. 

      Methods and procedure.

    • D. 

      Operational and maintenance.

  • 41. 
    (017) Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?
    • A. 

      General equipment.

    • B. 

      General system.

    • C. 

      Fault isolation.

    • D. 

      Job guide.

  • 42. 
    (017) Which type of additional data is not provided in interactive electronic technical manuals (IETMS)?
    • A. 

      Rapid action changes.

    • B. 

      Operational supplements.

    • C. 

      Urgent recommendations.

    • D. 

      Time compliance technical order.

  • 43. 
    (017) What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB?
    • A. 

      Introduction.

    • B. 

      Numerical index.

    • C. 

      Group assembly parts list.

    • D. 

      Reference designation index.

  • 44. 
    (018) What category of TCTO is issued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?
    • A. 

      Record.

    • B. 

      Urgent action.

    • C. 

      Routine action.

    • D. 

      Immediate action.

  • 45. 
    (019) Which TO covers information concerning the Air Force TO system?
    • A. 

      00–5–1.

    • B. 

      00–5–2.

    • C. 

      00–20–1.

    • D. 

      00–20–2.

  • 46. 
    (019) How can you tell when the text or a picture in a TO has been changed?
    • A. 

      The text or picture will be marked in color.

    • B. 

      The text or picture will be highlighted in yellow.

    • C. 

      The word “changed” will be marked on the text or picture.

    • D. 

      A bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture.

  • 47. 
    (020) An AFTO IMT 22 is not submitted for
    • A. 

      Job guides.

    • B. 

      Work cards.

    • C. 

      Preliminary TOs.

    • D. 

      Methods and procedures TOs.

  • 48. 
    (020) Who makes sure the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission?
    • A. 

      Initiator.

    • B. 

      Commander.

    • C. 

      Supervisor of initiator.

    • D. 

      Product improvement office.

  • 49. 
    (020) Which AFTO IMT 22 recommendation would you submit which, if not corrected, could cause personnel injury or damage to equipment or property?
    • A. 

      Urgent.

    • B. 

      Special.

    • C. 

      Routine.

    • D. 

      Emergency.

  • 50. 
    (021) What are the two classifications of failures in RCM?
    • A. 

      Evident and hidden.

    • B. 

      Potential and evident.

    • C. 

      Hidden and functional.

    • D. 

      Potential and functional.

  • 51. 
    (021) In RCM, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition?
    • A. 

      Hard time.

    • B. 

      Lubrication.

    • C. 

      On condition.

    • D. 

      Failure finding.

  • 52. 
    (022) The primary goal of the ET&D program is to prevent or limit damage to turbine engines by
    • A. 

      Reviewing past engine accident investigation reports.

    • B. 

      Tracking serially controlled components and modules.

    • C. 

      Early detection of performance degradation and/or failures.

    • D. 

      Documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions.

  • 53. 
    (022) Within the ET&D program, to whom do flightline personnel transfer collected data for analysis?
    • A. 

      Depot-level engine maintenance shops.

    • B. 

      Base engine maintenance shop.

    • C. 

      Product center engineers.

    • D. 

      Flightline expediter.

  • 54. 
    (022) Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the ET&D program?
    • A. 

      Propulsion and depot.

    • B. 

      Depot and nondestructive inspection.

    • C. 

      Propulsion and nondestructive inspection.

    • D. 

      Environmental health and nondestructive inspection.

  • 55. 
    (023) What drives the creation of a CRP?
    • A. 

      Equipment cost and repair time.

    • B. 

      Number of available spare engines.

    • C. 

      Number of assigned maintenance personnel.

    • D. 

      Customer wait time and transportation constraints.

  • 56. 
    (023) Who maintains accountability of CIRF assets and reports their status?
    • A. 

      Production supervisor.

    • B. 

      Depot item manager.

    • C. 

      Engine technician.

    • D. 

      Supply officer.

  • 57. 
    (023) When a CIRF ships a replacement asset to a deployed unit, who is responsible for ensuring all appropriate documentation is completed?
    • A. 

      Deployed unit.

    • B. 

      CIRF personnel.

    • C. 

      Supply squadron.

    • D. 

      Transportation squadron.

  • 58. 
    (024) What supports base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing any repairs beyond their responsibility/capability?
    • A. 

      Field maintenance.

    • B. 

      Depot maintenance.

    • C. 

      Engine trending and diagnostics.

    • D. 

      Engine life-cycle management planning.

  • 59. 
    (024) Depot maintenance support base-level technicians by
    • A. 

      Providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability.

    • B. 

      Ensuring replacement parts are ordered in a timely manner.

    • C. 

      Notifying maintenance personnel of upcoming TCTO.

    • D. 

      Providing the most current TO updates to the field.

  • 60. 
    (024) Depot level support includes CLSS crews, depot maintenance support, maintenance assistance, and
    • A. 

      Jet engine intermediate maintenance crews.

    • B. 

      ALC teams.

    • C. 

      Engineer assistance.

    • D. 

      Field teams.

  • 61. 
    (025) A primary objective of the engine reporting system is to
    • A. 

      Schedule engine replacement times.

    • B. 

      Track parts replacement on jet engines.

    • C. 

      Report all engine related discrepancies.

    • D. 

      Maintain accurate and timely engine inventories.

  • 62. 
    (025) The key to making the CEMS work is
    • A. 

      Availability of engines and their parts.

    • B. 

      Accurate and timely data at the lowest level.

    • C. 

      Accurate and timely data at the highest level.

    • D. 

      Availability of a storage and analysis computer.

  • 63. 
    (025) For how many categories of reporting does the CEMS establish and maintain records?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      4.

    • D. 

      5.

  • 64. 
    (026) You should record the removal and replacement of engine accessories on which one of the following AFTO Forms?
    • A. 

      25.

    • B. 

      44.

    • C. 

      95.

    • D. 

      349.

  • 65. 
    (026) To document information concerning the status of engine TCTO, use AFTO Form
    • A. 

      25.

    • B. 

      95.

    • C. 

      98.

    • D. 

      349.

  • 66. 
    (027) What is the purpose of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer programs?
    • A. 

      Prevent unscheduled removal of engines.

    • B. 

      Identify engines requiring TCTO maintenance.

    • C. 

      Accelerate the flying rate of all the unit’s installed engines.

    • D. 

      Determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field.

  • 67. 
    (027) Which is not a Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objective?
    • A. 

      Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets.

    • B. 

      Accurately update scheduled maintenance requirements.

    • C. 

      Evaluate the engine controls and accessories to include engine monitoring systems.

    • D. 

      Detect any unique durability problems that might force special scheduled inspections.

  • 68. 
    (027) How many years ahead should participating units accelerate engines, modules, and accessories?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.

  • 69. 
    (028) Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause
    • A. 

      Injury to you.

    • B. 

      Torn clothing.

    • C. 

      Electrical shock.

    • D. 

      Damage to the tool.

  • 70. 
    (028) What would you use to hold your tools when you cannot locate your toolbox within arm’s reach?
    • A. 

      Ziplock bag.

    • B. 

      Parts bag.

    • C. 

      FOD bag.

    • D. 

      Toolbag.

  • 71. 
    (029) If you must torque a sequence of three or more bolts,
    • A. 

      Use maximum torque.

    • B. 

      Use a staggered sequence.

    • C. 

      Torque from left to right.

    • D. 

      Overtorque, loosen, and retorque.

  • 72. 
    (029) The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the
    • A. 

      Lock.

    • B. 

      Grip.

    • C. 

      Shaft index line.

    • D. 

      Broached opening.

  • 73. 
    (029) What type of rule should you use for measuring an inside diameter?
    • A. 

      Hook.

    • B. 

      Narrow.

    • C. 

      6-inch steel.

    • D. 

      Slide caliper.

  • 74. 
    (030) Micrometers are generally used to make measurements to an accuracy of
    • A. 

      One sixteenth of an inch.

    • B. 

      One one-hundredth of an inch.

    • C. 

      One one-thousandth of an inch.

    • D. 

      One ten-thousandth of an inch.

  • 75. 
    (030) The longest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is
    • A. 

      1 inch.

    • B. 

      2 inches.

    • C. 

      3 inches.

    • D. 

      4 inches.

  • 76. 
    (030) You adjust a micrometer by turning the
    • A. 

      Barrel.

    • B. 

      Frame.

    • C. 

      Spindle.

    • D. 

      Thimble.

  • 77. 
    (030) The vernier scale on a micrometer is used to read measurements in
    • A. 

      Hundredths of an inch.

    • B. 

      Thousandths of an inch.

    • C. 

      Ten-thousandths of an inch.

    • D. 

      Hundred-thousandths of an inch.

  • 78. 
    (031) Where is the contact point on a dial indicator located?
    • A. 

      On the dial face.

    • B. 

      At the end of the anvil.

    • C. 

      At the end of the thimble.

    • D. 

      At the end of a pivoted lever.

  • 79. 
    (031) What feature is common to all dial indicators?
    • A. 

      Construction of indicator.

    • B. 

      Construction of indicating hand.

    • C. 

      Ability to amplify movement greatly.

    • D. 

      Ability to amplify movement slightly.

  • 80. 
    (032) To avoid rust, measuring tools should never be stored where the relative humidity exceeds what percentage?
    • A. 

      10.

    • B. 

      20.

    • C. 

      40.

    • D. 

      50.

  • 81. 
    (032) What should you use for cleaning measuring tools?
    • A. 

      WD–40.

    • B. 

      Trychlorethlene.

    • C. 

      Turbo-super-carb.

    • D. 

      Dry-cleaning solvent.

  • 82. 
    (033) The Fluke 8025A multimeter control that is used to set the meter to check for AC and DC is the
    • A. 

      Function selector.

    • B. 

      Range-mode pushbutton switch.

    • C. 

      Touch-hold pushbutton switch.

    • D. 

      Volts, ohms, diode test input jack.

  • 83. 
    (034) How many range settings does the Fluke 8025A multimeter have?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      4.

    • D. 

      5.

  • 84. 
    (034) What is the maximum voltage that can be measured if the range button is set at 30 on the Fluke 8025A multimeter?
    • A. 

      28.

    • B. 

      30.

    • C. 

      32.

    • D. 

      34.

  • 85. 
    (035) What is the purpose of a borescope inspection on an engine?
    • A. 

      Replace a teardown inspection.

    • B. 

      Visually inspect internal cavities.

    • C. 

      Detect major damage inside the engine.

    • D. 

      Determine how much maintenance is required during a periodic inspection.

  • 86. 
    (035) Light is transmitted to the tip of a borescope by
    • A. 

      The fiber optics.

    • B. 

      An optical illusion bundle.

    • C. 

      A grounded extension cord.

    • D. 

      A directly magnified light source.

  • 87. 
    (035) What are the type(s) of view(s) available with the rigid borescope?
    • A. 

      Direct.

    • B. 

      Axisymetrical.

    • C. 

      Direct and lateral.

    • D. 

      60 degrees up and 180 degrees down.

  • 88. 
    (035) When operating a borescope, what part of the borescope illuminates the interior of the area you are inspecting?
    • A. 

      Light guide tube.

    • B. 

      Control unit.

    • C. 

      Distal tip light guides.

    • D. 

      Bending section lever.

  • 89. 
    (035) The type of borescope that uses miniature TV camera images is a
    • A. 

      Videoimagescope.

    • B. 

      Rigid borescope.

    • C. 

      Flexible scope.

    • D. 

      Fibrescope.

  • 90. 
    (035) Which factor is not considered for borescope operator certification?
    • A. 

      Experience.

    • B. 

      Maturity.

    • C. 

      Age.

    • D. 

      Rank.

  • 91. 
    (036) Proper bolt length allows a minimum of how many threads protruding the nut?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.

  • 92. 
    (036) The grip length of a bolt should be a few thousandths of an inch shorter than the material it is holding to
    • A. 

      Allow for the installation of a washer.

    • B. 

      Keep the nut from backing loose.

    • C. 

      Allow for expansion of the metal.

    • D. 

      Avoid bottoming out the nut.

  • 93. 
    (036) What type of bolt is used primarily in high-tension applications?
    • A. 

      Clevis.

    • B. 

      Hex head.

    • C. 

      Special purpose.

    • D. 

      Internal wrenching.

  • 94. 
    (036) Which nuts should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250°F?
    • A. 

      Plain nuts.

    • B. 

      Wing nuts.

    • C. 

      Metallic self-locking nuts.

    • D. 

      Nonmetallic self-locking nuts.

  • 95. 
    (036) How is a screw length measured?
    • A. 

      Thread length of the treads.

    • B. 

      Base of the head to the bottom the threads.

    • C. 

      Length of the shank plus the threaded portion.

    • D. 

      Top of the head to the bottom of the screw threads.

  • 96. 
    (036) When installing a self-taping screw, the hole must be
    • A. 

      Slightly smaller than the screw.

    • B. 

      The same size as the screw shank.

    • C. 

      Slightly deeper than the length of the shank.

    • D. 

      Slightly shallower than the length of the screw.

  • 97. 
    (036) What type of washer is used to prevent corrosion of dissimilar metals?
    • A. 

      Plain.

    • B. 

      Lock.

    • C. 

      Star.

    • D. 

      Tab.

  • 98. 
    (036) To prevent damage to the soft metal surfaces and a lock washer is required, what should you use?
    • A. 

      Plain washer underneath the lock washer.

    • B. 

      Soft lock washer.

    • C. 

      Special washer.

    • D. 

      Crush washer.

  • 99. 
    (037) What type of pin is used in joints that carry shear loads and where the absence of clearance is essential?
    • A. 

      Tapered.

    • B. 

      Flathead.

    • C. 

      Cotter.

    • D. 

      Shear.

  • 100. 
    (038) When lockwiring, how many twists per inch are required to produce the proper stiffness?
    • A. 

      6 to 8.

    • B. 

      8 to 10.

    • C. 

      10 to 12.

    • D. 

      12 to 14.

  • 101. 
    (039) Copper tubing is not used on jet engines because it
    • A. 

      Is expensive.

    • B. 

      Is too flexible.

    • C. 

      Has a high-fatigue factor.

    • D. 

      Has extremely high tensile strength.

  • 102. 
    (039) You can identify the various system lines used to transfer fluids and gases on jet engines by
    • A. 

      Their international orange color.

    • B. 

      The different colors of the tubing or hoses.

    • C. 

      The specifications embossed on the tubing or hoses.

    • D. 

      The coded bands of colored tape placed around the tubing or hoses.

  • 103. 
    (039) What numerical value is given to a fitting used on tubing that measures 3/8 inch?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      4.

    • C. 

      6.

    • D. 

      8.

  • 104. 
    (039) Why should dust caps be installed over tube ends rather than inside them?
    • A. 

      Provides a tighter fit.

    • B. 

      Prevents nicking of inner tube surface.

    • C. 

      Avoids possibility of leaving caps installed.

    • D. 

      Provides less contact with corrosive lubricants.

  • 105. 
    (039) For a straight piece of tubing to remain serviceable, a dent must be less than what percentage of the tubing diameter?
    • A. 

      20.

    • B. 

      25.

    • C. 

      30.

    • D. 

      35r.

  • 106. 
    (039) What type of hoses should you never use oil as an aid to installing?
    • A. 

      Hydraulic.

    • B. 

      Pneumatic.

    • C. 

      Self-sealing.

    • D. 

      High-pressure.

  • 107. 
    (040) When you receive an engine in your shop, you should check the applicable forms and then
    • A. 

      Look for leaks.

    • B. 

      Change the oil filter.

    • C. 

      Inspect for missing parts.

    • D. 

      Check the compressor inlet.

  • 108. 
    (040) Operating procedures and practices that, if not strictly observed, may result in damage to equipment are shown in the maintenance manuals in the form of
    • A. 

      Notes.

    • B. 

      Hints.

    • C. 

      Warnings.

    • D. 

      Cautions.

  • 109. 
    (041) Preservation of a component being shipped is required when it is being returned to depot or stored for more than how many days?
    • A. 

      15.

    • B. 

      30.

    • C. 

      45.

    • D. 

      60.

  • 110. 
    (041) The shroud-type cover consists of a buildup of how many layers of wrap?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      4.

    • D. 

      5.

  • 111. 
    (041) Which TO covers the disposition of engines removed from aircraft involved in mishaps?
    • A. 

      00–20–4.

    • B. 

      2J–1–14.

    • C. 

      2J–1–19.

    • D. 

      33–1–37–1.

  • 112. 
    (042) Which container does not require warehouse facilities?
    • A. 

      Shroud.

    • B. 

      Prefabricated.

    • C. 

      Fiberglass reinforced plastic.

    • D. 

      Flexible environment control.

  • 113. 
    (042) To release the internal air pressure in a shipping container/module, you must remove the
    • A. 

      Parting surface nuts.

    • B. 

      Parting surface bolts.

    • C. 

      Filler valve on the side of the container.

    • D. 

      Filler valve on the front of the container.

  • 114. 
    (043) When removing the shipping container lid from the shipping container, how much are the turnlock fasteners turned?
    • A. 

      1/4 turn.

    • B. 

      1/2 turn.

    • C. 

      1 turn.

    • D. 

      2 turns.

  • 115. 
    (043) To determine whether an engine stored in a shipping container is serviceable or repairable, look on the
    • A. 

      Side of the container.

    • B. 

      Data plate on both halves of the container.

    • C. 

      Top half on the right panel of the container.

    • D. 

      Bottom half on the left panel of the container.

  • 116. 
    (044) Prior to removing a shipping container lid, what warning must be observed?
    • A. 

      Ensure humidity indicator is blue.

    • B. 

      Release all pressure before removing lid.

    • C. 

      Loosen bolts in a staggered pattern to prevent warpage.

    • D. 

      Ensure pressure is below 5 psi before loosening bolts.

  • 117. 
    (044) How many pins secure the adapters to the shipping container support?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      4.

    • C. 

      6.

    • D. 

      8.

  • 118. 
    (045) Engines inactive for over 180 days must have what accomplished?
    • A. 

      Motor the engine to circulate the oil.

    • B. 

      Inspect reservoirs to ensure they are full.

    • C. 

      Visually inspect compressor for corrosion.

    • D. 

      Preservation run and fuel system preservation.

  • 119. 
    (045) To prepare the engine fuel system for service after depreservation, you must flush the system with
    • A. 

      Oil.

    • B. 

      Fuel.

    • C. 

      PD–680.

    • D. 

      Calibration fluid.

  • 120. 
    (046) When metal is attacked by chemical corrosion, it will start
    • A. 

      Deep within the metal.

    • B. 

      On the surface of the metal.

    • C. 

      Throughout the metal all at once.

    • D. 

      Just under the surface of the metal.

  • 121. 
    (046) What is used to help remove moisture from an area where engines are stored?
    • A. 

      CPC.

    • B. 

      CPM.

    • C. 

      Cobalt chloride.

    • D. 

      Desiccants.

  • 122. 
    (047) On the personnel maintenance platforms, the purpose of the platform safety lockpins is to
    • A. 

      Prevent the platform from lowering while it is in use.

    • B. 

      Prevent the platform from swaying while it is in use.

    • C. 

      Lock the base structure while the platform is in use.

    • D. 

      Prevent the wheels from swiveling while it is in use.

  • 123. 
    (047) Which maintenance platform can be adjusted from 3 to 7 feet?
    • A. 

      B–1.

    • B. 

      B–2.

    • C. 

      B–4.

    • D. 

      B–5.

  • 124. 
    (048) What information is found in Part I of an AFTO Form 244?
    • A. 

      Supervisory review.

    • B. 

      Item identification.

    • C. 

      Employee number blocks.

    • D. 

      Nonscheduled inspection blocks.

  • 125. 
    (201) “An unbalanced force on a body produces or tends to produce an acceleration in the direction of the force and that the acceleration, if any, is directly proportional to the force and inversely proportional to the mass of the body.” This statement is
    • A. 

      Bernoulli’s principle.

    • B. 

      Newton’s first law of motion.

    • C. 

      Newton’s second law of motion.

    • D. 

      Newton’s third law of motion.

  • 126. 
    (201) Which type of duct would decrease the velocity and increase the pressure of a gas as it passes through?
    • A. 

      Elbow.

    • B. 

      Straight.

    • C. 

      Divergent.

    • D. 

      Convergent.

  • 127. 
    (201) “The combination of decreased pressure above an airfoil, and the increased pressure below the airfoil produces lift” is best described by
    • A. 

      Bernoulli’s principle.

    • B. 

      Newton’s first law of motion.

    • C. 

      Newton’s second law of motion.

    • D. 

      Newton’s third law of motion.

  • 128. 
    (202) The tendency of an object at rest to remain at rest and the tendency of an object in motion to continue its motion in a straight line at the same speed is called
    • A. 

      Energy.

    • B. 

      Inertia.

    • C. 

      Friction.

    • D. 

      Potential.

  • 129. 
    (203) Which section of a jet engine introduces and burns fuel?
    • A. 

      Turbine.

    • B. 

      Diffuser.

    • C. 

      Compressor.

    • D. 

      Combustion.

  • 130. 
    (203) Which section of a jet engine keeps the compressor rotating?
    • A. 

      Turbine.

    • B. 

      Exhaust.

    • C. 

      Diffuser.

    • D. 

      Combustion.

  • 131. 
    (204) Which method of producing thrust does a turboprop engine use?
    • A. 

      Accelerating a large mass of air by a small amount.

    • B. 

      Moving a small quantity of air through a large velocity change.

    • C. 

      Using the same working fluid for propulsive force as that used within the engine.

    • D. 

      Using only the energy expended through the exhaust nozzle to propel the aircraft forward.

  • 132. 
    (204) Which type of horsepower is delivered to the propeller for useful work?
    • A. 

      Brake.

    • B. 

      Indicated.

    • C. 

      Frictional.

    • D. 

      Equivalent shaft.

  • 133. 
    (205) The heat content per pound of kerosene is how many Btu’s?
    • A. 

      10,500.

    • B. 

      15,000.

    • C. 

      18,500.

    • D. 

      40,000.

  • 134. 
    (206) To measure barometric pressure, you would use a
    • A. 

      Potentiometer.

    • B. 

      Psychrometer.

    • C. 

      Pyrometer.

    • D. 

      Barometer.

  • 135. 
    (206) What is the sea-level atmospheric pressure at “standard day” conditions?
    • A. 

      13.5 psi.

    • B. 

      14.7 psi.

    • C. 

      49.94 psi.

    • D. 

      40.55 psi.

  • 136. 
    (206) What effect does the divergent design of a diffuser have on air pressure?
    • A. 

      Increases pressure.

    • B. 

      Decreases pressure.

    • C. 

      Has no effect on pressure.

    • D. 

      Results in pressure fluctuations.

  • 137. 
    (207) Which engine component meters fuel for combustion?
    • A. 

      P&D valve.

    • B. 

      Fuel pump.

    • C. 

      Fuel control.

    • D. 

      Fuel nozzles.

  • 138. 
    (208) What directs the gases onto the first-stage turbine wheel blades in a jet engine?
    • A. 

      Flameholder.

    • B. 

      Combustion chamber.

    • C. 

      Turbine wheel blades.

    • D. 

      Turbine stator.

  • 139. 
    (208) When two or more turbine wheels are used in a jet engine, which component is placed directly in front of each turbine wheel?
    • A. 

      Diffuser.

    • B. 

      Jet nozzle.

    • C. 

      Combustion chamber.

    • D. 

      Turbine stator (nozzle diaphragm).

  • 140. 
    (209) The three major sections of all jet engines are compressor, combustion, and
    • A. 

      Turbo.

    • B. 

      Turbine.

    • C. 

      Exhaust.

    • D. 

      Diffuser.

  • 141. 
    (209) Vane-type fuel pumps used in jet engines are similar to
    • A. 

      Sliding-vane air compressors.

    • B. 

      Piston pump air compressors.

    • C. 

      Roots air compressors.

    • D. 

      Turbo-superchargers.

  • 142. 
    (210) The two forces that air is subjected to after it is drawn into the guide vanes of a centrifugal compressor are
    • A. 

      Rotational and centrifugal.

    • B. 

      Rotational and tangential.

    • C. 

      Tangential and centrifugal.

    • D. 

      Tangential and radial.

  • 143. 
    (210) A constructional feature of the centrifugal compressor is that the impeller
    • A. 

      Has two matching plates.

    • B. 

      Has a lightweight design.

    • C. 

      Is forged as a single unit.

    • D. 

      Is constructed in rows of blades and stators.

  • 144. 
    (210) The forward end of the shaft on a centrifugal compressor is hollow in order to
    • A. 

      Act as a vibration damper.

    • B. 

      Allow cooling air to the turbine.

    • C. 

      Provide a passage for lubricating oil.

    • D. 

      Provide a passage for the main fuel supply.

  • 145. 
    (211) Stationary vanes positioned between rotor discs in a compressor are used to
    • A. 

      Direct air and increase pressure.

    • B. 

      Direct hot gases rearward.

    • C. 

      Increase backup pressure.

    • D. 

      Prolong compressor life.

  • 146. 
    (211) In a dual-spool compressor, rpm of the N2 compressor are determined by the
    • A. 

      Starter.

    • B. 

      Fuel pump.

    • C. 

      Fuel control.

    • D. 

      Low-pressure turbine.

  • 147. 
    (212) Which facet of engine design helps prevent igniter plug fouling?
    • A. 

      Gold plating on the plug.

    • B. 

      Split electrode on the plug.

    • C. 

      Ceramic coating on the plug.

    • D. 

      Directing air around the plug.

  • 148. 
    (213) The excess airflow that is not burned in the combustion section is used to
    • A. 

      Cool the burner surfaces.

    • B. 

      Operate pneumatic accessories.

    • C. 

      Decrease the mass of exhaust gases.

    • D. 

      Increase air in the compressor section.

  • 149. 
    (213) Fuel that accumulates after a failed start is
    • A. 

      Returned to the fuel control by tubes.

    • B. 

      Drained overboard by a drain system.

    • C. 

      Burned on the next start attempt.

    • D. 

      Allowed to evaporate.

  • 150. 
    (213) The parts on a can-annular combustion section must be removed in a specific order because of the
    • A. 

      Fuel nozzle.

    • B. 

      Transition liner.

    • C. 

      Combustion chamber outer case.

    • D. 

      Combustion chamber crossover tubes.

  • 151. 
    (213) What is the most common type of fuel nozzle system?
    • A. 

      Pressure-atomizing.

    • B. 

      Fuel-blasting.

    • C. 

      Fuel ejector.

    • D. 

      Fuel tube.

  • 152. 
    (213) Swirl-type fuel nozzles usually are used to provide what type of flame speed?
    • A. 

      Low.

    • B. 

      High.

    • C. 

      Medium.

    • D. 

      Medium-high.

  • 153. 
    (214) Three types of turbine and vane assemblies used in jet engines are impulse, reaction, and
    • A. 

      Fir tree.

    • B. 

      Shrouded.

    • C. 

      Unshrouded.

    • D. 

      Reaction-impulse.

  • 154. 
    (214) What is placed in front of the rotating blades in an engine turbine section?
    • A. 

      Rotating vanes.

    • B. 

      Inlet guide vanes.

    • C. 

      Turbine rotating nozzles.

    • D. 

      Turbine nozzle vane assembly.

  • 155. 
    (215) Why is the “fir tree” method of attaching turbine blades (buckets) to the turbine rotor disc preferred?
    • A. 

      There is a significant temperature differential between the turbine rotor disc and the blades.

    • B. 

      This method aids in preventing horizontal movement of the blades.

    • C. 

      This method aids in preventing axial movement of the bucket.

    • D. 

      There is more blade tip shake during engine operation.

  • 156. 
    (216) The exhaust duct connects the turbine outlet and the
    • A. 

      Fan duct.

    • B. 

      Jet nozzle.

    • C. 

      Fuel nozzle.

    • D. 

      Bifurcated duct.

  • 157. 
    (216) The purpose of the exhaust duct is to
    • A. 

      Swirl exhaust gas-flow.

    • B. 

      Equalize exhaust gas-flow.

    • C. 

      Straighten exhaust gas-flow.

    • D. 

      Modulate exhaust gas-flow.

  • 158. 
    (217) The purpose of an augmentor (afterburner) in a jet engine is to
    • A. 

      Increase engine rpm.

    • B. 

      Reduce pressure drop.

    • C. 

      Augment basic engine thrust.

    • D. 

      Increase EGT.

  • 159. 
    (218) How many different types of loads can be imposed on a jet engine bearing?
    • A. 

      Two.

    • B. 

      Three.

    • C. 

      Four.

    • D. 

      Five.

  • 160. 
    (218) When you handle jet engine bearings, you must change cotton gloves frequently because they
    • A. 

      Wear faster.

    • B. 

      Attract dirt.

    • C. 

      Cause oxidation.

    • D. 

      Get soaked with sweat.

  • 161. 
    (218) Before inspecting new jet engine bearings, you should
    • A. 

      Separate the halves.

    • B. 

      Apply a preservative.

    • C. 

      Perform a spin check.

    • D. 

      Remove the preservative coating.

  • 162. 
    (219) The bearing removal tools that are most commonly used include
    • A. 

      Drift pipes and hammers.

    • B. 

      Bearing pullers and hammers.

    • C. 

      Drift pipes and arbor presses.

    • D. 

      Arbor presses and bearing pullers.

  • 163. 
    (220) Which type of defect appears on bearings as a result of bearing parts striking together?
    • A. 

      Nicks.

    • B. 

      Galling.

    • C. 

      Grooves.

    • D. 

      Scratches.

  • 164. 
    (220) Which type of defect appears on bearings as a result of small particles of foreign material becoming lodged between the rollers?
    • A. 

      Pits.

    • B. 

      Bands.

    • C. 

      Grooves.

    • D. 

      Brinelling.

  • 165. 
    (220) Excessive bearing wear can usually be detected by
    • A. 

      Pits.

    • B. 

      Bands.

    • C. 

      Misalignment.

    • D. 

      Roughness of the metal.

  • 166. 
    (221) The recommended method of heating inner races of bearings before installing them is
    • A. 

      Hot-oil bath.

    • B. 

      Portable heater.

    • C. 

      Bearing furnace.

    • D. 

      Hydraulic oil bath.

  • 167. 
    (222) Which component reduces the engine rotor speed to the rpm required for accessories?
    • A. 

      Step motors.

    • B. 

      Reduction motor.

    • C. 

      Reduction geartrain.

    • D. 

      Gear case drive assembly.

  • 168. 
    (223) On an F108 engine, the radial drive shaft connects the core engine to the
    • A. 

      Hydraulic actuator motor.

    • B. 

      Accessory drive assembly.

    • C. 

      Variable bleed valves.

    • D. 

      Fan booster rotor.

  • 169. 
    (224) The major sections of a turboprop engine are the power unit, torquemeter assembly, and
    • A. 

      Turbine assembly.

    • B. 

      Compressor assembly.

    • C. 

      Combustion assembly.

    • D. 

      RGB assembly.

  • 170. 
    (224) On the T56 turboprop engine, how many stages of reduction are in the RGB’s main reduction gear train?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.

  • 171. 
    (224) On the T56 turboprop engine, what is the overall reduction ratio of the RGB’s main reduction gear train?
    • A. 

      .3125 to 1.

    • B. 

      4.333 to 1.

    • C. 

      13.54 to 1.

    • D. 

      13,820 to 1.

  • 172. 
    (224) On the T56 turboprop engine, there are mounting pads on the aft side of the accessory drive for the fuel control, fuel pump, and
    • A. 

      Speed-sensitive valve.

    • B. 

      Engine main oil pump.

    • C. 

      Speed-sensitive control.

    • D. 

      External scavenge oil pump.

  • 173. 
    (224) On the T56 turboprop engine, which compressor section assembly disperses compressor discharge air and directs it to the combustion chambers?
    • A. 

      Diffuser.

    • B. 

      Compressor rotor.

    • C. 

      Compressor housing.

    • D. 

      Compressor air inlet housing.

  • 174. 
    (225) In the T56 engine, which RGB component rotates at the same speed as the power unit rotors?
    • A. 

      Sun gear.

    • B. 

      Ring gear.

    • C. 

      Main drive gear.

    • D. 

      Pinion input gear.

  • 175. 
    (225) What is the total gear reduction ratio of the RGB?
    • A. 

      3.125:1.

    • B. 

      4.333:1.

    • C. 

      12.85:1.

    • D. 

      13.54:1.

  • 176. 
    (226) What is not a propeller brake positions?
    • A. 

      Locked.

    • B. 

      Applied.

    • C. 

      Engaged.

    • D. 

      Released.

  • 177. 
    (226) The propeller brake is in which position when the aircraft is on the ground and the engine is stopped?
    • A. 

      Locked.

    • B. 

      Applied.

    • C. 

      Engaged.

    • D. 

      Released.

  • 178. 
    (227) Which valve in the propeller control assembly is actuated by the NTS actuator rod to increase propeller blade angle?
    • A. 

      Pilot.

    • B. 

      Feather.

    • C. 

      Beta backup.

    • D. 

      Alpha backup.

  • 179. 
    (228) Which components comprise the torquemeter assembly?
    • A. 

      Torque shaft, torquemeter housing, and front coupling assembly.

    • B. 

      Two concentric shafts, torquemeter housing, and torquemeter pickup.

    • C. 

      Torquemeter housing, bearing lock tube, and front coupling assembly.

    • D. 

      Two outer shafts, torquemeter pickup assembly, and torquemeter backup assembly.

  • 180. 
    (228) The amount of twisting deflection is determined by the
    • A. 

      Torque shaft.

    • B. 

      Reference shaft.

    • C. 

      Safety coupling.

    • D. 

      Pinion input gear.

  • 181. 
    (228) The torquemeter exciter wheels are in phase when
    • A. 

      The shaft power output is transmitted from the power unit.

    • B. 

      Negative or positive torque is transmitted to the torque indicator.

    • C. 

      The rectangular teeth on the exciter wheels are aligned at zero torque.

    • D. 

      There is a change in the torque transmitted to the torque shaft exciter wheel.

  • 182. 
    (229) The purpose of the T56 safety coupling is to
    • A. 

      Prevent overspeed of the propeller.

    • B. 

      Increase propeller pitch as negative torque occurs.

    • C. 

      Maintain constant engine speed by decreasing propeller blade angle.

    • D. 

      Disconnect the power section from the RGB assembly.

  • 183. 
    (229) For the safety coupling to disconnect the power unit from the RGB, torque must reach between
    • A. 

      4,200 and 7,200 inch pounds.

    • B. 

      1,200 and 4,200 inch-pounds.

    • C. 

      –1,200 and –4,200 inch-pounds.

    • D. 

      –4,200 and –7,200 inch-pounds.

  • 184. 
    (230) The stationary (stator) vane blades on the T56 compressor are used to
    • A. 

      Increase velocity.

    • B. 

      Increase pressure.

    • C. 

      Decrease pressure.

    • D. 

      Prolong compressor life.

  • 185. 
    (230) What type of bearings support the T56 compressor rotor at the front and rear?
    • A. 

      Front, roller; rear, roller.

    • B. 

      Front, roller; rear, ball.

    • C. 

      Front, ball; rear, roller.

    • D. 

      Front, ball; rear, ball.

  • 186. 
    (230) Which T56 compressor component supports the compressor rear bearing labyrinth seal?
    • A. 

      Compressor rotor.

    • B. 

      Air inlet housing.

    • C. 

      Compressor diffuser.

    • D. 

      First-stage compressor wheel hub.

  • 187. 
    (231) In the T56 engine, turbine rotor torque is transferred to the compressor rotor by the
    • A. 

      Turbine coupling shaft.

    • B. 

      Torquemeter outer shaft.

    • C. 

      Compressor extension shaft.

    • D. 

      Turbine to compressor tie bolt.

  • 188. 
    (232) The purpose of the guide vane support is to direct airflow
    • A. 

      Out of the turbine section.

    • B. 

      Into the combustion section.

    • C. 

      Onto the turbine rotor blades.

    • D. 

      Toward the compressor stator blades.

  • 189. 
    (232) What are used to retain the turbine buckets in the first-stage wheel of the T56–A–15 engine?
    • A. 

      Cotter pins.

    • B. 

      Curvic splines.

    • C. 

      Cover plate seals.

    • D. 

      Anti-rotation pins.

  • 190. 
    (233) The AE2100D3 power plant major assemblies are the PGB, torquemeter assembly, power section, accessory drives, and the
    • A. 

      Nacelle structure.

    • B. 

      Hydraulic pump.

    • C. 

      Electrical generator.

    • D. 

      Tailpipe assembly.

  • 191. 
    (233) On the AE2100D3, the forward engine mounts are located on the
    • A. 

      Air inlet housing.

    • B. 

      Diffuser assembly.

    • C. 

      Sides of the PGB.

    • D. 

      Aft side of the PGB.

  • 192. 
    (233) What type of compressor rotor assembly is used on the AE2100D3 engine?
    • A. 

      14 stage axial-flow.

    • B. 

      14 stage centrifugal-flow.

    • C. 

      16 stage axial-flow.

    • D. 

      16 stage centrifugal-flow.

  • 193. 
    (233) What AE2100D3 nacelle access door contains a fire access door?
    • A. 

      Lower right turbine access door.

    • B. 

      Lower left turbine access door.

    • C. 

      Upper right turbine access door.

    • D. 

      Upper left turbine access door.

  • 194. 
    (233) The AE2100D3 engine mount is divided into how many major structures?
    • A. 

      Two.

    • B. 

      Three.

    • C. 

      Four.

    • D. 

      Five.

  • 195. 
    (234) The T700 engine consists of what four modules?
    • A. 

      Combustion, compressor, hot, and accessory sections.

    • B. 

      Power turbine, accessory, compressor, and hot sections.

    • C. 

      Compressor, combustion, cold, and power turbine section.

    • D. 

      Accessory, compressor, combustion, and power turbine section.

  • 196. 
    (234) What routes oil and fuel through the T700 engine AGB?
    • A. 

      Internal lines.

    • B. 

      External lines.

    • C. 

      Internal passages.

    • D. 

      External passages.

  • 197. 
    (234) What components mount on the front face of the AGB on the T700 engine?
    • A. 

      Alternator and oil cooler.

    • B. 

      Scavenge pump and oil cooler.

    • C. 

      Alternator and fuel boost pump.

    • D. 

      Scavenge pump and fuel boost pump.

  • 198. 
    (234) The T700 gas generator turbine rotor drives the
    • A. 

      Compressor and turbine stators.

    • B. 

      Compressor and AGB.

    • C. 

      AGB and combustion.

    • D. 

      AGB and turbine stators.

  • 199. 
    (234) The T700 power turbine drive shaft assembly is made up of what two components?
    • A. 

      Overspeed and Np sensor.

    • B. 

      Drive shaft and overspeed sensor.

    • C. 

      Torque sensor tube and Np sensor.

    • D. 

      Drive shaft and torque sensor tube.

  • 200. 
    (235) Which F108 major engine module provides for mounting of the front of the engine to the airframe?
    • A. 

      Fan major module.

    • B. 

      Accessory major module.

    • C. 

      Core engine major module.

    • D. 

      LPT major module.

  • 201. 
    (235) Primary airflow in the F108 engine is through all of the following components except the
    • A. 

      Booster.

    • B. 

      Core engine.

    • C. 

      Accessory gearbox.

    • D. 

      Low-pressure turbine.

  • 202. 
    (235) The F108 engine can be broken down into how many individual modules?
    • A. 

      5.

    • B. 

      7.

    • C. 

      10.

    • D. 

      17.

  • 203. 
    (236) What percentage of the total engine thrust does the secondary airflow on the F108 engine produce?
    • A. 

      20.

    • B. 

      50.

    • C. 

      80.

    • D. 

      100.

  • 204. 
    (237) On the F108 engine, the purpose of the HPT nozzle assembly is to accelerate the energy from the combustion gases to drive the
    • A. 

      HPT rotor.

    • B. 

      LPT rotor.

    • C. 

      Booster rotor.

    • D. 

      Fan rotor.

  • 205. 
    (238) On the F108 engine, the LPT shaft assembly connects the fan shaft with the
    • A. 

      LPT rotor.

    • B. 

      HPT rotor.

    • C. 

      LPT stator.

    • D. 

      HPT stator.

  • 206. 
    (239) On the F108 engine, what connects the IGB to the TGB bevel gears?
    • A. 

      Radial drive shaft.

    • B. 

      Vertical drive shaft.

    • C. 

      Horizontal drive shaft.

    • D. 

      Power take-off drive shaft.

  • 207. 
    (240) On which module of an F100–PW–220 engine is the stator generator mounted?
    • A. 

      Core.

    • B. 

      Inlet fan.

    • C. 

      Gearbox.

    • D. 

      Augmenter.

  • 208. 
    (240) External flanges on the F100 engine are referred to by
    • A. 

      Letter designations.

    • B. 

      Number designations.

    • C. 

      Directional references.

    • D. 

      Accessories references.

  • 209. 
    (241) On an F100–PW–220 engine, the No. 1 bearing assembly is located in the
    • A. 

      Diffuser case.

    • B. 

      Rear fan duct.

    • C. 

      Intermediate case.

    • D. 

      Front compressor stator inlet shroud.

  • 210. 
    (242) When blending fourth stage compressor blades on an F100–PW–220 engine, a maximum of how many blends are allowed on any single edge?
    • A. 

      Two.

    • B. 

      Three.

    • C. 

      Four.

    • D. 

      None.

  • 211. 
    (243) On an F100–PW–220 engine, the front compressor drive turbine shaft is connected to the front compressor rotor by
    • A. 

      The compressor drive shaft coupling.

    • B. 

      The turbine drive shaft coupling.

    • C. 

      Eight connecting tie-rod bolts.

    • D. 

      Six connecting tie-rod bolts.

  • 212. 
    (243) Which bearing is located in the fan drive turbine module on an F100–PW–220 engine?
    • A. 

      No. 1.

    • B. 

      No. 3.

    • C. 

      No. 4.

    • D. 

      No. 5.

  • 213. 
    (244) Major components of the F100–PW–220 engine augmentor duct and nozzle module are nozzle actuators, nozzle assembly, and
    • A. 

      Spray bars.

    • B. 

      Flameholder.

    • C. 

      Combustion chamber control.

    • D. 

      Combustion chamber liner and duct.

  • 214. 
    (245) On an F100–PW–220 engine, the gearbox module is driven by the rear compressor through
    • A. 

      A transfer drive shaft.

    • B. 

      A gearbox drive shaft.

    • C. 

      A radial drive shaft.

    • D. 

      An axial drive shaft.

  • 215. 
    (246) How many stages are in the inlet fan module of the F119–PW–100 engine?
    • A. 

      Two.

    • B. 

      Three.

    • C. 

      Four.

    • D. 

      Five.

  • 216. 
    (247) How many hollow struts/inlet guide vanes are contained in the inlet fan case of the F119 engine?
    • A. 

      15.

    • B. 

      18.

    • C. 

      21.

    • D. 

      23.

  • 217. 
    (247) Where is the Tt2 located on a F119–PW–100 engine?
    • A. 

      Inside the inlet nose cone at the 2:00 position.

    • B. 

      In the fan inlet guide vane case at the 5:30 position.

    • C. 

      In between the 1st and 2nd stages of the low pressure compressor at 6:00 position.

    • D. 

      In between the 2nd and 3rd stages of the low pressure compressor at 6:00 position.

  • 218. 
    (248) Which is not a part of the core module of a F119–PW–100 engine?
    • A. 

      Diffuser case.

    • B. 

      Intermediate case.

    • C. 

      Low pressure compressor.

    • D. 

      High pressure compressor.

  • 219. 
    (248) Which bearing compartment is contained in the intermediate case of the F119–PW–100 engine?
    • A. 

      No. 1 and No. 2 bearing.

    • B. 

      No. 2 and No. 3 bearing.

    • C. 

      No. 3 and No. 4 bearing.

    • D. 

      No. 4 and No. 5 bearing.

  • 220. 
    (248) On an F119–PW–100 engine, what function does the diffuser case serve other than housing the combustor?
    • A. 

      Increases the velocity of compressor discharge air.

    • B. 

      Reduces the velocity of compressor discharge air.

    • C. 

      Increases the velocity turbine discharge air.

    • D. 

      Reduces the velocity of turbine discharge air.

  • 221. 
    (249) What drives the IFM in the F119–PW–100 engine?
    • A. 

      Gearbox assembly.

    • B. 

      HPT assembly.

    • C. 

      LPT module.

    • D. 

      Core engine module.

  • 222. 
    (249) Which bearing is located in the LPT of the F119–PW–100 engine?
    • A. 

      No. 2 bearing.

    • B. 

      No. 3 bearing.

    • C. 

      No. 4 bearing.

    • D. 

      No. 5 bearing.

  • 223. 
    (249) On the F119–PW–100 engine, which of the following is not attached to the gearbox assembly?
    • A. 

      Actuator fuel pump.

    • B. 

      Main fuel pump.

    • C. 

      Augmentor fuel control.

    • D. 

      Engine generator.

  • 224. 
    (250) What is the nozzle module mounted to on the F119–PW–100 engine?
    • A. 

      Core module.

    • B. 

      LPT module.

    • C. 

      HPT assembly.

    • D. 

      Augmentor assembly.

  • 225. 
    (401) What is the composition of JP–8 fuel?
    • A. 

      Gasoline and kerosene.

    • B. 

      Diesel fuel and AV GAS.

    • C. 

      Diesel fuel and kerosene.

    • D. 

      Gasoline and diesel fuel.

  • 226. 
    (401) At room temperature, how many times longer will it take water to settle out of JP–8 than out of gasoline?
    • A. 

      Two.

    • B. 

      Three.

    • C. 

      Four.

    • D. 

      Five.

  • 227. 
    (402) The main fuel control allows the engine to safely accelerate, reducing the possibility of
    • A. 

      Flameout.

    • B. 

      Turbine seizure.

    • C. 

      Overtemperature.

    • D. 

      Compressor shift.

  • 228. 
    (402) The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to
    • A. 

      Heat the fuel and cool the oil.

    • B. 

      Cool the fuel and cool the oil.

    • C. 

      Heat the fuel and heat the oil.

    • D. 

      Cool the fuel and heat the oil.

  • 229. 
    (403) What type of fuel control uses items such as thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids to help control a jet engine?
    • A. 

      Pneumatic.

    • B. 

      Fuel injection.

    • C. 

      Hydromechanical.

    • D. 

      Electrohydromechanical.

  • 230. 
    (403) On fuel controls that require setting during an engine trim, calibration and/or adjustment screws must be
    • A. 

      Replaced.

    • B. 

      Die marked.

    • C. 

      Safety sealed and/or lockwired.

    • D. 

      Apply a thread locking compound.

  • 231. 
    (404) On an F100-PW–220 engine, the MFC is capable of operating in how many modes?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 232. 
    (404) Which F100-PW–220 engine fuel system component controls pressurization of the core engine fuel system?
    • A. 

      N2 sensor.

    • B. 

      P&D valve.

    • C. 

      Fuel nozzle.

    • D. 

      Fan inlet Tt2.5 sensor.

  • 233. 
    (404) Which stage of compressor air drives the augmenter fuel pump on an F100-PW–220 engine?
    • A. 

      7th.

    • B. 

      10th.

    • C. 

      13th.

    • D. 

      14th.

  • 234. 
    (404) On the F100-PW–220 engine, which component controls the augmentor fuel control?
    • A. 

      Fuel pump.

    • B. 

      Fuel pump controller.

    • C. 

      Signature elimination probe.

    • D. 

      DEEC.

  • 235. 
    (404) Core engine fuel flow sequence on an F100-PW–220 engine starts at the main fuel pump and then goes through the
    • A. 

      Main fuel control, fuel/oil cooler, pressurizing and dump valve, and fuel nozzles.

    • B. 

      Fuel/oil cooler, pressurizing and dump valve, main fuel control, and fuel nozzles.

    • C. 

      Augmentor fuel pump, augmentor fuel control, fuel/oil cooler, pressurizing and dump valve, and fuel nozzles.

    • D. 

      Augmenter fuel control augmentor fuel pump, fuel/oil cooler, pressurizing and dump valve, and fuel nozzles.

  • 236. 
    (405) Operational control of the F108-CF–100 engine is achieved by the use of the power lever, fuel shut-off lever, and
    • A. 

      Fuel pump.

    • B. 

      Oil/fuel heat exchanger.

    • C. 

      Air/fuel heat exchanger.

    • D. 

      PMC.

  • 237. 
    (405) The F108 engine fuel pump contains a low-pressure stage (centrifugal boost stage) and a high-pressure
    • A. 

      Gear stage.

    • B. 

      Gerotor stage.

    • C. 

      Axial boost stage.

    • D. 

      Sliding vane stage.

  • 238. 
    (405) On an F108-CF–100 engine, the fuel injectors contain
    • A. 

      Only primary fuel flow passages.

    • B. 

      Only secondary fuel flow passages.

    • C. 

      Both primary and secondary fuel flow passages.

    • D. 

      Primary, secondary, and auxiliary fuel flow passages.

  • 239. 
    (406) What supplies the AE2100D3 FADEC with power until engine RPM is sufficient for the alternator stator to take control?
    • A. 

      Airplane 28 VDC power supply.

    • B. 

      NIU.

    • C. 

      MIL-STD–1553B data bus.

    • D. 

      Mission computer.

  • 240. 
    (406) What component is controlled by the AE2100D3 FADEC through the ENGINE START switch for normal engine shutdown or by the fire control handle for emergency shutdown?
    • A. 

      Servo valve.

    • B. 

      Fuel check valve.

    • C. 

      Electric shutoff valve.

    • D. 

      Latching shutoff valve.

  • 241. 
    (407) On the T56 engine, how many and what type of fuel pumps are contained in the fuel pump and filter assembly?
    • A. 

      3 gear; 1 boost.

    • B. 

      2 gear; 2 boost.

    • C. 

      2 gear; 1 boost.

    • D. 

      1 gear; 2 boost.

  • 242. 
    (407) What T56 engine controls the rotary movement of the fuel control metering valve?
    • A. 

      Temperature.

    • B. 

      Engine speed.

    • C. 

      Throttle position.

    • D. 

      Compressor inlet pressure.

  • 243. 
    (407) On the T56 engine, what compares the desired throttle setting from the coordinator with the actual TIT signal from the thermocouples?
    • A. 

      TD valve.

    • B. 

      Speed-sensitive control.

    • C. 

      TD potentiometers.

    • D. 

      TD amplifier.

  • 244. 
    (407) Which T56 engine component sends the fuel to the fuel manifold?
    • A. 

      TD valve.

    • B. 

      Main fuel pump.

    • C. 

      TD amplifier.

    • D. 

      Fuel control.

  • 245. 
    (407) When the null orifice on the T56 engine TD valve is set at zero, how much fuel will the valve bypass?
    • A. 

      0%.

    • B. 

      10%.

    • C. 

      20%.

    • D. 

      30%.

  • 246. 
    (407) In addition to the visual inspection the T–56 engine fuel nozzle also requires what type of inspection?
    • A. 

      Nondestructive.

    • B. 

      Spray pattern.

    • C. 

      Pre-torque.

    • D. 

      Ultrasonic.

  • 247. 
    (408) Which type of oil cooler operates on the same principle as a radiator in an automobile?
    • A. 

      Air.

    • B. 

      Fuel.

    • C. 

      Hydraulic.

    • D. 

      Pneumatic.

  • 248. 
    (408) When an engine is not operating, static preload for a carbon oil seal is provided by
    • A. 

      Air pressure.

    • B. 

      Oil pressure.

    • C. 

      Spring pressure.

    • D. 

      Hydraulic pressure.

  • 249. 
    (409) The F100-PW–100 engine oil pressure varies with N2 speed, engine inlet oil temperature, and
    • A. 

      Oil jet pressure.

    • B. 

      Fan turbine speed.

    • C. 

      Oil nozzle condition.

    • D. 

      Number of oil jets used.

  • 250. 
    (409) What term is used to indicate that air is being mixed with the oil in the oil pump to create pockets of air?
    • A. 

      Aeration.

    • B. 

      Induction.

    • C. 

      Convection.

    • D. 

      Compression.

  • 251. 
    (409) In an engine oil tank, which device separates the air from the oil?
    • A. 

      Aerator.

    • B. 

      Deaerator.

    • C. 

      Check valve.

    • D. 

      Bypass valve.

  • 252. 
    (409) Which type of oil system stores the oil in a tank fitted to the side of the engine?
    • A. 

      Wet sump.

    • B. 

      Dry sump.

    • C. 

      Hot tank.

    • D. 

      Cold tank.

  • 253. 
    (409) Which type of oil system design places the oil cooler in the pressure subsystem?
    • A. 

      Wet tank.

    • B. 

      Dry tank.

    • C. 

      Hot tank.

    • D. 

      Cold tank.

  • 254. 
    (410) On an F100 engine, the breather pressurizing valve is internally mounted in the
    • A. 

      Oil tank.

    • B. 

      Gearbox.

    • C. 

      Oil filter.

    • D. 

      Oil pump.

  • 255. 
    (410) On an F100-PW–220 engine, the air/oil coolers are mounted on the fan duct and use
    • A. 

      Secondary fan airflow as a coolant.

    • B. 

      Secondary fan airflow as an oil heater.

    • C. 

      Primary core engine airflow as a coolant.

    • D. 

      Primary core engine airflow as an oil heater.

  • 256. 
    (410) On an F100-PW–220 engine, what component permits oil to bypass the oil filter during cold weather starts?
    • A. 

      Oil relief valve.

    • B. 

      Filter bypass valve.

    • C. 

      Filter poppet valve.

    • D. 

      Oil pressure transmitter tap.

  • 257. 
    (411) What is used to check the oil level in a F108-CF–100 engine?
    • A. 

      Sight gauge on the oil tank.

    • B. 

      Flight station oil level gauge.

    • C. 

      Filler cap with a graduated gauge.

    • D. 

      Graduated marking on the outside of the tank.

  • 258. 
    (412) Approximately how many GPM does the AE2100D3 PUAD lube and scavenge pump provide at engine PTO?
    • A. 

      3.

    • B. 

      5.

    • C. 

      7.

    • D. 

      9.

  • 259. 
    (412) What AE2100D3 component drives the PGB lube and scavenge pump?
    • A. 

      Alternator stator.

    • B. 

      PGB.

    • C. 

      PUAD.

    • D. 

      GMAD.

  • 260. 
    (413) Which type of oil pump is used on the T56 engine?
    • A. 

      Gear.

    • B. 

      Float.

    • C. 

      Gerotor.

    • D. 

      Centrifugal.

  • 261. 
    (413) The amount of ram air passing through the oil cooler core is regulated by the
    • A. 

      Thermostat.

    • B. 

      Flap actuator.

    • C. 

      Size of the core.

    • D. 

      Regulating valve.

  • 262. 
    (413) Bleed air flowing through which component increases airflow through the cooler?
    • A. 

      Flap actuator.

    • B. 

      Oil cooler flap.

    • C. 

      Augmentation valve.

    • D. 

      Augmentation ejector.

  • 263. 
    (413) The valve that allows fluid to flow in only one direction is the
    • A. 

      Check.

    • B. 

      Relief.

    • C. 

      Bypass.

    • D. 

      Pressurizing.

  • 264. 
    (413) In the power unit oil system, the dual-port oil jet mounted on the front side of the compressor air inlet housing is used to lubricate the
    • A. 

      Mid and center sleeve bearings.

    • B. 

      Torquemeter and compressor front bearings.

    • C. 

      Front and rear sides of the compressor rear bearing.

    • D. 

      Front and rear sides of the compressor front bearing.

  • 265. 
    (413) The power section and RGB oil systems are joined together at the
    • A. 

      Fuel heater and strainer.

    • B. 

      External scavenge oil filter.

    • C. 

      External scavenge oil pump.

    • D. 

      Scavenge element of the main pump.

  • 266. 
    (413) Which RGB component prevents oil in the oil tank from draining into the RGB rear case?
    • A. 

      Shutoff valve.

    • B. 

      Oil pump and filter.

    • C. 

      Oil pump check valve.

    • D. 

      Oil pump bypass valve.

  • 267. 
    (413) How many scavenge oil pumps are located in the RGB?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.

  • 268. 
    (414) The journeyman must be aware of which hazardous property of modern jet engine oil?
    • A. 

      Toxicity.

    • B. 

      Viscosity.

    • C. 

      Alkalinity.

    • D. 

      Corrosiveness.

  • 269. 
    (415) The primary benefit of identifying an impending failure through the OAP is
    • A. 

      Improved safety.

    • B. 

      Increased component life.

    • C. 

      Reduced maintenance cost.

    • D. 

      Increased equipment availability.

  • 270. 
    (415) Who is responsible for ensuring that the OAP operates properly?
    • A. 

      Project monitor.

    • B. 

      Logistics commander.

    • C. 

      Propulsion flight chief.

    • D. 

      Laboratory supervisor.

  • 271. 
    (415) What are microscopic metallic particles in the oil system called?
    • A. 

      Wear metals.

    • B. 

      Friction metals.

    • C. 

      Precious metals.

    • D. 

      Transformation metals.

  • 272. 
    (415) Oil sampling intervals should not vary by more than
    • A. 

      5 percent.

    • B. 

      10 percent.

    • C. 

      15 percent.

    • D. 

      20 percent.

  • 273. 
    (415) The SEM/EDX analysis process differs from conventional oil analysis in which major aspect?
    • A. 

      SEM/EDX samples must be sent off-site for analysis.

    • B. 

      SEM/EDX particles must be oil free for analysis to take place.

    • C. 

      SEM/EDX provides results concerning equipment and components condition.

    • D. 

      SEM/EDX samples can only be obtained in an intermediate maintenance shop.

  • 274. 
    (416) What is the term for the process of producing voltage in a conductor when it passes through a magnetic field?
    • A. 

      Static.

    • B. 

      Electronics.

    • C. 

      Mutual induction.

    • D. 

      Electromagnetic induction.

  • 275. 
    (416) On a simple AC generator, which item takes the current from the slip rings to operate the electrical device?
    • A. 

      Brushes.

    • B. 

      Commutator.

    • C. 

      Rotating loop.

    • D. 

      Permanent magnet.

  • 276. 
    (416) Which part of a generator acts as an automatic switching device, changing alternating current to direct current?
    • A. 

      Brushes.

    • B. 

      Slip rings.

    • C. 

      Commutator.

    • D. 

      Permanent magnet.

  • 277. 
    (417) What provides the PTO shaft that is used to drive the CSD?
    • A. 

      Engine fittings.

    • B. 

      Aircraft fittings.

    • C. 

      Engine adapter.

    • D. 

      Aircraft adapter.

  • 278. 
    (418) The slide-type resistor in the EGT circuit is used to
    • A. 

      Adjust the thermocouples.

    • B. 

      Calibrate the EGT indicator in the flight station.

    • C. 

      Compensate for minor voltage buildups in the circuit.

    • D. 

      Compensate for differences in temperatures at altitude.

  • 279. 
    (419) Which unit of an AC ignition system develops 20,000 volts?
    • A. 

      Inverter.

    • B. 

      Capacitor.

    • C. 

      Generator.

    • D. 

      Transformer.

  • 280. 
    (419) A simple DC ignition system consists of vibrator,
    • A. 

      Igniter plugs, and transformer.

    • B. 

      Igniter plugs, and AC to DC converter.

    • C. 

      AC to DC converter, and transformer.

    • D. 

      AC to DC converter, transformer, and igniter plugs.

  • 281. 
    (420) On early ignition systems, the high-energy capacitor-type ignition system does not include a
    • A. 

      Vibrator.

    • B. 

      Capacitor.

    • C. 

      Centrifugal switch.

    • D. 

      Gas-filled rectifier.

  • 282. 
    (420) On early ignition systems, what is the purpose of compositors in an ignition system?
    • A. 

      Prevent the points from arcing.

    • B. 

      Cause a voltage to jump across the spark gap in the ignition unit.

    • C. 

      Step up voltage high enough to break down the air gap of the igniter plug.

    • D. 

      Hold back the current flow until the voltage is high enough to be rectified.

  • 283. 
    (420) The T56 engine speed-sensitive control lets electrical current flow to the fuel and ignition system at
    • A. 

      16% RPM.

    • B. 

      30% RPM.

    • C. 

      65% RPM.

    • D. 

      94% RPM.

  • 284. 
    (421) An F100-PW–100 engine augmentor igniter plug ionizes at a minimum rate of how many sparks per second?
    • A. 

      25.

    • B. 

      30.

    • C. 

      45.

    • D. 

      90.

  • 285. 
    (421) From where does the AE2100D3 ignition system receive its electrical power?
    • A. 

      Generator.

    • B. 

      Alternator stator.

    • C. 

      Aircraft battery.

    • D. 

      Essential DC bus.

  • 286. 
    (421) What is the output of the AE2100D3 alternator stator?
    • A. 

      1 to 20 VAC.

    • B. 

      20 to 40 VAC.

    • C. 

      40 to 60 VAC.

    • D. 

      60 to 80 VAC.

  • 287. 
    (421) What component monitors the AE2100D3 ignition exciters spark rate?
    • A. 

      FADEC.

    • B. 

      GMAD.

    • C. 

      PUAD.

    • D. 

      NIU.

  • 288. 
    (422) The OSG on the cartridge-pneumatic starter consists of the
    • A. 

      Shaft and piston.

    • B. 

      Igniter and cable.

    • C. 

      Flyweights and piston.

    • D. 

      Flyweights and igniter.

  • 289. 
    (423) The JFS is basically a
    • A. 

      Piston-type starter.

    • B. 

      Pneumatic-type starter.

    • C. 

      Small gas turbine engine.

    • D. 

      Cartridge-pneumatic starter.

  • 290. 
    (423) Which item initially rotates the JFS?
    • A. 

      ESS PTO.

    • B. 

      Engine PTO.

    • C. 

      Hydraulic motor.

    • D. 

      Electric motor mounted on the aircraft.

  • 291. 
    (423) What engine section houses the JFS combustion section?
    • A. 

      Geartrain.

    • B. 

      Turbine plenum.

    • C. 

      Generator control unit.

    • D. 

      Gas generator and accessory drive assembly.

  • 292. 
    (424) Which component provides an electrical safety cutoff for the JFS if the power turbine accelerates to a 110 percent overspeed condition?
    • A. 

      Overspeed clutch.

    • B. 

      Three-speed switch.

    • C. 

      Overrunning clutch.

    • D. 

      Power turbine overspeed switch.

  • 293. 
    (424) Oil is supplied to the F–15 JFS through the
    • A. 

      Oil tank.

    • B. 

      Aircraft filter.

    • C. 

      JFS oil system.

    • D. 

      CGB oil system.

  • 294. 
    (424) On an F–15, the power to start the engines begins with the JFS and continues through the CGB to the
    • A. 

      PTO.

    • B. 

      PMG.

    • C. 

      ADG.

    • D. 

      AMAD.

  • 295. 
    (424) On the F–15 secondary power system, what is used to stop the JFS starting cycle when the aircraft engine has accelerated to starter cutout speed?
    • A. 

      Four-speed switch.

    • B. 

      Manual decoupler.

    • C. 

      Hydraulic decoupler.

    • D. 

      50 percent engine cutout switch assembly.

  • 296. 
    (425) When starting the F–16, which component drives the JFS geartrain, fuel control, and lube pump?
    • A. 

      Pneumatic power.

    • B. 

      Electrical power.

    • C. 

      Hydraulic start motor.

    • D. 

      Accessory drive gearbox.

  • 297. 
    (426) How is the AE2100D3 starter control valve actuated?
    • A. 

      Electrically.

    • B. 

      Pneumatically.

    • C. 

      Hydraulically.

    • D. 

      Hydro-electrically.

  • 298. 
    (427) On the T56 engine, which switch energizes the starter control valve to the OPEN position?
    • A. 

      Ground start.

    • B. 

      Speed-sensitive.

    • C. 

      Fuel enrichment.

    • D. 

      Secondary fuel pump pressure.

  • 299. 
    (427) Which T56 engine component functions as an on-off control for the air supply that is sent to the starter?
    • A. 

      Air turbine.

    • B. 

      Ground start switch.

    • C. 

      Starter control valve.

    • D. 

      Secondary fuel pump pressure switch.

  • 300. 
    (428) Discharge air used for aircraft engine anti-icing to heat-critical areas is taken from which engine area?
    • A. 

      Turbine.

    • B. 

      Augmentor.

    • C. 

      Compressor.

    • D. 

      Combustion.

  • 301. 
    (429) On an F108 engine, anti-ice air is ducted from which manifold?
    • A. 

      Pneumatic.

    • B. 

      Augmentor.

    • C. 

      Combustion case.

    • D. 

      Compressor case.

  • 302. 
    (429) On an F108-CF–100 engine anti-ice system, what is the purpose of the air injector on the air regulator?
    • A. 

      (429) On an F108-CF–100 engine anti-ice system, what is the purpose of the air injector on the air Control air velocity at high RPM.

    • B. 

      Control air temperature and pressure.

    • C. 

      Provide auxiliary airflow during engine start.

    • D. 

      Provide controlled airflow during VBV operation.

  • 303. 
    (430) On an F110-GE–129 engine, the anti-icing system prevents detrimental formation and accumulation of ice on front frame struts, forward centerbody, and
    • A. 

      Ring cowl.

    • B. 

      C-D duct.

    • C. 

      Fan inlet guide vane flaps.

    • D. 

      Variable exhaust nozzle flaps.

  • 304. 
    (431) The T56 engine anti-icing solenoid valve is
    • A. 

      Normally open.

    • B. 

      Energized open.

    • C. 

      Normally closed.

    • D. 

      Deenergized closed.

  • 305. 
    (432) What does a high-altitude stall sound like?
    • A. 

      “Choo-choo.”

    • B. 

      An explosion.

    • C. 

      Popping corn.

    • D. 

      Severe tearing of metal.

  • 306. 
    (433) Once the cooling airflow has done its job of cooling the turbine section, where does it go?
    • A. 

      Through a heat exchanger.

    • B. 

      Out the turbine case bleed holes.

    • C. 

      Into the gas stream to exit the engine.

    • D. 

      Back to the compressor to be used again.

  • 307. 
    (434) On an F108-CF–100 engine, the variable bleed valves bleed air from the
    • A. 

      N1 compressor.

    • B. 

      N2 compressor.

    • C. 

      First stage fan.

    • D. 

      Last stage of compression.

  • 308. 
    (434) On an F108-CF–100 engine, the direction of the variable bleed valve rotation is controlled by the
    • A. 

      Flexible shafts.

    • B. 

      Feedback cable.

    • C. 

      Fuel gear motor.

    • D. 

      Ballscrew actuators.

  • 309. 
    (435) On an F110-GE–129 engine, the MEC schedules the variable vane positions by the
    • A. 

      Sea-level temperature and actual engine RPM.

    • B. 

      Compressor inlet pressure and turbine speed.

    • C. 

      Fan discharge temperature and core engine speed.

    • D. 

      Turbine discharge pressure and compressor inlet temperature.

  • 310. 
    (436) On the AE2100D3 engine, what type of actuator is the CVG actuator?
    • A. 

      Mechanical.

    • B. 

      Electrical.

    • C. 

      Hydraulic.

    • D. 

      Fuel.

  • 311. 
    (436) What AE2100D3 engine component continuously monitors the LVDT signal and controls the compressor IGV position?
    • A. 

      NIU.

    • B. 

      FPMU.

    • C. 

      LVIT.

    • D. 

      FADEC.

  • 312. 
    (437) The T56 engine component that allows 14th-stage air to close the bleed air valves is the
    • A. 

      Balance line.

    • B. 

      Bleed air valve.

    • C. 

      Speed-sensitive valve.

    • D. 

      Speed-sensitive control.

  • 313. 
    (438) What are the two types of thrust reversers?
    • A. 

      Aerodynamic blockage and convergent-divergent.

    • B. 

      Aerodynamic blockage and mechanical blockage.

    • C. 

      Divergent-convergent and mechanical blockage.

    • D. 

      Convergent-divergent and mechanical blockage.

  • 314. 
    (438) One type of aerodynamic blockage thrust reverser uses
    • A. 

      A closed nozzle.

    • B. 

      The reverser door extension.

    • C. 

      A clamshell-type restriction aft of engine.

    • D. 

      Vanes inside the duct to create swirling gases.

  • 315. 
    (438) In the mechanical blockage-type thrust reverser, when the reverser is not in use, what happens to the doors?
    • A. 

      They retract into the engine mount strut.

    • B. 

      They are stored behind each engine in the wing.

    • C. 

      They form the inner exhaust cone during forward thrust operation.

    • D. 

      They retract around the engine exhaust cone, usually forming the rear section of the engine nacelle.

  • 316. 
    (439) On the F117-PW–100 engine, what component controls hydraulic power for actuating both the fan and core thrust reversers?
    • A. 

      Control valve.

    • B. 

      Electronic engine control.

    • C. 

      Hydraulic pump.

    • D. 

      Fuel control

  • 317. 
    (439) The F117-PW–100 fan thrust reverser door upper right and left sensors send a signal to which channel or channels of the EEC?
    • A. 

      A channel.

    • B. 

      B channel.

    • C. 

      Both A & B channels.

    • D. 

      Both A & C channels.

  • 318. 
    (439) The core reverser lock proximity sensors are mounted on the
    • A. 

      Aft fan duct.

    • B. 

      Fwd fan duct.

    • C. 

      Actuator.

    • D. 

      Control valve.

  • 319. 
    (439) How many linear hydraulic actuators are used to deploy and stow the fan thrust on the F117-PW–100 engine?2.
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      4.

    • D. 

      5.

  • 320. 
    (440) What component heats augmentor fuel to provide better vaporization and combustion?
    • A. 

      Fuel control.

    • B. 

      Fuel spraybars.

    • C. 

      Fuel manifolds.

    • D. 

      Fuel/oil cooler.

  • 321. 
    (440) What are the two main types of augmentor (afterburner) ignition systems?
    • A. 

      Torch igniter and hot streak.

    • B. 

      Hot streak and fuel injection.

    • C. 

      Pilot burner ring and hot streak.

    • D. 

      Torch igniter and pilot burner ring.

  • 322. 
    (441) The F100 engine augmentor’s primary nozzle actuator is driven by cables from the
    • A. 

      T5 amplifier.

    • B. 

      Unified control.

    • C. 

      Afterburner fuel control.

    • D. 

      CENC.

  • 323. 
    (442) On an F110-GE–129 augmentor variable nozzle, uniform movement and geometric stability of the nozzle is provided by
    • A. 

      Mechanical synchronization of the nozzle actuators.

    • B. 

      Electrical synchronization of the nozzle actuators.

    • C. 

      Pneumatic synchronization of the nozzle actuators.

    • D. 

      Hydraulic synchronization of the nozzle actuators.

  • 324. 
    (601) Which 54H60–91 propeller subassembly transmits engine torque to the propeller blades?
    • A. 

      Barrel.

    • B. 

      Control.

    • C. 

      Low pitch stop.

    • D. 

      Pitchlock regulator.

  • 325. 
    (601) On the 54H60–91 propeller, which component delivers the actual propeller blade angle from the blade to the control assembly?
    • A. 

      Microadjusting ring.

    • B. 

      Beta feedback shaft.

    • C. 

      Blade segment gear.

    • D. 

      Blade bushing.

  • 326. 
    (601) On the 54H60–91 propeller, which is a function of the pitchlock regulator?
    • A. 

      Stops the dome piston from increasing blade angle above 23.3°.

    • B. 

      Prevents the blades from decreasing pitch if hydraulic pressure is lost.

    • C. 

      Prevents the cam bearing rollers from bottoming out in the track slopes.

    • D. 

      Prevents the propeller from going into the beta range when the throttle is positioned in alpha range.

  • 327. 
    (601) On the 54H60–91 propeller, which pitchlock component mechanically holds the stationary and rotating pitchlock ratchets apart during reversing and unfeathering operations?
    • A. 

      Pitchlock control cam.

    • B. 

      Pitchlock ratchet piston.

    • C. 

      Externally threaded ring.

    • D. 

      Externally splined spacer ring.

  • 328. 
    (601) On the 54H60–91 propeller, which component is used in place of a shim plate on the No. 1 blade?
    • A. 

      Beveled thrust washer.

    • B. 

      Stationary ratchet.

    • C. 

      Beta segment gear.

    • D. 

      Blade barrel shim.

  • 329. 
    (601) On the 54H60–91 propeller, which dome assembly part allows the rotating cam to turn while the stationary cam remains in a fixed position?
    • A. 

      Roller shaft.

    • B. 

      Track slopes.

    • C. 

      Ball bearings.

    • D. 

      Roller bearings.

  • 330. 
    (601) On the 54H60–91 propeller, what function is a task of the low pitch stop assembly?
    • A. 

      Prevents the propeller from going into the beta range when the throttle is positioned in the alpha range.

    • B. 

      Limits cam travel and prevents the propeller from exceeding feather and reverse blade angles.

    • C. 

      Prevents the blades from decreasing pitch if an overspeed condition occurs.

    • D. 

      Transmits engine torque to the blades.

  • 331. 
    (601) On the 54H60–91 propeller, which component provides a means for balancing the propeller?
    • A. 

      Deicer contact ring holder.

    • B. 

      Hub mounting bulkhead.

    • C. 

      Front spinner.

    • D. 

      Afterbody.

  • 332. 
    (602) On the 54H60–91 propeller, hydraulic fluid is directed from the pump housing to the barrel assembly through what component?
    • A. 

      Valve housing.

    • B. 

      Low pitch stop.

    • C. 

      Transfer bearing.

    • D. 

      Pitchlock regulator.

  • 333. 
    (602) On the 54H60–91 propeller, what is the function of the differential gear train assembly?
    • A. 

      Drives the main and standby pressure pumps.

    • B. 

      Controls operation of the pilot valve and serves as an electrical ground.

    • C. 

      Drives the rotating sleeve when the throttle is positioned in the beta range.

    • D. 

      Transmits blade angle movement to the valve housing and drives the propeller governor flyweights.

  • 334. 
    (602) On the 54H60–91 propeller, during normal propeller operation, the output of which pumps is used?
    • A. 

      Main pressure and main scavenge.

    • B. 

      Standby pressure and main scavenge.

    • C. 

      Auxiliary pressure and main pressure.

    • D. 

      Auxiliary pressure and auxiliary scavenge.

  • 335. 
    (602) On the 54H60–91 propeller, which pump assists the main pressure pump when large blade angle movements are required?
    • A. 

      Main scavenge.

    • B. 

      Standby pressure.

    • C. 

      Auxiliary pressure.

    • D. 

      Auxiliary scavenge.

  • 336. 
    (602) On the 54H60–91 propeller, which cam disarms the NTS system linkage when the throttle is positioned in the beta range?
    • A. 

      Manual feather.

    • B. 

      Beta follow-up.

    • C. 

      Speed set.

    • D. 

      Beta set.

  • 337. 
    (602) On the 54H60–91 propeller, which valve, contained in the valve housing, controls the flow of hydraulic fluid to and from the dome assembly?
    • A. 

      Standby.

    • B. 

      Feather.

    • C. 

      Backup.

    • D. 

      Pilot.

  • 338. 
    (602) The 54H60–91 propeller governor speeder spring tension positions the pilot valve to maintain what percent rpm in the beta range?
    • A. 

      99 to 103%.

    • B. 

      104 to 108%.

    • C. 

      109 to 113%.

    • D. 

      114 to 118%.

  • 339. 
    (603) On the 54H60–91 propeller, when the throttle is moved to the GROUND IDLE position, what degree setting does the coordinator pointer indicate on the protractor?
    • A. 

      0°.

    • B. 

      18°.

    • C. 

      34°.

    • D. 

      90°.

  • 340. 
    (603) What switch, located in the control quadrant, activates the 54H–60–91 propeller governor speed bias servo assembly as the throttle is moved into the flight idle gate?
    • A. 

      Beta indicator.

    • B. 

      Landing gear warning.

    • C. 

      Low speed ground idle.

    • D. 

      Synchrophaser disarming.

  • 341. 
    (603) The condition lever GND STOP position is only effective on the ground because the circuits made in this position are completed through what switches?
    • A. 

      Landing gear touchdown.

    • B. 

      Low speed ground idle.

    • C. 

      Landing gear warning.

    • D. 

      Air start.

  • 342. 
    (603) What component in the T56 engine coordinator provides reference signals to the electronic TD amplifier that are proportional to the desired TIT?
    • A. 

      Feather shaft.

    • B. 

      Potentiometer.

    • C. 

      65º microswitch.

    • D. 

      66º microswitch.

  • 343. 
    (604) On the 54H60–91 propeller, the output of what pump is sufficient to supply hydraulic pressure for normal propeller operation?
    • A. 

      Auxiliary pressure.

    • B. 

      Standby pressure.

    • C. 

      Backup pressure.

    • D. 

      Main pressure.

  • 344. 
    (604) On the 54H60–91 propeller, if the main filter becomes clogged, which valve opens to assure continued flow?
    • A. 

      Check.

    • B. 

      Bypass.

    • C. 

      Low pressure relief.

    • D. 

      High pressure relief.

  • 345. 
    (604) On the 54H60–91 propeller, which valve sets and maintains a pressure differential of about 100 psi between system pressure and the increase- or decrease-pitch pressure?
    • A. 

      Check.

    • B. 

      Bypass.

    • C. 

      Low-pressure relief.

    • D. 

      High-pressure relief.

  • 346. 
    (604) On the 54H60–91 propeller, when the backup valve is opened, the hydraulic pressure routed to the governor pilot valve is used for which operation?
    • A. 

      Pitchlock.

    • B. 

      Standby.

    • C. 

      Reverse.

    • D. 

      Airstart.

  • 347. 
    (604) On the 54H60–91 propeller, which pump is used to feather or unfeather the propeller during static propeller operation?
    • A. 

      Main.

    • B. 

      Backup.

    • C. 

      Standby.

    • D. 

      Auxiliary.

  • 348. 
    (604) On the 54H60–91 propeller, which type of valve opens to allow the output of the standby pump to combine with the output of the main pump?
    • A. 

      Check.

    • B. 

      Bypass.

    • C. 

      Low pressure relief.

    • D. 

      High pressure relief.

  • 349. 
    (605) The purpose of the 54H60–91 propeller pitchlock assembly is to prevent
    • A. 

      The loss of oil pressure.

    • B. 

      An engine overspeed due to a loss of power.

    • C. 

      The flow of hydraulic fluid to the pilot valve.

    • D. 

      An engine overspeed due to a loss of hydraulic pressure.

  • 350. 
    (605) On the 54H60–91 propeller, what prevents engagement of the stationary and rotating ratchets at blade angles below 25° and above 55°?
    • A. 

      An overspeed of 103.5%.

    • B. 

      The pitchlock control cam.

    • C. 

      A loss of hydraulic pressure.

    • D. 

      Increase- or decrease pitch pressure.

  • 351. 
    (605) On the 54H60–91 propeller, between the blade angles of 25° and 55°, what will keep the rotating and stationary ratchets disengaged?
    • A. 

      An overspeed of 103.5%.

    • B. 

      The pitchlock control cam.

    • C. 

      A loss of hydraulic pressure.

    • D. 

      Increase- or decrease pitch pressure.

  • 352. 
    (605) On the 54H60–91 propeller, the function of the low pitch stop is to prevent the
    • A. 

      Propeller barrel from decreasing blade angle below 23.3° ± .5°.

    • B. 

      Dome piston from decreasing blade angle below 23.3° ± .5°.

    • C. 

      Propeller barrel from decreasing blade angle below 34° ± .5°.

    • D. 

      Dome piston from decreasing blade angle below 34° ± .5°.

  • 353. 
    (605) On the 54H60–91 propeller, what forces the stop levers on the low pitch stop to move outward?
    • A. 

      Wedge.

    • B. 

      Servo valve.

    • C. 

      Dome piston.

    • D. 

      Hydraulic pressure.

  • 354. 
    (605) On the 54H60–91 propeller, when pressure builds to between 240 and 280 psi, which valve is unseated and allows the stop levers to retract?
    • A. 

      Low pressure relief.

    • B. 

      Governor pilot.

    • C. 

      Backup.

    • D. 

      Servo.

  • 355. 
    (606) What is coordinated by the throttle in the controllable pitch range?
    • A. 

      Blade pitch and engine fuel flow.

    • B. 

      Blade pitch and temperature limiting.

    • C. 

      Engine fuel flow and constant speed governing.

    • D. 

      Temperature limiting and constant speed governing.

  • 356. 
    (607) On the 54H60–91 propeller, during beta range operation, what moves the pilot valve?
    • A. 

      Throttle.

    • B. 

      Hydraulic pressure.

    • C. 

      Cams and mechanical linkage.

    • D. 

      Flyweights and speeder spring.

  • 357. 
    (607) On the 54H60–91 propeller, during beta range operation, the rotation of which cam moves the mechanical linkage to center the governor pilot valve?
    • A. 

      Beta set.

    • B. 

      Speed set.

    • C. 

      Backup valve.

    • D. 

      Beta follow-up.

  • 358. 
    (607) On the 54H60–91 propeller, during alpha range operation, which cam changes speeder spring tension so the governor pilot valve can maintain 100 percent rpm?
    • A. 

      Beta set.

    • B. 

      Speed set.

    • C. 

      Backup valve.

    • D. 

      Beta follow-up.

  • 359. 
    (607) On the 54H60–91 propeller, during an underspeed condition, what moves the pilot valve?
    • A. 

      Decreased hydraulic pressure.

    • B. 

      Increased hydraulic pressure.

    • C. 

      Speeder spring.

    • D. 

      Flyweights.

  • 360. 
    (608) On the 54H60–91 propeller, when feathering the propeller, what acts on the mechanical linkage to open the feather actuating valve?
    • A. 

      Throttle.

    • B. 

      Beta shaft.

    • C. 

      Pilot valve.

    • D. 

      Manual feather cam.

  • 361. 
    (608) On the 54H60–91 propeller, during feathering operation, the feather valve is positioned to meter hydraulic fluid to the
    • A. 

      Aft end of the dome piston.

    • B. 

      Forward end of the dome piston.

    • C. 

      Decrease-pitch side of the pilot valve.

    • D. 

      Increase-pitch side of the pilot valve.

  • 362. 
    (608) On the 54H60–91 propeller, which valve is a backup in case the feather valve fails during feathering operation?
    • A. 

      Pilot.

    • B. 

      Feather solenoid.

    • C. 

      Feather actuating.

    • D. 

      Standby pump check.

  • 363. 
    (608) As the 54H60–91 propeller feathers, the output of which pump decreases (drops off)?
    • A. 

      Auxiliary pressure.

    • B. 

      Auxiliary scavenge.

    • C. 

      Main scavenge.

    • D. 

      Feather.

  • 364. 
    (608) On the 54H60–91 propeller, during feather operation, between approximately what psi are the pressure cutout switch contacts opened?
    • A. 

      0 to 200.

    • B. 

      300 to 500.

    • C. 

      600 to 800.

    • D. 

      900 to 1,100.

  • 365. 
    (608) On the 54H60–91 propeller, which component is the primary electrical ground for energizing the feather override holding coil?
    • A. 

      Feather relay.

    • B. 

      Feather solenoid.

    • C. 

      Pressure cutout switch.

    • D. 

      PCBS.

  • 366. 
    (608) When attempting to unfeather the 54H60–91 propeller in flight, where must the throttle be positioned?
    • A. 

      Any throttle position.

    • B. 

      Above FLT IDLE.

    • C. 

      At TAKE OFF.

    • D. 

      At GND IDLE.

  • 367. 
    (608) Which two cams, on the alpha shaft, control the 54H60–91 propeller unfeathering operation?
    • A. 

      Manual feather and pressure cutout backup switch.

    • B. 

      Speed set and pressure cutout backup switch.

    • C. 

      Speed set and beta follow-up.

    • D. 

      Manual feather and beta set.

  • 368. 
    (608) On the 54H60–91 propeller, what is the minimum psi required to release the feather latches and allow the piston to move forward?
    • A. 

      200.

    • B. 

      400.

    • C. 

      600.

    • D. 

      800.

  • 369. 
    (608) On the 54H60–91 propeller, after the NTS system actuator rod positions the mechanical linkage in the valve housing when a negative torque condition occurs, what component is shifted?
    • A. 

      Speed set cam.

    • B. 

      Feather valve.

    • C. 

      Beta set cam.

    • D. 

      Pilot valve.

  • 370. 
    (609) Besides maintaining the optimum blade phase angle relationship between all propellers, what else does synchrophasing do?
    • A. 

      Keeps the propellers rotating at the same speed.

    • B. 

      Keeps the propellers rotating at different speeds.

    • C. 

      Prevents the pilot valve from shifting to increase blade angle.

    • D. 

      Prevents the pilot valve from shifting to decrease blade angle.

  • 371. 
    (609) The fuel governing check switches are used to reset the propeller governor to what percentage of rpm in the alpha range?
    • A. 

      100%.

    • B. 

      102%.

    • C. 

      104%.

    • D. 

      106%.

  • 372. 
    (609) Where is the pickup portion of the pulse generator located?
    • A. 

      No. 1 blade.

    • B. 

      Pump housing.

    • C. 

      Valve housing.

    • D. 

      Deicer contact ring holder assembly.

  • 373. 
    (609) The pulse generator inputs to the synchrophaser unit are used only
    • A. 

      To drive the feedback potentiometer.

    • B. 

      As a backup for throttle anticipation.

    • C. 

      When a master propeller is selected.

    • D. 

      To indicate actual rpm.

  • 374. 
    (609) On the 54H60–91 propeller speed bias motor, when the control winding voltage is different from the reference-winding voltage, what results?
    • A. 

      Throttle anticipation potentiometer speeds up or slows down the engine.

    • B. 

      Speed bias motor rotates, and increases or decreases blade angle.

    • C. 

      Speed bias servo control locks the clutch and brake unit.

    • D. 

      Feedback potentiometer recenters the speed bias motor.

  • 375. 
    (609) The master synchrophaser board located in the synchrophaser unit contains a master channel and a slave channel. These channels are used by which propellers?
    • A. 

      No. 1 and No. 2.

    • B. 

      No. 2 and No. 3.

    • C. 

      No. 3 and No. 4.

    • D. 

      All four propellers.

  • 376. 
    (609) Which board in the synchrophaser unit receives input signals that are compared together, modified, and used to control the speed bias motors?
    • A. 

      Double slave.

    • B. 

      Power supply.

    • C. 

      Power amplifier.

    • D. 

      Master synchrophaser.

  • 377. 
    (609) How much change in rpm does the compensating network in the synchrophaser unit allow the speed bias motor to correct?
    • A. 

      2%.

    • B. 

      4%.

    • C. 

      6%.

    • D. 

      8%.

  • 378. 
    (610) On the 54H60–91 propeller, in the mechanical governing mode, what causes the pilot valve to move and set propeller speed?
    • A. 

      Throttle movement.

    • B. 

      Speeder spring or flyweights.

    • C. 

      Beta set cam and beta follow-up cam.

    • D. 

      Speed set cam and manual feather cam.

  • 379. 
    (610) Mechanical governing provides the foundation for what other propeller governing modes?
    • A. 

      Synchrophasing and beta range.

    • B. 

      Normal and synchrophasing.

    • C. 

      Normal and beta range.

    • D. 

      Alpha and beta range.

  • 380. 
    (610) Which is a function of normal governing?
    • A. 

      Blade phase angles.

    • B. 

      Propeller reindexing.

    • C. 

      Throttle anticipation.

    • D. 

      Identical propeller speeds.

  • 381. 
    (610) For the 54H60–91 propeller to operate in the normal governing mode, the propeller governor control switch must be placed in the NORMAL position and what other conditions must be met?
    • A. 

      Throttle at or above FLT IDLE, and synchrophase master in ENG 2 or ENG 3 position.

    • B. 

      . Throttle at or above FLT IDLE, and synchrophase master switch in OFF.

    • C. 

      Throttle below FLT IDLE and prop resynchrophase switch in RESYNC/INDEX.

    • D. 

      Throttle below FLT IDLE and fuel governing switch in CHECK.

  • 382. 
    (610) During normal governing operation, what stabilizes the propeller governor during rapid throttle movements?
    • A. 

      Tachometer generator.

    • B. 

      Feedback potentiometer.

    • C. 

      Speed stabilization circuit.

    • D. 

      Throttle anticipation circuit.

  • 383. 
    (610) To reduce the noise and vibration levels, synchrophasing mode of governing maintains all the propellers at
    • A. 

      Identical speeds and the same blade phase angles.

    • B. 

      Different speeds and the same blade phase angles.

    • C. 

      Identical speeds and optimum blade phase angles.

    • D. 

      Different speeds and optimum blade phase angles.

  • 384. 
    (610) How many slave channels are contained on the master synchrophaser board in the synchrophaser unit?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 385. 
    (610) If the master propeller fails during synchrophaser governing, the slave propellers follow the master to
    • A. 

      A 96% mechanical stop.

    • B. 

      About a 2% speed change.

    • C. 

      The mechanical governor setting.

    • D. 

      The preset master propeller governing setting.

  • 386. 
    (611) Which type of special inspection can be used to find minute cracks on a propeller blade?
    • A. 

      Magnetic.

    • B. 

      Purple dye.

    • C. 

      Magna flux.

    • D. 

      Spectrometric.

  • 387. 
    (611) When performing a loose blade inspection on the 54H60–91 propeller, fore-and-aft play should not exceed what limit?
    • A. 

      ¼ inch.

    • B. 

      ½ inch.

    • C. 

      ¾ inch.

    • D. 

      1 inch.

  • 388. 
    (611) When performing the blade tracking inspection on the 54H60–91 propeller, the calculated difference in blade tracks should not exceed what limit?
    • A. 

      1/16 inch.

    • B. 

      3/16 inch.

    • C. 

      5/16 inch.

    • D. 

      7/16 inch.

  • 389. 
    (611) When you perform a static blade transition check and abnormal noises are detected, the 54H60–91 propeller must be returned to depot. What AFTO form must be documented and accompany the propeller back to depot?
    • A. 

      45.

    • B. 

      95.

    • C. 

      244.

    • D. 

      781.

  • 390. 
    (611) On the 54H60–91 propeller, if a nick is found on the metal portion of the blade when performing a blade inspection, which tool is used to measure the depth of the damage?
    • A. 

      Internal caliper.

    • B. 

      Inside micrometer.

    • C. 

      Blade checking indicator.

    • D. 

      Ruler with 1/64 increments.

  • 391. 
    (612) The term “No. 320 grit” refers to which feature of sandpaper?
    • A. 

      Type.

    • B. 

      Strength.

    • C. 

      Coarseness.

    • D. 

      Flexibility.

  • 392. 
    (612) On the 54H60–91 propeller, when performing blade repair if blade damage was due to propeller blade impact, you must remove all traces of the damage, and then, using emery cloth, remove an additional
    • A. 

      0.002 inch.

    • B. 

      0.004 inch.

    • C. 

      0.020 inch.

    • D. 

      0.040 inch.

  • 393. 
    (612) When the ambient temperature is greater than 65°F and a patch is bonded to the blade fairing, what is the recommended drying time before running the repaired propeller on the aircraft engine?
    • A. 

      24 hours.

    • B. 

      48 hours.

    • C. 

      5 days.

    • D. 

      7 days.

  • 394. 
    (612) On the 54H60–91 propeller, when repairing a propeller blade heater, what is the maximum number of wires that can be spliced in any one heater?
    • A. 

      4.

    • B. 

      6.

    • C. 

      8.

    • D. 

      10.

  • 395. 
    (612) On the 54H60–91 propeller, to avoid being crushed after removing the dome shell during dome piston seal replacement, you should keep your fingers away from the
    • A. 

      Dome shell.

    • B. 

      Cam tracks.

    • C. 

      Dome piston.

    • D. 

      Seal area of the piston.

  • 396. 
    (612) On the 54H60–91 propeller, after the new packings are in place during dome piston seal replacement, you need to turn them so what color faces outward?
    • A. 

      Red.

    • B. 

      Blue.

    • C. 

      Green.

    • D. 

      White.

  • 397. 
    (613) During 54H60–91 propeller dynamic balancing, the propeller balance analyzer receive its two inputs from
    • A. 

      The forward and rear engine lord mounts.

    • B. 

      The hub mounting bulkhead and quadrant.

    • C. 

      A velocimeter and the magnetic pulse generator.

    • D. 

      An accelerometer and a NTS switch.

  • 398. 
    (613) To calculate the required weight change when you use the 192A spectrum analyzer, you will need to plot the data on a
    • A. 

      Balance sensitivity chart.

    • B. 

      Solution screen printout.

    • C. 

      Balance chart worksheet.

    • D. 

      Weight balance sheet.

  • 399. 
    (613) When balancing a 54H60–91 propeller, the velocimeter is secured to the forward side of the RGB at what position (as viewed from the rear)?
    • A. 

      12 o’clock.

    • B. 

      9 o’clock.

    • C. 

      6 o’clock.

    • D. 

      3 o’clock.

  • 400. 
    (613) On the 54H60–91 propeller, propeller balancing is not required if the propeller imbalance is at or below what level?
    • A. 

      0.2 IPS.

    • B. 

      0.4 IPS.

    • C. 

      0.2 degrees.

    • D. 

      0.4 degrees.

  • 401. 
    (614) What R391 Dowty propeller component translates piston and shaft movement to vary propeller blade angle?
    • A. 

      Hub.

    • B. 

      Beta tube.

    • C. 

      Operating pin.

    • D. 

      Adjustment washer.

  • 402. 
    (614) Which R391 Dowty propeller component routes engine oil to and from the cylinder and piston?
    • A. 

      Beta tube.

    • B. 

      GBE valve.

    • C. 

      PUAD.

    • D. 

      GMAD.

  • 403. 
    (614) What R391 Dowty propeller assembly part provides an aerodynamic faring over the aft section of the hub?
    • A. 

      Backplate.

    • B. 

      Rear spinner.

    • C. 

      Front spinner.

    • D. 

      Afterbody assemblies.

  • 404. 
    (615) Which component controls the R391 Dowty propeller blade angle by directing engine oil flow through the beta tube to the cylinder and piston?
    • A. 

      PCU.

    • B. 

      GBE valve.

    • C. 

      PUAD.

    • D. 

      GMAD.

  • 405. 
    (615) For the R391 Dowty propeller, what component(s) relay propeller blade angle to the FADEC units.
    • A. 

      PCU.

    • B. 

      PUAD.

    • C. 

      GBE valve solenoid.

    • D. 

      RVDTS.

  • 406. 
    (615) For the R391 Dowty propeller, the feather valve is located inside the
    • A. 

      PCU.

    • B. 

      GBE valve.

    • C. 

      PUAD.

    • D. 

      GMAD.

  • 407. 
    (616) For the R391 Dowty propeller, what component provides blade angle feedback to the FADEC by two RVDT?
    • A. 

      PCU.

    • B. 

      GBE valve.

    • C. 

      PUAD.

    • D. 

      GMAD.

  • 408. 
    (616) For the R391 Dowty propeller, during flight operation, what directs the PCU to meter fine and coarse pitch oil to maintain 1020.7 rpm?
    • A. 

      RVDTS.

    • B. 

      FADEC.

    • C. 

      GBE valve solenoid.

    • D. 

      PUAD.

  • 409. 
    (616) On the R391 Dowty propeller, what does the DITU use to monitor itself for malfunctions?
    • A. 

      BIT.

    • B. 

      ECBU.

    • C. 

      FADEC.

    • D. 

      RVDTS.

  • 410. 
    (617) The pneumatic air bled from the small gas turbine engine cannot be used to
    • A. 

      Inflate aircraft tires.

    • B. 

      Remove snow and ice from aircraft surfaces.

    • C. 

      Supply pneumatic power to aircraft pneumatic starters.

    • D. 

      Provide pneumatic power for air-conditioning systems.

  • 411. 
    (617) When used for ground operation, the SGT engine can be installed on
    • A. 

      Pods.

    • B. 

      An H-frame.

    • C. 

      A two-wheel trailer.

    • D. 

      A four-wheel trailer.

  • 412. 
    (618) On an GTCP165 engine, air is compressed by the single-stage centrifugal compressor assembly, and then discharged into
    • A. 

      The diffuser case.

    • B. 

      The turbine plenum.

    • C. 

      The load control valve.

    • D. 

      A vaned deswirl assembly.

  • 413. 
    (618) The impeller wheel and two turbine wheels in the turbine section of the GTCP165 engine are connected by
    • A. 

      Tie bolts.

    • B. 

      Helical splines.

    • C. 

      A common shaft.

    • D. 

      A gear reduction gearbox.

  • 414. 
    (618) On an GTCP165 engine, turbine discharge temperature is controlled by the
    • A. 

      PMG.

    • B. 

      Governor.

    • C. 

      Pneumatic thermostat.

    • D. 

      Fuel flow divider valve.

  • 415. 
    (619) On an GTCP165 engine, the accessory drive section forward housing provides mounts for the components, which include fuel control unit, oil pump assembly, oil filter element, vane-axial fan assembly, and
    • A. 

      Ignition exciter.

    • B. 

      Fuel/oil cooler.

    • C. 

      Air/oil cooler.

    • D. 

      PMG.

  • 416. 
    (620) On a GTCP165 engine, which signals are used by the fuel control unit to control engine operation?
    • A. 

      Pt0 and Pt7.

    • B. 

      Engine speed and turbine inlet temperature.

    • C. 

      Ambient inlet pressure and turbine exhaust pressure.

    • D. 

      Engine speed and pneumatic thermostat (load control) air pressure.

  • 417. 
    (620) On GTCP165 engine shutdown, what valve closes to ensure fuel-flow is terminated?
    • A. 

      Poppet.

    • B. 

      Scheduling.

    • C. 

      Fuel flow divider.

    • D. 

      Fuel shutoff solenoid.

  • 418. 
    (621) What type of sump design is the oil system on a GTCP165 engine?
    • A. 

      Wet.

    • B. 

      Dry.

    • C. 

      Hot.

    • D. 

      Cold.

  • 419. 
    (621) On a GTCP165 engine, which component shuts the engine down if the oil pressure drops below the safe minimum operating limit?
    • A. 

      Oil/air cooler.

    • B. 

      Oil filter assembly.

    • C. 

      Oil pressure switch.

    • D. 

      Oil pressure regulator valve.

  • 420. 
    (621) On an GTCP165 engine oil system, air that leaks past various oil seals exits through the
    • A. 

      Vent system.

    • B. 

      Pressure system.

    • C. 

      Scavenge system.

    • D. 

      Auxiliary system.

  • 421. 
    (622) On a GTCP165 engine, the speed switch control does not control the engine during
    • A. 

      Startup.

    • B. 

      Acceleration.

    • C. 

      Loaded operation.

    • D. 

      No-load operation.

  • 422. 
    (622) During normal GTCP165 engine shutdown, what circuit trips to stop the engine?
    • A. 

      100-percent circuit.

    • B. 

      110-percent circuit.

    • C. 

      Load-control circuit.

    • D. 

      Speed-switch control circuit.

  • 423. 
    (623) The modulating and shutoff valve on a GTCP165 engine will be fully open at what percent rpm?
    • A. 

      60.

    • B. 

      70.

    • C. 

      80.

    • D. 

      90.

  • 424. 
    (801) After reviewing the aircraft/engine forms, where should you begin troubleshooting?
    • A. 

      Discuss problem with other journeymen in the shop.

    • B. 

      Check each part of every system.

    • C. 

      Examine the most complex unit.

    • D. 

      Observe gauge indications.

  • 425. 
    (801) All of the options listed below are proper troubleshooting practices except
    • A. 

      Checking the applicable trouble areas.

    • B. 

      Understanding the function of each engine unit.

    • C. 

      Performing easy checks, then going to more difficult checks.

    • D. 

      Inspecting other areas after isolating the trouble between points.

  • 426. 
    (801) Aircraft power plant and engine intermediate maintenance technical orders (TO) contain information on troubleshooting. This information is presented in the form of
    • A. 

      Fix-it diagrams.

    • B. 

      Power plant charts.

    • C. 

      Mechanical drawings.

    • D. 

      Troubleshooting charts.

  • 427. 
    (801) To become an expert troubleshooter, you must
    • A. 

      Be a 7-level.

    • B. 

      Have at least 5 years experience.

    • C. 

      Attend college courses in troubleshooting techniques.

    • D. 

      Understand the function of each unit within each system.

  • 428. 
    (802) The F100-PW–220 engine monitoring system component that acquires fault data from the digital electronic engine control (DEEC) and logs the faults with the time of their occurrence is the
    • A. 

      Data collection unit (DCU).

    • B. 

      Ground station unit (GSU).

    • C. 

      Engine analyzer unit (EAU).

    • D. 

      Engine diagnostic unit (EDU).

  • 429. 
    (803) An understanding of the operating principles of engine instruments will help you decide
    • A. 

      If an engine should be removed from an aircraft.

    • B. 

      If the engine should be sent to the test cell.

    • C. 

      The meanings of the instrument readings.

    • D. 

      What tools are required for maintenance.

  • 430. 
    (803) Most engine monitoring gauges and instruments require some type of
    • A. 

      Electrical valve to the indicator.

    • B. 

      Metal tubing for electron flow.

    • C. 

      Radio frequency transmitter.

    • D. 

      Transmitter and indicator.

  • 431. 
    (804) Which jet engine temperature is not measured?
    • A. 

      Exhaust gas.

    • B. 

      Turbine inlet.

    • C. 

      Combustion inlet.

    • D. 

      Fan turbine inlet.

  • 432. 
    (804) A typical jet engine exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicating system contains thermocouples, leads, an indicator, and
    • A. 

      A resistor.

    • B. 

      A turbine inlet.

    • C. 

      A control valve.

    • D. 

      An exhaust duct.

  • 433. 
    (805) The engine fuel-flow indicating system of most jet powered aircraft contains a fuel-flow
    • A. 

      Transmitter and a float valve.

    • B. 

      Control valve and a float valve.

    • C. 

      Transmitter and a fuel-flow indicator.

    • D. 

      Control valve and a fuel-flow transcriber.

  • 434. 
    (805) The fuel system component of a jet engine that operates by using a water wheel concept is the
    • A. 

      Fuel-flow generator.

    • B. 

      Fuel-flow indicator.

    • C. 

      Fuel-flow transmitter.

    • D. 

      Fuel remaining counter.

  • 435. 
    (805) The fuel-flow indicator indicates the rate of fuel-flow as
    • A. 

      Pounds per hour.

    • B. 

      Gallons per hour.

    • C. 

      Pounds per minute.

    • D. 

      Gallons per second.

  • 436. 
    (806) Two units that work together to indicate that the oil system is operating correctly are the oil pressure
    • A. 

      Transmitter and indicator.

    • B. 

      Relief valve and indicator.

    • C. 

      Relief valve and transmitter.

    • D. 

      Synchronous unit and indicator.

  • 437. 
    (806) The oil pressure indicator receives an electrical signal from the
    • A. 

      Gyro.

    • B. 

      Transmitter.

    • C. 

      Hydraulic unit.

    • D. 

      Synchronous unit.

  • 438. 
    (807) The two primary units of the tachometer indicating system are the tachometer generator and tachometer
    • A. 

      Indicator.

    • B. 

      Fuse panel.

    • C. 

      Transformer.

    • D. 

      Thermocouple.

  • 439. 
    (807) The N2 tachometer generator is usually driven from the tachometer drive located on the
    • A. 

      Engine accessory section.

    • B. 

      Engine turbine section.

    • C. 

      Combustion case.

    • D. 

      Fuel control.

  • 440. 
    (807) The tachometer indicator is
    • A. 

      An electric direct-drive type instrument.

    • B. 

      An electric-magnetic-drag-type instrument.

    • C. 

      A mechanical direct-drive-type instrument.

    • D. 

      A mechanical-magnetic-drag-type instrument.

  • 441. 
    (808) The exhaust nozzle position indicating system found on engines with afterburners is important because it
    • A. 

      Helps the pilot determine engine power.

    • B. 

      Helps the pilot determine fuel consumption.

    • C. 

      Gives the pilot indications of electrical failures.

    • D. 

      Aids the pilot in selection of proper altitude levels.

  • 442. 
    (808) On engines with afterburners, the position of the exhaust nozzle is converted into an electrical signal by a
    • A. 

      Rheostat.

    • B. 

      Rectifier.

    • C. 

      Transducer.

    • D. 

      Transformer.

  • 443. 
    (809) One type of overheat detector unit used on aircraft engines consists of a hollow stainlesssteel tube that covers
    • A. 

      One gold contact.

    • B. 

      Two silver contacts.

    • C. 

      Three bronze contacts.

    • D. 

      Four copper contacts.

  • 444. 
    (810) What is used to indicate the amount of thrust a dual-compressor engine is producing?
    • A. 

      Engine pressure ratio (EPR).

    • B. 

      Exhaust gas temperature (EGT).

    • C. 

      Revolutions per minute (RPM).

    • D. 

      Turbine inlet temperature (TIT).

  • 445. 
    (810) The pressures used in the operation of the engine pressure ratio (EPR) system are the
    • A. 

      Engine inlet total pressure and exhaust total pressure.

    • B. 

      Exhaust total pressure and turbine inlet total pressure.

    • C. 

      Inlet total pressure and compressor discharge total pressure.

    • D. 

      Compressor discharge total pressure and turbine inlet total pressure.

  • 446. 
    (810) Inlet pressure (Pt2) is transmitted from its sensing point
    • A. 

      Electrically.

    • B. 

      Mechanically.

    • C. 

      Hydraulically.

    • D. 

      Through tubing.

  • 447. 
    (811) The direct oil pressure gauge on a test cell is connected to an engine oil pressure line. This configuration will indicate oil pressure without using wiring, indicator, or
    • A. 

      Engine transformer.

    • B. 

      Aircraft transformer.

    • C. 

      Engine transmitter.

    • D. 

      Aircraft transmitter.

  • 448. 
    (811) The test cell exhaust gas temperature (EGT) selector allows selection of
    • A. 

      The EGT parameter for transit speeds.

    • B. 

      Accuracy check switch during adjustment.

    • C. 

      The EGT indicator to be read in digital or analog.

    • D. 

      Individual thermocouple inputs or an average of these inputs.

  • 449. 
    (811) When properly adjusted, the accuracy of the test cell N1 and N2 speed indicator will be within
    • A. 

      1 revolutions per minute (RPM).

    • B. 

      2 RPM.

    • C. 

      3 RPM.

    • D. 

      4 RPM.

  • 450. 
    (811) The test cell IC temperature indicator displays temperatures in degrees Fahrenheit, with a range of
    • A. 

      –100 to +1,000°.

    • B. 

      –75 to +1,400°.

    • C. 

      –50 to +1,600°.

    • D. 

      –25 to +1,800°.

  • 451. 
    (812) What type of vibration causes unnecessary engine removals and unwarranted repairs?
    • A. 

      Forced.

    • B. 

      Transient.

    • C. 

      Unbalanced.

    • D. 

      Externally excited.

  • 452. 
    (812) What kind of engine vibration does not persist, but comes and goes?
    • A. 

      Forced.

    • B. 

      Transient.

    • C. 

      Resonance.

    • D. 

      Externally excited.

  • 453. 
    (812) During vibration analysis, frequency is usually measured in
    • A. 

      Mils.

    • B. 

      Phase lags.

    • C. 

      Cycles per second.

    • D. 

      Phases per second.

  • 454. 
    (812) Forces acting to create vibration in a jet engine present a highly complex pattern. This is because the main rotor
    • A. 

      Is a rigid rotor system.

    • B. 

      Is both a rigid and flexible system.

    • C. 

      Functions as a flexible rotor system.

    • D. 

      Acts as an unmeasurable rotation system.

  • 455. 
    (812) During vibration analysis, why is it necessary to measure all parameters to identify a vibration source?
    • A. 

      The compressor rotor is a freely rotating mass.

    • B. 

      The main rotor functions as an inflexible system.

    • C. 

      A change in mechanical condition will not be detected.

    • D. 

      Displacement may be the same in two completely different problems.

  • 456. 
    (813) The two types of transducers used to measure vibration are
    • A. 

      Velocity and phase accelerometer.

    • B. 

      Velocity and displacement accelerometer.

    • C. 

      Velocity and piezoelectric accelerometer.

    • D. 

      Piezoelectric accelerometer and phase lag transducer.

  • 457. 
    (813) Which type of vibration transducer is made up of certain ceramic compounds and natural crystals?
    • A. 

      Velocity.

    • B. 

      Phase log.

    • C. 

      Displacement accelerometer.

    • D. 

      Piezoelectric accelerometer.

  • 458. 
    (814) The filter selector switch on the vibration analyzer is used to
    • A. 

      Provide an exact revolutions per minute (RPM) indication.

    • B. 

      Indicate the amplitude of the overall vibration.

    • C. 

      Display the frequency of the overall engine.

    • D. 

      Allow selection of the necessary filter.

  • 459. 
    (815) What is used to support the fan and low pressure turbine?
    • A. 

      Blades.

    • B. 

      Bearings.

    • C. 

      Brackets.

    • D. 

      Bushings.

  • 460. 
    (815) What procedure is used to ensure the fan and low pressure turbine are correctly balanced?
    • A. 

      Engine trim.

    • B. 

      Fan rotor trim balance.

    • C. 

      Low-pressure turbine rotor trim balance.

    • D. 

      High-pressure turbine rotor trim balance.

  • 461. 
    (816) The carbon seal tester simulates the effects of
    • A. 

      Turbine gas flow through the carbon seal.

    • B. 

      Having no air pressure on the carbon seal.

    • C. 

      Compressor airflow through the carbon seal.

    • D. 

      Ambient (outside) pressure on the carbon seal.

  • 462. 
    (816) The engine remote trimmer enables you to adjust the
    • A. 

      Fuel enrichment valve without being under the engine.

    • B. 

      Fuel flow transmitter while under the engine.

    • C. 

      Fuel control without being under the engine.

    • D. 

      Fuel pump while under the engine.

  • 463. 
    (817) When connected to the engine, which piece of F100-PW–100 engine test equipment becomes an engine electronic control (EEC)?
    • A. 

      Supervisory control system (SCS) test set.

    • B. 

      Mach number (Mn) simulator test set.

    • C. 

      Engine start system (ESS) tester.

    • D. 

      Remote trimmer.

  • 464. 
    (817) Which piece of test equipment is used to troubleshoot a jet fuel starter (JFS) problem on an F–16 aircraft?
    • A. 

      Supervisory control system (SCS) test set.

    • B. 

      Mach number (Mn) simulator test set.

    • C. 

      Engine start system (ESS) tester.

    • D. 

      Remote trimmer.

  • 465. 
    (818) You can find written instructions for safe flight line vehicle operations in
    • A. 

      AFI 36–2903.

    • B. 

      AFOSH STD 91–100.

    • C. 

      The flight line job guide (JG).

    • D. 

      The intermediate maintenance TO.

  • 466. 
    (818) The term trim means to adjust the engine systems for optimum performance per the limits in the technical order (TO). There are two methods used to trim an engine. They are
    • A. 

      Hydraulic and mechanical.

    • B. 

      Hydraulic and electronic.

    • C. 

      Manual and electronic.

    • D. 

      Manual and mechanical.

  • 467. 
    (819) The pressure gauges used for an oil system pressure checks are connected at the
    • A. 

      Inlet side of the oil pump and the vent system.

    • B. 

      Output side of the main oil pump and the vent system.

    • C. 

      Scavenge pump and the inlet side of oil pressure pump.

    • D. 

      Bearing jets and the output side of the oil scavenge pump.

  • 468. 
    (819) When checking the turbine section, you do not measure
    • A. 

      Fan turbine inlet temperature (FTIT).

    • B. 

      Turbine inlet temperature (TIT).

    • C. 

      Exhaust gas temperature (EGT).

    • D. 

      Intake gas temperature (IGT).

  • 469. 
    (820) Which F–16 operational check allows you to start the jet fuel starter (JFS) without advancing the throttle to idle or supplying fuel to the aircraft engine?
    • A. 

      Dry motoring.

    • B. 

      Wet motoring.

    • C. 

      Bleed schedule.

    • D. 

      Interface operational.

  • 470. 
    (820) Prior to starting the engine when doing an anti-ice valve operational check on an F–16C/D, place the anti-ice engine switch to
    • A. 

      ON

    • B. 

      OFF

    • C. 

      START

    • D. 

      MANUAL

  • 471. 
    (821) How many primary air silencers are there on aircraft noise suppressors to help reduce turbine whine?
    • A. 

      Two.

    • B. 

      Four.

    • C. 

      Six.

    • D. 

      Eight.

  • 472. 
    (821) Where are the primary silencers positioned on an aircraft noise suppressor?
    • A. 

      Near the bleed area.

    • B. 

      To the rear exhaust area.

    • C. 

      Against the aircraft fuselage.

    • D. 

      Forward of the bleed exhaust area.

  • 473. 
    (821) To how many minutes should engine operation in afterburner be limited when the engine is operated in the aircraft noise suppressor?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      4.

    • D. 

      5.

  • 474. 
    (822) The hush house exhaust deflector is constructed of
    • A. 

      Flexible soft metal filled with noise reduction material.

    • B. 

      Cylinder type tubing filled with noise reduction material.

    • C. 

      Panels and air cooling ports filled with noise reduction material.

    • D. 

      Small panel modules filled with noise reduction material.

  • 475. 
    (823) Before moving an aircraft into the hush house, you must inspect the aircraft
    • A. 

      Red streamers.

    • B. 

      And its forms.

    • C. 

      Flight station.

    • D. 

      Forms.

  • 476. 
    (823) After running an engine in augmentation in the hush house, the augmentor tube is cooled by running the engine at idle for a period of
    • A. 

      1 minute.

    • B. 

      3 minutes.

    • C. 

      6 minutes.

    • D. 

      9 minutes.

  • 477. 
    (823) During an inspection of the hush house you are not required to check the
    • A. 

      Engine being tested.

    • B. 

      Concrete deterioration.

    • C. 

      Fire suppression system.

    • D. 

      Engine tie-down assemblies.

  • 478. 
    (824) In addition to determining the condition of a repaired or overhauled engine, you also test engines
    • A. 

      For training practice.

    • B. 

      In aircraft that have been washed.

    • C. 

      That have severe foreign object damage (FOD) damage.

    • D. 

      That have been involved in an incident or a mishap.

  • 479. 
    (824) When testing a TF34 engine at test cell, which test is performed to ensure all operating limits and schedules from idle to maximum power are within limits?
    • A. 

      Break-in run.

    • B. 

      Transient check.

    • C. 

      Vibration survey.

    • D. 

      Max power engine trim.

  • 480. 
    (824) Which testing engine is equipped with a quick engine change (QEC) kit?
    • A. 

      TF39–1C.

    • B. 

      F110-GE–129.

    • C. 

      F100-PW–220.

    • D. 

      F100-PW–229.

  • 481. 
    (825) The two types of test cells currently used in the Air Force are
    • A. 

      Fixed and portable.

    • B. 

      Single and combined.

    • C. 

      Permanent and temporary.

    • D. 

      Functional and progressive.

  • 482. 
    (825) A portable test cell is not equipped with a
    • A. 

      Control cab.

    • B. 

      Thrust trailer.

    • C. 

      Miscellaneous equipment kit.

    • D. 

      Hydraulically operated pylon mount cradle.

  • 483. 
    (825) Which test cell noise suppressors use water to cool the exhaust gases?
    • A. 

      Fixed.

    • B. 

      Portable.

    • C. 

      Both fixed and portable.

    • D. 

      None.

  • 484. 
    (826) Engines are mounted in the fixed test cell on a thrust stand or are suspended
    • A. 

      From cargo straps.

    • B. 

      From a cradle mount.

    • C. 

      From a tailhook adapter.

    • D. 

      On the model 4100 trailer.

  • 485. 
    (826) In the fixed test cell, air for the engine intake comes through baffles located on the
    • A. 

      Floor of the test cell.

    • B. 

      Ceiling of the test cell.

    • C. 

      Side walls of the test cell.

    • D. 

      Front doors of the test cell.

  • 486. 
    (826) The vertical baffles in the exhaust stack of the fixed test cell are designed to remove
    • A. 

      Low-volume sound.

    • B. 

      High-volume sound.

    • C. 

      Low-frequency sound.

    • D. 

      High-frequency sound.

  • 487. 
    (827) The portable test cell is not equipped with a
    • A. 

      Fuel trailer.

    • B. 

      Thrust trailer.

    • C. 

      Control cab trailer.

    • D. 

      Model 3000 trailer.

  • 488. 
    (827) On the portable test cell, the swivel pads at the bottom of the leveling jacks on the engine thrust trailer provide for all of the following except
    • A. 

      Leveling the engine being tested.

    • B. 

      Removal of the wheel and tire assemblies.

    • C. 

      Support the thrust trailer at a high of 80 inches.

    • D. 

      Adjustment for rail compatibility with engine transportation trailers.

  • 489. 
    (827) The vibration pickups on the portable test cell are cooled by
    • A. 

      Engine oil.

    • B. 

      The atmosphere.

    • C. 

      Hydraulic fluid.

    • D. 

      The pneumatic system.

  • 490. 
    (827) The noise suppressor at a portable test cell is not equipped with
    • A. 

      A fuel trailer.

    • B. 

      An exhaust muffler.

    • C. 

      Two air intake mufflers.

    • D. 

      A water tank semitrailer.

  • 491. 
    (828) When an engine arrives for a test run at the test cell, it must
    • A. 

      Only need replacement of minor parts.

    • B. 

      Be operable with all known discrepancies corrected.

    • C. 

      Have the fuel line disconnected from the pump inlet.

    • D. 

      Be in need of only minor bits and pieces to be torqued.

  • 492. 
    (828) Which of these is not considered a cause of foreign object damage (FOD)?
    • A. 

      Formation of ice.

    • B. 

      Ingestion of rocks.

    • C. 

      Ingestion of bolts.

    • D. 

      Failure of internal parts.

  • 493. 
    (828) Which engine area should be checked for foreign object damage (FOD) prior to operation on the test cell facility?
    • A. 

      Fuel control.

    • B. 

      Turbine area.

    • C. 

      Inlet to the oil pump.

    • D. 

      Inlet to the fuel pump.

  • 494. 
    (829) When making general entries on the test cell engine log sheet, what should you do with the engine model and serial number?
    • A. 

      Type these items.

    • B. 

      Check past records.

    • C. 

      Enter these only after test is complete.

    • D. 

      Verify these numbers on the engine data plate.

  • 495. 
    (829) To prevent damage to the load cells when you are transferring an engine to the test stand,
    • A. 

      Secure the upper and lower rails.

    • B. 

      Adjust the engine snubber.

    • C. 

      Install the load cell shims.

    • D. 

      Install lockbolts.

  • 496. 
    (829) Where would you begin your investigation of an engine with a possible oil consumption problem?
    • A. 

      Inspect the compressor thrust-bearing.

    • B. 

      Talk with the oil analysis program manager.

    • C. 

      Review AFTO Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record.

    • D. 

      Review AFTO Form 781H, Aerospace Vehicle Flight Status and Maintenance.

  • 497. 
    (829) If an engine stalls or surges during a test cell run, you should investigate the
    • A. 

      Ignition exciter.

    • B. 

      Oil pressure pump.

    • C. 

      Thrust reverser pump.

    • D. 

      Variable stator vanes.

  • 498. 
    (829) You can get information such as temperature and barometric pressure from equipment at the test cell site or from
    • A. 

      The control tower.

    • B. 

      Information on the radio.

    • C. 

      The local weather station.

    • D. 

      Your immediate supervisor.

  • 499. 
    (830) Responsibility for the proper preventive maintenance of a test cell facility rests with the
    • A. 

      Individuals assigned.

    • B. 

      Civil engineer squadron.

    • C. 

      Equipment maintenance squadron.

    • D. 

      Aerospace ground equipment (AGE) flight.

  • 500. 
    (830) What information is used as an aid in test facility inspections?
    • A. 

      Test cell run procedures.

    • B. 

      Unit serial number listings.

    • C. 

      Monthly requirements listings.

    • D. 

      Periodic inspection checklists.

  • 501. 
    (831) During an inspection, compressor blade defects that are within limits are
    • A. 

      Recorded on the AFTO Form 44.

    • B. 

      Left alone.

    • C. 

      Replaced.

    • D. 

      Blended.

  • 502. 
    (832) Defects (such as cracks) that appear on the combustion chamber are aggravated by
    • A. 

      Thermal cycles.

    • B. 

      Low cycle fatigue.

    • C. 

      Borescope inspections.

    • D. 

      Combustion chamber removal.

  • 503. 
    (832) Defects (such as cracks) found during combustion chamber borescope inspections
    • A. 

      Are continually monitored as long as they are within limits.

    • B. 

      Require engine removal, even if they are within limits.

    • C. 

      Require welding, even if they are within limits.

    • D. 

      Are unacceptable; you must replace the part.

  • 504. 
    (832) On a disassembled engine, a visual inspection of the combustion chamber is preferred over a borescope inspection because
    • A. 

      The borescope may not always be available.

    • B. 

      Removal of the combustion chamber is quicker.

    • C. 

      You could spot defects that have been missed with the borescope.

    • D. 

      The limits for a visual inspection are not as tight as those for a borescope inspection.

  • 505. 
    (833) Through extensive testing, engine manufacturers determine how long a particular part should last. This is known as the
    • A. 

      Anticipated failure rate.

    • B. 

      Guaranteed date.

    • C. 

      Drop dead date.

    • D. 

      Service life.

  • 506. 
    (833) Using the wrong cleaning agent on a jet engine part
    • A. 

      Has no effect.

    • B. 

      Could destroy it.

    • C. 

      Only causes minor etching.

    • D. 

      Is acceptable as long as the part comes clean.

  • 507. 
    (833) To borescope the high-pressure turbine (HPT) rotor blades, rotate the rear compressor by using the core engine rotating device on the
    • A. 

      Variable nozzle.

    • B. 

      Accessory gearbox.

    • C. 

      Low pressure compressor.

    • D. 

      Borescope light guide cable.

  • 508. 
    (834) Which one is not an inspection phase?
    • A. 

      Fix.

    • B. 

      Look.

    • C. 

      Preinspection.

    • D. 

      Home station check (HSC).

  • 509. 
    (834) During what inspection phase are operational checks made according to the technical order (TO)?
    • A. 

      Fix.

    • B. 

      Look.

    • C. 

      Preinspection.

    • D. 

      Post-inspection.

  • 510. 
    (835) A basic post-flight inspection (BPO) is done
    • A. 

      With the thruflight inspection.

    • B. 

      After the first flight of the day.

    • C. 

      With the end-of-runway inspection.

    • D. 

      After the last flight of the flying period.

  • 511. 
    (836) What inspection is done on aircraft parts that require infrequent inspections?
    • A. 

      Periodic (PE).

    • B. 

      Basic post-flight (BPO).

    • C. 

      Hourly post-flight.

    • D. 

      Home station check (HSC).

  • 512. 
    (837) The home station check (HSC) inspection is a combination of the basic post-flight (BPO) and
    • A. 

      Thruflight.

    • B. 

      Phased items.

    • C. 

      Periodic items.

    • D. 

      Hourly post-flight items.

  • 513. 
    (838) Which inspection is conducted by maintenance personnel after an occurrence of a specific or unusual condition?
    • A. 

      Special.

    • B. 

      Calendar.

    • C. 

      Acceptance.

    • D. 

      Time replacement item.

  • 514. 
    (839) A cold compressor stall that occurs at low revolutions per minute (RPM) and is accompanied by a slight overtemperature is called
    • A. 

      An incipient.

    • B. 

      A thermal.

    • C. 

      A partial.

    • D. 

      A mild.

  • 515. 
    (839) Careless operation of the throttle during emergency system operation could cause a compressor stall due to
    • A. 

      A restricted air inlet.

    • B. 

      Rapid throttle movement.

    • C. 

      A restricted turbine nozzle.

    • D. 

      Malfunctioning variable geometry system.

  • 516. 
    (839) Compressor section failure from a chain reaction due to blade-to-blade and blade-to-vane interference is known as
    • A. 

      Circumferential force.

    • B. 

      Centrifugal force.

    • C. 

      Centripetal force.

    • D. 

      Centrifuge force.

  • 517. 
    (839) What section of a compressor blade is most likely to fail?
    • A. 

      Near the blade tip.

    • B. 

      Near the blade root.

    • C. 

      At the trailing edge.

    • D. 

      At the leading edge.

  • 518. 
    (839) What is the probable cause of compressor rotor shift?
    • A. 

      Rotor out of round.

    • B. 

      Roller bearing failure.

    • C. 

      Thrust bearing failure.

    • D. 

      Incipient compressor stall.

  • 519. 
    (840) If the turbine nozzles are burned out uniformly around the whole annulus from an overtemperature condition, this is known as a
    • A. 

      Mild stall condition with normal cooling airflow.

    • B. 

      Severe stall condition with normal cooling airflow.

    • C. 

      Mild stall condition with disrupted cooling airflow.

    • D. 

      Severe stall condition with disrupted cooling airflow.

  • 520. 
    (840) Turbine rotor blade failure usually occurs near the
    • A. 

      Midspan of the blade.

    • B. 

      Platform of the blade.

    • C. 

      Root of the blade.

    • D. 

      Tip of the blade.

  • 521. 
    (840) Turbine blade fatigue failure does not result from
    • A. 

      Nicks.

    • B. 

      Dents.

    • C. 

      Blends.

    • D. 

      Scratches.

  • 522. 
    (841) Which characteristic is the most common cause of bearing failure?
    • A. 

      Transient vibration.

    • B. 

      Partial loss of lubrication.

    • C. 

      Complete loss of lubrication.

    • D. 

      Stall condition overtemperature.

  • 523. 
    (841) Bearing failure from moisture, lack of protective oils, improper handling, or improper storage could cause
    • A. 

      Corrosion pitting.

    • B. 

      Fatigue pitting.

    • C. 

      Brinelling.

    • D. 

      Skidding.