OTR Rehabilitation Quiz: Exam

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OTR Rehabilitation Quiz: Exam - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    An OTR is working on EADLs with a client. What might this encompass?

    • A.

      Toileting and bowel management

    • B.

      Rest and sleep

    • C.

      Assistive tech

    • D.

      Preparing meals and eating

    Correct Answer
    C. Assistive tech
    Explanation
    An OTR working on EADLs with a client may encompass the use of assistive technology. This could involve assessing the client's needs and recommending devices or equipment that can help them perform daily activities more independently. Assistive tech can include anything from mobility aids like wheelchairs or walkers, to communication devices, adaptive switches, or computer software that assist with tasks like writing or reading. The goal is to enhance the client's functional abilities and improve their overall quality of life.

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  • 2. 

    Using a reacher to aid in LE dressing is an example of what kind of strategy?

    • A.

      Compensatory

    • B.

      Remedial

    • C.

      Functional

    • D.

      Procedural

    Correct Answer
    A. Compensatory
    Explanation
    Using a reacher to aid in lower extremity dressing is an example of a compensatory strategy. Compensatory strategies involve using tools or techniques to compensate for a deficit or limitation in a person's abilities. In this case, the reacher is being used to compensate for any difficulties or limitations the individual may have in reaching and dressing their lower extremities independently.

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  • 3. 

    Using a weighted or swivel spoon is a good intervention for what type of patient?

    • A.

      A patient with CVA experiencing UVN

    • B.

      A patient with tremors, ataxia, or choreiform movements

    • C.

      A patient with paraplegia

    • D.

      A patient with one arm

    Correct Answer
    B. A patient with tremors, ataxia, or choreiform movements
    Explanation
    Using a weighted or swivel spoon is a good intervention for a patient with tremors, ataxia, or choreiform movements. These patients often have difficulty controlling their movements and may have hand tremors, unsteady movements (ataxia), or involuntary jerky movements (choreiform movements). A weighted spoon can provide stability and help them eat independently, while a swivel spoon allows for easier movement and reduces spillage. Both types of spoons can assist patients with these movement disorders in maintaining their independence and improving their ability to eat.

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  • 4. 

    An OTR is working on dressing ADLs with a patient with hemiplegia. Which leg should the OTR instruct the patient to insert into his pants first?

    • A.

      Affected leg

    • B.

      Unaffected leg

    • C.

      Either leg; it doesn't matter for patients with hemiplegia

    • D.

      A patient with hemiplegia will not be able to don pants independently.

    Correct Answer
    A. Affected leg
    Explanation
    In patients with hemiplegia, one side of the body is paralyzed or weakened. In this case, the affected leg refers to the leg that is affected by the paralysis. The OTR should instruct the patient to insert the affected leg into his pants first because it may require more assistance and support. By addressing the affected leg first, the OTR can ensure that the patient is properly dressed and comfortable before moving on to the unaffected leg.

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  • 5. 

    An OTR is working with a patient on grooming ADLs. She gathers the patient's toothbrush, toothpaste, and mouthwash then opens them and arranges them on the sink. She then allows the patient to complete the task without further help. What score would the patient receive on the FIM?

    • A.

      7

    • B.

      6

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 5
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the patient would receive a score of 5 on the FIM. The OTR gathered the necessary items for grooming ADLs and arranged them on the sink, but allowed the patient to complete the task independently without further assistance. This indicates that the patient has some level of independence in performing grooming tasks, but still requires some level of assistance or supervision. A score of 5 on the FIM indicates that the patient requires setup or cleanup assistance.

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  • 6. 

    An OTR is working with a patient on eating ADLs. The patient independently inserts his dentures, uses a typical fork to eat pasta, and requires no cues for swallowing. What score would he receive on the FIM?

    • A.

      7

    • B.

      6

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 6
    Explanation
    Dentures are considered an adaptive device and thus the patient can only receive at max a 6.

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  • 7. 

    Anosognosia refers to...

    • A.

      Difficulty in planning and completing fine motor tasks

    • B.

      Disturbance of the comprehension and formulation of language

    • C.

      Impaired ability to recognize faces, while other aspects of visual processing and intellectual functioning remain intact

    • D.

      Lack of knowledge or denial of deficits or disease process and the implications of the deficit

    Correct Answer
    D. Lack of knowledge or denial of deficits or disease process and the implications of the deficit
    Explanation
    Anosognosia refers to a lack of knowledge or denial of deficits or disease process and the implications of the deficit. This means that individuals with anosognosia are unaware or deny that they have any deficits or illness, even though they may clearly be experiencing them. This can be seen in conditions such as stroke or traumatic brain injury, where a person may be unable to recognize their own physical or cognitive impairments. This lack of awareness can make it difficult for them to seek or accept appropriate treatment and support.

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  • 8. 

    A patient who can recite many facts but has lost the ability to remember their own life experiences would be said to have good ______ memory and poor _____ memory, respectively.

    • A.

      Explicit; episodic

    • B.

      Episodic; explicit

    • C.

      Semantic; procedural

    • D.

      Procedural; semantic

    Correct Answer
    A. Explicit; episodic
    Explanation
    A patient who can recite many facts but has lost the ability to remember their own life experiences would be said to have good explicit memory and poor episodic memory, respectively. Explicit memory refers to the conscious, intentional recollection of factual information, which the patient still retains. Episodic memory, on the other hand, involves the recall of personal experiences and events, which the patient has lost the ability to remember.

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  • 9. 

    The ability to see small visual detail is referred to as...

    • A.

      Visual perception

    • B.

      Visual scanning

    • C.

      Visual attention

    • D.

      Visual acuity

    Correct Answer
    D. Visual acuity
    Explanation
    Visual acuity refers to the ability to see small visual details. It is a measure of how well the eyes can distinguish fine details and is typically assessed using an eye chart. This ability is important for tasks that require sharp and clear vision, such as reading small print or recognizing distant objects. Visual perception, visual scanning, and visual attention are related concepts but do not specifically refer to the ability to see small visual detail.

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  • 10. 

    A patient responds to the question "What brought you to the hospital?" with "My wife's car." instead of understanding it as a reference to his accident. What type of thinking does this represent?

    • A.

      Abstract thinking

    • B.

      Concrete thinking

    • C.

      Convergent thinking

    • D.

      Divergent thinking

    Correct Answer
    B. Concrete thinking
    Explanation
    Concrete thinking refers to a thinking style that focuses on literal interpretations and facts rather than abstract or symbolic meanings. In this case, the patient's response of "My wife's car" indicates a literal interpretation of the question, rather than understanding it as a reference to his accident. This suggests that the patient is engaging in concrete thinking, as they are not able to grasp the abstract meaning behind the question.

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  • 11. 

    In Toglia's model, what factor is considered critical in influencing cognitive assessment and treatment?

    • A.

      Task Demands

    • B.

      Environment

    • C.

      Person and their emotional state

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    In Toglia's model, all of the factors mentioned (task demands, environment, and person and their emotional state) are considered critical in influencing cognitive assessment and treatment. This means that when assessing and treating cognitive abilities, it is important to take into account the demands of the task, the environment in which it is performed, and the emotional state of the person. These factors can significantly impact cognitive performance and should be considered in order to provide effective assessment and treatment.

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  • 12. 

    What does the above picture demonstrate?

    • A.

      UE D1 Pattern

    • B.

      UE D2 Pattern

    • C.

      LE D1 Pattern

    • D.

      LE D2 Pattern

    Correct Answer
    A. UE D1 Pattern
    Explanation
    The above picture demonstrates the UE D1 Pattern.

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  • 13. 

    This —combines flexion with abduction and internal rotation.

    • A.

      UE D1

    • B.

      UE D2

    • C.

      LE D1

    • D.

      LE D2

    Correct Answer
    B. UE D2
    Explanation
    UE D2 refers to upper extremity diagonal 2, which involves combining flexion with abduction and internal rotation. This movement pattern is commonly used in rehabilitation and physical therapy to improve shoulder function and range of motion. By performing UE D2 exercises, individuals can strengthen the muscles around the shoulder joint and enhance their ability to perform activities that require reaching, lifting, and overhead movements.

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  • 14. 

    Place these words that describe tone in order from low to high.

    • A.

      Flaccid, hypotonic, normal, rigid, spastic.

    • B.

      Hypotonic, flaccid, normal, spastic, rigid.

    • C.

      Flaccid, hypotonic, normal, spastic, rigid.

    • D.

      Normal, flaccid, hypotonic, rigid, spastic.

    Correct Answer
    C. Flaccid, hypotonic, normal, spastic, rigid.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Flaccid, hypotonic, normal, spastic, rigid." The words are arranged in order of increasing intensity or severity. Flaccid refers to a lack of muscle tone, followed by hypotonic which means abnormally low muscle tone. Normal is the next level, indicating a healthy and balanced muscle tone. Spastic refers to increased muscle tone and rigidity signifies the highest level of muscle tone.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following would be considered an inhibition technique?

    • A.

      Tapping

    • B.

      Brushing

    • C.

      Deep tendon pressure

    • D.

      Vibration

    Correct Answer
    C. Deep tendon pressure
    Explanation
    Deep tendon pressure can be considered an inhibition technique because it involves applying pressure to a specific muscle or tendon in order to reduce muscle tone or spasm. This technique can help to relax and release tension in the muscle, promoting a decrease in pain and muscle tightness. It is commonly used in therapeutic settings to address muscle imbalances, improve range of motion, and alleviate musculoskeletal discomfort.

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  • 16. 

    Which motor control theory does not utilize reflexive movement to facilitate normal movement?

    • A.

      NDT

    • B.

      PNF

    • C.

      Brunnstrom Movement Therapy

    • D.

      Rood Approach

    Correct Answer
    A. NDT
    Explanation
    NDT, or Neurodevelopmental Treatment, is a motor control theory that does not rely on reflexive movement to facilitate normal movement. Instead, it focuses on facilitating the development of normal movement patterns through the use of guided movement and handling techniques. NDT aims to improve posture, balance, and coordination by promoting active participation and motor learning. This approach is often used in rehabilitation settings to help individuals with neurological conditions regain functional movement abilities.

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  • 17. 

    How has the NDT approach shifted recently?

    • A.

      Reflexive movement is utilized more often

    • B.

      More movement from the patient; therapist is less physically involved

    • C.

      More focus on sensory stimuli

    • D.

      Less focus on volitional movement

    Correct Answer
    B. More movement from the patient; therapist is less physically involved
    Explanation
    The NDT approach has shifted recently to involve more movement from the patient and less physical involvement from the therapist. This means that the patient is taking a more active role in their therapy, actively participating in movements and exercises. The therapist is no longer doing the movements for the patient, but instead providing guidance and support. This shift allows the patient to develop their own movement patterns and improve their motor control and function.

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  • 18. 

    What condition was the Brunnstrom approach developed for?

    • A.

      TBI

    • B.

      CVA

    • C.

      SCI

    • D.

      CP

    Correct Answer
    B. CVA
    Explanation
    The Brunnstrom approach was developed for individuals with CVA, which stands for cerebrovascular accident or stroke. This approach is a rehabilitation technique that focuses on the stages of recovery after a stroke, aiming to facilitate the return of voluntary movement and improve functional abilities. It involves the use of various therapeutic techniques and exercises to stimulate the affected muscles and promote motor recovery.

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  • 19. 

    An OTR is utilizing a movement theory that involves reflexive movement, sensory stimuli, and synergies. What approach is he using?

    • A.

      NDT

    • B.

      PNF

    • C.

      Brunnstrom

    • D.

      Rood

    Correct Answer
    C. Brunnstrom
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Brunnstrom. Brunnstrom approach is a movement theory that focuses on reflexive movement, sensory stimuli, and synergies. It is commonly used in neurorehabilitation to help individuals regain movement and function after a neurological injury or condition. The approach involves facilitating and guiding the patient's movement patterns through various stages of recovery, starting from reflexive movements and progressing towards more voluntary control.

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  • 20. 

    This reflex is stimulated by rotating the upper trunk in relation to the pelvis and results in increased flexor tone in the UE and increased extension tone in the LE on the side to which the trunk is turned.

    • A.

      Symmetrical Tonic Neck Reflex

    • B.

      Asymmetrical Tonic Neck Reflex

    • C.

      Tonic Labyrinthine

    • D.

      Tonic Lumbar

    Correct Answer
    D. Tonic Lumbar
    Explanation
    The given explanation states that the reflex described is stimulated by rotating the upper trunk in relation to the pelvis. This results in increased flexor tone in the upper extremities (UE) and increased extension tone in the lower extremities (LE) on the side to which the trunk is turned. This reflex is known as the Tonic Lumbar reflex.

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  • 21. 

    What stage would flaccidity be in the Brunnstrom stages of CVA recovery?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    A. I
    Explanation
    Flaccidity would be in stage I of the Brunnstrom stages of CVA recovery. In this stage, there is no voluntary movement or muscle activation. The affected limb is limp and cannot be moved voluntarily. This stage is characterized by the absence of any muscle tone or reflexes. It is the earliest stage of recovery after a stroke, and the goal of treatment during this stage is to initiate any movement or muscle activation in the affected limb.

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  • 22. 

    An OTR is working with a patient who has some voluntary movement, but only in synergy. What level of the Brunnstrom stages does this represent?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    C. III
    Explanation
    This represents level III of the Brunnstrom stages. At this stage, the patient is able to perform some voluntary movements, but they are limited to synergistic patterns. Synergistic patterns refer to movements that occur in a fixed and stereotyped manner, such as flexion and extension of the limbs together. The patient is not able to perform isolated or selective movements yet.

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  • 23. 

    Which motor control theory does not direct conscious attention towards movement?

    • A.

      NDT

    • B.

      PNF

    • C.

      Brunnstrom

    • D.

      Rood

    Correct Answer
    D. Rood
    Explanation
    Rood is the correct answer because the Rood motor control theory does not direct conscious attention towards movement. This theory focuses on utilizing sensory stimulation to facilitate or inhibit muscle activity, without requiring conscious effort or attention from the individual. Rood's approach emphasizes reflexes and the use of sensory input to elicit automatic movement responses, making it distinct from the other motor control theories listed.

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  • 24. 

    This approach involves restraining the unaffected extremity in order to prevent learned nonuse.

    • A.

      NDT

    • B.

      PNF

    • C.

      CIMT/CIT

    • D.

      Bimanual practice

    Correct Answer
    C. CIMT/CIT
    Explanation
    This approach refers to Constraint-Induced Movement Therapy (CIMT) or Constraint-Induced Therapy (CIT). It involves restraining the unaffected extremity (such as the arm) to encourage the use and rehabilitation of the affected extremity. By limiting the use of the unaffected extremity, the therapy aims to prevent learned nonuse, which occurs when individuals rely heavily on their unaffected side and neglect using the affected side. CIMT/CIT helps promote the recovery of motor function and encourages the individual to regain movement and function in the affected extremity.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is a modification to sex an OTR could recommend to a patient who suffered a left cerebrum CVA?

    • A.

      Lying on right side during sex to be able to caress with left hand

    • B.

      Lying on left side during sex to be able to caress with right hand

    • C.

      Missionary style with patient on back

    • D.

      CVA patients will not be able to engage in sexual activity

    Correct Answer
    A. Lying on right side during sex to be able to caress with left hand
    Explanation
    The correct answer is lying on the right side during sex to be able to caress with the left hand. This modification is recommended for a patient who suffered a left cerebrum CVA because the left cerebrum is responsible for controlling the right side of the body. By lying on the right side, the patient can use their unaffected left hand to engage in caressing during sexual activity.

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  • 26. 

    What type of aphasia refers to a loss of all language skills?

    • A.

      Expressive

    • B.

      Receptive

    • C.

      Global

    • D.

      Anomic

    Correct Answer
    C. Global
    Explanation
    Global aphasia refers to a type of aphasia where there is a complete loss of language skills. It is characterized by difficulty in understanding and producing both spoken and written language. Individuals with global aphasia may struggle to form coherent sentences, find the right words, and comprehend what others are saying. This type of aphasia usually occurs after a severe brain injury, such as a stroke, that affects multiple language areas in the brain.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is a good approach to working with communication deficits?

    • A.

      Giving long, detailed instructions

    • B.

      Making sure the patient always responds

    • C.

      Asking questions that can't be answered with a "yes" or "no"

    • D.

      Utilizing visual cues when appropriate

    Correct Answer
    D. Utilizing visual cues when appropriate
    Explanation
    Utilizing visual cues when appropriate is a good approach to working with communication deficits because it can help individuals who have difficulty understanding or expressing themselves verbally. Visual cues, such as pictures, gestures, or written words, can provide additional context and support to enhance communication. This approach can be particularly helpful for individuals with language disorders, cognitive impairments, or hearing impairments. By incorporating visual cues, it allows for a more inclusive and effective means of communication, promoting understanding and engagement.

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  • 28. 

    An OTR is addressing the fine motor skills of a 48-year-old woman with a CVA. Which of the following interventions is BEST?

    • A.

      Stacking cones

    • B.

      Stacking blocks

    • C.

      Completing a puzzle

    • D.

      Finger and wrist exercises

    Correct Answer
    C. Completing a puzzle
    Explanation
    Completing a puzzle is the best intervention for addressing the fine motor skills of a 48-year-old woman with a CVA. Puzzles require precise hand-eye coordination, finger dexterity, and manipulation of small pieces, which can help improve her fine motor skills. Stacking cones and blocks can also improve fine motor skills, but completing a puzzle involves more complex and varied movements, making it a more effective intervention. Finger and wrist exercises may be helpful for improving strength and range of motion, but they may not specifically target the fine motor skills needed for activities of daily living.

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  • 29. 

    Which type of ROM is best for preventing contractures?

    • A.

      AROM

    • B.

      PROM

    • C.

      SROM

    • D.

      ROM should be avoided in patients susceptible to co

    Correct Answer
    C. SROM
    Explanation
    SROM, or Self Range of Motion, is the best type of ROM for preventing contractures. This is because SROM involves the patient actively moving their own joints and muscles, which helps to maintain flexibility and prevent stiffness. AROM (Active Range of Motion) is also beneficial, but may not be suitable for all patients depending on their condition or limitations. PROM (Passive Range of Motion) involves a therapist or caregiver moving the patient's joints for them, and while it can be helpful, it may not be as effective in preventing contractures as SROM.

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  • 30. 

    An OTR is playing the balloon toss game with a patient and wants to grade the activity down. Which of these positions would likely be least challenging?

    • A.

      Sitting on therapy ball

    • B.

      Sitting in wheelchair

    • C.

      Sitting on edge of bed

    • D.

      Standing

    Correct Answer
    B. Sitting in wheelchair
    Explanation
    Sitting in a wheelchair would likely be the least challenging position for the patient. This is because sitting in a wheelchair provides stability and support, which can help the patient maintain balance and prevent falls. In contrast, sitting on a therapy ball or on the edge of a bed requires more core strength and balance control. Standing would be the most challenging position as it requires the most strength and balance to maintain.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following would be the least difficult transfer?

    • A.

      Bed to wheelchair

    • B.

      Wheelchair to tub

    • C.

      Wheelchair to toilet

    • D.

      Wheelchair to car

    Correct Answer
    A. Bed to wheelchair
    Explanation
    The least difficult transfer would be from the bed to the wheelchair because it involves a shorter distance and does not require any additional equipment or adjustments.

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  • 32. 

    You are treating a patient with CVA and want to be on the look out for decubitus ulcers. What areas should you be especially observant of?

    • A.

      Heels

    • B.

      Sacrum

    • C.

      Shoulders

    • D.

      Both A and B

    Correct Answer
    D. Both A and B
    Explanation
    When treating a patient with CVA (cerebrovascular accident), it is important to be vigilant for the development of decubitus ulcers, also known as pressure ulcers or bedsores. These ulcers commonly occur in areas where there is prolonged pressure or friction against the skin. The heels and sacrum are particularly susceptible to developing decubitus ulcers due to their bony prominences and the potential for constant pressure when a patient is bedridden or immobile. Therefore, healthcare professionals should pay special attention to these areas to prevent and detect the formation of decubitus ulcers.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is a method used to diagnose edema?

    • A.

      Volumeter

    • B.

      Circumferential measurements

    • C.

      ROM

    • D.

      Both A and B

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Both A and B
    Explanation
    Both A and B are methods used to diagnose edema. A volumeter is a device used to measure the volume of a body part, such as a limb, and can be used to assess the presence and severity of edema. Circumferential measurements involve measuring the circumference of a body part, typically at regular intervals along its length, and can also be used to detect and monitor the presence of edema. Therefore, both of these methods are commonly used in clinical practice to diagnose and assess edema.

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  • 34. 

    This a condition seen in stroke patients that involves decreased attention to and awareness of one side of space.

    • A.

      UVN

    • B.

      CVA

    • C.

      Edema

    • D.

      Contracture

    Correct Answer
    A. UVN
    Explanation
    Unilateral Visual Neglect (UVN) is a condition commonly observed in stroke patients. It refers to a decreased ability to pay attention to and be aware of one side of space. This means that individuals with UVN may ignore or neglect objects, people, or events on one side of their visual field, typically the side opposite to the brain hemisphere that has been affected by the stroke. This condition can lead to difficulties in daily activities and may require rehabilitation and therapy to improve spatial awareness and attention.

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  • 35. 

    This is defined as malalignment caused by instability of the glenohumeral joint.

    • A.

      Contracture

    • B.

      Subluxation

    • C.

      Scapular winging

    • D.

      Heterotopic ossification

    Correct Answer
    B. Subluxation
    Explanation
    Subluxation refers to partial dislocation of a joint, in this case, the glenohumeral joint. It is characterized by the instability of the joint, leading to malalignment. This can occur due to various factors such as trauma, ligamentous laxity, or muscle weakness. Subluxation is different from complete dislocation as the joint surfaces remain partially in contact with each other. It can cause pain, limited range of motion, and functional impairment. Therefore, subluxation is the correct answer as it aligns with the given definition of malalignment caused by glenohumeral joint instability.

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  • 36. 

    A _____ approach should be used before a ______ approach with CVA patients.

    • A.

      Remedial; compensatory

    • B.

      Compensatory; remedial

    • C.

      PNF; NDT

    • D.

      NDT; PNF

    Correct Answer
    A. Remedial; compensatory
    Explanation
    A remedial approach should be used before a compensatory approach with CVA patients. This means that it is important to focus on addressing and improving the underlying impairments and deficits in motor control and function before implementing compensatory strategies. Remedial approaches aim to restore and improve the patient's ability to perform functional tasks using their own abilities and strengths. Once these underlying impairments have been addressed, compensatory approaches can be used to help the patient adapt and compensate for any remaining deficits.

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  • 37. 

    An OTR is working with a CVA patient who speaks articulately and grammatically correct, but has sometimes has trouble thinking of the correct word. What is the patient experiencing?

    • A.

      Dysarthria

    • B.

      Expressive aphasia

    • C.

      Anomic aphasia

    • D.

      Aphagia

    Correct Answer
    C. Anomic aphasia
    Explanation
    The patient is experiencing anomic aphasia. This type of aphasia is characterized by difficulty in finding the correct words or names for things. The patient is able to speak articulately and grammatically correct, but they struggle with word-finding. This can be frustrating for the patient as they may have the thoughts and ideas in their mind, but struggle to express them due to difficulty in recalling the appropriate words.

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  • 38. 

    An OTR is working with a CVA patient who he suspects might be experiencing UVN. Which of the following assessments would be BEST?

    • A.

      AQT

    • B.

      RBMT

    • C.

      BIT

    • D.

      LOTCA

    Correct Answer
    C. BIT
    Explanation
    The BEST assessment for an OTR working with a CVA patient suspected of experiencing UVN would be the BIT (Behavioral Inattention Test). The BIT is specifically designed to assess for visual neglect and other visual perceptual deficits, which are common in CVA patients. This assessment would help the OTR determine the extent of the patient's UVN and develop appropriate interventions to address their visual deficits.

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  • 39. 

    An OTR is working with a patient who completes 25% of her lower body dressing. What score would she receive on the FIM?

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      1

    • D.

      0

    Correct Answer
    C. 1
    Explanation
    The patient completes 25% of her lower body dressing, indicating that she requires moderate assistance from the OTR. According to the FIM scoring system, a score of 1 is given when a patient requires moderate assistance. Therefore, the patient would receive a score of 1 on the FIM.

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  • 40. 

    An OTR is pressed for time but wants to test a variety of cognitive skills with her new TBI patient, including abstract reasoning, temporal awareness, and simple math skills. Which assessment should she choose?

    • A.

      BIT

    • B.

      CAM

    • C.

      PASS

    • D.

      COPM

    Correct Answer
    B. CAM
    Explanation
    The OTR is pressed for time and wants to test a variety of cognitive skills with her new TBI patient, including abstract reasoning, temporal awareness, and simple math skills. CAM (Cognitive Assessment of Minnesota) would be the best choice for this assessment as it is designed to assess various cognitive abilities, including abstract reasoning, temporal awareness, and simple math skills. This assessment would provide a comprehensive evaluation of the patient's cognitive abilities within a limited timeframe.

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  • 41. 

    An OTR working in home health wants to assess a client's mobility and ability to safely perform ADLs and IADLs. Which assessment would be BEST?

    • A.

      BIT

    • B.

      LOTCA

    • C.

      CAM

    • D.

      PASS

    Correct Answer
    D. PASS
    Explanation
    PASS stands for the Performance Assessment of Self-Care Skills. It is a comprehensive assessment tool that evaluates a client's ability to perform activities of daily living (ADLs) and instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs). It assesses the client's mobility and safety in performing these tasks, making it the best choice for the OTR working in home health to assess the client's mobility and ability to safely perform ADLs and IADLs.

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  • 42. 

    This assessment tests functioning in four specific areas: cooking, telephone use, medication management, and bill management.

    • A.

      PASS

    • B.

      COPM

    • C.

      EFPT

    • D.

      LOTCA

    Correct Answer
    C. EFPT
    Explanation
    This question is asking for an explanation of the correct answer, which is "EFPT." EFPT stands for the Executive Function Performance Test, which is a tool used to assess an individual's ability to perform everyday tasks that require executive functioning skills. The EFPT assesses functioning in four specific areas: cooking, telephone use, medication management, and bill management. Therefore, EFPT is the correct answer because it aligns with the areas of functioning mentioned in the question.

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  • 43. 

    An OTR is assessing cognition for a patient with a brain tumour. Which assessment would be BEST?

    • A.

      BIT

    • B.

      LOTCA

    • C.

      EFPT

    • D.

      CAM

    Correct Answer
    B. LOTCA
    Explanation
    The LOTCA assessment would be the best choice for assessing cognition in a patient with a brain tumor. LOTCA stands for "Lowenstein Occupational Therapy Cognitive Assessment" and it is specifically designed to evaluate cognitive functions such as attention, memory, problem-solving, and visual perception. Since the patient has a brain tumor, it is important to use an assessment that can thoroughly evaluate their cognitive abilities and identify any deficits or impairments that may be present. The LOTCA assessment is widely recognized and used in the field of occupational therapy for this purpose.

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  • 44. 

    An OTR is assessing a CVA patient's use of the UE. Which asssessment is BEST?

    • A.

      FTHUE

    • B.

      BIT

    • C.

      CAM

    • D.

      LOTCA

    Correct Answer
    A. FTHUE
    Explanation
    The FTHUE (Functional Test for the Hemiparetic Upper Extremity) is the best assessment for an OTR (Occupational Therapist Registered) to use when assessing a CVA (Cerebrovascular Accident) patient's use of the UE (Upper Extremity). This assessment specifically focuses on evaluating the functional abilities and limitations of the patient's affected arm and hand, providing valuable information for treatment planning and intervention.

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  • 45. 

    This assessment was designed to measure a client’s categorization skills and reasoning and shows client’s deductive reasoning abilities.

    • A.

      LOTCA

    • B.

      CAM

    • C.

      FTHUE

    • D.

      TCA

    Correct Answer
    D. TCA
    Explanation
    The given sequence of letters can be categorized into groups of three. The first group consists of the letters L, O, and T. The second group consists of the letters C, A, and M. The third group consists of the letters F, T, H, U, and E. The fourth group consists of the letters T, C, and A. Therefore, the correct answer is TCA, as it follows the pattern of the fourth group. This question assesses the client's ability to categorize and reason deductively based on the given pattern.

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  • 46. 

    An OTR is assessing the everyday memory and functioning of a client. Which assessment is BEST?

    • A.

      RBMT

    • B.

      BIT

    • C.

      LOTCA

    • D.

      FTHUE

    Correct Answer
    A. RBMT
    Explanation
    The Rivermead Behavioral Memory Test (RBMT) is the best assessment for evaluating the everyday memory and functioning of a client. This test is specifically designed to assess memory impairments and functional difficulties in daily life activities. It includes various tasks that measure different aspects of memory, such as recall, recognition, and prospective memory. The RBMT has been widely used and has demonstrated good reliability and validity in assessing memory deficits in clinical populations. Therefore, it is the most suitable option for evaluating everyday memory and functioning in this scenario.

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  • 47. 

    An OTR wants to assess a patient with Alzheimer's basic cooking skills. Which assessment is best?

    • A.

      CAM

    • B.

      KTA

    • C.

      RBMT

    • D.

      LOTCA

    Correct Answer
    B. KTA
    Explanation
    The KTA (Kitchen Task Assessment) is the best assessment for evaluating a patient with Alzheimer's basic cooking skills. This assessment specifically focuses on assessing a person's ability to perform basic cooking tasks, such as measuring ingredients, following a recipe, and using kitchen utensils safely. It provides a comprehensive evaluation of the individual's cognitive and functional abilities related to cooking, making it an appropriate choice for assessing cooking skills in patients with Alzheimer's.

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