Genomics Mc - All - Random

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1. Which of the following sequence modules is NOT a basal promoter element?

Explanation

The TATA box is not a basal promoter element because it is a core promoter element. Basal promoter elements are sequences of DNA that are recognized by transcription factors and are essential for transcription initiation. The TATA box is specifically recognized by the TATA-binding protein (TBP) and helps to position RNA polymerase II at the transcription start site. In contrast, the CAAT box, GC box, and Octamer module are examples of basal promoter elements that are involved in the recruitment of transcription factors and the assembly of the transcription initiation complex.

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RNA Structure Quizzes & Trivia

The 'Genomics MC - All - Random' quiz explores key concepts in genomics, testing understanding of genome structures, genetic information flow, and molecular biology. It assesses critical knowledge... see morein DNA, RNA, and protein roles, enhancing learner's comprehension of genetic mechanisms. see less

2. Which type of bonds link the individual nucleotides together in DNA?

Explanation

Phosphodiester bonds link the individual nucleotides together in DNA. These bonds form between the phosphate group of one nucleotide and the sugar group of another nucleotide, creating a strong backbone for the DNA molecule. This bond is important for maintaining the stability and integrity of the DNA structure. Glycosidic bonds are found in carbohydrates, peptide bonds are found in proteins, and electrostatic bonds are formed due to the attraction between positively and negatively charged particles.

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3. Which of the following types of sequence module enables transcription to respond to general signals from outside of the cell?

Explanation

Response modules enable transcription to respond to general signals from outside of the cell. These modules are responsible for activating or repressing gene expression in response to specific environmental cues or stimuli. They allow cells to adapt and adjust their gene expression patterns in order to survive and function optimally in different conditions.

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4. Which type of amino acid is acetylated within the N-terminal regions of histone proteins?

Explanation

Lysine is the correct answer because it is the amino acid that is acetylated within the N-terminal regions of histone proteins. Acetylation of lysine residues in histones plays a crucial role in regulating gene expression and chromatin structure. This modification is involved in various cellular processes such as DNA repair, transcription, and cell cycle regulation. Arginine, serine, and tyrosine are also important amino acids, but they are not typically acetylated within the N-terminal regions of histone proteins.

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5. Somatic cells are those that:

Explanation

Somatic cells are the cells that make up the majority of human cells and contain a diploid set of chromosomes. This means that they have two sets of chromosomes, one from each parent. Somatic cells are not involved in the production of gametes (sex cells) and do not give rise to them. They also contain mitochondria, which are the powerhouses of the cell responsible for generating energy.

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6. How is the sporulation pathway in Bacillus activated?

Explanation

A lack of nutrients signals the activation of the SpoOA protein by phosphorylation. In Bacillus, when there is a scarcity of nutrients, the SpoOA protein is activated through the process of phosphorylation. This means that a phosphate group is added to the SpoOA protein, which triggers its activation and initiates the sporulation pathway. This mechanism allows Bacillus to adapt to nutrient-depleted environments and enter a dormant state, forming highly resistant spores until conditions improve.

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7. What is the function of the initiation factor eIF-6!

Explanation

The function of the initiation factor eIF-6 is to prevent the large ribosomal subunit from attaching to the small subunit in the cytoplasm. This is important because it ensures that the ribosome does not prematurely assemble before reaching the initiation codon on the mRNA. By preventing the attachment of the large subunit, eIF-6 helps regulate the initiation of protein synthesis and ensures proper translation of mRNA.

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8. Which type of covalent bond is important for linking cysteine residues located at various places in a polypeptide?

Explanation

Disulfide bridges are important for linking cysteine residues located at various places in a polypeptide. These bridges form when two cysteine residues come close together and the sulfur atoms in their side chains bond to each other, creating a covalent bond. This bond helps stabilize the tertiary structure of the protein by creating a bridge between different regions of the polypeptide chain. Hydrogen bonds are important for stabilizing secondary structures like alpha helices and beta sheets. Peptide bonds link amino acids together to form the polypeptide chain. Phosphodiester bonds are found in nucleic acids, not proteins.

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9. E. coli cells take up plasmid DNA in laboratory experiments by which of the following methods?

Explanation

In laboratory experiments, E. coli cells take up plasmid DNA through a process called transformation. Transformation involves the uptake of exogenous DNA by the bacterial cells, which can then be incorporated into their own genetic material. This process is commonly used in genetic engineering and molecular biology experiments to introduce specific genes or DNA sequences into bacterial cells for various purposes such as gene expression studies or production of recombinant proteins. Conjugation involves the transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells through direct cell-to-cell contact, electrophoresis is a technique used to separate DNA fragments based on their size and charge, and transduction involves the transfer of DNA between bacterial cells through a viral vector.

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10. Which of the following is NOT a factor that limits the accuracy of genetic maps for humans and other complex eukaryotic organisms?

Explanation

Genetic mapping is a technique used to determine the location of genes on a chromosome. However, it is not limited to just genes but can also include markers or other DNA sequences. The given answer suggests that genetic mapping only uses genes, which is incorrect. In reality, genetic mapping can involve various markers and DNA sequences to map entire genomes. Therefore, this is not a factor that limits the accuracy of genetic maps for humans and other complex eukaryotic organisms.

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11. Why are centromeres often not included in a draft genome sequence?

Explanation

Centromeres are regions of DNA that play a crucial role in the separation of chromosomes during cell division. They are composed of repetitive DNA sequences, which make it challenging to accurately sequence them using current sequencing technologies. The repetitive nature of centromeric DNA leads to difficulties in assembling the sequence data, as it can result in errors and gaps in the final genome sequence. Therefore, centromeres are often not included in a draft genome sequence due to the difficulty in obtaining an accurate sequence for these long regions of repetitive DNA.

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12. The enzyme reverse transcriptase is present in which type of viruses?

Explanation

Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme that allows the synthesis of DNA from an RNA template. It is unique to retroviruses, which are RNA viruses that can convert their RNA genome into DNA using reverse transcriptase. This DNA can then be integrated into the host cell's genome, allowing the virus to replicate and persist within the host. Prions, prophages, and virusoids do not possess reverse transcriptase and therefore do not use this enzyme for replication.

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13. Which of the following DNA sequences can increase the rate of transcription initiation and may be located hundreds of base pairs upstream or downstream from the genes they regulate?

Explanation

Enhancers are DNA sequences that can increase the rate of transcription initiation and can be located hundreds of base pairs upstream or downstream from the genes they regulate. They interact with specific proteins called activators to enhance transcription by looping the DNA and bringing the activators in close proximity to the promoter region. Silencers, on the other hand, decrease the rate of transcription initiation, while terminators signal the end of transcription. Therefore, enhancers are the correct answer as they specifically fulfill the given criteria.

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14. What are cryptic splice sites?

Explanation

Cryptic splice sites are sequences within exons or introns that resemble consensus splicing signals, but are not true splice sites. These sequences can potentially be recognized and utilized by the splicing machinery, leading to alternative splicing events. However, unlike true splice sites, cryptic splice sites may not always be used and their usage can vary between different cells or contexts. This can result in the removal of exons from some mRNA molecules, contributing to the diversity of gene expression and protein isoforms.

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15. Which factor is thought to be most important in determining whether a bacterial RNA polymerase continues or terminates transcription?

Explanation

Methylation of terminator sequences is thought to be the most important factor in determining whether a bacterial RNA polymerase continues or terminates transcription. Methylation refers to the addition of a methyl group to the DNA sequence, and in this case, it occurs at the terminator sequences. Methylation of the terminator sequences helps in recruiting specific proteins that signal the termination of transcription, leading to the release of RNA polymerase from the DNA template. This process plays a crucial role in regulating gene expression and ensuring accurate transcription termination.

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16. The proteins that bind to DNA in the nucleosome and form a core octamer are called:

Explanation

Histones are the proteins that bind to DNA in the nucleosome and form a core octamer. They play a crucial role in organizing and compacting DNA within the nucleus. Histones have a positive charge, which allows them to interact with the negatively charged DNA backbone, facilitating the formation of nucleosomes. The core octamer consists of two copies each of four different histone proteins: H2A, H2B, H3, and H4. Together, these histones help maintain the structure and stability of chromatin, which is the complex of DNA and proteins in the nucleus.

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17. What is a plasmid?

Explanation

A plasmid is a small, usually circular DNA molecule that exists independently of the main chromosome. It is often found in bacteria and can replicate independently. Plasmids can carry additional genes that are not essential for the survival of the organism but can provide advantages such as antibiotic resistance or the ability to produce certain proteins. These extra genes can be transferred between bacteria through processes like conjugation, allowing for the spread of beneficial traits.

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18. The attachment site for RNA polymerase in bacteria is called the:

Explanation

The attachment site for RNA polymerase in bacteria is called the promoter. The promoter is a specific DNA sequence located upstream of a gene, and it serves as a recognition site for RNA polymerase to bind and initiate transcription. It plays a crucial role in regulating gene expression by determining when and how much RNA is produced from a particular gene. The promoter region contains various elements, such as the TATA box, that help in positioning and activating the RNA polymerase enzyme for transcription to occur.

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19. Which of the following enzymes are used to degrade DNA molecules?

Explanation

Nucleases are enzymes that are used to degrade DNA molecules. They break down the DNA by cleaving the phosphodiester bonds that hold the nucleotides together. Nucleases can be specific to either single-stranded or double-stranded DNA, and they play a crucial role in various biological processes such as DNA repair, DNA replication, and gene regulation. DNA polymerases, on the other hand, are responsible for synthesizing new DNA strands during replication and repair. Ligases are involved in joining DNA fragments together, and kinases are enzymes that phosphorylate molecules, but they are not directly involved in degrading DNA molecules.

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20. Which of the following polymerases does not require a template?

Explanation

Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT) is the correct answer because it is an enzyme that adds nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA strands in a template-independent manner. Unlike other polymerases, TdT does not require a template strand to synthesize DNA. It is commonly used in laboratory techniques such as DNA sequencing and gene cloning, where the addition of non-templated nucleotides is desired.

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21. The difference between mitosis and meiosis is that mitosis is characterized by:

Explanation

Mitosis is a type of cell division in which a single cell divides into two identical daughter cells. This process results in the production of two diploid cells, meaning they have the same number of chromosomes as the parental cell. Additionally, these cells are genetically identical to the parental cell, as there is no exchange of DNA or crossing-over between homologous chromosomes during mitosis. Therefore, the correct answer is that mitosis is characterized by the production of two diploid cells that are genetically identical to the parental cell.

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22. RNA interference works by which of the following methods?

Explanation

RNA interference (RNAi) is a biological process that regulates gene expression. It involves the use of short, double-stranded RNA molecules that can bind to specific mRNA molecules. Once bound, these RNA molecules trigger the degradation of the mRNA, preventing it from being translated into protein. This method effectively silences the expression of the targeted gene. Therefore, the correct answer is "Using short, double-stranded RNA molecules that will cause the degradation of an mRNA molecule."

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23. How are the different nucleotides (A, C, G, or T) labeled in a chain termination sequencing reaction?

Explanation

In a chain termination sequencing reaction, the different dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs) are labeled with different fluorescent dyes. This allows for the identification of the nucleotide at each position in the DNA sequence. The ddNTPs are incorporated into the growing DNA chain during the sequencing reaction, causing chain termination. The terminated fragments are then separated by size using capillary electrophoresis, and the fluorescent dye attached to each ddNTP emits a specific wavelength of light, which is detected and used to determine the sequence of the DNA.

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24. Heterochromatin is defined as:

Explanation

Heterochromatin is defined as chromatin that is relatively condensed and contains inactive genes. This means that the DNA in heterochromatin is tightly packed and not accessible for gene expression. Inactive genes are typically found in heterochromatin because the condensed structure prevents the transcription machinery from accessing the DNA and initiating gene expression. In contrast, euchromatin is a more relaxed and open structure that contains active genes, allowing for gene expression to occur.

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25. Which of the following is able to prevent gene expression when inserted between a gene and its regulatory sequences?

Explanation

An insulator sequence is able to prevent gene expression when inserted between a gene and its regulatory sequences. Insulator sequences act as barriers that block the interaction between enhancer elements and promoter elements, thereby preventing the activation of the gene. This allows for the regulation of gene expression by physically isolating the gene from its regulatory regions. Functional and structural domains are not specifically involved in preventing gene expression, and a locus control region is responsible for regulating gene expression, rather than preventing it.

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26. What is the role of the Rho protein in termination of transcription?

Explanation

The Rho protein acts as a helicase, which means it actively breaks the base pairs between the template DNA and the RNA transcript. This helicase activity helps in the termination of transcription by separating the RNA transcript from the DNA template.

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27. What is the major transcriptional change that occurs during the stringent response in E. coli?

Explanation

During the stringent response in E. coli, transcription rates are decreased for most genes. The stringent response is a stress response mechanism that occurs when the bacteria experience nutrient limitation. In this state, the bacteria reduce their metabolic activity and conserve energy by downregulating the transcription of most genes. This allows the bacteria to prioritize essential functions and redirect resources towards survival and adaptation. The decreased transcription rates help to conserve energy and ensure the bacteria's survival during unfavorable conditions.

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28. Promoter escape in eukaryotes is associated with:

Explanation

Promoter escape in eukaryotes refers to the process where RNA polymerase moves away from the promoter region and commits to synthesizing RNA. This occurs after the formation of the preinitiation complex and signifies the transition from the initiation phase to the elongation phase of transcription. Once promoter escape happens, RNA polymerase continues to move along the DNA template, synthesizing the RNA transcript.

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29. The degeneracy of the genetic code refers to which of the following?

Explanation

The degeneracy of the genetic code refers to the fact that most amino acids can be encoded by more than one codon. This means that different codons can specify the same amino acid. For example, the amino acid leucine can be encoded by six different codons (UUA, UUG, CUU, CUC, CUA, CUG). This redundancy in the genetic code provides a level of protection against mutations, as a change in one nucleotide may not necessarily result in a change in the encoded amino acid.

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30. Why is the clone contig method useful for the sequencing of eukaryotic genomes?

Explanation

The clone contig method is useful for sequencing eukaryotic genomes because the repetitive sequences present in these genomes would make it challenging and prone to errors to assemble contigs using only the shotgun method. The clone contig method allows researchers to break down the genome into smaller, more manageable fragments by cloning them into vectors. This makes it easier to identify and sequence specific regions of interest, overcoming the difficulties posed by repetitive sequences.

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31. What is an open reading frame (ORF)?

Explanation

An open reading frame (ORF) refers to the nucleotides of a gene that make up the codons specifying amino acids. It represents the portion of the gene that can be translated into a protein. ORFs are important in gene identification and annotation, as they provide information about the potential protein products encoded by a gene. By identifying ORFs, researchers can gain insights into the structure and function of genes and their corresponding proteins.

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32. Lateral gene transfer includes all of the following DNA exchanges EXCEPT:

Explanation

Lateral gene transfer refers to the transfer of genes between different species. This can occur between bacteria and archaea, between archaea and bacteria, and between different species within the same group. However, the fusion of two bacterial species to produce diploid offspring does not involve the transfer of genes between species, but rather the combination of genetic material within the same species. Therefore, it is not considered a form of lateral gene transfer.

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33. Name the researcher who first identified transposons and the organism he or she studied.

Explanation

Barbara McClintock is the correct answer for the researcher who first identified transposons and the organism she studied was maize. McClintock's groundbreaking work in the 1940s and 1950s led to the discovery of transposons, also known as "jumping genes," which are segments of DNA that can move around within the genome. She conducted her research primarily on maize, or corn, and her findings revolutionized our understanding of genetic regulation and the role of transposons in shaping the genome.

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34. Erwin Chargaff studied DNA from various organisms and demonstrated that:

Explanation

Erwin Chargaff's studies on DNA from various organisms showed that the amount of adenine in a given organism is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of cytosine. This observation is known as Chargaff's rules and is a fundamental principle of DNA structure. It provides evidence for the complementary base pairing in DNA, where adenine always pairs with thymine and guanine always pairs with cytosine. This balanced pairing is crucial for DNA replication and the accurate transmission of genetic information.

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35. Which of the following is NOT a biological function of proteins?

Explanation

Proteins play a crucial role in various biological functions. They act as catalysts in biological reactions, regulate cellular processes, and facilitate the transport of molecules in multicellular organisms. However, carrying genetic information is not a biological function of proteins. Genetic information is primarily carried by nucleic acids, specifically DNA and RNA. Proteins, on the other hand, are involved in the expression and regulation of genetic information but do not directly carry it.

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36. Which of the following statements correctly describes the recombination frequency between two genes?

Explanation

The statement that the more distant two genes are to each other on a chromosome, the higher the frequency of recombination will be between them is correct. Recombination is the process by which genetic material is exchanged between homologous chromosomes during meiosis. The farther apart two genes are on a chromosome, the more likely they are to undergo recombination because there is a greater chance for a crossover event to occur between them. This is because the distance between genes on a chromosome determines the likelihood of a crossover event happening during meiosis.

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37. Many scientists doubted that shotgun sequencing would work, even with the smallest genomes, because:

Explanation

The correct answer is that computers would be unable to handle the huge amount of data generated by a shotgun sequencing project. Shotgun sequencing involves breaking genomic DNA into random fragments and then sequencing these fragments. This process generates a large amount of data, which would require significant computational power and storage capacity to handle. Therefore, the doubt expressed by scientists about the feasibility of shotgun sequencing was primarily due to concerns about the computational challenges it posed.

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38. The amplification of mRNA by PCR is called:

Explanation

Reverse transcriptase PCR is the correct answer because it is the process of amplifying mRNA using reverse transcriptase enzyme. Reverse transcriptase enzyme converts mRNA into complementary DNA (cDNA), which can then be amplified using PCR. This technique is commonly used to study gene expression levels and is particularly useful when studying RNA viruses or when the starting material is limited. Real-time PCR, transcriptional PCR, and translational PCR are not accurate terms for the amplification of mRNA by PCR.

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39. What is the bacterial nucleoid?

Explanation

The bacterial nucleoid refers to a lightly staining region of the bacterial cell that contains the genomic DNA. This region is not membrane-bound and is where the DNA is compacted and organized. It is different from a membrane-bound organelle or protein complex, as it is a distinct region within the bacterial cell.

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40. Which technique is used to resolve the different sizes of DNA fragments following a restriction enzyme digest?

Explanation

Gel electrophoresis is a technique used to separate DNA fragments based on their size and charge. In this technique, DNA samples are loaded into wells of a gel matrix and an electric current is applied. The negatively charged DNA molecules move towards the positive electrode, and smaller fragments migrate faster than larger ones. As a result, the DNA fragments are separated into distinct bands based on their size. Gel electrophoresis is commonly used in molecular biology to analyze and compare DNA samples, including those produced by restriction enzyme digestion. Therefore, it is the appropriate technique to resolve the different sizes of DNA fragments following a restriction enzyme digest.

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41. What region of a eukaryotic chromosome contains the highest density of genes?

Explanation

The centromere is the correct answer because it is the region of a eukaryotic chromosome that contains the highest density of genes. The centromere plays a crucial role in chromosome segregation during cell division and is responsible for attaching the chromosomes to the spindle fibers. It is a highly condensed region of DNA and is involved in maintaining the stability and integrity of the chromosome. This dense concentration of genes in the centromere region makes it the region with the highest gene density on a eukaryotic chromosome.

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42. Codon-anticodon interactions occur by:

Explanation

Codon-anticodon interactions occur through hydrogen bonds. Hydrogen bonds are weak chemical bonds that form between the nitrogenous bases of the codon (in mRNA) and the anticodon (in tRNA). These bonds are essential for the accurate pairing of the codon and anticodon during translation, ensuring that the correct amino acid is incorporated into the growing polypeptide chain. Hydrogen bonds are specifically formed between complementary base pairs, such as A-U and G-C, stabilizing the interaction between the codon and anticodon and facilitating the process of protein synthesis.

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43. What is the most common type of covalent modification that activates proteins in signaling pathways?

Explanation

Phosphorylation is the most common type of covalent modification that activates proteins in signaling pathways. Phosphorylation involves the addition of a phosphate group to a protein, which can change its conformation and activity. This modification is important in many cellular processes, including signal transduction and regulation of enzyme activity. It is a reversible modification, allowing for tight control of protein function in response to various signals.

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44. A major problem with the computational assembly of DNA sequences of complex eukaryotic genomes is the presence of:

Explanation

The presence of repetitive sequences is a major problem in the computational assembly of DNA sequences of complex eukaryotic genomes. These repetitive sequences can occur in multiple copies throughout the genome, making it difficult to accurately assemble the DNA sequence. The repetitive nature of these sequences can cause errors in the assembly process, leading to gaps or misalignments in the final sequence. Therefore, addressing the issue of repetitive sequences is crucial in accurately assembling the DNA sequences of complex eukaryotic genomes.

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45. Which of the following are RNA transposons that lack long terminal repeats (LTRs) and are unable to synthesize their own reverse transciptases?

Explanation

SINEs are RNA transposons that lack long terminal repeats (LTRs) and are unable to synthesize their own reverse transcriptases. Retroelements, including ERVs, LINEs, and SINEs, are all types of transposable elements found in genomes. However, only SINEs do not have LTRs and cannot synthesize their own reverse transcriptases.

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46. All three types of restriction enzyme bind to DNA molecules at specific sequences; however. the type II enzymes are favored for research for which of the following reasons?

Explanation

Type II enzymes are favored for research because they cut the DNA at a specific site. This specificity allows researchers to target and manipulate specific regions of the DNA molecule. This is important in various molecular biology techniques such as DNA cloning, gene editing, and DNA sequencing. By cutting the DNA at specific sites, researchers can precisely insert or remove genetic material, study gene function, and analyze DNA sequences.

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47. DNA ligase synthesizes which type of bond?

Explanation

DNA ligase is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in DNA replication and repair. It catalyzes the formation of phosphodiester bonds between adjacent nucleotides, sealing the gaps in the DNA backbone. This process is essential for joining the Okazaki fragments during lagging strand synthesis and repairing DNA damage. Therefore, the correct answer is that DNA ligase synthesizes phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides.

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48. Why is the Klenow enzyme a poor choice for chain termination sequencing reactions?

Explanation

The Klenow enzyme is a poor choice for chain termination sequencing reactions because it has low processivity. This means that it is not able to efficiently replicate long stretches of DNA, limiting the length of the sequence obtained.

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49. Which of the following is an example of a protein domain?

Explanation

A protein domain is a distinct segment within a protein that performs a specific function. It is usually responsible for binding to other molecules or proteins. Among the options given, only the zinc finger is a protein domain. Zinc finger domains are small protein motifs that contain zinc ions coordinated by cysteine and histidine residues. They are involved in DNA binding and have a wide range of functions, including gene regulation and protein-protein interactions. The other options, such as beta sheet, exon, and globin protein, do not represent protein domains.

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50. The specificity of bacterial RNA polymerases for their promoters is due to which subunit?

Explanation

The specificity of bacterial RNA polymerases for their promoters is due to the sigma subunit. The sigma subunit is responsible for recognizing and binding to specific DNA sequences known as promoter regions, which are located upstream of genes. By binding to these promoter regions, the sigma subunit helps to initiate the transcription process by recruiting the RNA polymerase to the correct starting point on the DNA template. Different sigma subunits can recognize different promoter sequences, allowing bacteria to regulate gene expression in response to different environmental conditions.

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51. Antitermination is involved in regulation of which of the following?

Explanation

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52. Which statement correctly describes trans-splicing?

Explanation

Trans-splicing is a process in which exons from different RNA transcripts are joined together. This can result in the creation of a new mRNA sequence that contains exons from multiple transcripts. This process allows for the generation of diverse mRNA sequences and can contribute to the complexity of gene expression.

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53. What is a genomic library?

Explanation

A genomic library is a collection of recombinant molecules with inserts that contain all of an organism's genome. This means that the library contains fragments of DNA from the entire genome of the organism, allowing researchers to study and analyze the genetic information of that organism. The other options are incorrect because they either do not include the entire genome or do not specifically refer to the genetic material of the organism.

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54. PCR is advantageous to gene cloning for all of the following reasons except:

Explanation

PCR is advantageous to gene cloning for all of the following reasons except that PCR does not require that the sequence of the gene be known. PCR is a very rapid technique for the isolation of a gene, requiring very small amounts of starting DNA compared to gene cloning. Additionally, PCR is very useful for mapping DNA markers. However, the lack of requirement for the known gene sequence is not an advantage of PCR over gene cloning.

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55. Orphan families are families of genes that:

Explanation

Orphan families are families of genes that lack homologs in other species. This means that these genes do not have similar counterparts or equivalents in other organisms. This could be due to evolutionary divergence or unique gene acquisition events in a specific species. The absence of homologs suggests that these genes have evolved independently and may have specialized functions specific to the species in which they are found.

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56. De novo methylation of DNA is defined as which of the following?

Explanation

De novo methylation of DNA refers to the process of adding methyl groups to DNA at new positions, which leads to a change in the methylation pattern of the entire genome. This process is important for regulating gene expression and can have significant impacts on the functioning of genes and cellular processes.

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57. Which of the following statements about the specificity of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases is TRUE?

Explanation

Each aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase catalyzes the addition of a single amino acid to a single tRNA molecule. This means that each specific aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase is responsible for attaching a specific amino acid to its corresponding tRNA molecule. This specificity ensures that the correct amino acid is added to the correct tRNA molecule, which is crucial for accurate protein synthesis.

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58. How do steroid hormones, such as estrogen, modulate genome expression in responsive cells?

Explanation

Steroid hormones, such as estrogen, modulate genome expression in responsive cells by binding to receptors in the cytoplasm. Once bound, these receptors migrate to the nucleus where they bind to DNA, thereby regulating genome expression. This process allows the steroid hormones to directly influence gene expression and control various cellular processes.

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59. How were prokaryotic organisms first classified into species?

Explanation

Prokaryotic organisms were first classified into species through staining and biochemical tests. These tests involve staining the organisms to observe their cellular structures and using biochemical methods to analyze their metabolic activities. By comparing the results of these tests, scientists were able to identify and classify different species based on their distinct staining patterns and biochemical characteristics. This method was commonly used before the advent of genetic tests and DNA sequence analyses, which provide more accurate and detailed information for classification.

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60. Which of the following enzymes is specified by a gene present in RNA transposons?

Explanation

RNA transposons are mobile genetic elements that can move from one location to another within a genome via an RNA intermediate. Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme that is capable of reverse transcription, which is the synthesis of DNA from an RNA template. This enzyme is specifically encoded by genes present in RNA transposons, making it the correct answer to the question. DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase are enzymes involved in DNA and RNA synthesis, respectively, but they are not specified by genes present in RNA transposons. Telomerase is an enzyme that adds repetitive DNA sequences to the ends of chromosomes and is not directly related to RNA transposons.

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61. Which type of functional RNA is a primary component of the structures required for protein synthesis?

Explanation

Transfer RNA (tRNA) is a type of functional RNA that plays a crucial role in protein synthesis. It carries amino acids to the ribosome, where they are assembled into a polypeptide chain according to the sequence of codons on the messenger RNA (mRNA). tRNA molecules have a specific anticodon sequence that is complementary to the codon on the mRNA, allowing them to recognize and bind to the appropriate amino acid. Therefore, tRNA is a primary component of the structures required for protein synthesis. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) is also involved in protein synthesis as a structural component of the ribosome, but it is not the primary component. Small nuclear RNA (snRNA) is involved in RNA processing, while messenger RNA (mRNA) carries the genetic information from DNA to the ribosome.

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62. A temperature of 75°C will terminate DNA synthesis by E. coli DNA polymerase I. This is because:

Explanation

At a temperature of 75°C, E. coli DNA polymerase I is denatured. Denaturation refers to the disruption of the protein's structure, leading to the loss of its biological activity. In this case, the high temperature causes the DNA polymerase I enzyme to lose its shape and functionality, rendering it unable to carry out DNA synthesis. Consequently, DNA synthesis is terminated.

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63. Lnterphase chromosomes are useful for fine-scale mapping by fluorescent in situ hybridization because they:

Explanation

Interphase chromosomes are the least condensed type of chromosome, meaning that they are in a more extended and open form compared to chromosomes during other stages of the cell cycle. This makes them ideal for fine-scale mapping by fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) because the less condensed structure allows for easier access to specific DNA sequences. In FISH, fluorescently labeled DNA probes are used to bind to specific target sequences on the chromosomes, and the less condensed structure of interphase chromosomes allows for better visualization and identification of these target sequences.

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64. Radiation hybrid panels provide a useful mechanism for physical mapping because: NOT SURE - STUCK BETWEEN A AND D

Explanation

Radiation hybrid panels are created by fusing human cells with hamster cells, resulting in hybrid cells that contain fragments of the human genome. These hybrid cells can be used to create a physical map of the human genome because each hybrid cell contains only a portion of the human genome. By analyzing the presence or absence of specific genetic markers in the hybrid cells, researchers can determine the order and distance between these markers on the genome. This allows for the construction of a physical map that can be used for various genomic studies.

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65. The yeast genome is 0.004 times the size of the human genome and yet it contains approximately 0.2 times fewer genes. The explanation for this is:

Explanation

The correct answer is that the yeast genome contains much less intergenic DNA and fewer introns. This suggests that the non-coding regions between genes and the non-coding regions within genes (introns) are significantly reduced in yeast compared to humans. This could be a contributing factor to why the yeast genome is smaller and yet contains fewer genes compared to the human genome.

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66. Prions are defined as infectious, disease-causing particles that:

Explanation

Prions are unique infectious particles that consist solely of proteins, without any nucleic acids such as RNA or DNA. These abnormal proteins can induce misfolding of normal proteins, leading to the formation of aggregates and causing various neurodegenerative diseases. The absence of nucleic acids in prions distinguishes them from other infectious agents like viruses or bacteria, which rely on genetic material for replication and transmission.

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67. Mouse embryonic stem cells are used in gene inactivation experiments because they:

Explanation

Mouse embryonic stem cells are used in gene inactivation experiments because they are totipotent and can give rise to all types of differentiated cells. This means that they have the ability to differentiate into any cell type in the body. By manipulating these cells, researchers can introduce gene inactivation techniques to study the function of specific genes. This versatility makes mouse embryonic stem cells a valuable tool in genetic research.

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68. How are genes grouped together via hierarchical clustering?

Explanation

Genes are grouped together via hierarchical clustering based on their expression patterns. This means that genes with similar expression patterns, or genes that are turned on and off in a similar way under different conditions, are grouped together. This clustering method helps to identify genes that are functionally related or involved in similar biological processes. By analyzing expression patterns, scientists can gain insights into gene function and regulatory networks.

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69. Conservative transposition is characterized by which of the following?

Explanation

Conservative transposition refers to the process where a transposon is excised or cut out from its original location in the genome and then inserted at a different location. This process does not involve replication of the transposon, but rather a physical movement. It is called "conservative" because the transposon is moved intact without any changes or duplications. This is different from replicative transposition, where the transposon is replicated before being inserted at a new location. The other options mentioned in the question, such as movement of a transposon from one cell to another or replication of DNA sequences, are not specific to conservative transposition.

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70. Which of the following types of DNA modification results in silencing of a region of the genome in such a way that the silencing can be passed on to offspring:

Explanation

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71. Which of the following is NOT a reason why proteins require assistance in folding during translation or following denaturation?

Explanation

During translation, the partially translated protein is a random coil, unable to fold into any specific conformation. This is not a reason why proteins require assistance in folding during translation or following denaturation. The other options provide valid reasons for why proteins need assistance in folding. After denaturation, proteins may form insoluble aggregates due to an inability to shield their hydrophobic groups from water. After denaturation, proteins may also take up an incorrectly folded but stable state. Additionally, during translation, partially translated proteins might begin to fold incorrectly before the entire protein is synthesized.

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72. What types of signal transduction pathways involve the STAT proteins?

Explanation

Signal transduction pathways involving STAT proteins have a single step between the receptor and the genome. This means that once the receptor is activated by a signal, the STAT proteins are directly phosphorylated and then translocate to the nucleus to regulate gene expression. Unlike other pathways that involve multiple steps or the use of second messengers, the activation of STAT proteins occurs rapidly and efficiently through a direct interaction with the receptor and the genome.

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73. How do DNA-dependent RNA polymerases carry out RNA synthesis?

Explanation

DNA-dependent RNA polymerases carry out RNA synthesis by using DNA as a template for the polymerization of ribonucleotides. This means that they use the sequence of DNA as a guide to create a complementary RNA strand, with each ribonucleotide being added to the growing RNA molecule based on the corresponding nucleotide in the DNA template. This process is essential for the transcription of genes and the production of RNA molecules in cells.

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74. Which enzyme is specified by a gene present in DNA transposons?

Explanation

Transposons are DNA sequences that can change their position within the genome. They contain genes that code for enzymes involved in the transposition process. The enzyme specified by a gene present in DNA transposons is called transposase. Transposase is responsible for recognizing the transposon sequence and catalyzing the movement of the transposon to a new location in the genome. DNA polymerase is involved in DNA replication, RNA polymerase is responsible for transcribing DNA into RNA, and reverse transcriptase is an enzyme found in retroviruses that synthesizes DNA from RNA templates.

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75. What is the role of locus control regions (LCRs) in regulation of gene expression?

Explanation

Locus control regions (LCRs) play a role in the regulation of gene expression by allowing DNA-binding proteins to attach to them and modify the chromatin structure. This modification can either activate or repress gene expression by making the DNA more or less accessible to the transcription machinery. By altering the chromatin structure, LCRs can influence the binding of transcription factors and other regulatory proteins, ultimately controlling the level of gene expression.

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76. The transcriptome of a cell is defined as:

Explanation

The transcriptome of a cell refers to all of the RNA molecules present in the cell. This includes not only protein-coding RNA molecules, but also ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules. The transcriptome provides a snapshot of the genes that are actively being expressed in a cell at a given time, and it plays a crucial role in determining the cell's phenotype and function.

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77. What is the metabolome of a cell?

Explanation

The metabolome of a cell refers to all of the metabolites present in the cell under a specific set of conditions. Metabolites are small molecules that are involved in various biochemical reactions in the cell, including energy production, signaling, and building blocks for macromolecules. This answer choice accurately describes the metabolome as the collection of all metabolites in the cell, highlighting the importance of considering specific conditions that may influence the composition of the metabolome.

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78. What is the centromere of a chromosome?

Explanation

The centromere of a chromosome is the constricted region where the two copies of the chromosome are held together. This region plays a crucial role in the separation of chromosomes during cell division. It is responsible for ensuring that each daughter cell receives an equal and complete set of chromosomes. The centromere contains specialized DNA sequences and proteins that form a structure called the kinetochore, which interacts with the spindle fibers to facilitate chromosome movement.

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79. What is a bacterial operon?

Explanation

A bacterial operon is a group of genes that are involved in a single biochemical pathway and are expressed together. This means that these genes work together to carry out a specific function in the cell. The operon is regulated as a unit, meaning that the expression of all the genes in the operon is controlled by the same regulatory elements. This allows for coordinated regulation of gene expression and efficient utilization of resources within the cell.

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80. Which of the following RNA polymerases is responsible for the transcription of protein-coding genes in eukaryotes?

Explanation

RNA polymerase II is responsible for the transcription of protein-coding genes in eukaryotes. This enzyme transcribes the DNA sequence into a complementary RNA sequence, which serves as a template for protein synthesis. RNA polymerase II is involved in the transcription of mRNA, which carries the genetic information from the DNA to the ribosomes where proteins are synthesized. RNA polymerase I is responsible for transcribing rRNA genes, RNA polymerase III transcribes tRNA and other small non-coding RNA genes, and RNA polymerase IV is found only in plants and is involved in the transcription of siRNA genes.

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81. What changes are made in B cells when they switch from producing IgM or IgD to IgG immunoglobulins?

Explanation

When B cells switch from producing IgM or IgD to IgG immunoglobulins, the genes encoding the constant regions for IgM and IgD are deleted independently of the RAG proteins. This means that the genes responsible for producing IgM and IgD are removed from the genome, allowing the B cells to produce IgG immunoglobulins instead. This change occurs at the genetic level and is not dependent on the RAG proteins, which are involved in the rearrangement of genes during the development of B cells.

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82. The amino acid sequence of the a polypeptide of hemoglobin is more similar to the amino acid sequence of the beta polypeptide of hemoglobin than it is to the amino acid sequence of myoglobin. All these genes share a common evolutionary ancestor. Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between the genes encoding these polypeptides?

Explanation

The given correct answer states that the genes encoding the three polypeptides (a polypeptide of hemoglobin, beta polypeptide of hemoglobin, and myoglobin) are homologs. This means that these genes share a common evolutionary ancestor and have similar amino acid sequences. The statement suggests that the gene encoding the a polypeptide has higher homology to the beta gene compared to the myoglobin gene. However, it does not imply that the genes are homologs only if they are present in the same species.

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83. What are the hubs in a protein interactome netvvork?

Explanation

The hubs in a protein interactome network are proteins that interact with many other proteins in the cell. These proteins play a crucial role in the network by facilitating communication and coordination between different proteins. They act as central nodes, connecting various pathways and modules within the cell, and their interactions are essential for the proper functioning and regulation of cellular processes.

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84. What types of repeated sequences are present in bacterial genomes?

Explanation

Transposable elements are repeated sequences that are present in bacterial genomes. These elements have the ability to move or transpose within the genome, causing changes in the genetic material. They can have significant impacts on the evolution and adaptation of bacteria. Microsatellites and minisatellites are also repeated sequences, but they are not the only types found in bacterial genomes. Prokaryotic genomes do possess repeated sequences, so the statement that they do not is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is transposable elements.

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85. Feedback loops could bring about long-term changes in genome expression by what mechanism?

Explanation

Feedback loops can bring about long-term changes in genome expression through multiple mechanisms. In the first mechanism, a regulatory protein activates its own transcription, leading to continuous expression. In the second mechanism, a regulatory protein represses its own transcription, resulting in permanent silencing. In the third mechanism, a regulatory protein activates another protein that stimulates the expression of the regulatory protein. Therefore, all of these mechanisms can contribute to long-term changes in genome expression through feedback loops.

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86. Whlch of the following are NOT characteristics of the ribosomal RNA multigene families in the human genome?

Explanation

The gene families for each ribosomal subunit are not present throughout the genome on every chromosome. This is because ribosomal RNA multigene families are organized in clusters, known as nucleolar organizing regions (NORs), which are located on specific chromosomes. These NORs contain multiple copies of the genes for ribosomal RNA, allowing for efficient production of ribosomes. Therefore, the correct answer is that the gene families for each ribosomal subunit are not present throughout the genome on every chromosome.

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87. The smallest bacterial genome is several hundred thousand base pairs in length while the human mitochondrial genome is less than 17,000 base paIrs. The smaller size of the mitochondrial genome is due which of the following?

Explanation

The smaller size of the human mitochondrial genome is due to the transfer of genes from the mitochondrial genome to the nucleus. This process, known as gene transfer or gene migration, is a common phenomenon in evolution. Over time, certain genes that were originally present in the mitochondrial genome have been transferred to the nucleus, where they are now located and expressed. This transfer of genes has allowed the mitochondrial genome to become smaller and more streamlined, as some of its original genes are now located in the nucleus and no longer need to be present in the mitochondrial genome.

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88. What is thought to be the origin of the Alu RNA transposon?

Explanation

The Alu RNA transposon is believed to have originated from a cellular noncoding RNA molecule. This is because Alu elements are derived from a specific type of RNA called small nuclear RNA (snRNA), which is involved in splicing and gene regulation. These snRNA molecules are transcribed from noncoding regions of the genome and are thought to have been "captured" and integrated into the genome over evolutionary time. This is supported by the fact that Alu elements share structural similarities with snRNA molecules and are found in the introns of many protein-coding genes.

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89. What is the function of the nucleolus?

Explanation

The nucleolus is responsible for the synthesis and processing of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) molecules. rRNA is an essential component of ribosomes, which are the cellular structures responsible for protein synthesis. The nucleolus contains the genes that code for rRNA and is involved in the assembly of ribosomes. Therefore, it serves as the site for the production and modification of rRNA molecules, making it the correct answer.

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90. Which of the following remodeling events results in a nucleosome being moved to a second DNA molecule?

Explanation

Transfer is the correct answer because it refers to the process of moving a nucleosome from one DNA molecule to another. Acetylation, remodeling, and sliding are all processes that can modify or reposition nucleosomes within the same DNA molecule, but only transfer involves the movement of a nucleosome to a different DNA molecule.

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91. Which of the following techniques, based on migration of DNA fragments in a gel in the presence or absence of proteins, is used to identify proteins that bind to DNA?

Explanation

Gel retardation is a technique used to identify proteins that bind to DNA. It involves migrating DNA fragments in a gel, both in the presence and absence of proteins. When proteins bind to the DNA fragments, they slow down their migration through the gel, resulting in a "retardation" of the movement. By comparing the migration patterns of DNA fragments with and without proteins, researchers can identify and study the proteins that are bound to the DNA. This technique is commonly used in molecular biology and biochemistry research to investigate protein-DNA interactions.

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92. Wobble between a codon and anticodon occurs between:

Explanation

Wobble between a codon and anticodon refers to the ability of certain tRNA molecules to recognize more than one codon. This occurs due to the flexibility in base pairing at the third position of the codon and the first position of the anticodon. The third nucleotide of the codon and the first nucleotide of the anticodon can form non-standard base pairs, such as G-U or I-U, allowing for wobble base pairing. This flexibility in pairing at the third position of the codon and the first position of the anticodon helps to expand the genetic code and increase the efficiency of protein synthesis.

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93. What are inteins?

Explanation

Inteins are internal segments of proteins that are removed after translation. This removal process results in the joining of the external segments of the protein, which were initially separated by the intein. Inteins play a role in protein splicing, where they facilitate the removal of themselves and the subsequent ligation of the flanking protein segments. This process is important for protein structure and function.

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94. What prevents the cells adjacent to the progenitor vulva cells in C. elegans from differentiating into vulva cells?

Explanation

The cells adjacent to the progenitor vulva cells in C. elegans do not differentiate into vulva cells because they receive a signaling compound from a hypodermal cell that deactivates the LlN-3 signal. This signaling compound prevents the activation of the LlN-3 signal, which is necessary for the differentiation of vulva cells. Therefore, these cells are unable to respond to the signal and differentiate into vulva cells.

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95. Which of the following types of vector would be most suitable for introducing DNA into a human cell?

Explanation

Adenovirus would be the most suitable vector for introducing DNA into a human cell because it has the ability to efficiently infect a wide range of cell types, including human cells. Adenoviruses are also capable of carrying larger DNA fragments compared to other vectors, making them ideal for delivering larger genes or gene clusters. Additionally, adenoviruses have a high transduction efficiency, meaning they can effectively deliver the desired DNA into the target cells.

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96. In analyzing a human pedigree to determine how closely two genes are linked, it is best to:

Explanation

To determine how closely two genes are linked, it is best to determine the genotypes of the grandparents. This is because the genes of interest can be inherited from either parent, and by examining the genotypes of the grandparents, we can determine if the genes are on the same chromosome and therefore linked. If the genes are linked, the most common genotypes in the offspring would be the parental genotypes, rather than the recombinants. Performing a test cross can also help determine linkage, but it is not the best approach in this case.

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97. Metaphase chromosomes were initially used for fluorescent in situ hybridization, but the results were somewhat limiting because:

Explanation

Metaphase chromosomes are highly condensed and tightly packed, which limits the resolution of mapping. This means that it is difficult to accurately determine the specific locations of genes or DNA sequences on the chromosomes. The other options mentioned in the question, such as regions of the chromosome being unable to hybridize to probes and the signal diffusing when the chromosomes are relaxed, are also limitations of using metaphase chromosomes for fluorescent in situ hybridization. However, the most significant limitation is the low-resolution mapping due to the condensed nature of the chromosomes.

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98. What is the most difficult and time-consuming aspect of a shotgun sequencing project?

Explanation

The closure of sequence and physical gaps between the sequenced contigs is the most difficult and time-consuming aspect of a shotgun sequencing project. This process involves aligning and assembling the short DNA sequences obtained from the shotgun sequencing into longer contiguous sequences called contigs. Closing the gaps between these contigs requires additional sequencing and experimental techniques, such as PCR and primer walking, which can be labor-intensive and time-consuming.

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99. A consensus sequence for an exon-intron boundary or gene promoter refers to:

Explanation

The consensus sequence for an exon-intron boundary or gene promoter refers to the sequence of nucleotides found most commonly at these sites. This means that although there may be some variation in the actual nucleotide sequence, there are certain nucleotides that are more commonly found in these regions. The consensus sequence represents the most frequently occurring nucleotides in these sites, which can provide important information about the functionality and regulation of genes.

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100. What is the purpose of performing a homology search with a DNA sequence?

Explanation

Performing a homology search with a DNA sequence is done to determine if any genes with similar sequences are present in the DNA databases. This search helps in identifying and comparing sequences that are similar or identical to the query sequence, which can provide valuable information about the function, structure, and evolutionary relationships of the genes. By finding similar sequences, researchers can gain insights into the potential functions and characteristics of the gene of interest and explore its relationship with other genes in the database.

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101. How can two different transcriptomes be studied with a single microarray?

Explanation

Two different transcriptomes can be studied with a single microarray by labeling each transcriptome with different fluorescent probes and then hybridizing them simultaneously. This allows for the identification and analysis of gene expression patterns in both transcriptomes on the same microarray. By using different fluorescent probes, the signals from each transcriptome can be distinguished and analyzed separately, providing valuable information about the gene expression profiles of both transcriptomes in a single experiment.

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102. How can transcriptome studies aid in the diagnosis of human cancers?

Explanation

Transcriptome studies involve analyzing the complete set of RNA molecules in a cell or tissue. Each cancer possesses its own unique transcriptome, meaning that the pattern of gene expression in cancer cells is different from that of healthy cells. By comparing the transcriptomes of cancer cells to those of healthy cells, researchers can identify specific gene expression patterns that are characteristic of different types of cancer. This information can aid in the diagnosis of human cancers by helping to distinguish between different cancer types and guide treatment decisions.

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103. The isoelectric point of a protein is defined as:

Explanation

The isoelectric point of a protein is the pH at which the protein has no net charge. At this pH, the number of positive charges on the protein equals the number of negative charges, resulting in a neutral overall charge. This occurs because at low pH values, the amino acids in the protein will have a positive charge due to the presence of excess protons. As the pH increases, the excess protons are gradually removed, resulting in a decrease in positive charge until the protein reaches its isoelectric point where it becomes neutral. Similarly, at high pH values, the amino acids in the protein will have a negative charge due to the loss of protons.

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104. What is the methylation state of the CpG islands of housekeeping genes?

Explanation

Housekeeping genes are genes that are essential for basic cellular functions and are expressed in all tissues. CpG islands are regions of DNA that contain a high frequency of CpG dinucleotides. Methylation of CpG islands can regulate gene expression. In the case of housekeeping genes, their CpG islands are typically unmethylated. This is because housekeeping genes need to be constantly expressed in all tissues, and methylation can inhibit gene expression. Therefore, the correct answer is "They have unmethylated CpG islands."

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105. Genomic imprinting occurs when:

Explanation

Genomic imprinting occurs when only one of a pair of genes is expressed, while the other gene is methylated and silenced. This phenomenon is due to epigenetic modifications, specifically DNA methylation, which can occur during gamete formation. The methylated gene remains inactive and does not contribute to the development of the organism, while the expressed gene functions normally. This process is important for proper development and can result in altered phenotypes when disrupted.

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106. What is the general mechanism for the initiation of translation in eukaryotes?

Explanation

The small subunit of the ribosome binds to the 5' cap of the mRNA and scans the mRNA for the initiation codon. This is the general mechanism for the initiation of translation in eukaryotes. The 5' cap of the mRNA serves as a recognition site for the small subunit of the ribosome. Once bound, the ribosome scans the mRNA molecule until it finds the initiation codon, which signals the start of translation. This mechanism ensures that translation begins at the correct location on the mRNA molecule.

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107. Which of the following statements about the completion of the human genome sequence in 2000 is FALSE?

Explanation

The completion of the human genome sequence in 2000 did not include the finishing of all of the euchromatin sequence.

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108. Which of the following types of gene are not known in any mitochondrial genome?

Explanation

Glycolytic genes are not known in any mitochondrial genome. Mitochondria are responsible for energy production in cells, and they contain their own DNA, known as mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA). This DNA primarily codes for proteins involved in oxidative phosphorylation, which is part of the respiratory chain. It also includes genes for transfer RNA (tRNA) and ribosomal RNA (rRNA) that are necessary for protein synthesis within the mitochondria. However, the enzymes involved in glycolysis, the process that occurs in the cytoplasm to break down glucose for energy, are encoded by nuclear genes and not found in the mitochondrial genome.

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109. Which type of bacteriophage capsid structure comprises polypeptide subunits arranged in a helix resulting in a rod-like structure?

Explanation

Filamentous bacteriophage capsid structure comprises polypeptide subunits arranged in a helix, resulting in a rod-like structure. This type of structure is characteristic of filamentous bacteriophages, which are long and thread-like in shape. They have a single-stranded DNA genome enclosed within the helical capsid. The icosahedral structure refers to a spherical shape with 20 triangular faces, while the head-and-tail structure is characteristic of bacteriophages with a head and a tail region. Segmented refers to the genome structure, where the genetic material is divided into multiple segments.

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110. Which of the following are RNA molecules that do nc encode their own capsid proteins and move from ce to cell with the assistance of helper viruses?

Explanation

Virusoids are RNA molecules that do not encode their own capsid proteins and rely on helper viruses to move from cell to cell. Prions are misfolded proteins that can cause diseases, not RNA molecules. Prophages are bacterial viruses that integrate their DNA into the host genome. Retroviruses are RNA viruses that can reverse transcribe their RNA into DNA and integrate it into the host genome. Therefore, the correct answer is virusoids.

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111. What is the first step in the initiation of translation in bacteria?

Explanation

The initiation of translation in bacteria begins with the small subunit of the ribosome binding to the ribosome binding site on the mRNA molecule. This binding allows the ribosome to position itself properly on the mRNA and prepare for the start of translation. Once the small subunit is bound, the mRNA is scanned for the initiation codon, which marks the start of the protein-coding sequence. Therefore, the correct answer is that the small subunit of the ribosome binds to the ribosome binding site on the mRNA molecule.

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112. Which of the following is NOT an example of posttranslational chemical modification of proteins?

Explanation

Proteolysis is the process of breaking down proteins into smaller peptides or amino acids. It is not considered a posttranslational chemical modification because it involves the cleavage of peptide bonds rather than the addition or modification of chemical groups on the protein. Glycosylation, methylation, and phosphorylation, on the other hand, are examples of posttranslational chemical modifications where sugar molecules, methyl groups, or phosphate groups are added to proteins, respectively.

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113. The principle of genetic linkage is:

Explanation

The principle of genetic linkage is the observation that some genes will be inherited together if they are located on the same chromosome. This means that genes that are physically close to each other on a chromosome are more likely to be inherited together during the process of reproduction. This observation led to the understanding that genes are not always inherited independently, but can be linked together based on their physical proximity. This principle forms the basis for understanding patterns of inheritance and genetic mapping.

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114. What is the advantage of probing a transcriptome with mRNAs bound to ribosomes?

Explanation

Probing a transcriptome with mRNAs bound to ribosomes provides the advantage of identifying mRNA molecules that are actively being translated into proteins. This is because ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis, and mRNA molecules bound to ribosomes are the ones currently undergoing translation. By isolating these mRNA molecules, researchers can gain insights into the genes that are actively expressed and producing proteins in a specific cell or tissue. This information is valuable for understanding cellular processes, identifying potential drug targets, and studying gene expression dynamics.

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115. Which of the following is NOT a type of histone modification?

Explanation

ADP-ribosylation is not a type of histone modification. Histone modifications refer to the addition or removal of certain chemical groups to histone proteins, which play a crucial role in regulating gene expression. Acetylation, methylation, and phosphorylation are all well-known types of histone modifications that can affect chromatin structure and gene activity. However, ADP-ribosylation is not typically associated with histone modifications. Instead, it is a post-translational modification that occurs on other proteins, such as enzymes involved in DNA repair and transcriptional regulation.

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116. If a diploid individual has three Xchromosomes, how many of the Xchromosomes are inactivated?

Explanation

In female mammals, one of the two X chromosomes is randomly inactivated during embryonic development to achieve dosage compensation. This process, known as X-chromosome inactivation, ensures that both males and females have equal gene expression levels. In the case of a diploid individual with three X chromosomes, two of the X chromosomes would be inactivated, leaving only one active X chromosome. This is because the inactivation process occurs independently for each X chromosome, resulting in a random inactivation of two out of the three X chromosomes.

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117. How is protein synthesis terminated?

Explanation

When protein synthesis reaches the termination codon, a release factor recognizes it and enters the A site of the ribosome. The release factor then catalyzes the release of the protein from the tRNA, effectively terminating the synthesis process. This allows the ribosome to dissociate from the mRNA and complete the protein synthesis.

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118. Microsatellites are used more commonly than minisatellites as DNA markers because:

Explanation

Microsatellites are used more commonly than minisatellites as DNA markers because they are present throughout eukaryotic genomes and can be easily amplified using PCR. This means that they are more readily available and accessible for genetic analysis compared to minisatellites. Additionally, the use of restriction enzymes to type microsatellites is possible, whereas it is not feasible for minisatellites.

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119. Which of the following genetic markers are present in the highest numbers within the human genome?

Explanation

Microsatellites are the genetic markers that are present in the highest numbers within the human genome. Microsatellites are short repetitive sequences of DNA, typically consisting of 1-6 base pairs, that are scattered throughout the genome. They are highly polymorphic, meaning that they vary in length between individuals due to differences in the number of repeats. This high level of polymorphism makes microsatellites useful for genetic studies, such as determining genetic relatedness, identifying individuals, and studying population genetics. RFLPs, minisatellites, and single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) are also genetic markers, but they are not present in as high numbers as microsatellites in the human genome.

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120. Which of the following is a problem with chain termination sequencing!

Explanation

Intrastrand base pairing can block the progress of the DNA polymerase and may also affect the migration of the molecules during electrophoresis. This is a problem with chain termination sequencing because it can cause difficulties in accurately sequencing the DNA. If the DNA strands are paired together, the DNA polymerase may not be able to continue synthesizing the complementary strand, leading to incomplete sequencing. Additionally, during electrophoresis, the paired strands may not migrate properly, further complicating the sequencing process.

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121. The proteome of a cell is defined as:

Explanation

The proteome of a cell refers to all the proteins that are present in a cell at a specific point in time. This includes the proteins that have been synthesized and are currently present in the cell. It does not include all the proteins that the cell is capable of synthesizing or all the proteins that have been synthesized over the cell's lifetime. The proteome is a dynamic entity that can change over time as proteins are synthesized, degraded, or modified within the cell.

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122. Which of the following statements accurately describes reverse transcriptases?

Explanation

Reverse transcriptases are enzymes that are present in retroviruses and are responsible for the synthesis of DNA from RNA templates. They catalyze the reverse transcription process, where RNA is used as a template to generate complementary DNA (cDNA). This cDNA can then be integrated into the host genome, allowing the retrovirus to replicate and persist within the host cell. Therefore, the statement accurately describes reverse transcriptases.

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123. How do eukaryotic viruses acquire lipid membranes?

Explanation

Eukaryotic viruses acquire lipid membranes when the viral capsid leaves the host cell. This means that the viral capsid, which is the protein coat that encloses the viral genetic material, obtains a lipid membrane as it exits the host cell. This process allows the virus to acquire a protective lipid envelope that helps it evade the host immune system and facilitates its entry into new host cells.

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124. How does frameshifting occur during translation?

Explanation

Frameshifting occurs during translation when a ribosome pauses and shifts its reading frame by moving back or forward one nucleotide. This results in a shift in the codon reading and can lead to the synthesis of a different protein.

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125. Which of the following sequences can NOT be used as a sequence tagged site?

Explanation

Restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs) cannot be used as a sequence tagged site (STS) because RFLPs are variations in the length of DNA fragments caused by genetic mutations or rearrangements, rather than specific DNA sequences. In contrast, expressed sequence tags (ESTs), random genomic sequences, and simple sequence length polymorphisms (SSLPs) are all DNA sequences that can be used as STSs for various genetic analyses.

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126. What is the likely reason for the presence of some genes in the mitochondrion, rather than having all genes transferred to the nucleus?

Explanation

Some proteins are too hydrophobic to be transported into the mitochondria. The mitochondria have a highly selective transport system that allows only certain proteins to enter. Hydrophobic proteins have a tendency to aggregate and become insoluble in the aqueous environment of the mitochondria. Therefore, it is more efficient for these hydrophobic proteins to remain in the mitochondria, where they can function properly and maintain the integrity of the organelle.

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127. How are proteins able to bind to DNA at specific sequences?

Explanation

Proteins are able to bind to DNA at specific sequences by interacting with the bases in the major and minor grooves of the double helix. The major and minor grooves are spaces between the two strands of DNA, where the bases are exposed. Proteins have specific regions that can recognize and bind to the specific sequences of bases in the grooves. This binding is important for various cellular processes such as gene regulation and DNA replication. By interacting with the bases in the grooves, proteins can form specific interactions and stabilize their binding to DNA.

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128. Which type of modification must be made to RNA polymerase II in order to activate the preinitiation complex?

Explanation

Phosphorylation is the type of modification that must be made to RNA polymerase II in order to activate the preinitiation complex. This modification involves the addition of a phosphate group to the polymerase, which helps to recruit other proteins and factors necessary for transcription initiation. Acetylation, methylation, and ubiquitination are also post-translational modifications that can occur on RNA polymerase II, but they are not specifically required for the activation of the preinitiation complex.

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129. The chemical modification of eukaryotic rRNA molecules takes place in the:

Explanation

The nucleolus is responsible for the chemical modification of eukaryotic rRNA molecules. This organelle is located within the nucleus of the cell and is involved in the production and assembly of ribosomes. It contains the necessary enzymes and factors for the modification of rRNA, including methylation and pseudouridylation. These modifications are important for the proper functioning and stability of the ribosomes, which are essential for protein synthesis. Therefore, the nucleolus is the correct answer for where the chemical modification of eukaryotic rRNA molecules takes place.

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130. Which of the following statements about an organism's genome is FALSE?

Explanation

The given statement that the genome is able to express its own information without the activity of enzymes and proteins is FALSE. Enzymes and proteins play a crucial role in gene expression by facilitating the transcription and translation processes. They help in the regulation and activation of genes, as well as the modification and processing of RNA molecules. Without the activity of enzymes and proteins, the genetic information in the genome would not be able to be expressed and translated into functional proteins.

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131. In the early tvventieth century it was thought that proteins might carry genetic information. This reasoning was due to which of the following?

Explanation

In the early twentieth century, it was believed that proteins might carry genetic information because proteins were known to be composed of 20 distinct amino acids, whereas DNA is composed of only 4 nucleotides. This difference in complexity led scientists to speculate that proteins, with their larger variety of building blocks, might be better suited to carry genetic information. This reasoning was supported by the fact that different proteins were known to have unique sequences, while it was believed that all DNA molecules have the same sequence.

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132. Which level of protein structure describes the folded conformation of a multisubunit protein?

Explanation

The quaternary structure of a protein refers to the arrangement of multiple subunits in a protein complex. It describes how these subunits come together and interact to form a functional protein. This level of protein structure is important for proteins that consist of multiple subunits, such as enzymes, antibodies, and hemoglobin. The primary structure refers to the linear sequence of amino acids, the secondary structure refers to local folding patterns such as alpha helices and beta sheets, and the tertiary structure refers to the overall 3D folding of a single polypeptide chain.

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133. Why does a template-dependent DNA polymerase require a primer to initiate DNA synthesis?

Explanation

A template-dependent DNA polymerase requires a primer to initiate DNA synthesis because it requires a 3'-hydroxyl group to add a new nucleotide. The primer provides this 3'-hydroxyl group, which serves as the starting point for the addition of nucleotides during DNA synthesis. Without a primer, the DNA polymerase would not have a free 3'-hydroxyl group to which it can add nucleotides, and therefore, DNA synthesis cannot be initiated.

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134. What is the purpose of the nucleotidase in the pyrosequencing reaction!

Explanation

The purpose of the nucleotidase in the pyrosequencing reaction is to degrade unincorporated nucleotides in the reaction mixture. This is important because unincorporated nucleotides can interfere with the accuracy of the sequencing results. By degrading these unincorporated nucleotides, the nucleotidase ensures that only the nucleotides that have been successfully incorporated into the DNA strand are detected, leading to more accurate sequencing data.

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135. Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis in the presence of sodium dodecyl sulfate separates proteins on the basis of which of the following?

Explanation

Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis in the presence of sodium dodecyl sulfate separates proteins based on their charge-mass ratio. Sodium dodecyl sulfate is a detergent that binds to and denatures proteins, causing them to have a uniform negative charge. As a result, during electrophoresis, proteins migrate through the gel based on their size and charge. Proteins with a higher charge-mass ratio will migrate faster through the gel, while those with a lower charge-mass ratio will migrate slower. Therefore, the separation is based on the relative charge and size of the proteins.

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136. Which of the following is NOT a type of activation domain?

Explanation

Leucine-zipper domains are a type of activation domain, which allows for protein-protein interactions and transcriptional activation. Acidic domains, glutamine-rich domains, and proline-rich domains are also types of activation domains.

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137. Codon bias refers to which of the following?

Explanation

Codon bias refers to the phenomenon where certain codons that code for the same amino acid are used more frequently than others in the genetic code of different species. This bias can vary between species, leading to differences in codon usage preferences. This can be influenced by factors such as the abundance of tRNA molecules that recognize specific codons, selective pressure for efficient translation, and mutational biases. Therefore, the given answer accurately describes codon bias and its variation across different species.

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138. Why is inactivation a useful technique to determine the function of a gene?

Explanation

Gene inactivation is a useful technique to determine the function of a gene because it allows researchers to observe the phenotypic changes that occur when a gene is no longer functional. By inactivating a gene, either through genetic manipulation or using techniques like RNA interference, researchers can study the effects of the gene's absence on the organism or cell. This provides valuable information about the specific role that the gene plays in biological processes and helps to determine its function.

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139. What is the best method to identify the cellular location of a protein?

Explanation

The best method to identify the cellular location of a protein is to use a labeled antibody. This involves attaching a fluorescent or radioactive label to an antibody that specifically binds to the protein of interest. When the labeled antibody is introduced to the cells, it will bind to the protein and allow for visualization of its location using techniques such as fluorescence microscopy or autoradiography. This method is highly specific and sensitive, making it a reliable tool for protein localization studies.

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140. Why is actin used as a control for transcriptome studies in vertebrates?

Explanation

Actin is used as a positive control for transcriptome studies in vertebrates because its expression is fairly constant in different cell types. This means that actin can serve as a reliable reference gene to compare the expression levels of other genes in different samples. By using actin as a positive control, researchers can ensure that any changes in gene expression observed in the study are not due to variations in actin expression, but rather reflect true differences in the expression of the genes of interest.

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141. Which type of bacteriophage capsid structure comprises polypeptide subunits arranged in a specific structure that surrounds a nucleic acid core, and a filamentous tail that facilitates entry into cells?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Head-and-tail." Bacteriophages with a head-and-tail capsid structure have polypeptide subunits arranged in a specific structure that surrounds a nucleic acid core. They also have a filamentous tail that helps them enter cells. This type of capsid structure is commonly found in bacteriophages and is essential for their infection process.

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142. How can viroids replicate and move from cell to cell if they contain no genes and never become encapsidated?

Explanation

Viroids are small, circular RNA molecules that can infect plants. Despite not having genes and never being encapsidated, they are able to replicate and move from cell to cell. This is possible because viroids rely on a helper virus for replication. The helper virus provides the necessary enzymes to replicate the viroid's RNA. Once replicated, the viroids can then move from cell to cell as naked DNA, without the need for a protein coat. This mechanism allows viroids to spread and cause infection in plants.

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143. Which of the following is NOT thought to be a reason why tRNA nucleotides are modified?

Explanation

tRNA nucleotides are modified for various reasons, including assisting the recognition of different tRNA molecules by aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, increasing the range of interactions between tRNAs and codons, and enabling a single tRNA molecule to recognize more than one codon. However, achieving stronger base pairing between ribonucleotides is not considered a reason for tRNA nucleotide modification.

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144. How are RNA molecules transported out of the nucleus?

Explanation

RNA molecules are transported out of the nucleus through membrane pores in an energy-dependent process. This means that the transport requires energy in the form of ATP and is not simply a passive diffusion through the membrane. The presence of membrane pores allows for the selective passage of molecules, including RNA, out of the nucleus. This process is tightly regulated and essential for the proper functioning of the cell.

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145. Why is it advantageous to clone a DNA fragment prior to chain termination sequencing!

Explanation

Cloning a DNA fragment prior to chain termination sequencing is advantageous because the chain termination sequencing process requires single-stranded DNA molecules as templates. By cloning the DNA fragment, it can be amplified and converted into multiple copies, allowing for a larger amount of single-stranded DNA templates to be available for sequencing. This increases the sensitivity and efficiency of the sequencing process.

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146. Positional cloning involves which of the following?

Explanation

Positional cloning involves the process of walking along a chromosome from a known marker to a nearby gene. This method is used to identify and locate specific genes within the genome. By starting with a known marker and systematically moving along the chromosome, researchers can narrow down the region where the gene of interest is located. This approach is commonly used in genetic research to identify the genetic basis of diseases or traits.

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147. How is DNA in bacteria, such as E. coli, packaged in the cell?

Explanation

DNA in bacteria, such as E. coli, is packaged by being supercoiled by DNA gyrase and DNA topoisomerase. Supercoiling is the process in which the DNA molecule is tightly twisted and coiled upon itself, allowing it to fit into the small space of the bacterial cell. DNA gyrase and DNA topoisomerase are enzymes that play a crucial role in this process by introducing and resolving the supercoils in the DNA molecule. This packaging method helps to protect the DNA and allows for efficient storage and replication within the bacterial cell.

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148. In which type of bacteriophage life cycle is the host cell killed shortly afteJ the initial lnfection'?

Explanation

In the lytic life cycle of a bacteriophage, the host cell is killed shortly after the initial infection. This occurs when the phage takes over the host cell's machinery to replicate its own genetic material and produce numerous copies of itself. Eventually, the host cell bursts open, releasing the newly formed phages and causing its own destruction. In contrast, the lysogenic life cycle involves the integration of the phage DNA into the host cell's genome, allowing the phage to remain dormant and replicate along with the host cell. The temperate life cycle is another term for the lysogenic cycle, and a prophage refers to the integrated phage DNA within the host cell's genome during the lysogenic cycle.

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149. The term differentiation is defined as which of the following?

Explanation

Differentiation refers to the process by which a cell becomes specialized and takes on a specific physiological role. This involves a coordinated series of changes in gene expression and cellular morphology that allow the cell to perform its specific function. It is not simply alterations in genome expression or transient changes in genome activity, but a more complex and long-lasting process that occurs during the life history of a cell.

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150. What would happen if the concentration of dideoxynucleotides was too high in a chain termination sequencing reaction?

Explanation

If the concentration of dideoxynucleotides is too high in a chain termination sequencing reaction, the dideoxynucleotides will be incorporated into the growing DNA chain more frequently, causing premature termination of the chain. This will result in the production of very short DNA molecules, as the sequencing reaction will be terminated at multiple points along the DNA template.

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151. Which statement correctly describes trans-splicing?

Explanation

Trans-splicing refers to a process in which two separate RNA molecules are joined together to form a single RNA molecule. The correct answer, "They are autocatalytic," means that the splicing reaction occurs spontaneously without the involvement of any additional protein or RNA molecules. In other words, the RNA molecules themselves possess the ability to catalyze the splicing reaction. This is in contrast to the other options, which either involve external RNA molecules or protein molecules in the splicing process, or refer to the presence of trans-splicing only in specific types of genomes.

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152. The formyl group attached to the initiator methionine of bacteria serves what function?

Explanation

The formyl group attached to the initiator methionine blocks the amino group of the methionine, which ensures that protein synthesis occurs in the N to C direction. This is because the formyl group prevents the amino group from reacting with other molecules and allows the protein to be elongated in the correct direction.

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153. Holocentric chromosomes are which of the following?

Explanation

Holocentric chromosomes are chromosomes with multiple centromeres. Unlike monocentric chromosomes, which have a single point of attachment for spindle fibers during cell division, holocentric chromosomes have multiple points of attachment. This unique structure allows for equal distribution of genetic material during cell division and is found in certain organisms such as nematodes and plants.

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154. What have scientists observed about the distribution of genes in eukaryotic genomes?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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155. The first protein complex to bind to the core promoter for a protein-coding gene in eukaryotes is:

Explanation

RNA polymerase II is the correct answer because it is the enzyme responsible for transcribing protein-coding genes in eukaryotes. It binds to the core promoter region of the gene, initiating the transcription process. General transcription factors such as TFIIB, TFIID, and TFIIE are also involved in the transcription process, but they bind to the RNA polymerase II complex rather than directly to the core promoter. Therefore, RNA polymerase II is the first protein complex to bind to the core promoter for a protein-coding gene in eukaryotes.

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156. Why is the reinitiation of transcription at an RNA polymerase II promoter a more rapid process than the primary initiation event?

Explanation

Some of the general transcription factors remain at the promoter to facilitate reinitiation. This means that after the primary initiation event, not all of the general transcription factors dissociate from the promoter. The presence of these remaining factors allows for a more rapid reassembly of the initiation complex, as they can quickly recruit RNA polymerase II and other necessary components to initiate transcription again. This is why reinitiation at an RNA polymerase II promoter is a more rapid process compared to the primary initiation event.

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157. What are second messenger molecules?

Explanation

Second messenger molecules are internal molecules that transduce a signal inside the cell. These molecules are typically small, non-protein molecules that are produced in response to the binding of a hormone or neurotransmitter to a cell surface receptor. They act as messengers to relay the signal from the cell surface to the intracellular targets, such as enzymes or ion channels, which ultimately lead to a cellular response. Examples of second messenger molecules include cyclic AMP (cAMP), calcium ions (Ca2+), and inositol trisphosphate (IP3).

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158. The flow of genetic information in cells is which of the following?

Explanation

The flow of genetic information in cells is that DNA is first transcribed into RNA through a process called transcription. This RNA molecule, known as messenger RNA (mRNA), then leaves the nucleus and enters the cytoplasm where it is translated into protein by ribosomes. This process is called translation. Therefore, the correct answer is that DNA is transcribed into RNA, which is then translated into protein.

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159. The function of the 3'-->5' exonuclease activity of a DNA polymerase is to:

Explanation

The 3'-->5' exonuclease activity of a DNA polymerase is responsible for removing incorrect nucleotides from the newly synthesized strand of DNA. This activity allows the DNA polymerase to proofread the newly synthesized DNA strand and correct any mistakes that may have occurred during replication. By removing the incorrect nucleotides, the DNA polymerase ensures the accuracy of the DNA sequence.

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160. Which methods do researchers typically use to ensure that only a minimal number of sequence and physical gaps are present in a draft genome sequence?

Explanation

Researchers typically use at least two clone libraries that are prepared and sequenced in different vectors to ensure that only a minimal number of sequence and physical gaps are present in a draft genome sequence. This approach helps to increase coverage and reduce potential gaps or errors in the sequencing process. By utilizing different vectors, researchers can minimize biases and improve the accuracy and completeness of the genome sequence.

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161. Why were yeast artificial chromosomes (YACs) not used in the sequencing phase of the Human Genome Project? STUCK BETWEEN A AND D

Explanation

The reason why yeast artificial chromosomes (YACs) were not used in the sequencing phase of the Human Genome Project is because it was discovered that some YACs contained cloned DNA fragments from different parts of the genome. This would lead to inaccurate sequencing results and make it difficult to assemble a complete and accurate representation of the human genome. Therefore, alternative methods that did not have this issue were used instead.

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162. Why is ORF scanning not applicable when searching for genes coding for functional RNA molecules?

Explanation

Functional RNA molecules do not contain codons because codons are specific sequences of three nucleotides that code for amino acids in protein synthesis. Functional RNA molecules, such as transfer RNA (tRNA) and ribosomal RNA (rRNA), have specific functions in the cell and do not undergo translation into proteins. Therefore, they do not require codons for their function and are not subject to ORF scanning, which is a method used to identify open reading frames (ORFs) in DNA sequences that potentially code for proteins.

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163. What is the name of the DNA sequence that is located near the promoter of the lactose operon, and which regulates expression of the operon in E. coli?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Operator." The operator is a DNA sequence located near the promoter of the lactose operon in E. coli. It acts as a binding site for the repressor protein, which regulates the expression of the operon. When the repressor protein binds to the operator, it prevents the transcription of the lactose operon genes, thereby controlling the expression of the operon.

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164. Approximately how many base pairs form the attachment between the DNA template and RNA transcript during transcription in prokaryotes?

Explanation

During transcription in prokaryotes, the attachment between the DNA template and RNA transcript is formed by approximately 8 base pairs. This means that a segment of the DNA template, consisting of 8 nucleotides, will be paired with the complementary nucleotides in the RNA transcript. This attachment is necessary for the RNA polymerase enzyme to accurately synthesize the RNA molecule based on the DNA template.

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165. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism by which a signaling compound is known to influence genome expression after being imported into a cell?

Explanation

Signaling molecules methylating DNA sequences to silence specific genes is not a mechanism by which a signaling compound is known to influence genome expression after being imported into a cell. The other options provide valid mechanisms through which signaling compounds can influence genome expression, such as functioning as regulators of genome expression, directly influencing the activity of regulatory proteins, or indirectly influencing the activity of regulatory proteins through intermediate molecules.

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166. Most of the abundant proteins in a cell are thought to be housekeeping proteins. What is their function?

Explanation

Housekeeping proteins are responsible for the general biochemical activities that occur in all cells. These proteins perform essential functions that are required for the basic maintenance and survival of the cell, such as energy production, metabolism, and protein synthesis. They are involved in fundamental cellular processes and are present in all cell types, regardless of their specific functions. Housekeeping proteins ensure the proper functioning of cellular processes and maintain the overall homeostasis of the cell.

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167. Which of the following is NOT used to introduce recombinant DNA molecules into plants?

Explanation

Cosmids are not used to introduce recombinant DNA molecules into plants. Cosmids are hybrid plasmids that are used for cloning large fragments of DNA in bacteria, but they are not commonly used in plant transformation techniques. Biolistics, also known as particle bombardment, involves shooting DNA-coated particles into plant cells. Ti plasmids are used in Agrobacterium-mediated transformation, where the bacteria transfer the DNA into the plant cells. Viruses can also be used as vectors to introduce recombinant DNA into plants.

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168. Which of the following methods yielded the best map of the human genome by the mid-1990s?

Explanation

Physical mapping of STSs yielded the best map of the human genome by the mid-1990s. STSs (Sequence Tagged Sites) are short DNA sequences that are unique to specific locations in the genome. Physical mapping involves determining the actual physical location of these STSs on the chromosomes. This method allowed researchers to create a more accurate and detailed map of the human genome, providing valuable information about the organization and structure of the DNA.

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169. By definition, homologous genes are genes that:

Explanation

Homologous genes are genes that share a common evolutionary ancestor. This means that these genes have descended from a common ancestral gene through speciation events over time. Homologous genes may have different functions or be expressed under different conditions, but they share a common origin. The nucleotide sequence identity of homologous genes can vary, as it depends on the extent of genetic changes that have occurred since their divergence from the common ancestor.

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170. How is it possible for microarrays to be used to measure the expression levels of individual genes?

Explanation

Microarrays are used to measure gene expression levels by detecting the binding of mRNA molecules to probe sequences on the array. Each position on the microarray contains multiple copies of the probe sequence, which increases the chances of capturing and detecting mRNA molecules. This allows for a more accurate measurement of gene expression levels, as the anticipated number of mRNA molecules in the transcriptome is usually lower than the number of probe sequences on the microarray.

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171. Which of the following is NOT evidence that supports the endosymbiont theory?

Explanation

The gene expression processes in these organelles being similar to bacterial processes does support the endosymbiont theory. This similarity suggests that mitochondria and chloroplasts have retained their own genetic material and the ability to carry out gene expression, which is a characteristic of independent organisms. This supports the idea that these organelles were once free-living bacteria that were engulfed by a host cell and eventually became symbiotic organelles.

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172. Which of the following is a region of eukaryotic DNA, containing one or more active genes, that can be delineated by treatment with DNase?

Explanation

A functional domain is a region of eukaryotic DNA that contains one or more active genes. It can be delineated by treatment with DNase, which is an enzyme that breaks down DNA. This treatment allows for the identification of regions of DNA that are accessible and actively transcribed. Euchromatin and heterochromatin are types of chromatin, which are the condensed forms of DNA. While they can be associated with certain gene activities, they do not specifically refer to regions delineated by DNase treatment. Structural domains are larger-scale structural features of the DNA, but do not necessarily correspond to active genes. Therefore, the correct answer is functional domain.

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173. Allolactose acts as which of the following in regulating the expression of the lactose operon?

Explanation

Allolactose acts as an inducer in regulating the expression of the lactose operon. An inducer is a molecule that promotes gene expression by binding to a repressor protein and preventing it from binding to the operator region of the DNA. In the case of the lactose operon, allolactose binds to the lac repressor protein, causing it to dissociate from the operator. This allows RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter and initiate transcription of the genes involved in lactose metabolism.

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174. How is the lariat structure formed during splicing of a GU-AG intron?

Explanation

During splicing of a GU-AG intron, the lariat structure is formed by cleaving the 5' splice site. After this cleavage, a new phosphodiester bond is formed between the 5' nucleotide and the 2' carbon of an internal adenosine. This bond formation creates a looped structure, known as the lariat, which contains the intron sequence. This lariat structure is eventually removed and degraded, allowing the exons to be joined together to form the mature mRNA molecule.

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175. Wobble occurs because of all of the following EXCEPT

Explanation

Wobble occurs when the third base of the codon and the first base of the anticodon do not follow the strict base-pairing rules. This allows for flexibility in the genetic code and allows certain non-standard base pairs to form. An inosine nucleotide in the tRNA molecule can base-pair with A, C, and U in the mRNA, which contributes to wobble. Guanine can also base-pair with uracil, further contributing to wobble. However, an inosine nucleotide in the mRNA molecule cannot base-pair with A, C, and U in the tRNA. Therefore, this is the exception and does not contribute to wobble.

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176. What is the function of elongation factor EF-l A?

Explanation

Elongation factor EF-1A is responsible for ensuring that the correct aminoacyl-tRNA enters the ribosome. This is an important function because the ribosome needs to accurately match the codon on the mRNA with the corresponding amino acid carried by the tRNA. By ensuring the correct aminoacyl-tRNA enters the ribosome, EF-1A helps maintain the fidelity of protein synthesis and prevents errors in the formation of the polypeptide chain.

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177. What is the syncytium strucrture of Drospophila embryo?

Explanation

The syncytium structure of a Drosophila embryo refers to a mass of cytoplasm that contains multiple nuclei. This means that the individual cells in the embryo have undergone cell division without complete cell separation, resulting in a single cytoplasmic mass with multiple nuclei. This structure allows for coordinated development and differentiation of the cells within the embryo.

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178. The Klenow polymerase version of E. coli DNA polymerase I is useful for research as it lacks the 5'-3' exonuclease activity. This is useful as the 5'--3' exonuclease activity:

Explanation

The 5'-3' exonuclease activity of E. coli DNA polymerase I can shorten the 5' ends of DNA molecules. This can interfere with certain research applications where the length of the DNA molecule is important or needs to be preserved.

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179. Which of the following is NOT a reason why biochemical phenotypes were commonly used to create human genetic maps?

Explanation

Biochemical phenotypes were commonly used to create human genetic maps because there are biochemical phenotypes that are easily screened by blood typing, and some easily characterized biochemical phenotypes are specified by genes with very large numbers of alleles. Additionally, it is unethical to perform controlled breeding experiments with humans.

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180. Sequence tagged sites have which of the following properties?

Explanation

Sequence tagged sites (STS) are short DNA sequences that are unique and present only once within a genome. These sequences have been identified and their location and sequence are known. STS are useful in genetic mapping and genome sequencing projects as they can be used as landmarks to map other genes or DNA sequences. They are not required to contain repetitive DNA sequences or the sequence of a specific gene. Therefore, the correct answer is that STS are present only once within a genome and their sequence is known.

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181. Which of the following is the correct definition of synteny?

Explanation

Synteny refers to the conservation of gene order within two genomes. It means that the arrangement of genes in one genome is maintained in another genome. This concept is important in studying the evolution and comparison of genomes. It helps to identify conserved regions and understand the relationship between genes in different organisms. The other options, such as nucleotide or amino acid sequence identity, and gene function conservation, do not specifically refer to the arrangement of genes and are not synonymous with synteny.

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182. How is DNA thought to be packed during interphase?

Explanation

During interphase, when the cell is not dividing, DNA is thought to be packed in the 30 nm fiber. This refers to the next level of DNA packaging after the "beads-on-a-string" structure of nucleosomes. The 30 nm fiber consists of a coil of nucleosomes that further condenses the DNA, allowing for efficient storage within the nucleus. This level of packaging helps protect the DNA and ensures its proper organization and accessibility for gene expression.

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183. Chromosome walking is best described as:

Explanation

Chromosome walking is a method used in molecular biology to identify clones that overlap and cover a specific segment of DNA. By identifying these overlapping clones, a library of clones can be generated, allowing for the sequencing and mapping of the DNA sequence in a step-by-step manner. This approach helps to ensure that no gaps are present in the final project, providing a comprehensive understanding of the DNA sequence being studied.

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184. The type of chromatography where a protein is bound to a resin and placed into a column, to determine what proteins bind to it, is called:

Explanation

Affinity chromatography is the type of chromatography where a protein is bound to a resin and placed into a column to determine what proteins bind to it. In this technique, the resin is specifically designed to have a high affinity for the protein of interest, allowing it to selectively bind to the target protein while other proteins flow through the column. This method is commonly used to purify and study protein-protein interactions, as well as to isolate specific proteins from complex mixtures.

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185. Which type of chromatin contains genes that are being expressed?

Explanation

Euchromatin is the correct answer because it refers to the less condensed form of chromatin that is associated with actively transcribed genes. It is characterized by a more open structure, allowing for easier access to the DNA by transcription factors and other proteins involved in gene expression. Facultative heterochromatin and constitutive heterochromatin, on the other hand, are more condensed and associated with genes that are not being expressed or are permanently silenced. Therefore, only euchromatin contains genes that are being expressed.

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186. Which of the following DNA binding domains makes its major contact with the nucleotide bases via the minor groove of the double helix?

Explanation

The TBP domain makes its major contact with the nucleotide bases via the minor groove of the double helix. This domain is found in the TATA-binding protein (TBP), which is a transcription factor involved in the initiation of transcription in eukaryotes. The TBP domain recognizes and binds to specific DNA sequences in the promoter region of genes, and its interaction with the minor groove allows for precise recognition and binding to the DNA.

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187. The classification of genes based on protein domains reveals what about the human genome?

Explanation

The correct answer suggests that the classification of genes based on protein domains reveals that the human genome contains a small number of protein domains that are unique to vertebrates. This means that there are certain protein domains in the human genome that are not found in other organisms, indicating a level of uniqueness in the human genetic makeup.

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188. What is the nuclear matrix?

Explanation

The nuclear matrix is a complex network of protein and RNA fibrils that make up the nuclear substructure. It provides support and organization to the nucleus, helping to maintain its shape and structure. The nuclear matrix also plays a role in various nuclear processes, such as DNA replication, transcription, and RNA processing. It acts as a scaffold for the attachment of chromatin and other nuclear components, helping to regulate gene expression and overall nuclear function.

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189. Which Drosophila genes determine the identification of segments of the fruit-fly larva?

Explanation

The homeotic selector genes determine the identification of segments in the fruit-fly larva. These genes play a crucial role in specifying the identity and development of individual segments by controlling the expression of other genes. They are responsible for the formation of different body parts and structures in specific segments of the larva.

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190. What is a pseudogene?

Explanation

A pseudogene is a nonfunctional gene. It is a sequence of DNA that resembles a functional gene but has accumulated mutations over time, rendering it unable to produce a functional protein. Pseudogenes are considered evolutionary relics and do not have any known biological function.

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191. Modification interference assays use which of the following techniques to identify nucleotides central to protein binding?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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192. What is the most important control point for regulation of genome expression?

Explanation

Transcription initiation is the most important control point for regulation of genome expression because it determines whether a gene will be transcribed or not. It is the process by which RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region of a gene and starts synthesizing RNA. By controlling transcription initiation, cells can regulate the amount of RNA produced from a particular gene, which in turn affects the amount of protein that will be synthesized. This control point allows cells to respond to various signals and stimuli and adjust gene expression accordingly, playing a crucial role in regulating genome expression.

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193. A typical human mitochondrion contains how many identical copies of its DNA molecule?

Explanation

A typical human mitochondrion contains ten identical copies of its DNA molecule. Mitochondria are organelles found in cells that are responsible for producing energy. They have their own DNA, known as mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA), which is separate from the DNA found in the cell nucleus. Unlike nuclear DNA, which is inherited from both parents, mtDNA is only inherited from the mother. Each mitochondrion contains multiple copies of mtDNA, typically ten, which helps to ensure the efficient production of energy within the cell.

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194. Which of the following techniques is useful in determining the movement of proteins within a nucleus?

Explanation

Fluorescence recovery after photobleaching (FRAP) is a technique that can be used to determine the movement of proteins within a nucleus. In FRAP, a specific area of the nucleus is bleached with a high-intensity laser, causing the fluorescence signal to disappear. As the proteins move within the nucleus, the bleached area will gradually regain fluorescence as unbleached proteins move into the area. By measuring the rate of fluorescence recovery, the movement of proteins within the nucleus can be determined. Electron microscopy, fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH), and confocal light microscopy are not specifically designed for studying protein movement within the nucleus.

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195. The Polycomb proteins in Drosophila function by:

Explanation

The Polycomb proteins in Drosophila function by condensing chromatin to maintain gene silencing. This silencing is passed on to daughter cells, ensuring that the silenced state is maintained throughout cell division.

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196. If a loss of function mutation occurs in the B-type genes of Aradopsis, what will be the composition of the flower whorls (from whorl 1 to whorl 4)?

Explanation

In Aradopsis, the normal composition of the flower whorls is sepals in whorl 1, petals in whorl 2, stamens in whorl 3, and carpels in whorl 4. If a loss of function mutation occurs in the B-type genes, it will affect the development of petals and stamens, resulting in the absence of these organs. As a result, the composition of the flower whorls will be altered, and the mutated flower will have sepals in whorl 1, sepals in whorl 2, and carpels in both whorls 3 and 4. Therefore, the correct answer is "sepals-sepals-carpels-carpels".

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197. In solving the structure of DNA, Watson and Crick actively used which of the following techniques?

Explanation

Watson and Crick actively used model building of DNA molecules to ensure that the atoms were correctly positioned in solving the structure of DNA. This technique allowed them to visualize and understand the three-dimensional structure of DNA, including the double helix shape and the specific arrangement of nucleotides. By physically manipulating models of DNA molecules, they were able to propose a structure that explained the observed X-ray diffraction patterns and provided insights into the replication and function of DNA.

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198. The first genetic maps used genes as markers because:

Explanation

Genes were used as markers in the first genetic maps because phenotypes specified by genes could be visually identified and their inheritance patterns studied. This allowed researchers to track the transmission of specific traits from one generation to another, providing valuable insights into the inheritance patterns of genes. By observing the phenotypic traits associated with certain genes, researchers could map their locations on chromosomes and understand how they were passed on to offspring. This approach laid the foundation for the study of genetics and the development of genetic maps.

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199. Studies of Saccharomyces cerevisiae revealed that when cells are grown under stable, energy·rich conditions the transcriptome changes in what ways?

Explanation

When cells of Saccharomyces cerevisiae are grown under stable, energy-rich conditions, studies have shown that there are significant changes in mRNA levels. This is mainly due to the varying rates of degradation and synthesis of mRNA molecules. While most mRNA levels remain constant, some fluctuate greatly during the cell cycle. Therefore, the correct answer is that there are significant changes in mRNA levels due to varying rates of degradation and synthesis.

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200. Which of the following is NOT a feature of a typical bacterial operon?

Explanation

A typical bacterial operon consists of multiple genes that are transcribed into a single mRNA molecule. This mRNA molecule can be translated into multiple polypeptides, each encoded by a different gene within the operon. Therefore, the statement that "the genes are translated into a single polypeptide" is not a feature of a typical bacterial operon.

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Which of the following sequence modules is NOT a basal promoter...
Which type of bonds link the individual nucleotides together in DNA?
Which of the following types of sequence module enables transcription...
Which type of amino acid is acetylated within the N-terminal regions...
Somatic cells are those that:
How is the sporulation pathway in Bacillus activated?
What is the function of the initiation factor eIF-6!
Which type of covalent bond is important for linking cysteine residues...
E. coli cells take up plasmid DNA in laboratory experiments by which...
Which of the following is NOT a factor that limits the accuracy of...
Why are centromeres often not included in a draft genome sequence?
The enzyme reverse transcriptase is present in which type of viruses?
Which of the following DNA sequences can increase the rate of...
What are cryptic splice sites?
Which factor is thought to be most important in determining whether a...
The proteins that bind to DNA in the nucleosome and form a core...
What is a plasmid?
The attachment site for RNA polymerase in bacteria is called the:
Which of the following enzymes are used to degrade DNA molecules?
Which of the following polymerases does not require a template?
The difference between mitosis and meiosis is that mitosis is...
RNA interference works by which of the following methods?
How are the different nucleotides (A, C, G, or T) labeled in a chain...
Heterochromatin is defined as:
Which of the following is able to prevent gene expression when...
What is the role of the Rho protein in termination of transcription?
What is the major transcriptional change that occurs during the...
Promoter escape in eukaryotes is associated with:
The degeneracy of the genetic code refers to which of the following?
Why is the clone contig method useful for the sequencing of eukaryotic...
What is an open reading frame (ORF)?
Lateral gene transfer includes all of the following DNA exchanges...
Name the researcher who first identified transposons and the organism...
Erwin Chargaff studied DNA from various organisms and demonstrated...
Which of the following is NOT a biological function of proteins?
Which of the following statements correctly describes the...
Many scientists doubted that shotgun sequencing would work, even with...
The amplification of mRNA by PCR is called:
What is the bacterial nucleoid?
Which technique is used to resolve the different sizes of DNA...
What region of a eukaryotic chromosome contains the highest density of...
Codon-anticodon interactions occur by:
What is the most common type of covalent modification that activates...
A major problem with the computational assembly of DNA sequences of...
Which of the following are RNA transposons that lack long terminal...
All three types of restriction enzyme bind to DNA molecules at...
DNA ligase synthesizes which type of bond?
Why is the Klenow enzyme a poor choice for chain termination...
Which of the following is an example of a protein domain?
The specificity of bacterial RNA polymerases for their promoters is...
Antitermination is involved in regulation of which of the following?
Which statement correctly describes trans-splicing?
What is a genomic library?
PCR is advantageous to gene cloning for all of the following reasons...
Orphan families are families of genes that:
De novo methylation of DNA is defined as which of the following?
Which of the following statements about the specificity of...
How do steroid hormones, such as estrogen, modulate genome expression...
How were prokaryotic organisms first classified into species?
Which of the following enzymes is specified by a gene present in RNA...
Which type of functional RNA is a primary component of the structures...
A temperature of 75°C will terminate DNA synthesis by E. coli DNA...
Lnterphase chromosomes are useful for fine-scale mapping by...
Radiation hybrid panels provide a useful mechanism for physical...
The yeast genome is 0.004 times the size of the human genome and yet...
Prions are defined as infectious, disease-causing particles that:
Mouse embryonic stem cells are used in gene inactivation experiments...
How are genes grouped together via hierarchical clustering?
Conservative transposition is characterized by which of the following?
Which of the following types of DNA modification results in silencing...
Which of the following is NOT a reason why proteins require assistance...
What types of signal transduction pathways involve the STAT proteins?
How do DNA-dependent RNA polymerases carry out RNA synthesis?
Which enzyme is specified by a gene present in DNA transposons?
What is the role of locus control regions (LCRs) in regulation of gene...
The transcriptome of a cell is defined as:
What is the metabolome of a cell?
What is the centromere of a chromosome?
What is a bacterial operon?
Which of the following RNA polymerases is responsible for the...
What changes are made in B cells when they switch from producing IgM...
The amino acid sequence of the a polypeptide of hemoglobin is more...
What are the hubs in a protein interactome netvvork?
What types of repeated sequences are present in bacterial genomes?
Feedback loops could bring about long-term changes in genome...
Whlch of the following are NOT characteristics of the ribosomal RNA...
The smallest bacterial genome is several hundred thousand base pairs...
What is thought to be the origin of the Alu RNA transposon?
What is the function of the nucleolus?
Which of the following remodeling events results in a nucleosome being...
Which of the following techniques, based on migration of DNA fragments...
Wobble between a codon and anticodon occurs between:
What are inteins?
What prevents the cells adjacent to the progenitor vulva cells in C....
Which of the following types of vector would be most suitable for...
In analyzing a human pedigree to determine how closely two genes are...
Metaphase chromosomes were initially used for fluorescent in situ...
What is the most difficult and time-consuming aspect of a shotgun...
A consensus sequence for an exon-intron boundary or gene promoter...
What is the purpose of performing a homology search with a DNA...
How can two different transcriptomes be studied with a single...
How can transcriptome studies aid in the diagnosis of human cancers?
The isoelectric point of a protein is defined as:
What is the methylation state of the CpG islands of housekeeping...
Genomic imprinting occurs when:
What is the general mechanism for the initiation of translation in...
Which of the following statements about the completion of the human...
Which of the following types of gene are not known in any...
Which type of bacteriophage capsid structure comprises polypeptide...
Which of the following are RNA molecules that do nc encode their own...
What is the first step in the initiation of translation in bacteria?
Which of the following is NOT an example of posttranslational chemical...
The principle of genetic linkage is:
What is the advantage of probing a transcriptome with mRNAs bound to...
Which of the following is NOT a type of histone modification?
If a diploid individual has three Xchromosomes, how many of the...
How is protein synthesis terminated?
Microsatellites are used more commonly than minisatellites as DNA...
Which of the following genetic markers are present in the highest...
Which of the following is a problem with chain termination sequencing!
The proteome of a cell is defined as:
Which of the following statements accurately describes reverse...
How do eukaryotic viruses acquire lipid membranes?
How does frameshifting occur during translation?
Which of the following sequences can NOT be used as a sequence tagged...
What is the likely reason for the presence of some genes in the...
How are proteins able to bind to DNA at specific sequences?
Which type of modification must be made to RNA polymerase II in order...
The chemical modification of eukaryotic rRNA molecules takes place in...
Which of the following statements about an organism's genome is...
In the early tvventieth century it was thought that proteins might...
Which level of protein structure describes the folded conformation of...
Why does a template-dependent DNA polymerase require a primer to...
What is the purpose of the nucleotidase in the pyrosequencing...
Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis in the presence of sodium dodecyl...
Which of the following is NOT a type of activation domain?
Codon bias refers to which of the following?
Why is inactivation a useful technique to determine the function of a...
What is the best method to identify the cellular location of a...
Why is actin used as a control for transcriptome studies in...
Which type of bacteriophage capsid structure comprises polypeptide...
How can viroids replicate and move from cell to cell if they contain...
Which of the following is NOT thought to be a reason why tRNA...
How are RNA molecules transported out of the nucleus?
Why is it advantageous to clone a DNA fragment prior to chain...
Positional cloning involves which of the following?
How is DNA in bacteria, such as E. coli, packaged in the cell?
In which type of bacteriophage life cycle is the host cell killed...
The term differentiation is defined as which of the following?
What would happen if the concentration of dideoxynucleotides was too...
Which statement correctly describes trans-splicing?
The formyl group attached to the initiator methionine of bacteria...
Holocentric chromosomes are which of the following?
What have scientists observed about the distribution of genes in...
The first protein complex to bind to the core promoter for a...
Why is the reinitiation of transcription at an RNA polymerase II...
What are second messenger molecules?
The flow of genetic information in cells is which of the following?
The function of the 3'-->5' exonuclease activity of a DNA...
Which methods do researchers typically use to ensure that only a...
Why were yeast artificial chromosomes (YACs) not used in the...
Why is ORF scanning not applicable when searching for genes coding for...
What is the name of the DNA sequence that is located near the promoter...
Approximately how many base pairs form the attachment between the DNA...
Which of the following is NOT a mechanism by which a signaling...
Most of the abundant proteins in a cell are thought to be housekeeping...
Which of the following is NOT used to introduce recombinant DNA...
Which of the following methods yielded the best map of the human...
By definition, homologous genes are genes that:
How is it possible for microarrays to be used to measure the...
Which of the following is NOT evidence that supports the endosymbiont...
Which of the following is a region of eukaryotic DNA, containing one...
Allolactose acts as which of the following in regulating the...
How is the lariat structure formed during splicing of a GU-AG intron?
Wobble occurs because of all of the following EXCEPT
What is the function of elongation factor EF-l A?
What is the syncytium strucrture of Drospophila embryo?
The Klenow polymerase version of E. coli DNA polymerase I is useful...
Which of the following is NOT a reason why biochemical phenotypes were...
Sequence tagged sites have which of the following properties?
Which of the following is the correct definition of synteny?
How is DNA thought to be packed during interphase?
Chromosome walking is best described as:
The type of chromatography where a protein is bound to a resin and...
Which type of chromatin contains genes that are being expressed?
Which of the following DNA binding domains makes its major contact...
The classification of genes based on protein domains reveals what...
What is the nuclear matrix?
Which Drosophila genes determine the identification of segments of the...
What is a pseudogene?
Modification interference assays use which of the following techniques...
What is the most important control point for regulation of genome...
A typical human mitochondrion contains how many identical copies of...
Which of the following techniques is useful in determining the...
The Polycomb proteins in Drosophila function by:
If a loss of function mutation occurs in the B-type genes of...
In solving the structure of DNA, Watson and Crick actively used which...
The first genetic maps used genes as markers because:
Studies of Saccharomyces cerevisiae revealed that when cells are grown...
Which of the following is NOT a feature of a typical bacterial operon?
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