2A651 EOC Hardest Practice Exam! Quiz

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2A651 EOC Hardest Practice Exam! Quiz - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) Which squadrons form a maintenance group?

    • A.

      Operations, aircraft maintenance, flying.

    • B.

      Maintenance, operations, quality assurance.

    • C.

      Quality assurance, support, aircraft maintenance.

    • D.

      Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance.

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance." This answer includes all the necessary squadrons that form a maintenance group, which are maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance. These squadrons work together to ensure the proper maintenance and operation of aircraft, as well as maintaining quality standards.

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  • 2. 

    (001) QA recommends possible corrective actions to which level?

    • A.

      Supervisors.

    • B.

      Flight commanders.

    • C.

      Group commanders.

    • D.

      Squadron commanders.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisors.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Supervisors. QA, which stands for Quality Assurance, is responsible for monitoring and evaluating processes to ensure they meet established standards. In this context, QA recommends possible corrective actions to supervisors, who are directly responsible for overseeing and managing the day-to-day operations of their teams. Flight commanders, group commanders, and squadron commanders may have higher levels of authority, but they are not the immediate supervisors of the individuals being monitored by QA.

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  • 3. 

    (001) Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules, and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?

    • A.

      Operations support center.

    • B.

      Logistics support squadron.

    • C.

      Operations support squadron.

    • D.

      Maintenance operations center.

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance operations center.
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for monitoring flying and maintenance schedules, as well as maintaining visibility of fleet health indicators. This center is specifically focused on the maintenance operations of the fleet and ensures that all maintenance tasks are scheduled and carried out efficiently. It also keeps track of the fleet's health indicators to identify any potential issues or maintenance needs. The Operations Support Center, Logistics Support Squadron, and Operations Support Squadron may have other responsibilities related to operations and logistics, but they are not specifically responsible for monitoring flying and maintenance schedules or maintaining visibility of fleet health indicators.

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  • 4. 

    (001) When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be assigned?

    • A.

      Debrief.

    • B.

      Training.

    • C.

      Specialist.

    • D.

      Deployment.

    Correct Answer
    C. Specialist.
    Explanation
    When assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, you will most likely be assigned to the specialist flight. This is because as an engine troop, you will have specialized knowledge and skills related to engine maintenance and repair. Being assigned to the specialist flight allows you to focus on your specific area of expertise and contribute to the overall maintenance and operation of the aircraft engines.

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  • 5. 

    (002) What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?

    • A.

      NCO academy.

    • B.

      On-the-job training.

    • C.

      Career development course.

    • D.

      Task qualification training.

    Correct Answer
    C. Career development course.
    Explanation
    A career development course is provided to help individuals learn the knowledge portion of their job. This type of training focuses on enhancing skills, knowledge, and competencies required for career advancement and growth. It covers a wide range of topics and provides individuals with the necessary tools and resources to excel in their job roles. NCO academy primarily provides leadership training for non-commissioned officers, on-the-job training refers to learning while performing tasks, and task qualification training focuses on specific job tasks rather than overall career development.

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  • 6. 

    (002) You may attend the ALS after having how many months in the Air Force?

    • A.

      24.

    • B.

      36.

    • C.

      48.

    • D.

      60.

    Correct Answer
    C. 48.
    Explanation
    After having 48 months in the Air Force, you are eligible to attend the ALS (Airman Leadership School). This indicates that the ALS is a higher-level training program that requires a certain amount of experience in the Air Force before attending.

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  • 7. 

    (003) Which program’s purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees?

    • A.

      ORM.

    • B.

      MSDS.

    • C.

      AFOSH.

    • D.

      Flightline safety.

    Correct Answer
    C. AFOSH.
    Explanation
    AFOSH (Air Force Occupational Safety and Health) is the program that ensures safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees. It establishes guidelines and regulations to prevent accidents, injuries, and illnesses in the workplace. AFOSH covers a wide range of areas including hazard identification, risk assessment, safety training, and compliance with occupational safety and health standards. By implementing AFOSH, the Air Force aims to protect its employees and create a culture of safety throughout the organization.

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  • 8. 

    (003) Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series

    • A.

      91.

    • B.

      66.

    • C.

      127.

    • D.

      161.

    Correct Answer
    A. 91.
  • 9. 

    (003) Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?

    • A.

      00–5–1.

    • B.

      00–20–1.

    • C.

      21–101.

    • D.

      36–2108.

    Correct Answer
    C. 21–101.
    Explanation
    Air Force instruction 21–101 defines quality maintenance and mandates that maintenance personnel demonstrate integrity and adhere to all written guidance. This instruction outlines the standards and procedures for maintaining and repairing Air Force equipment and systems. It emphasizes the importance of maintaining high-quality standards and ethical behavior within the maintenance community.

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  • 10. 

    (004) Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed?

    • A.

      Lock and pin the work stands.

    • B.

      Check the AFTO Form 781K.

    • C.

      Check the intake for FOD.

    • D.

      Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    D. Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft.
    Explanation
    Before starting any maintenance on the aircraft, it is important to check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft to ensure safety. This is because there may be ongoing maintenance or operations that could pose a risk if not communicated. By checking with other personnel, you can ensure that everyone is aware of the work being done and can take necessary precautions to prevent accidents or mishaps.

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  • 11. 

    (004) How far does a propeller’s axis of rotation extend?

    • A.

      20 feet to the front and 15 feet from the rear.

    • B.

      15 feet to the front and 10 feet from the rear.

    • C.

      10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.

    • D.

      5 feet to the front and 1 foot from the rear.

    Correct Answer
    C. 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear. This means that the axis of rotation of a propeller extends 10 feet in front of the propeller and 5 feet behind it.

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  • 12. 

    (004) To avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance in feet to the rear of the aircraft?

    • A.

      100.

    • B.

      200.

    • C.

      300.

    • D.

      400.

    Correct Answer
    B. 200.
    Explanation
    To avoid the engine exhaust blast, a minimum distance of 200 feet to the rear of the aircraft is required. This is necessary to ensure the safety of individuals and prevent any potential harm or damage caused by the high-velocity exhaust gases expelled by the aircraft's engines. Being within this range can expose individuals to extreme heat, noise, and the risk of being struck by debris or objects propelled by the exhaust blast. Therefore, maintaining a distance of at least 200 feet is crucial to minimize these risks.

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  • 13. 

    (005) FOD is normally caused by

    • A.

      People.

    • B.

      Animals.

    • C.

      Weather.

    • D.

      Mechanical failure.

    Correct Answer
    A. People.
    Explanation
    FOD stands for Foreign Object Debris, which refers to any object or substance that is not supposed to be in a specific area, such as an airport runway or an aircraft engine. FOD can cause damage to aircraft and pose safety risks. In most cases, FOD is caused by people, either through accidental littering or negligence in properly securing loose objects. Animals and weather conditions can also contribute to FOD, but the primary cause is human activity. Mechanical failure, on the other hand, may lead to debris, but it is not the main cause of FOD.

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  • 14. 

    (005) Who has overall responsibility for the FOD program?

    • A.

      Quality assurance.

    • B.

      Squadron commander.

    • C.

      Production supervisor.

    • D.

      Maintenance group commander.

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance group commander.
    Explanation
    The maintenance group commander has overall responsibility for the FOD (Foreign Object Debris) program. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that the program is implemented and followed effectively. They are responsible for setting the guidelines and procedures, as well as overseeing the maintenance personnel and ensuring that they are trained and educated on FOD prevention. The maintenance group commander is accountable for the overall success and effectiveness of the FOD program within their unit.

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  • 15. 

    (006) During flightline and test cell operations, you may be exposed to

    • A.

      Acetone.

    • B.

      Toluene.

    • C.

      Carbon dioxide.

    • D.

      Carbon monoxide.

    Correct Answer
    D. Carbon monoxide.
    Explanation
    During flightline and test cell operations, exposure to carbon monoxide is possible. Carbon monoxide is a colorless and odorless gas that can be produced by the incomplete combustion of fuels. It is highly toxic and can cause serious health issues or even death if inhaled in high concentrations. Therefore, it is important for individuals working in these environments to take necessary precautions to prevent exposure to carbon monoxide.

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  • 16. 

    (006) Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of

    • A.

      Aerosols.

    • B.

      Liquids.

    • C.

      Solids.

    • D.

      Gases.

    Correct Answer
    D. Gases.
    Explanation
    Toxic materials in the form of gases are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions because gases can be easily inhaled or absorbed through the respiratory system. Gases have the ability to rapidly spread and penetrate the body's tissues, leading to immediate toxic effects. In contrast, aerosols, liquids, and solids may require additional steps for the toxic substances to enter the body, such as inhalation, ingestion, or direct contact with the skin.

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  • 17. 

    (007) Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment?

    • A.

      Safety.

    • B.

      Hospital.

    • C.

      Supervisor.

    • D.

      Environmental.

    Correct Answer
    C. Supervisor.
    Explanation
    The supervisor is responsible for providing training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment. They are in a position of authority and have the knowledge and expertise to ensure that employees are properly trained in the correct procedures for using and maintaining personal protective equipment. Supervisors play a crucial role in ensuring the safety and well-being of their employees by providing them with the necessary training and guidance.

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  • 18. 

    (007) Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent

    • A.

      Explosions.

    • B.

      Unauthorized entry.

    • C.

      Overflow of materials.

    • D.

      Mixing of unlike materials.

    Correct Answer
    B. Unauthorized entry.
    Explanation
    Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent unauthorized entry to ensure the safety and security of both the environment and individuals. Unauthorized entry can lead to accidents, spills, or intentional harm, which can have severe consequences. By restricting access to authorized personnel only, the risk of mishandling or improper disposal of hazardous materials is minimized. Additionally, unauthorized entry prevention helps to comply with regulatory requirements and maintain the integrity of the storage area.

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  • 19. 

    (007) A common method for disposing of hazardous wasted is

    • A.

      Dilution.

    • B.

      Incineration.

    • C.

      Land disposal.

    • D.

      Biodegradation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dilution.
    Explanation
    Dilution is a common method for disposing of hazardous waste. This involves mixing the waste with a large volume of water or other liquid to reduce its concentration and make it less harmful. By diluting the waste, its toxicity is reduced, making it safer to handle and dispose of. However, it is important to note that dilution alone may not be sufficient for all types of hazardous waste, and other methods such as incineration, land disposal, or biodegradation may be required depending on the specific characteristics of the waste.

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  • 20. 

    (007) For hazardous waste disposal, it is unlikely the Air Force can justify

    • A.

      Incineration.

    • B.

      Land disposal.

    • C.

      Biodegradation.

    • D.

      Chemico-physical treatment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Incineration.
    Explanation
    The Air Force is unlikely to justify incineration as a method for hazardous waste disposal. Incineration involves burning waste at high temperatures, which can release harmful pollutants into the air. This goes against the Air Force's goal of minimizing environmental impact and promoting sustainability. Therefore, it is more likely that they would choose alternative methods such as land disposal, biodegradation, or chemico-physical treatment, which are considered to be more environmentally friendly.

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  • 21. 

    (008) A specialized function of the supply mission is

    • A.

      Repair.

    • B.

      Service.

    • C.

      Disposal.

    • D.

      Retrieval.

    Correct Answer
    C. Disposal.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is disposal. In a supply mission, disposal refers to the process of getting rid of or disposing of waste, excess, or unwanted materials. This specialized function involves safely discarding or eliminating items that are no longer needed or have become obsolete. It is an important aspect of supply missions to ensure efficient and effective management of resources and maintain a clutter-free and organized environment.

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  • 22. 

    (008) From what perspective does the RSS manage supply?

    • A.

      Base system.

    • B.

      Weapons system.

    • C.

      Inventory system.

    • D.

      Geographical system.

    Correct Answer
    B. Weapons system.
    Explanation
    The RSS manages supply from the perspective of the weapons system. This means that the focus of supply management is on ensuring that the necessary weapons and equipment are available and properly maintained to support military operations. The RSS is responsible for overseeing the inventory, distribution, and maintenance of weapons and related supplies, ensuring that they are ready and accessible when needed. This perspective is crucial in military operations as it ensures that the armed forces have the necessary resources to effectively carry out their missions.

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  • 23. 

    (008) Which Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system?

    • A.

      Depot Level Repair System.

    • B.

      Repair Cycle Support System.

    • C.

      Standard Base Supply System.

    • D.

      Precious Metals Recovery System.

    Correct Answer
    B. Repair Cycle Support System.
    Explanation
    The Repair Cycle Support System manages the repair cycle system. This system is responsible for coordinating and supporting the repair and maintenance of equipment and supplies. It ensures that repairs are completed efficiently and effectively, minimizing downtime and maximizing the availability of equipment for use. This system plays a crucial role in maintaining the operational readiness of military equipment and ensuring that repairs are carried out in a timely manner.

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  • 24. 

    (008) Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require

    • A.

      Overhaul.

    • B.

      Retest OK.

    • C.

      Time change.

    • D.

      Repair cycle support.

    Correct Answer
    A. Overhaul.
    Explanation
    Certain equipment items, due to their design characteristics or application, are predetermined to require overhaul when returned to the depot. Overhaul refers to a comprehensive examination and restoration of the equipment to ensure it is in optimal working condition. This process involves disassembling, cleaning, repairing, and replacing parts as needed. It is necessary to maintain the equipment's functionality and prolong its lifespan. Retest OK, time change, and repair cycle support are not relevant in this context.

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  • 25. 

    (008) Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the SBSS?

    • A.

      Priority Monitor Report (D18).

    • B.

      Daily Document Register (D04).

    • C.

      Due-out Validation Listing (M30).

    • D.

      Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23).

    Correct Answer
    B. Daily Document Register (D04).
    Explanation
    The Daily Document Register (D04) is the correct answer because it provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the SBSS. This register keeps a record of all documents processed, allowing organizations to easily track and review the document numbers. The other options, such as the Priority Monitor Report (D18), Due-out Validation Listing (M30), and Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23), do not specifically provide a means for reviewing document numbers processed during the day.

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  • 26. 

    (008) Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of what difference in each organization?

    • A.

      Mission.

    • B.

      Contract.

    • C.

      Location.

    • D.

      Type of aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission.
    Explanation
    The reason Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis is because each organization has a different mission. The mission of an organization determines its specific needs and requirements, including the parts and supplies it requires. Therefore, Base Supply must prioritize the delivery of parts based on the importance and urgency of each organization's mission.

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  • 27. 

    (009) What does a completed AFTO Form 350 serve to identify?

    • A.

      Origin of an item.

    • B.

      Why the item broke.

    • C.

      How long the item will take to repair.

    • D.

      The responsible reparable processing center.

    Correct Answer
    A. Origin of an item.
    Explanation
    A completed AFTO Form 350 serves to identify the origin of an item. This form is used in the United States Air Force to track and document the maintenance and repair history of equipment. By completing this form, personnel can trace the origin of an item, which is crucial for tracking its history, determining its reliability, and identifying any potential issues or trends. This information is essential for effective maintenance and inventory management.

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  • 28. 

    (009) Which provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag?

    • A.

      AFMAN 23–110.

    • B.

      TO 00–20–2.

    • C.

      AFI 91–301.

    • D.

      TO 00–5–1.

    Correct Answer
    B. TO 00–20–2.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TO 00–20–2. This is because TO 00–20–2 is the technical order that provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag. AFMAN 23–110, AFI 91–301, and TO 00–5–1 are not specific to the documentation of the AFTO Form 350 tag and do not provide a block-by-block explanation.

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  • 29. 

    (010) If you are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part?

    • A.

      AF IMT 2005.

    • B.

      AFTO Form 349.

    • C.

      AFTO Form 350.

    • D.

      DD Form 1574.

    Correct Answer
    A. AF IMT 2005.
    Explanation
    If you are TDY (Temporary Duty) and both IMDS (Integrated Maintenance Data System) and SBSS (Standard Base Supply System) are not available, you would use AF IMT 2005 to order an engine part. AF IMT 2005 is the Air Force form used for requesting and tracking material items. It is specifically designed for situations where other systems are not accessible, making it the appropriate choice in this scenario. AFTO Form 349 and AFTO Form 350 are maintenance forms used for different purposes, and DD Form 1574 is a document used for issuing and transferring property.

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  • 30. 

    (010) If you need detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, refer to AFMAN

    • A.

      23–110.

    • B.

      23–254.

    • C.

      91–110.

    • D.

      91–254.

    Correct Answer
    A. 23–110.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 23-110 because it is the most specific option provided. The question asks for detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, and AFMAN 23-110 is the most relevant resource for this information. The other options, 23-254, 91-110, and 91-254, do not specifically mention the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, so they are less likely to provide the detailed information needed.

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  • 31. 

    (011) Which form is attached to items that are awaiting parts or maintenance?

    • A.

      DD Form 1574.

    • B.

      DD Form 1575.

    • C.

      DD Form 1577–2.

    • D.

      DD Form 1577–3.

    Correct Answer
    B. DD Form 1575.
    Explanation
    DD Form 1575 is the correct answer because it is the form that is used to attach to items that are awaiting parts or maintenance. This form is specifically designed for tracking and documenting the status of items that are in need of repair or awaiting replacement parts. It helps to ensure that these items are properly accounted for and that the necessary actions are taken to address their maintenance needs.

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  • 32. 

    (012) Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time?

    • A.

      Supply.

    • B.

      Shelf-life.

    • C.

      Inspection.

    • D.

      Bench stock.

    Correct Answer
    B. Shelf-life.
    Explanation
    Shelf-life is the correct answer because it refers to the length of time that a product can be stored before it becomes unfit for use or consumption. Assigning a storage time period to ensure satisfactory performance over a specified period of time is crucial for products with limited shelf-life, such as perishable goods or items that may degrade or expire over time. By monitoring and managing shelf-life, organizations can avoid product spoilage, maintain quality, and ensure customer satisfaction.

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  • 33. 

    (012) When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means the item

    • A.

      Has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended.

    • B.

      Should be returned to supply after expiration date.

    • C.

      Has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life.

    • D.

      Should be inspected or tested.

    Correct Answer
    C. Has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life.
    Explanation
    When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means that the item has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life. This means that the item cannot be used or stored beyond its expiration date and should not be returned to supply after the expiration date. Instead, it should be disposed of or replaced to ensure safety and effectiveness. There is no provision for extending the shelf-life of a type I item.

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  • 34. 

    (013) A Category I DR is used to report a deficiency

    • A.

      That is required for tracking by agreement of the single manager.

    • B.

      Found during an initial acceptance inspection (critical or major defects only).

    • C.

      That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system.

    • D.

      That identifies a potential enhancement (applies to enhancements noted during the acquisition cycle).

    Correct Answer
    C. That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system.
    Explanation
    A Category I DR is used to report a deficiency that, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system. This means that the deficiency is of critical importance and needs to be addressed immediately to prevent any significant harm or loss. It indicates that the deficiency poses a serious risk to the functionality, safety, or integrity of the equipment or system.

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  • 35. 

    (013) Within how many hours must Category I DR be forwarded to the screening point?

    • A.

      8.

    • B.

      12.

    • C.

      24.

    • D.

      72.

    Correct Answer
    C. 24.
    Explanation
    Category I DR (Damage Report) must be forwarded to the screening point within 24 hours. This means that any damage report falling under Category I, which typically includes critical or urgent issues, must be promptly forwarded to the screening point within a maximum of 24 hours. This ensures that the necessary actions can be taken promptly to address and resolve the reported issues.

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  • 36. 

    (014) Which type of items must be reflected on the CA/CRL?

    • A.

      Shelf-life.

    • B.

      Bench stock.

    • C.

      Hazardous materials.

    • D.

      Equipment Authorization Inventory Data.

    Correct Answer
    D. Equipment Authorization Inventory Data.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Equipment Authorization Inventory Data. The CA/CRL (Central Authority/Controlled Resource List) is a system used to track and manage inventory. It is important to reflect the Equipment Authorization Inventory Data on the CA/CRL to ensure that all authorized equipment is accounted for and properly managed. Shelf-life, bench stock, and hazardous materials may also be important to track, but they are not specifically mentioned in the question as items that must be reflected on the CA/CRL.

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  • 37. 

    (014) To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the

    • A.

      Shop chief.

    • B.

      Supervisor.

    • C.

      Commander.

    • D.

      Supply chief.

    Correct Answer
    C. Commander.
    Explanation
    To become an equipment custodian, one must be appointed by the commander. This means that the commander has the authority to select individuals for this role. The commander is responsible for making decisions and assigning tasks within the organization, including appointing equipment custodians. The shop chief, supervisor, and supply chief may have their own roles and responsibilities, but it is ultimately the commander who has the power to appoint equipment custodians.

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  • 38. 

    (015) The first part of a TO number identifies the

    • A.

      Sectionalization of the TO.

    • B.

      Type of instructions found in the TO.

    • C.

      Category and type of equipment in the TO.

    • D.

      Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO.

    Correct Answer
    C. Category and type of equipment in the TO.
    Explanation
    The first part of a TO number identifies the category and type of equipment in the TO. This means that the TO number helps to classify and categorize the equipment for which the technical order is applicable. It provides information about the specific type of equipment that the TO covers, allowing users to easily identify the relevant TO for their equipment.

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  • 39. 

    (015) The second part of a TO number gives the

    • A.

      TO classification.

    • B.

      Type of equipment in the TO.

    • C.

      Type of instructions found in the TO.

    • D.

      Model and series for equipment type in the TO.

    Correct Answer
    D. Model and series for equipment type in the TO.
    Explanation
    The second part of a TO number provides the model and series for the equipment type in the TO. This means that by looking at the second part of the TO number, one can determine the specific model and series of the equipment that the TO is referring to. This information is important for identifying and locating the correct set of instructions or procedures for that particular equipment.

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  • 40. 

    (016) In which type of TO would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment?

    • A.

      Index.

    • B.

      Preliminary.

    • C.

      Methods and procedure.

    • D.

      Operational and maintenance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Index.
    Explanation
    In the index of a technical order (TO), you would find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment. The index serves as a reference guide that helps users locate relevant TOs based on the equipment they are looking for. It provides a comprehensive list of TOs organized by equipment type, making it easier for users to find the specific TO they need for a particular piece of equipment. The index is an essential tool for navigating and accessing the appropriate TOs in a timely and efficient manner.

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  • 41. 

    (017) Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?

    • A.

      General equipment.

    • B.

      General system.

    • C.

      Fault isolation.

    • D.

      Job guide.

    Correct Answer
    D. Job guide.
    Explanation
    A job guide is a type of technical manual that is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action. It provides step-by-step instructions and guidance on how to perform specific maintenance tasks. This type of manual is useful for technicians and maintenance personnel who need detailed instructions to carry out their job efficiently and effectively.

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  • 42. 

    (017) Which type of additional data is not provided in interactive electronic technical manuals (IETMS)?

    • A.

      Rapid action changes.

    • B.

      Operational supplements.

    • C.

      Urgent recommendations.

    • D.

      Time compliance technical order.

    Correct Answer
    C. Urgent recommendations.
    Explanation
    Interactive electronic technical manuals (IETMs) provide various types of additional data to support users in their technical tasks. Rapid action changes are one type of additional data that can be found in IETMs. These changes are implemented quickly to address urgent issues or updates. Operational supplements are also provided in IETMs, offering additional information and instructions for specific operational scenarios. Time compliance technical orders are included to ensure compliance with specific time-related requirements. However, urgent recommendations are not provided in IETMs, as they are typically communicated through other means, such as urgent bulletins or notices.

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  • 43. 

    (017) What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB?

    • A.

      Introduction.

    • B.

      Numerical index.

    • C.

      Group assembly parts list.

    • D.

      Reference designation index.

    Correct Answer
    A. Introduction.
    Explanation
    The introduction section of the IPB typically contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB. It provides an overview and background information about the document, including any abbreviations, symbols, or coding systems used throughout. This section helps users understand how to interpret and navigate the IPB effectively.

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  • 44. 

    (018) What category of TCTO is issued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?

    • A.

      Record.

    • B.

      Urgent action.

    • C.

      Routine action.

    • D.

      Immediate action.

    Correct Answer
    D. Immediate action.
    Explanation
    Immediate action TCTOs are issued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel. These TCTOs require immediate action to be taken in order to prevent any harm to individuals.

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  • 45. 

    (019) Which TO covers information concerning the Air Force TO system?

    • A.

      00–5–1.

    • B.

      00–5–2.

    • C.

      00–20–1.

    • D.

      00–20–2.

    Correct Answer
    A. 00–5–1.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 00-5-1. This TO (Technical Order) covers information concerning the Air Force TO system.

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  • 46. 

    (019) How can you tell when the text or a picture in a TO has been changed?

    • A.

      The text or picture will be marked in color.

    • B.

      The text or picture will be highlighted in yellow.

    • C.

      The word “changed” will be marked on the text or picture.

    • D.

      A bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture.

    Correct Answer
    D. A bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture. This indicates that the text or picture has been changed.

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  • 47. 

    (020) An AFTO IMT 22 is not submitted for

    • A.

      Job guides.

    • B.

      Work cards.

    • C.

      Preliminary TOs.

    • D.

      Methods and procedures TOs.

    Correct Answer
    C. Preliminary TOs.
    Explanation
    An AFTO IMT 22 is not submitted for preliminary TOs. This means that the AFTO IMT 22 form is not used or required when dealing with preliminary technical orders (TOs). The form may be used for other purposes such as job guides, work cards, and methods and procedures TOs, but not for preliminary TOs.

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  • 48. 

    (020) Who makes sure the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission?

    • A.

      Initiator.

    • B.

      Commander.

    • C.

      Supervisor of initiator.

    • D.

      Product improvement office.

    Correct Answer
    C. Supervisor of initiator.
    Explanation
    The supervisor of the initiator is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission. This means that the supervisor must review the form and verify that all necessary information is provided and accurate before it is submitted. The supervisor plays a crucial role in quality control and ensuring that the necessary procedures are followed.

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  • 49. 

    (020) Which AFTO IMT 22 recommendation would you submit which, if not corrected, could cause personnel injury or damage to equipment or property?

    • A.

      Urgent.

    • B.

      Special.

    • C.

      Routine.

    • D.

      Emergency.

    Correct Answer
    A. Urgent.
    Explanation
    Submitting an AFTO IMT 22 recommendation as "Urgent" indicates that there is a critical issue that needs immediate attention. This recommendation is used when the identified problem has the potential to cause personnel injury or damage to equipment or property if not corrected promptly. By classifying the recommendation as "Urgent," it ensures that the necessary actions are taken quickly to prevent any potential harm or damage.

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  • 50. 

    (021) What are the two classifications of failures in RCM?

    • A.

      Evident and hidden.

    • B.

      Potential and evident.

    • C.

      Hidden and functional.

    • D.

      Potential and functional.

    Correct Answer
    D. Potential and functional.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is potential and functional. In RCM (Reliability Centered Maintenance), failures can be classified into two categories. Potential failures refer to those that have not yet occurred but have the potential to happen in the future. Functional failures, on the other hand, are failures that have already occurred and are affecting the performance or functionality of a system or equipment.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 04, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    AerospacePropuls
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