Childhood And Adolescent Mental Health Disorders

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  • 1/62 Questions

    Which eating disorder has an increased risk for pneumonia 

    • Anorexia Nervosa
    • Bulimia
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Disorder Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz focuses on understanding ADHD in children and adolescents, covering symptoms, diagnosis, and medication management. It assesses knowledge of ADHD characteristics and treatment protocols, essential for learners in psychology and healthcare.

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  • 2. 

    This disorder includes: inattention, impulsiveness, hyperactivity

    • Learning disordder

    • ADHD (attention deficit/hyperactive disorder)

    • ODD (oppositional defiant disorder)

    • ASD (autism spectrum disorder)

    Correct Answer
    A. ADHD (attention deficit/hyperactive disorder)
    Explanation
    The given disorder includes symptoms such as inattention, impulsiveness, and hyperactivity. These symptoms are commonly associated with ADHD (attention deficit/hyperactive disorder). Learning disorder refers to difficulties in acquiring and processing information, while ODD (oppositional defiant disorder) is characterized by defiant and disruptive behavior. ASD (autism spectrum disorder) involves challenges in social interaction and communication. Therefore, ADHD is the most appropriate disorder that matches the given symptoms.

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  • 3. 

    Most children with ADHD are diagnosed when they start school. 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Most children with ADHD are diagnosed when they start school because this is when their symptoms become more noticeable and problematic in an academic setting. The structured environment and increased demands of school can exacerbate ADHD symptoms, leading to difficulties with attention, impulsivity, and hyperactivity. Teachers and parents may observe these behaviors and seek an evaluation for ADHD. Additionally, the expectations and performance standards in school may highlight the child's struggles with organization, time management, and completing tasks, further prompting a diagnosis.

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  • 4. 

    To be diagnosed (according to DSM) the child needs to have only 2 symptoms of ADHD for only 1 month. 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    They need to have 6 out of 9 symptoms or 6 months of the symptoms to a degree that is maladaptive and inconsistent with normal development.

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  • 5. 

    When administering stimulants for ADHD:

    • Give right before bed

    • Do not give at bedtime

    • Give after meals

    • Give before meals

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Do not give at bedtime
    A. Give after meals
    Explanation
    Stimulants for ADHD should not be given at bedtime because they can cause difficulty falling asleep. Instead, they should be given after meals to minimize the potential for appetite suppression.

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  • 6. 

    It is not a problem to abruptly stop your ADHD medications. 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Abruptly stopping ADHD medications can have negative consequences. ADHD medications are typically prescribed to help manage symptoms and improve focus and attention. Abruptly stopping these medications can lead to a sudden return of ADHD symptoms, which can disrupt daily functioning and impair performance. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before making any changes to medication regimens for ADHD.

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  • 7. 

    Children with ADHD tend to have a co-morbidity with substance abuse, conduct disorder, anxiety and/or depression. 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Children with ADHD often have a higher risk of developing co-morbid conditions such as substance abuse, conduct disorder, anxiety, and depression. This means that they are more likely to experience these conditions in addition to their ADHD symptoms. The presence of these co-morbidities can complicate the diagnosis and treatment of ADHD, as they may require additional interventions and support. Therefore, it is true that children with ADHD tend to have a co-morbidity with substance abuse, conduct disorder, anxiety, and/or depression.

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  • 8. 

    Priority nursing diagnosis for ADHD: 

    • Ineffective role performance

    • Safety/Injury r/t risk taking behaviors

    • Low self-esteem and self-concept

    • Compromised family coping

    Correct Answer
    A. Safety/Injury r/t risk taking behaviors
    Explanation
    The priority nursing diagnosis for ADHD is Safety/Injury related to risk-taking behaviors. This is because individuals with ADHD often engage in impulsive and reckless behaviors, which can put them at a higher risk for accidents and injuries. Ensuring their safety and preventing harm is crucial in managing their condition. The other diagnoses listed are also important considerations, but addressing the safety concerns takes precedence in this case.

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  • 9. 

    Positive food choices for ADHD patients: 

    • Steak and potatoes

    • Salads

    • Cookies and Sodas

    • Peanut butter sandwiches

    Correct Answer
    A. Peanut butter sandwiches
    Explanation
    Peanut butter sandwiches are a positive food choice for ADHD patients because they provide a good balance of protein and carbohydrates. Protein helps in the production of neurotransmitters that regulate mood and attention, while carbohydrates provide a steady release of energy throughout the day. Additionally, peanut butter contains healthy fats that support brain function. This combination of nutrients can help improve focus and concentration in individuals with ADHD.

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  • 10. 

    Adult ADHD is usually misdiagnosed as depression, anxiety and/or bipolar. 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Adult ADHD is often misdiagnosed as depression, anxiety, and/or bipolar disorder. This is because the symptoms of ADHD, such as difficulty concentrating, impulsivity, and restlessness, can overlap with symptoms of these other mental health conditions. Additionally, individuals with ADHD may also experience symptoms of depression and anxiety as a result of their ADHD symptoms and the challenges they face in daily life. Therefore, it is common for adults with ADHD to be initially misdiagnosed with these other conditions before receiving a proper diagnosis of ADHD.

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  • 11. 

    Irlen's syndrome:

    • Colored lenses for learning disorders

    • Larger Print for vision impaired children

    • Reading to child instead of them reading for learning disorders

    • Special education class for learning disorders

    Correct Answer
    A. Colored lenses for learning disorders
    Explanation
    Colored lenses have been found to be effective in managing symptoms of Irlen's syndrome, a perceptual processing disorder. People with this syndrome often experience difficulties with reading and visual processing due to sensitivity to certain light wavelengths. Colored lenses can help filter out specific wavelengths of light, reducing visual distortions and improving reading fluency. This intervention is commonly used to alleviate symptoms and improve reading skills in individuals with learning disorders associated with Irlen's syndrome.

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  • 12. 

    Reassessment for learning disorders is needed every ______ years: 

    • 15

    • 2

    • 9

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    Reassessment for learning disorders is needed every 5 years because it is important to regularly evaluate and monitor the progress and needs of individuals with learning disorders. This allows for adjustments to be made in interventions and support services to ensure that they are effective and meeting the individual's needs. Additionally, reassessment helps to identify any changes or developments in the individual's learning abilities and challenges over time.

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  • 13. 

    This conduct disorder is diagnosed by DSM by the following: aggression towards people or animals; destruction of property; theft; deceitfulness; serious violation of rules

    • Conduct Disorder

    • Learning Disorder

    • Oppositional Defiant Disorder

    • ADHD

    Correct Answer
    A. Conduct Disorder
    Explanation
    Conduct Disorder is diagnosed by the DSM based on specific criteria, including aggression towards people or animals, destruction of property, theft, deceitfulness, and serious violation of rules. These behaviors are indicative of a pattern of conduct that goes beyond typical childhood misbehavior. Conduct Disorder is a serious mental health condition that often requires intervention and treatment to address the underlying issues contributing to the disruptive behaviors.

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  • 14. 

    Which type of conduct disorder has the best prognosis: 

    • Childhood - Onset

    • Adolescent - Onset

    Correct Answer
    A. Adolescent - Onset
    Explanation
    Adolescent-Onset conduct disorder has a better prognosis compared to Childhood-Onset conduct disorder. This is because individuals with Adolescent-Onset conduct disorder tend to have a higher likelihood of desisting from their antisocial behaviors as they mature into adulthood. They may also be more responsive to interventions and treatment. On the other hand, Childhood-Onset conduct disorder is associated with a more persistent and severe pattern of antisocial behavior, which often continues into adulthood.

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  • 15. 

    What is the best treatment for CD (conduct disorder)?

    • Play Therapy

    • Putting deviant youth together

    • PMT (Parent Management Training)

    • Psychodynamic Therapy

    Correct Answer
    A. PMT (Parent Management Training)
    Explanation
    PMT (Parent Management Training) is considered the best treatment for Conduct Disorder (CD) because it focuses on improving parenting skills and behavior management techniques. It helps parents learn effective strategies to set clear expectations, establish consistent discipline, and reinforce positive behaviors. This therapy also addresses communication problems within the family and helps parents develop a strong and supportive relationship with their child. By teaching parents how to effectively manage their child's behavior, PMT aims to reduce aggressive and disruptive behaviors commonly associated with CD and promote healthier family dynamics.

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  • 16. 

    Typical manifestations of Conduct Disorder: (select all that apply)

    • No remorse

    • Respect for others

    • Cheerful

    • Extreme number of tattoos/piercings

    • Blames others

    • Early onset of sexual behavior

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. No remorse
    A. Extreme number of tattoos/piercings
    A. Blames others
    A. Early onset of sexual behavior
    Explanation
    The correct answer choices for the question are "No remorse, Extreme number of tattoos/piercings, Blames others, Early onset of sexual behavior." These manifestations are commonly seen in individuals with Conduct Disorder. Conduct Disorder is a psychiatric condition characterized by persistent patterns of behavior that violate the rights of others and societal norms. Lack of remorse, excessive body modifications like tattoos and piercings, blaming others for their actions, and engaging in early sexual behavior are all typical manifestations of this disorder.

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  • 17. 

    Diagnosis of ODD occurs when the child does not fit into the criteria of  Conduct Disorder 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD) and Conduct Disorder (CD) are two separate diagnoses with distinct criteria. ODD is characterized by a pattern of defiant and disobedient behavior, while CD involves more severe and aggressive behaviors. If a child's behavior does not meet the criteria for CD but aligns with the symptoms of ODD, a diagnosis of ODD would be appropriate. Therefore, the child would not fit into the criteria of CD, leading to a diagnosis of ODD.

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  • 18. 

    Pervasive Developmental Disorder is also known as: 

    • Mental Retardation

    • Autism Spectrum Disorder

    • PKU

    Correct Answer
    A. Autism Spectrum Disorder
    Explanation
    Pervasive Developmental Disorder is another term for Autism Spectrum Disorder. Autism Spectrum Disorder is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by difficulties in social interaction, communication, and restricted and repetitive patterns of behavior. The term "pervasive" refers to the fact that these difficulties are present across various areas of a person's life. Mental Retardation and PKU are unrelated conditions and not synonymous with Pervasive Developmental Disorder.

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  • 19. 

    DSM diagnostic for ASD (Autism Spectrum Disorder):

    • Abnormal functioning prior to age 3 in social interaction, language in social communication and symbolic or imaginative play

    • Impulsive behavior

    • Impairment in communication and social interactions

    • Restrictive repetitive patterns of behaviors, interest and activities

    • Actively defies requests/rules

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Abnormal functioning prior to age 3 in social interaction, language in social communication and symbolic or imaginative play
    A. Impairment in communication and social interactions
    A. Restrictive repetitive patterns of behaviors, interest and activities
    Explanation
    The DSM diagnostic criteria for Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) include abnormal functioning prior to age 3 in social interaction, language in social communication, and symbolic or imaginative play. Additionally, individuals with ASD may exhibit impairments in communication and social interactions, as well as display restrictive and repetitive patterns of behaviors, interests, and activities. The presence of these symptoms can help diagnose ASD.

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  • 20. 

    Irrational fear that produces a conscious avoidance of the feared subject, activity or situation

    • Phobia

    • Anxiety

    • Panic

    • Separation Anxiety

    Correct Answer
    A. Phobia
    Explanation
    A phobia is an irrational fear that causes a person to consciously avoid the feared subject, activity, or situation. This fear is excessive and disproportionate to any actual danger posed by the object or situation. It can be debilitating and interfere with daily life. Phobias are different from anxiety or panic, which are more general terms. Separation anxiety, on the other hand, refers specifically to the fear of being separated from a loved one or attachment figure. Therefore, the best fit for the given description is phobia.

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  • 21. 

    Often, physical symptoms occur in separation anxiety, such as headaches, nausea and stomachaches. 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Physical symptoms often occur in separation anxiety, such as headaches, nausea, and stomachaches. This means that individuals who experience separation anxiety may exhibit these physical symptoms as a result of their anxiety. Therefore, the statement "Often, physical symptoms occur in separation anxiety, such as headaches, nausea, and stomachaches" is true.

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  • 22. 

    At-risk population for Separation Anxiety: 

    • Threatening events

    • Bullying

    • Loss of a family member

    • Frequent relocations

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Threatening events
    A. Loss of a family member
    A. Frequent relocations
    Explanation
    Separation anxiety is a psychological condition characterized by excessive fear or distress when separated from a person or place that provides security. The at-risk population for separation anxiety includes individuals who have experienced threatening events, such as traumatic experiences or abuse, which can contribute to their fear of separation. Additionally, the loss of a family member can also trigger separation anxiety, as it disrupts the individual's sense of security and attachment. Frequent relocations can also be a risk factor, as it can lead to a lack of stability and continuity in the individual's environment, causing anxiety when separated from familiar surroundings.

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  • 23. 

    Usually body weight of an anorexia nervosa client is ____ % under normal body weight. 

    • 5-10

    • 15-25

    • 40-50

    • 80

    Correct Answer
    A. 15-25
    Explanation
    Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image. Clients with anorexia nervosa typically have a significantly low body weight. The correct answer, 15-25%, indicates that the body weight of an anorexia nervosa client is usually 15-25% below their normal body weight. This range reflects the severity of the disorder and the extent to which the individual's weight has been compromised.

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  • 24. 

    Many times bulimia and anorexia nervosa overlap. 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    In about 50% of the cases

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  • 25. 

    Key to diagnosis of Anorexia Nervosa:

    • 3 missed periods in a year

    • 3 missed periods in 6 months

    • 3 consecutive missed periods

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 consecutive missed periods
    Explanation
    The key to diagnosing Anorexia Nervosa is the occurrence of 3 consecutive missed periods. This is because the extreme weight loss and malnutrition associated with anorexia can disrupt the hormonal balance in the body, leading to the absence of menstruation. The consecutive nature of the missed periods indicates a consistent pattern and further suggests the presence of an underlying eating disorder.

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  • 26. 

    Average age of diagnosis of Anorexia Nervosa:

    • 12 - 14 Years Old

    • 18 - 21 Years Old

    • 6-10 Years Old

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 - 14 Years Old
    Explanation
    The average age of diagnosis of Anorexia Nervosa is 12-14 years old. This means that most individuals with this eating disorder are typically diagnosed during this age range. Anorexia Nervosa is a serious mental illness characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight, distorted body image, and severe restriction of food intake. Early diagnosis is crucial for timely intervention and treatment to prevent further health complications and promote recovery.

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  • 27. 

    Average age of diagnosis of Bulimia:

    • 8-10 Years Old

    • 12 - 14 Years Old

    • 18-21 Years Old

    Correct Answer
    A. 18-21 Years Old
  • 28. 

    Swollen parotid glands are a sign of: 

    • Anorexia Nervosa

    • Bulimia

    Correct Answer
    A. Bulimia
    Explanation
    Swollen parotid glands are a common symptom of bulimia. Bulimia is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging, usually through self-induced vomiting. The repeated vomiting can cause the salivary glands, including the parotid glands, to become swollen. This is because the excessive vomiting irritates and inflames the glands, leading to their enlargement. Therefore, the correct answer is Bulimia.

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  • 29. 

    Russell's sign: 

    • Spot of knuckles from inducing vomiting

    • Pouch of fluid that collects in abdomen

    • Enamel erosion

    Correct Answer
    A. Spot of knuckles from inducing vomiting
    Explanation
    Russell's sign refers to the presence of calluses or bruises on the knuckles, which are caused by repeatedly inducing vomiting. This behavior is commonly seen in individuals with eating disorders, such as bulimia nervosa. The act of inducing vomiting involves placing the fingers down the throat, which leads to friction and trauma on the knuckles. Therefore, the presence of knuckle spots is indicative of a history of self-induced vomiting.

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  • 30. 

    Which eating disorder causes bradycardia and arrhythmias

    • Anorexia Nervosa

    • Bulimia

    Correct Answer
    A. Anorexia Nervosa
    Explanation
    Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by severe restriction of food intake, leading to significant weight loss. This extreme calorie restriction can cause numerous complications, including bradycardia (slow heart rate) and arrhythmias (abnormal heart rhythms). The body's metabolism slows down in response to the lack of nutrients, which can lead to a decrease in heart rate and potentially disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, resulting in arrhythmias. Therefore, anorexia nervosa is the eating disorder that is associated with bradycardia and arrhythmias.

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  • 31. 

    Which eating disorder an increased risk of osteoporosis (reduction in bone density)

    • Anorexia Nervosa

    • Bulimia

    Correct Answer
    A. Anorexia Nervosa
    Explanation
    Anorexia Nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by severe restriction of food intake, leading to significant weight loss. This disorder often involves an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image. People with Anorexia Nervosa often have nutritional deficiencies, including a lack of calcium and vitamin D, which are essential for maintaining healthy bones. The lack of these nutrients, combined with hormonal changes and decreased estrogen levels, can result in a reduction in bone density and an increased risk of osteoporosis.

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  • 32. 

    Which eating disorder have an increased risk for cavities

    • Anorexia Nervosa

    • Bulimia

    Correct Answer
    A. Bulimia
    Explanation
    Bulimia is an eating disorder characterized by episodes of binge eating followed by purging, which can involve self-induced vomiting or excessive exercise. The repeated exposure of teeth to stomach acid during purging can erode the protective enamel, leading to an increased risk of cavities. This is why individuals with bulimia have a higher risk for cavities compared to those with anorexia nervosa, which does not involve purging behaviors.

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  • 33. 

    Slow, lethargic, wears baggy layered clothing

    • Anorexia Nervosa

    • Bulimia

    Correct Answer
    A. Anorexia Nervosa
    Explanation
    The given characteristics of being slow, lethargic, and wearing baggy layered clothing are commonly associated with Anorexia Nervosa. Anorexia Nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight, leading to severe restriction of food intake and a distorted body image. People with Anorexia Nervosa often exhibit low energy levels, sluggishness, and a desire to hide their thinness by wearing loose-fitting clothes. These symptoms align with the description provided, making Anorexia Nervosa the correct answer.

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  • 34. 

    Normal appearance, open and talkative

    • Anorexia Nervosa

    • Bulimia

    Correct Answer
    A. Bulimia
    Explanation
    The given answer, "Bulimia," is correct because it is a disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors such as self-induced vomiting, excessive exercise, or the use of laxatives or diuretics. People with bulimia often maintain a normal body weight, so their appearance may not indicate the disorder. However, they may exhibit signs of being open and talkative, as they may feel a sense of relief or release after purging. Anorexia nervosa, on the other hand, is characterized by severe restriction of food intake and a distorted body image, leading to low body weight.

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  • 35. 

    Sad and anxious, seldom laughs or smiles

    • Anorexia Nervosa

    • Bulimia

    Correct Answer
    A. Anorexia Nervosa
    Explanation
    The given answer, Anorexia Nervosa, is the most appropriate choice because it aligns with the description provided. Anorexia Nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight, leading to severe weight loss. Individuals with this disorder often experience sadness, anxiety, and a lack of enjoyment, resulting in a diminished ability to laugh or smile. This explanation fits the given symptoms and is consistent with the diagnostic criteria for Anorexia Nervosa.

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  • 36. 

    Mild confusion, and difficulty concentrating

    • Anorexia Nervosa

    • Bulimia

    Correct Answer
    A. Anorexia Nervosa
    Explanation
    Mild confusion and difficulty concentrating are symptoms commonly associated with Anorexia Nervosa. This eating disorder is characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight, leading to severe restriction of food intake. The inadequate nutrition and extreme weight loss associated with Anorexia Nervosa can cause cognitive impairments, including difficulty concentrating and confusion. These symptoms may be a result of the brain not receiving enough nutrients and energy to function properly. Bulimia, another eating disorder mentioned in the question, is not typically associated with these specific symptoms.

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  • 37. 

    Preoccupied with food and has magical thinking (if I were thinner everything would be perfect)

    • Anorexia Nervosa

    • Bulimia

    Correct Answer
    A. Anorexia Nervosa
    Explanation
    The given answer suggests that the individual is preoccupied with food and has magical thinking, believing that if they were thinner, everything would be perfect. This is a characteristic feature of Anorexia Nervosa, an eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image. People with Anorexia Nervosa often restrict their food intake severely, leading to significant weight loss and potential health complications. Bulimia, on the other hand, involves episodes of binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors such as purging or excessive exercise, which is not mentioned in the given information. Therefore, Anorexia Nervosa is the most fitting diagnosis based on the provided description.

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  • 38. 

    Embarrassment, shame and guilt; hides food

    • Anorexia Nervosa

    • Bulimia

    Correct Answer
    A. Bulimia
    Explanation
    Bulimia is the correct answer because it is characterized by episodes of binge eating followed by purging behaviors, such as self-induced vomiting or the use of laxatives. People with bulimia often feel a sense of shame, guilt, and embarrassment about their eating behaviors, which leads them to hide their food or engage in secretive eating. This behavior is different from anorexia nervosa, which involves severe restriction of food intake and a distorted body image.

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  • 39. 

    Hypokalemia, hyponatremia and dehydration are concerns for eating disorders

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Hypokalemia, hyponatremia, and dehydration are commonly associated with eating disorders. Hypokalemia refers to low levels of potassium in the blood, which can occur due to inadequate intake of food. Hyponatremia is characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood, often caused by excessive fluid intake or purging behaviors. Dehydration is a common consequence of eating disorders, as individuals may restrict their fluid intake. Therefore, it is true that these conditions are concerns for eating disorders.

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  • 40. 

    Priority of medical management for eating disorders: 

    • Cardiac Issues

    • Cognitive Therapy

    • Increase of body weight to 5-10% within normal limits

    Correct Answer
    A. Cardiac Issues
    Explanation
    The priority of medical management for eating disorders is cardiac issues. This means that addressing and treating any heart-related problems caused by the eating disorder is the most important aspect of medical care. Eating disorders can have severe effects on the heart, such as arrhythmias, electrolyte imbalances, and heart failure. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize the treatment of cardiac issues to ensure the patient's safety and well-being.

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  • 41. 

    Medications that can be given to eating disorder patients: 

    • Thyroid supplements

    • Laxatives

    • Antidepressants

    • Nausea medications

    • Vitamins

    • Calcium

    • Diuretics

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Thyroid supplements
    A. Antidepressants
    A. Vitamins
    A. Calcium
    Explanation
    Eating disorder patients may experience imbalances in their hormones and neurotransmitters, leading to various physical and mental health issues. Thyroid supplements can help regulate thyroid function, which can be affected by eating disorders. Antidepressants can be prescribed to address underlying depression or anxiety that may contribute to the development or maintenance of the eating disorder. Vitamins and calcium are essential nutrients that may be deficient in individuals with eating disorders due to restricted food intake. Supplementing these nutrients can help support overall health and prevent deficiencies.

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  • 42. 

    Eating disorder patients may not exercise at all

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Eating disorder patients may engage in excessive exercise as a way to control their weight or compensate for their eating habits. This behavior is commonly seen in disorders like anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa. Therefore, the statement that eating disorder patients may not exercise at all is incorrect.

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  • 43. 

    Diagnostic IQ level for Mental Retardation

    • Under 70

    • Under 20

    • Under 90

    • Under 60

    Correct Answer
    A. Under 70
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Under 70". This is because a diagnostic IQ level for mental retardation is typically defined as having an IQ score below 70. IQ scores are a measure of a person's intelligence relative to the general population, and a score below 70 indicates significantly below average intelligence.

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  • 44. 

    Another name for Intellectual Development Disorder

    • Conduct Disorder

    • Mental Retardation

    • Phobia

    Correct Answer
    A. Mental Retardation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Mental Retardation." Intellectual Development Disorder is another name for Mental Retardation. This condition is characterized by significant limitations in intellectual functioning and adaptive behavior, which affects a person's ability to learn and function independently in daily life. The term "Mental Retardation" is an older term that has been replaced by "Intellectual Development Disorder" in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5).

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  • 45. 

    Absence of phenylalanine hydroxylase: 

    • Fragile X

    • Down Syndrome

    • PKU

    Correct Answer
    A. PKU
    Explanation
    PKU stands for Phenylketonuria, a genetic disorder caused by the absence or deficiency of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase. This enzyme is responsible for breaking down the amino acid phenylalanine. Without it, phenylalanine builds up in the body and can cause intellectual disability, developmental delays, and other health problems. Fragile X and Down Syndrome are unrelated genetic disorders and do not involve the absence of phenylalanine hydroxylase.

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  • 46. 

    The Guthrie blood test is used to test for: 

    • PKU

    • Fragile X

    • Down Syndrome

    • Tourette's Syndrome

    Correct Answer
    A. PKU
    Explanation
    The Guthrie blood test is used to test for PKU, which stands for Phenylketonuria. PKU is a genetic disorder that affects the body's ability to break down an amino acid called phenylalanine. This test is commonly performed on newborn babies to detect the presence of high levels of phenylalanine in their blood, which can lead to intellectual disabilities and other health problems if left untreated. The Guthrie blood test involves collecting a small blood sample from the baby's heel and analyzing it for phenylalanine levels.

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  • 47. 

    Approved foods for mother and child with PKU: (select all that apply)

    • Fruits

    • Vegetables

    • Diet soda

    • Beans

    • Low protein breads

    • Meat and fish

    • Dairy

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Fruits
    A. Vegetables
    A. Low protein breads
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Fruits, Vegetables, and Low protein breads. These foods are approved for mothers and children with PKU because they are low in protein. PKU (Phenylketonuria) is a genetic disorder that affects the body's ability to break down an amino acid called phenylalanine, which is found in protein-rich foods. Therefore, individuals with PKU need to limit their intake of protein and rely on low protein alternatives like fruits, vegetables, and low protein breads to meet their nutritional needs. Diet soda, beans, meat, fish, and dairy are not suitable for individuals with PKU as they contain higher levels of protein.

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  • 48. 

    Formulas approved for infants

    • Pregestimil

    • Lofenalac

    • Prophree

    • Gentlease

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Lofenalac
    A. Prophree
    Explanation
    The given answer includes the formulas that are approved for infants, specifically Lofenalac and Prophree. These formulas are designed to meet the nutritional needs of infants and are safe for consumption. Pregestimil and Gentlease are not included in the answer, indicating that they may not be approved for infants or may not be suitable for all infants due to specific dietary requirements or health conditions.

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  • 49. 

    Normal level of serum phenylalanine: 

    • 10 mg/dl

    • 2 mg/dl

    • 16 mg/dl

    • 25 mg/dl

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 mg/dl
    Explanation
    The normal level of serum phenylalanine is 2 mg/dl. This is the correct answer because it is within the normal range for serum phenylalanine levels. If the level was too high or too low, it could indicate a potential health issue.

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