2A651 EOC Hardest Practice Exam! Quiz

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  • 1/523 Questions

    (206) To measure barometric pressure, you would use a

    • Potentiometer.
    • Psychrometer.
    • Pyrometer.
    • Barometer.
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About This Quiz

The '2A651 EOC Hardest Practice Exam!' assesses knowledge critical to aircraft maintenance roles in the Air Force. It covers squadron structures, quality assurance processes, and training pathways, ensuring readiness for supervisory and operational duties in aircraft maintenance.

2A651 EOC Hardest Practice Exam! Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (007) Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment?

    • Safety.

    • Hospital.

    • Supervisor.

    • Environmental.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor.
    Explanation
    The supervisor is responsible for providing training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment. They are in a position of authority and have the knowledge and expertise to ensure that employees are properly trained in the correct procedures for using and maintaining personal protective equipment. Supervisors play a crucial role in ensuring the safety and well-being of their employees by providing them with the necessary training and guidance.

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  • 3. 

    (203) Which section of a jet engine introduces and burns fuel?

    • Turbine.

    • Diffuser.

    • Compressor.

    • Combustion.

    Correct Answer
    A. Combustion.
    Explanation
    The combustion section of a jet engine is responsible for introducing and burning fuel. This is where the fuel is mixed with compressed air and ignited, creating a high-temperature and high-pressure gas that expands and drives the turbine. The turbine then converts the energy from the expanding gas into mechanical energy to power the aircraft.

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  • 4. 

    (217) The purpose of an augmentor (afterburner) in a jet engine is to

    • Increase engine rpm.

    • Reduce pressure drop.

    • Augment basic engine thrust.

    • Increase EGT.

    Correct Answer
    A. Augment basic engine thrust.
    Explanation
    The purpose of an augmentor (afterburner) in a jet engine is to increase the basic engine thrust. An augmentor is a device that injects fuel into the exhaust stream of a jet engine and ignites it, resulting in an increase in the velocity and temperature of the exhaust gases. This increase in exhaust gas velocity and temperature leads to an increase in thrust, allowing the jet engine to produce more power and generate additional thrust. Therefore, the correct answer is to augment basic engine thrust.

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  • 5. 

    (828) Which engine area should be checked for foreign object damage (FOD) prior to operation on the test cell facility?

    • Fuel control.

    • Turbine area.

    • Inlet to the oil pump.

    • Inlet to the fuel pump.

    Correct Answer
    A. Turbine area.
    Explanation
    The turbine area should be checked for foreign object damage (FOD) prior to operation on the test cell facility. This is because the turbine area is a critical component of the engine where the combustion process occurs. Any foreign objects in this area can cause damage to the turbine blades, leading to reduced engine performance or even engine failure. Therefore, it is crucial to inspect and remove any FOD in the turbine area before operating the engine on the test cell facility.

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  • 6. 

    (833) Using the wrong cleaning agent on a jet engine part

    • Has no effect.

    • Could destroy it.

    • Only causes minor etching.

    • Is acceptable as long as the part comes clean.

    Correct Answer
    A. Could destroy it.
    Explanation
    Using the wrong cleaning agent on a jet engine part could destroy it. Different cleaning agents have specific properties and are designed for specific materials and surfaces. If a wrong cleaning agent is used, it may react with the part, causing damage or corrosion. This can lead to the failure of the part and potentially result in catastrophic consequences for the jet engine. Therefore, it is crucial to use the correct cleaning agent to ensure the integrity and functionality of the engine parts.

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  • 7. 

    (008) Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of what difference in each organization?

    • Mission.

    • Contract.

    • Location.

    • Type of aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission.
    Explanation
    The reason Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis is because each organization has a different mission. The mission of an organization determines its specific needs and requirements, including the parts and supplies it requires. Therefore, Base Supply must prioritize the delivery of parts based on the importance and urgency of each organization's mission.

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  • 8. 

    (022) The primary goal of the ET&D program is to prevent or limit damage to turbine engines by

    • Reviewing past engine accident investigation reports.

    • Tracking serially controlled components and modules.

    • Early detection of performance degradation and/or failures.

    • Documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Early detection of performance degradation and/or failures.
    Explanation
    The primary goal of the ET&D program is to detect any degradation in the performance of turbine engines at an early stage, as well as identify any potential failures. This is important in order to prevent or limit damage to the engines. By detecting performance degradation or failures early on, appropriate measures can be taken to address the issues and prevent further damage or accidents. Reviewing past accident investigation reports, tracking serially controlled components, and documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions may be part of the program, but they are not the primary goal.

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  • 9. 

    (024) Depot maintenance support base-level technicians by

    • Providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability.

    • Ensuring replacement parts are ordered in a timely manner.

    • Notifying maintenance personnel of upcoming TCTO.

    • Providing the most current TO updates to the field.

    Correct Answer
    A. Providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability.
    Explanation
    Depot maintenance support base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability. This means that the depot maintenance support team helps the base-level technicians by offering expertise and assistance in situations where the technicians may not have the necessary skills or knowledge to perform certain repairs. By doing so, the depot maintenance support team ensures that repairs are completed effectively and efficiently, improving the overall maintenance process.

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  • 10. 

    (029) If you must torque a sequence of three or more bolts,

    • Use maximum torque.

    • Use a staggered sequence.

    • Torque from left to right.

    • Overtorque, loosen, and retorque.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use a staggered sequence.
    Explanation
    When torquing a sequence of three or more bolts, it is recommended to use a staggered sequence. This means that instead of torquing all the bolts in a linear or sequential order, you should alternate between bolts that are opposite each other. This helps to distribute the torque evenly and prevent uneven stress or strain on the bolts and the object being fastened. Using a staggered sequence ensures that the bolts are tightened in a balanced manner, resulting in a more secure and stable connection.

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  • 11. 

    (045) Engines inactive for over 180 days must have what accomplished?

    • Motor the engine to circulate the oil.

    • Inspect reservoirs to ensure they are full.

    • Visually inspect compressor for corrosion.

    • Preservation run and fuel system preservation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Preservation run and fuel system preservation.
    Explanation
    Engines that have been inactive for over 180 days need to have a preservation run and fuel system preservation accomplished. This is important to prevent any damage or deterioration that may occur during long periods of inactivity. The preservation run involves running the engine at regular intervals to ensure proper lubrication and circulation of oil. Fuel system preservation involves taking necessary steps to prevent fuel degradation and contamination, such as adding fuel stabilizers or draining the fuel system. These measures help maintain the engine's performance and prolong its lifespan.

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  • 12. 

    (213) What is the most common type of fuel nozzle system?

    • Pressure-atomizing.

    • Fuel-blasting.

    • Fuel ejector.

    • Fuel tube.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pressure-atomizing.
    Explanation
    The most common type of fuel nozzle system is pressure-atomizing. This system uses high pressure to atomize the fuel into small particles, allowing for efficient combustion. It is widely used in various applications, such as gas turbines and industrial burners, due to its ability to provide a fine and uniform spray pattern. This type of system is preferred for its reliability, performance, and versatility in different fuel types and operating conditions.

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  • 13. 

    (012) Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time?

    • Supply.

    • Shelf-life.

    • Inspection.

    • Bench stock.

    Correct Answer
    A. Shelf-life.
    Explanation
    Shelf-life is the correct answer because it refers to the length of time that a product can be stored before it becomes unfit for use or consumption. Assigning a storage time period to ensure satisfactory performance over a specified period of time is crucial for products with limited shelf-life, such as perishable goods or items that may degrade or expire over time. By monitoring and managing shelf-life, organizations can avoid product spoilage, maintain quality, and ensure customer satisfaction.

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  • 14. 

    (014) To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the

    • Shop chief.

    • Supervisor.

    • Commander.

    • Supply chief.

    Correct Answer
    A. Commander.
    Explanation
    To become an equipment custodian, one must be appointed by the commander. This means that the commander has the authority to select individuals for this role. The commander is responsible for making decisions and assigning tasks within the organization, including appointing equipment custodians. The shop chief, supervisor, and supply chief may have their own roles and responsibilities, but it is ultimately the commander who has the power to appoint equipment custodians.

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  • 15. 

    (028) Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause

    • Injury to you.

    • Torn clothing.

    • Electrical shock.

    • Damage to the tool.

    Correct Answer
    A. Injury to you.
    Explanation
    Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it can cause injury to you. When a tool is kept in the pocket, there is a risk of it accidentally puncturing or cutting the skin, leading to injuries such as lacerations or puncture wounds. Additionally, if the tool is sharp or has exposed edges, it can cause bruising or abrasions when it comes into contact with the body. Therefore, it is important to store hand tools properly in designated tool belts or containers to avoid potential harm to oneself.

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  • 16. 

    (028) What would you use to hold your tools when you cannot locate your toolbox within arm’s reach?

    • Ziplock bag.

    • Parts bag.

    • FOD bag.

    • Toolbag.

    Correct Answer
    A. Toolbag.
    Explanation
    When you cannot locate your toolbox within arm's reach, the most suitable option to hold your tools would be a toolbag. A toolbag is specifically designed to carry and organize tools, making it a convenient choice in such situations. A ziplock bag is not ideal for holding tools as it lacks the necessary durability and organization features. A parts bag is typically used for holding small parts and may not be suitable for larger tools. FOD bag stands for Foreign Object Debris bag and is used in aviation and aerospace industries to prevent foreign objects from causing damage, but it is not specifically designed for tool storage.

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  • 17. 

    (216) The purpose of the exhaust duct is to

    • Swirl exhaust gas-flow.

    • Equalize exhaust gas-flow.

    • Straighten exhaust gas-flow.

    • Modulate exhaust gas-flow.

    Correct Answer
    A. Straighten exhaust gas-flow.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the exhaust duct is to straighten the exhaust gas-flow. This means that the duct is designed to remove any turbulence or irregularities in the flow of exhaust gases, ensuring that they move in a smooth and straight path. Straightening the exhaust gas-flow helps to optimize the performance of the exhaust system, improve the efficiency of the engine, and reduce any potential back pressure or restrictions in the system.

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  • 18. 

    (218) Before inspecting new jet engine bearings, you should

    • Separate the halves.

    • Apply a preservative.

    • Perform a spin check.

    • Remove the preservative coating.

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove the preservative coating.
    Explanation
    Before inspecting new jet engine bearings, it is necessary to remove the preservative coating. This is because the preservative coating is applied to protect the bearings during storage and transportation. If the preservative coating is not removed, it may interfere with the inspection process and potentially affect the performance of the bearings. Therefore, removing the preservative coating is an important step in preparing the bearings for inspection.

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  • 19. 

    (219) The bearing removal tools that are most commonly used include

    • Drift pipes and hammers.

    • Bearing pullers and hammers.

    • Drift pipes and arbor presses.

    • Arbor presses and bearing pullers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Arbor presses and bearing pullers.
    Explanation
    Arbor presses and bearing pullers are the most commonly used tools for removing bearings. Arbor presses are used to apply pressure to push the bearing out of its housing, while bearing pullers are used to grip and extract the bearing from the shaft or housing. These tools are specifically designed for bearing removal and are widely used in various industries for their effectiveness and efficiency in the process.

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  • 20. 

    (221) The recommended method of heating inner races of bearings before installing them is

    • Hot-oil bath.

    • Portable heater.

    • Bearing furnace.

    • Hydraulic oil bath.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hot-oil bath.
    Explanation
    The recommended method of heating inner races of bearings before installing them is a hot-oil bath. This method involves immersing the bearings in a bath of hot oil, which allows for uniform heating and expansion of the inner race. This helps in facilitating the installation process by reducing the risk of damage to the bearing and ensuring a proper fit. Using a hot-oil bath ensures efficient and controlled heating, making it the preferred method for this purpose.

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  • 21. 

    (222) Which component reduces the engine rotor speed to the rpm required for accessories?

    • Step motors.

    • Reduction motor.

    • Reduction geartrain.

    • Gear case drive assembly.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduction geartrain.
    Explanation
    The reduction geartrain is responsible for reducing the engine rotor speed to the rpm required for accessories. This component is designed to transmit power from the engine to the accessories at a lower speed, allowing them to operate efficiently. It consists of a series of gears with different sizes that work together to achieve the desired reduction in speed. By using a reduction geartrain, the engine can maintain a higher speed while still providing the necessary power to the accessories.

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  • 22. 

    (401) What is the composition of JP–8 fuel?

    • Gasoline and kerosene.

    • Diesel fuel and AV GAS.

    • Diesel fuel and kerosene.

    • Gasoline and diesel fuel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Gasoline and kerosene.
    Explanation
    The composition of JP-8 fuel is gasoline and kerosene. JP-8 is a type of jet fuel commonly used by the military. It is a blend of various hydrocarbon compounds, including gasoline and kerosene, which provide the necessary properties for jet engines to operate efficiently. The mixture of gasoline and kerosene allows JP-8 to have a high energy density and a low freezing point, making it suitable for use in a wide range of temperatures and altitudes.

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  • 23. 

    (402) The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to

    • Heat the fuel and cool the oil.

    • Cool the fuel and cool the oil.

    • Heat the fuel and heat the oil.

    • Cool the fuel and heat the oil.

    Correct Answer
    A. Heat the fuel and cool the oil.
    Explanation
    A fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system serves the purpose of heating the fuel and cooling the oil. This is important because cooler oil helps to maintain its viscosity and prevent it from breaking down, while heating the fuel ensures better combustion and prevents fuel from becoming too viscous in cold temperatures. By performing these functions, the fuel/oil cooler helps optimize the performance and efficiency of the fuel system.

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  • 24. 

    (409) What term is used to indicate that air is being mixed with the oil in the oil pump to create pockets of air?

    • Aeration.

    • Induction.

    • Convection.

    • Compression.

    Correct Answer
    A. Aeration.
    Explanation
    Aeration is the term used to indicate that air is being mixed with the oil in the oil pump to create pockets of air. This can occur when there is excessive turbulence or foaming in the oil, causing air to become trapped and mixed with the oil. Aeration can lead to reduced lubrication effectiveness and potential damage to the engine or other machinery.

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  • 25. 

    (801) To become an expert troubleshooter, you must

    • Be a 7-level.

    • Have at least 5 years experience.

    • Attend college courses in troubleshooting techniques.

    • Understand the function of each unit within each system.

    Correct Answer
    A. Understand the function of each unit within each system.
    Explanation
    To become an expert troubleshooter, it is important to understand the function of each unit within each system. This knowledge allows the troubleshooter to identify and diagnose problems accurately. While being a 7-level and having at least 5 years of experience may contribute to expertise, they do not guarantee it. Similarly, attending college courses in troubleshooting techniques can provide valuable knowledge, but without understanding the function of each unit within each system, one may still struggle to effectively troubleshoot issues. Therefore, understanding the function of each unit within each system is the most important factor in becoming an expert troubleshooter.

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  • 26. 

    (803) An understanding of the operating principles of engine instruments will help you decide

    • If an engine should be removed from an aircraft.

    • If the engine should be sent to the test cell.

    • The meanings of the instrument readings.

    • What tools are required for maintenance.

    Correct Answer
    A. The meanings of the instrument readings.
    Explanation
    An understanding of the operating principles of engine instruments will help you decide the meanings of the instrument readings. By knowing how the instruments work and what they measure, you can interpret the readings and determine if there are any abnormalities or issues with the engine. This knowledge is crucial in making informed decisions about the engine's condition and whether further action, such as removal or testing, is necessary.

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  • 27. 

    (838) Which inspection is conducted by maintenance personnel after an occurrence of a specific or unusual condition?

    • Special.

    • Calendar.

    • Acceptance.

    • Time replacement item.

    Correct Answer
    A. Special.
    Explanation
    After an occurrence of a specific or unusual condition, maintenance personnel conduct a special inspection. This type of inspection is carried out to assess and address any issues or damages caused by the specific or unusual condition. It is different from regular inspections as it focuses on identifying and rectifying problems that may have arisen due to the occurrence.

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  • 28. 

    (004) To avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance in feet to the rear of the aircraft?

    • 100.

    • 200.

    • 300.

    • 400.

    Correct Answer
    A. 200.
    Explanation
    To avoid the engine exhaust blast, a minimum distance of 200 feet to the rear of the aircraft is required. This is necessary to ensure the safety of individuals and prevent any potential harm or damage caused by the high-velocity exhaust gases expelled by the aircraft's engines. Being within this range can expose individuals to extreme heat, noise, and the risk of being struck by debris or objects propelled by the exhaust blast. Therefore, maintaining a distance of at least 200 feet is crucial to minimize these risks.

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  • 29. 

    (005) FOD is normally caused by

    • People.

    • Animals.

    • Weather.

    • Mechanical failure.

    Correct Answer
    A. People.
    Explanation
    FOD stands for Foreign Object Debris, which refers to any object or substance that is not supposed to be in a specific area, such as an airport runway or an aircraft engine. FOD can cause damage to aircraft and pose safety risks. In most cases, FOD is caused by people, either through accidental littering or negligence in properly securing loose objects. Animals and weather conditions can also contribute to FOD, but the primary cause is human activity. Mechanical failure, on the other hand, may lead to debris, but it is not the main cause of FOD.

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  • 30. 

    (012) When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means the item

    • Has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended.

    • Should be returned to supply after expiration date.

    • Has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life.

    • Should be inspected or tested.

    Correct Answer
    A. Has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life.
    Explanation
    When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means that the item has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life. This means that the item cannot be used or stored beyond its expiration date and should not be returned to supply after the expiration date. Instead, it should be disposed of or replaced to ensure safety and effectiveness. There is no provision for extending the shelf-life of a type I item.

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  • 31. 

    (045) To prepare the engine fuel system for service after depreservation, you must flush the system with

    • Oil.

    • Fuel.

    • PD–680.

    • Calibration fluid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuel.
    Explanation
    To prepare the engine fuel system for service after depreservation, it is necessary to flush the system with fuel. This is because fuel is the substance that powers the engine and allows it to function properly. Flushing the system with fuel helps to remove any contaminants or debris that may have accumulated during the depreservation process, ensuring that the fuel system is clean and ready for use.

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  • 32. 

    (046) When metal is attacked by chemical corrosion, it will start

    • Deep within the metal.

    • On the surface of the metal.

    • Throughout the metal all at once.

    • Just under the surface of the metal.

    Correct Answer
    A. On the surface of the metal.
    Explanation
    When metal is attacked by chemical corrosion, it will start on the surface of the metal. This is because corrosion is a surface phenomenon where the metal reacts with the surrounding environment, such as oxygen or moisture. The reaction occurs at the surface of the metal, leading to the formation of corrosion products and the degradation of the metal. As the corrosion progresses, it may eventually penetrate deeper into the metal, but it initially starts on the surface.

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  • 33. 

    (047) On the personnel maintenance platforms, the purpose of the platform safety lockpins is to

    • Prevent the platform from lowering while it is in use.

    • Prevent the platform from swaying while it is in use.

    • Lock the base structure while the platform is in use.

    • Prevent the wheels from swiveling while it is in use.

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevent the platform from lowering while it is in use.
    Explanation
    The platform safety lockpins are used to prevent the personnel maintenance platform from lowering while it is in use. This is important for the safety of the workers on the platform, as it ensures that the platform remains at a stable height and does not unexpectedly lower, which could cause accidents or injuries. By locking the platform in place, the lockpins provide an additional layer of security and prevent any unwanted movement or lowering of the platform during use.

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  • 34. 

    (201) “The combination of decreased pressure above an airfoil, and the increased pressure below the airfoil produces lift” is best described by

    • Bernoulli’s principle.

    • Newton’s first law of motion.

    • Newton’s second law of motion.

    • Newton’s third law of motion.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bernoulli’s principle.
    Explanation
    The statement "The combination of decreased pressure above an airfoil, and the increased pressure below the airfoil produces lift" is best described by Bernoulli's principle. Bernoulli's principle states that as the speed of a fluid (such as air) increases, its pressure decreases. In the case of an airfoil, the shape of the wing causes the air above it to move faster, resulting in lower pressure compared to the air below the wing. This pressure difference creates lift, allowing an airplane to stay in the air.

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  • 35. 

    (203) Which section of a jet engine keeps the compressor rotating?

    • Turbine.

    • Exhaust.

    • Diffuser.

    • Combustion.

    Correct Answer
    A. Turbine.
    Explanation
    The turbine section of a jet engine keeps the compressor rotating. The turbine is connected to the compressor by a shaft, and as the hot gases from the combustion chamber pass through the turbine, they cause the turbine blades to spin. This spinning motion is transferred to the compressor, which in turn compresses incoming air and feeds it into the combustion chamber.

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  • 36. 

    (211) Stationary vanes positioned between rotor discs in a compressor are used to

    • Direct air and increase pressure.

    • Direct hot gases rearward.

    • Increase backup pressure.

    • Prolong compressor life.

    Correct Answer
    A. Direct air and increase pressure.
    Explanation
    The stationary vanes positioned between rotor discs in a compressor are used to direct air and increase pressure. These vanes act as guide vanes, redirecting the flow of air between the rotor discs and increasing the pressure of the air as it passes through the compressor. This is an essential function in the compressor as it helps to compress the air and prepare it for further processing or use in various applications.

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  • 37. 

    (213) Fuel that accumulates after a failed start is

    • Returned to the fuel control by tubes.

    • Drained overboard by a drain system.

    • Burned on the next start attempt.

    • Allowed to evaporate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Drained overboard by a drain system.
    Explanation
    After a failed start, the fuel that accumulates is drained overboard by a drain system. This is done to prevent the fuel from causing any damage or contamination to the fuel control system. Draining the fuel overboard ensures that it is safely removed from the system and does not affect the next start attempt.

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  • 38. 

    (213) The parts on a can-annular combustion section must be removed in a specific order because of the

    • Fuel nozzle.

    • Transition liner.

    • Combustion chamber outer case.

    • Combustion chamber crossover tubes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Combustion chamber crossover tubes.
    Explanation
    The parts on a can-annular combustion section must be removed in a specific order because of the combustion chamber crossover tubes. The crossover tubes connect the different combustion chambers and allow for the flow of gases between them. Removing the crossover tubes before other components ensures that the gases are properly directed and the combustion process is not disrupted.

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  • 39. 

    (213) Swirl-type fuel nozzles usually are used to provide what type of flame speed?

    • Low.

    • High.

    • Medium.

    • Medium-high.

    Correct Answer
    A. High.
    Explanation
    Swirl-type fuel nozzles are designed to create a swirling motion in the fuel-air mixture, which enhances the mixing of the fuel and air. This improved mixing leads to better combustion and a more efficient release of energy. As a result, swirl-type fuel nozzles are typically used to achieve a high flame speed, allowing for faster and more effective combustion in various applications.

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  • 40. 

    (403) On fuel controls that require setting during an engine trim, calibration and/or adjustment screws must be

    • Replaced.

    • Die marked.

    • Safety sealed and/or lockwired.

    • Apply a thread locking compound.

    Correct Answer
    A. Safety sealed and/or lockwired.
    Explanation
    On fuel controls that require setting during an engine trim, calibration and/or adjustment screws must be safety sealed and/or lockwired. This is done to prevent any unintentional movement or tampering with the screws, ensuring that the fuel control settings remain stable and accurate. Safety sealing and lockwiring provide a visual indication if someone tries to adjust or tamper with the screws, allowing for immediate detection and correction of any unauthorized changes.

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  • 41. 

    (415) What are microscopic metallic particles in the oil system called?

    • Wear metals.

    • Friction metals.

    • Precious metals.

    • Transformation metals.

    Correct Answer
    A. Wear metals.
    Explanation
    Microscopic metallic particles that are found in the oil system are known as wear metals. These particles are typically generated as a result of friction and wear between moving parts in a machine or engine. As the components rub against each other, tiny metal particles are released into the oil, indicating the gradual degradation of the system. Monitoring the levels of wear metals in the oil can provide valuable insights into the condition and performance of the machinery.

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  • 42. 

    (801) Aircraft power plant and engine intermediate maintenance technical orders (TO) contain information on troubleshooting. This information is presented in the form of

    • Fix-it diagrams.

    • Power plant charts.

    • Mechanical drawings.

    • Troubleshooting charts.

    Correct Answer
    A. Troubleshooting charts.
    Explanation
    Aircraft power plant and engine intermediate maintenance technical orders (TO) provide information on troubleshooting. This information is typically presented in the form of troubleshooting charts. These charts outline a step-by-step process to identify and resolve issues that may occur in the power plant or engine. By following these charts, technicians can systematically diagnose and fix problems, ensuring the proper functioning of the aircraft's power plant and engine.

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  • 43. 

    (803) Most engine monitoring gauges and instruments require some type of

    • Electrical valve to the indicator.

    • Metal tubing for electron flow.

    • Radio frequency transmitter.

    • Transmitter and indicator.

    Correct Answer
    A. Transmitter and indicator.
    Explanation
    Most engine monitoring gauges and instruments require a transmitter and indicator because these components are essential for measuring and displaying the various parameters of the engine. The transmitter is responsible for converting the physical measurements, such as temperature or pressure, into electrical signals that can be transmitted to the indicator. The indicator then receives these signals and displays the information in a readable format, allowing the operator to monitor the engine's performance. Therefore, both the transmitter and indicator are necessary for the functioning of engine monitoring gauges and instruments.

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  • 44. 

    (804) A typical jet engine exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicating system contains thermocouples, leads, an indicator, and

    • A resistor.

    • A turbine inlet.

    • A control valve.

    • An exhaust duct.

    Correct Answer
    A. A resistor.
    Explanation
    A typical jet engine exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicating system contains a resistor. This resistor is used to convert the temperature measurement from the thermocouples into an electrical signal that can be displayed on the indicator. The thermocouples measure the temperature of the exhaust gas, and the leads transmit this measurement to the indicator. However, the actual conversion of the temperature measurement into an electrical signal is done by the resistor. The other options mentioned (turbine inlet, control valve, and exhaust duct) are not directly related to the EGT indicating system.

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  • 45. 

    (813) Which type of vibration transducer is made up of certain ceramic compounds and natural crystals?

    • Velocity.

    • Phase log.

    • Displacement accelerometer.

    • Piezoelectric accelerometer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Piezoelectric accelerometer.
    Explanation
    A piezoelectric accelerometer is made up of certain ceramic compounds and natural crystals. These materials have the property of generating an electric charge when subjected to mechanical stress or vibration. This electric charge can then be measured and used to determine the magnitude and frequency of the vibration. Therefore, a piezoelectric accelerometer is the type of vibration transducer that is made up of certain ceramic compounds and natural crystals.

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  • 46. 

    (815) What is used to support the fan and low pressure turbine?

    • Blades.

    • Bearings.

    • Brackets.

    • Bushings.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bearings.
    Explanation
    Bearings are used to support the fan and low pressure turbine. Bearings are mechanical components that reduce friction between moving parts and provide support and guidance for rotating shafts. In this case, the fan and low pressure turbine require support to ensure smooth rotation, and bearings fulfill this purpose by allowing the shafts to rotate freely while minimizing friction and wear. Blades, brackets, and bushings are not specifically designed for supporting rotating components like fans and turbines, making bearings the correct answer.

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  • 47. 

    (829) When making general entries on the test cell engine log sheet, what should you do with the engine model and serial number?

    • Type these items.

    • Check past records.

    • Enter these only after test is complete.

    • Verify these numbers on the engine data plate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Verify these numbers on the engine data plate.
    Explanation
    When making general entries on the test cell engine log sheet, it is important to verify the engine model and serial number on the engine data plate. This ensures that the correct information is recorded and avoids any discrepancies or errors in the log sheet. Checking past records or entering these numbers only after the test is complete may not guarantee accuracy, as the engine data plate provides the most reliable and up-to-date information.

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  • 48. 

    (006) During flightline and test cell operations, you may be exposed to

    • Acetone.

    • Toluene.

    • Carbon dioxide.

    • Carbon monoxide.

    Correct Answer
    A. Carbon monoxide.
    Explanation
    During flightline and test cell operations, exposure to carbon monoxide is possible. Carbon monoxide is a colorless and odorless gas that can be produced by the incomplete combustion of fuels. It is highly toxic and can cause serious health issues or even death if inhaled in high concentrations. Therefore, it is important for individuals working in these environments to take necessary precautions to prevent exposure to carbon monoxide.

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  • 49. 

    (006) Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of

    • Aerosols.

    • Liquids.

    • Solids.

    • Gases.

    Correct Answer
    A. Gases.
    Explanation
    Toxic materials in the form of gases are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions because gases can be easily inhaled or absorbed through the respiratory system. Gases have the ability to rapidly spread and penetrate the body's tissues, leading to immediate toxic effects. In contrast, aerosols, liquids, and solids may require additional steps for the toxic substances to enter the body, such as inhalation, ingestion, or direct contact with the skin.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 04, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    AerospacePropuls

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