Aircraft AMOC Hardest Trivia Questions! Quiz

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1. (105b) Who is responsible for planning the depot maintenance program for each system/equipment and controlling funds (TO 00-25-4)

Explanation

The AFMC Single Manager (SM) is responsible for planning the depot maintenance program for each system/equipment and controlling funds. This means that they are in charge of organizing and coordinating the maintenance program for the different systems and equipment within the Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC). They also have the authority to allocate and manage the funds required for this maintenance program.

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About This Quiz
Aircraft AMOC Hardest Trivia Questions! Quiz - Quiz

There are different ways that people choose to handle a situation, and in the air force, the alternative method of compliance shows someone the different ways other than the ones approved in the AD. Do you have a proper understanding of AMOC? The quiz below is considered the hardest trivia,... see moregive it a try, and if you get high marks, consider yourself ready for the assessment quiz. see less

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2. (105a) Which inspection type is a final visual check for panel/door security; downlocks, covers, and pins being removed; fluid leakage; and flight control operation?

Explanation

The End of Runway (EOR) inspection is a final visual check that ensures panel/door security, downlocks, covers, and pins have been removed, there is no fluid leakage, and flight control operation is functioning properly. This inspection is conducted at the end of the runway before takeoff to ensure the aircraft is in a safe and airworthy condition.

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3. (102c) What is risk management is defined as what? 

Explanation

Risk management is defined as a decision-making process. This means that it involves a systematic approach to identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks, as well as developing and implementing strategies to mitigate or manage those risks. By using a decision-making process, organizations can make informed choices about how to best allocate resources and address potential risks, ultimately improving their ability to achieve their objectives and minimize negative outcomes.

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4. (102a) What is a listing of personnel qualified for critical tasks?

Explanation

SCR stands for "Skill Code Roster," which is a listing of personnel qualified for critical tasks. This roster helps to identify individuals who possess the necessary skills and qualifications to perform specific tasks or roles within an organization. By having a SCR, organizations can ensure that the right people are assigned to critical tasks, minimizing errors and maximizing efficiency.

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5. (104d) What is one of the main FOD prevention practices?

Explanation

One of the main FOD prevention practices is to account for all tools and equipment. This means keeping track of all the tools and equipment used in a particular area or task to ensure that nothing is left behind, which could potentially become foreign object debris (FOD). By regularly checking and accounting for all tools and equipment, the risk of FOD incidents can be minimized.

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6. (104d) Aircraft sustaining FOD from an unknown cause will be considered for...

Explanation

When an aircraft sustains FOD (Foreign Object Damage) from an unknown cause, it will be considered for impoundment. Impoundment refers to the act of temporarily seizing and holding the aircraft for further investigation and inspection. This is done to ensure the safety and integrity of the aircraft and to determine the cause of the FOD. Impoundment allows experts to thoroughly examine the aircraft and identify any potential risks or issues that may have led to the FOD.

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7. (104a) What is the first choice to break torque with?

Explanation

The hinge handle is the first choice to break torque with because it allows for a greater range of motion and provides better leverage compared to the other options. The hinge handle can be adjusted to different angles, allowing for easier access to tight spaces and better control over the amount of force applied. This makes it an ideal tool for loosening or tightening bolts or screws that require a significant amount of torque.

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8. (103d) What tool is used to accomplish one-time inpection, modification, or impose temporary restrictions on equipment?

Explanation

A Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) is used to accomplish one-time inspection, modification, or impose temporary restrictions on equipment. It is a directive issued by the Air Force to ensure the safety, reliability, and compliance of equipment. TCTOs are typically issued when there is a need for immediate action or when a modification is required to address a specific issue. They provide detailed instructions on how to perform the required tasks and ensure that equipment remains in a safe and operational condition.

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9. (103a) Most AF publications are related to what?

Explanation

AF Specialty Code (AFSC) is the correct answer because AF publications are typically related to the various specialties and career fields within the Air Force. The AFSC is a code that identifies a specific job or career field within the Air Force, and these codes are used to organize and categorize the AF publications. Therefore, it makes sense that most AF publications would be related to the AF Specialty Code (AFSC).

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10. (103a) When does a publication become official

Explanation

Once a publication is published on www.e-publishing.af.mil, it becomes official. This implies that the information contained in the publication is authorized and endorsed by the relevant authorities. The publication is made available to the intended audience and can be accessed and referenced by individuals who require the information it contains. Publishing the document on a designated website ensures that it is widely accessible and can be easily found and utilized by those who need it.

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11. (104c) What is the main purpose of using a Circuit Card Diagnostic Unit?

Explanation

The main purpose of using a Circuit Card Diagnostic Unit is to repair locally and save money. This unit allows for the diagnosis and repair of circuit cards without the need to send them to a higher-level repair facility, which can be costly and time-consuming. By using this unit, technicians can identify and fix issues with circuit cards on-site, reducing the need for outsourcing repairs and ultimately saving money.

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12. (104c) What are the two main types of Borescopes?

Explanation

The two main types of Borescopes are rigid and flexible. Rigid borescopes have a fixed straight tube and are used for inspecting straight or slightly curved areas. Flexible borescopes, on the other hand, have a flexible insertion tube that can bend and navigate through complex and curved areas. Both types of borescopes have their own advantages and are used in different applications based on the specific inspection requirements.

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13. (103c) What form is used to request a change to a TO? 

Explanation

The correct answer is AFTO Form 22. AFTO Form 22 is used to request a change to a TO (Technical Order). This form is specifically designed for requesting changes, additions, or deletions to existing TOs. It allows users to provide detailed information about the proposed change, including the reason for the change, the impact it will have, and any supporting documentation. By using AFTO Form 22, individuals can ensure that their requests for TO changes are properly documented and processed.

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14. (105c) When does non-powered AGE equipment need to be inspected for corrosion, abrasion, dents and condition of welds?

Explanation

Non-powered AGE equipment needs to be inspected for corrosion, abrasion, dents, and condition of welds before use to ensure its safety and functionality. This pre-use inspection helps identify any potential issues or damage that may have occurred since the last use, allowing for necessary repairs or maintenance to be carried out before the equipment is put into operation. By conducting this inspection before use, any potential risks or hazards can be mitigated, ensuring the equipment is in proper working condition and reducing the chances of accidents or failures during operation.

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15. (105a) Which inspection type is done in conjunction with minor/major iso inspections?

Explanation

The correct answer is Home Station Check (HSC). This inspection is done in conjunction with minor/major iso inspections. The HSC is conducted to ensure that the aircraft is in a safe and operational condition before it returns to home station. It involves a thorough inspection of the aircraft's systems, components, and overall condition. The purpose of this inspection is to identify any issues or discrepancies that may have occurred during the iso inspections and to rectify them before the aircraft is cleared for further operations.

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16. (105a) Which of the following is performed immediately prior to take-off?

Explanation

Prior to take-off, one of the tasks that needs to be performed is arming the munitions. This involves ensuring that the weapons on the aircraft are ready for use, which may include loading ammunition, activating systems, and conducting safety checks. This step is crucial to ensure that the aircraft is prepared for any potential combat or mission requirements once it is airborne.

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17. (102a) What is a Mission Design Series? 

Explanation

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18. (102a) What term is used to cover all aspects of moving an aircraft from its spot to the air back to a spot. 

Explanation

Launch and recovery is the correct answer because it encompasses all aspects of moving an aircraft from its initial position on the ground to the air and then back to a spot upon landing. This term is commonly used in aviation to refer to the entire process of launching an aircraft for flight and recovering it safely after landing. It includes activities such as pre-flight checks, taxiing, takeoff, flight operations, landing, and parking.

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19. (102a) What symbol is used to document that an aircraft is not flyable? 

Explanation

The symbol "X" is used to document that an aircraft is not flyable. This symbol is commonly used in aviation to indicate that an aircraft is out of service or temporarily grounded. It is typically marked on the aircraft's maintenance log or other relevant documentation to indicate that it is not airworthy and should not be flown until necessary repairs or maintenance have been completed.

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20. (103b) What are the three types of system publication? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Standard, Specialized, Non-Air Force. This answer correctly identifies the three types of system publication. Standard publications are those that provide general guidance and procedures applicable to all users. Specialized publications are tailored to specific organizations or job functions. Non-Air Force publications are those that are not specific to the Air Force, such as joint publications or publications from other branches of the military.

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21. (105d) What is the purpose of a pneumatic cart?

Explanation

A pneumatic cart is designed to provide low pressure/high volume air for starting aircraft engines and operating air conditioners. This means that it is used to supply the necessary air pressure to start the engines of an aircraft and to operate the air conditioning system. This is an important function as it ensures that the engines can be started effectively and that the aircraft's cabin can be properly cooled during flight.

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22. (104d) Who assigns the FOD monitor position?

Explanation

The Vice Wing CC assigns the FOD monitor position.

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23. (104a) How many classifications are there for tools?

Explanation

There are five classifications for tools.

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24. (104b) The master inventory list (MIL) is found...

Explanation

The master inventory list (MIL) can be found in two places: in the CTK and in TAS/TC MAX. This means that the MIL is stored and accessible in both the CTK (presumably a specific tool or system) and TAS/TC MAX (another tool or system). Therefore, users can refer to the MIL in either of these locations to access the inventory list.

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25. (105b) The philosophy of reverse "triage" concept applies to:

Explanation

The philosophy of reverse "triage" concept applies to ABDR. Reverse triage refers to the process of prioritizing and allocating resources based on the severity of the situation or the urgency of the need. In the case of ABDR (Aircraft Battle Damage Repair), this concept would involve identifying and addressing the most critical and immediate repair needs first, in order to restore the aircraft to operational status as quickly as possible. This approach ensures that limited resources are effectively utilized and that the highest priority tasks are addressed promptly.

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26. (104b) When is a tool box inventoried?

Explanation

A tool box is inventoried upon issue and return and before and after each task to ensure that all tools are accounted for and in proper working condition. By conducting regular inventories, any missing or damaged tools can be identified and replaced, preventing delays or accidents during tasks. Additionally, this practice helps to maintain an organized and efficient tool inventory system.

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27. (102c) What/who falls under the scope of risk management? 

Explanation

All personnel, everywhere falls under the scope of risk management. Risk management is the process of identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks in order to minimize or eliminate them. It involves analyzing potential risks and implementing strategies to mitigate them. In order to effectively manage risks, it is important to consider all personnel, regardless of their location or duty status, as they can contribute to or be affected by potential risks. By including all personnel, organizations can ensure comprehensive risk management practices and create a safer environment for everyone involved.

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28. (105c)  What form must be inspected prior to the use of non-powered AGE equipment?

Explanation

AFTO Form 244 must be inspected prior to the use of non-powered AGE equipment.

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29. (105b) Which depot inspection ensures structural integrity (strength, rigidity, damage, tolerance, durability, and service life capability):

Explanation

The Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) ensures the structural integrity of aircraft by conducting inspections that evaluate the strength, rigidity, damage tolerance, durability, and service life capability of the aircraft. This program is specifically designed to identify any potential issues or weaknesses in the structure of the aircraft and take appropriate actions to maintain its integrity. It involves regular inspections, maintenance, and repairs to ensure that the aircraft remains safe and reliable throughout its service life.

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30. (102a) Who ensures the maintenance is accomplished and does not normally perform maintenance or inspections? 

Explanation

The expediter ensures that maintenance is accomplished and does not normally perform maintenance or inspections. They are responsible for coordinating and expediting the flow of materials, equipment, and personnel to ensure that maintenance tasks are completed on time. They work closely with maintenance personnel, supply chain management, and other departments to ensure that all necessary resources are available and that maintenance activities are carried out efficiently.

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31. (102a) What is the Violation when an individual is performing mx without proper TO's 

Explanation

When an individual is performing mx (maintenance) without proper TO's (Technical Orders), it is a violation of TDV (Technical Data Violation). Technical Orders provide specific instructions, procedures, and guidelines for performing maintenance tasks on equipment or systems. Not following these TO's can lead to errors, inefficiencies, and potential safety hazards. Therefore, it is important for individuals to adhere to the proper TO's when conducting maintenance activities.

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32. (104a) Which of these is not a special hand tool?

Explanation

The options given are all hand tools commonly used in various industries. A scribe is a tool used for marking lines on materials, an inspection mirror is used for examining hard-to-reach areas, and a magnet is used for picking up metal objects. However, a crow's foot is not a hand tool, but rather a type of wrench attachment used for tightening or loosening bolts in tight spaces.

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33. (104a) The easiest step to avoid injury and damage while using tools is to

Explanation

Keeping the area clean with no tools lying around is the easiest step to avoid injury and damage while using tools because it eliminates the risk of tripping over tools or accidentally stepping on them. By keeping the area clean and organized, it reduces the chances of accidents and ensures that tools are stored properly when not in use. This promotes a safe working environment and prevents potential injuries or damage that could occur due to clutter or misplaced tools.

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34. (104b) Who's responsible for executing an effective tool program?

Explanation

Commanders and key leaders are responsible for executing an effective tool program. They have the authority and decision-making power to ensure that the program is implemented and followed effectively. As the individuals in charge, they can provide the necessary resources, set expectations, and enforce accountability to ensure the success of the tool program. This responsibility cannot be solely delegated to a section chief, MXG/CC, or pro super, as they may have specific roles within the program but ultimately, it is the commanders and key leaders who are accountable for its execution.

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35. (104b) What form is used when TAS is unavailable?

Explanation

When TAS (Transportation Account Code) is unavailable, the form AF Form 1297 is used.

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36. (103c) What level is tech order distribution office located within the MXG?

Explanation

The tech order distribution office is located within the GP (Group) level of the MXG (Maintenance Group).

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37. (104c) What form does the TMDE Monitor document discrepancies on?

Explanation

The TMDE Monitor documents discrepancies on AFTO Form 350.

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38. (104c) What does an Oscilloscope do?

Explanation

An oscilloscope is a device used to display and analyze the graphical representation of electrical signals. It allows users to visualize waveforms, voltage levels, and frequencies of signals. By providing a visual representation, an oscilloscope helps in troubleshooting and analyzing various electrical circuits and systems. It is a valuable tool in electronics, telecommunications, and other fields where the understanding and analysis of electrical signals are crucial.

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39. (103b) What are the three levels of Doctrine Documents (DD)? 

Explanation

The correct answer is basic, operational, tactical. Doctrine Documents (DD) are classified into three levels based on their scope and purpose. The basic level provides fundamental principles and concepts that guide the overall doctrine development. The operational level focuses on specific operational activities and provides detailed guidance for planning and executing missions. The tactical level deals with specific tactics, techniques, and procedures for carrying out specific tasks and operations on the battlefield. These three levels ensure that doctrine documents cater to different levels of command and provide appropriate guidance for decision-making and execution.

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40. (103b) What AFI is the Publication Management Program?  

Explanation

The correct answer is 33-360. This AFI, or Air Force Instruction, is the Publication Management Program. It provides guidance on the management and control of Air Force publications, including the creation, revision, and distribution processes. This AFI helps ensure that Air Force publications are accurate, up-to-date, and readily available to personnel who need them.

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41. (103b) Which publication originates at the MAJCOM, FOA, and DRU level and applies to all units under control of issuing HQ? 

Explanation

Field Publication originates at the MAJCOM, FOA, and DRU level and applies to all units under control of issuing HQ. It is a type of publication that provides guidance and instructions to units within a specific field or functional area.

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42. (105b) PDM interval is determined by:

Explanation

The correct answer is "00-25-4". This is because 00-25-4 is a document that provides guidance and procedures for determining the PDM (Programmed Depot Maintenance) interval. It is a technical manual that outlines the requirements and processes for maintaining and servicing military equipment. AFI 21-101, AF Form 2005, and 00-20-1 are not specifically related to determining the PDM interval.

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43. (102c) Which choice below is NOT one of the goals of RM

Explanation

The goal of Risk Management (RM) is to enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, integrate RM into the mission process, and motivate all personnel to manage risk on and off duty. The choice "Accept no unnecessary risk" is not one of the goals of RM. This means that RM does not aim to completely eliminate all risks, but rather to identify, assess, and mitigate risks to an acceptable level.

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44. (102c) What is the third step in the risk management process?

Explanation

The third step in the risk management process is to make control decisions. This involves evaluating the identified hazards and determining the most effective control measures to mitigate or eliminate the risks associated with those hazards. It requires considering various factors such as feasibility, cost-effectiveness, and the potential impact of the control measures on the overall risk level. By making informed control decisions, organizations can effectively reduce the likelihood and severity of potential hazards, ensuring the safety and well-being of individuals and the success of their operations.

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45. (102c) Maintenance Resource Management integrates what philosophy into daily maintenance?

Explanation

Maintenance Resource Management (MRM) is a program that focuses on improving safety and efficiency in maintenance operations. It integrates various principles and concepts from different fields to achieve this goal. One of the key components of MRM is human factors, which involves understanding how human behavior, capabilities, and limitations can impact maintenance activities. By considering human factors, MRM aims to design systems, processes, and procedures that are compatible with human abilities, thus reducing errors and improving overall performance. Therefore, the correct answer is human factors.

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46. (105c) What aircraft systems require nitrogen servicing?

Explanation

Nitrogen servicing is required for accumulators, shock struts, tires, and fuel tank inerting. These systems rely on nitrogen to maintain proper functioning. Accumulators use nitrogen to store hydraulic energy, shock struts use nitrogen to absorb landing impact, tires are filled with nitrogen to maintain consistent pressure, and fuel tank inerting systems use nitrogen to reduce the risk of fire.

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47. (105a) Which aircraft use(s) the periodic inspection concept

Explanation

The F-15 aircraft uses the periodic inspection concept.

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48. (102a) What form is used to Issue release/ Receipt document? 

Explanation

The correct answer is AF Form 1348-1. This form is used to issue release/receipt documents.

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49. (103e) What is an integrated, synchronized system of inspections conducted on behalf of the SECAF, the CSAF and commanders at all levels?

Explanation

The Air Force Inspection System (AFIS) is an integrated, synchronized system of inspections conducted on behalf of the SECAF, the CSAF, and commanders at all levels. It is designed to assess and improve the readiness, compliance, and effectiveness of Air Force units and organizations. AFIS ensures that inspections are conducted consistently and objectively, providing valuable feedback to commanders and helping them identify areas for improvement. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the high standards and operational readiness of the Air Force.

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50. (102a) What is the Maintenance Level Concepts? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Organizational Level, Intermediate Level, and Depot Level. These are the three levels of maintenance in the Maintenance Level Concepts. The Organizational Level refers to the maintenance tasks performed by the unit or organization that operates the equipment. The Intermediate Level involves more complex maintenance tasks that are typically performed at a centralized maintenance facility. The Depot Level is the highest level of maintenance and involves extensive repairs and overhauls that are conducted at a specialized depot facility.

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51. (105d) What special safety precaution must be followed using gas turbine powered AGE equipment that has a red lines?

Explanation

The correct answer states that personnel must not stand in front of the red lines and the red lines must not be pointed towards the aircraft. This is because the red lines indicate a danger zone where it is unsafe for personnel to stand. Standing in front of the red lines can put personnel at risk of injury from the equipment. Additionally, pointing the red lines towards the aircraft can pose a danger to the aircraft itself. Therefore, it is important to follow this safety precaution to ensure the safety of personnel and the aircraft.

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52. (102a) What system is used to tract Mx, document actions, and determine health fleet? 

Explanation

MIS stands for Management Information System. It is a system used to track Mx (maintenance), document actions, and determine the health of the fleet. MIS provides information and data related to maintenance activities, allowing for better decision-making and analysis of the fleet's overall performance. It helps in identifying trends, monitoring progress, and ensuring effective management of resources.

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53. (105a)  In which hangar queen category does an aircraft that has not flown for 30-59 days fall?

Explanation

An aircraft that has not flown for 30-59 days falls into the Cat 1 hangar queen category.

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54. (103c) Which of the following is not a goal related to the use of TOs?

Explanation

The use of TOs, or technical orders, aims to provide up-to-date, accurate, and user-friendly information. However, the goal of being concise is not directly related to the use of TOs. While it is important for TOs to be clear and concise, it is not a specific goal related to their use.

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55. (103c) Which of the following is a methods and procedures TO?

Explanation

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56. (102c) Who establishes policy, requirements, and overall strategy for RM.

Explanation

The SECAF, or Secretary of the Air Force, establishes policy, requirements, and overall strategy for RM. As the highest-ranking civilian official in the Air Force, the SECAF is responsible for making decisions and setting guidelines that shape the risk management practices within the organization. This includes determining the overall strategic direction for risk management, establishing policies that all Airmen must follow, and providing guidance to the respective MAJCOMs and Owning Wing CCs on how to implement risk management effectively.

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57. (103e) What is not a tool the Wing IG uses to prepare for external inspections?

Explanation

The Wing IG uses various tools to prepare for external inspections, such as the Management Internal Compliance Toolset (MICT), Wing Inspection Team (WIT), and Commander's Inspection Program (CCIP). However, the Unite Effectiveness Inspection (UEI) is not a tool used by the Wing IG for this purpose.

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58. (105c) What other maintenance activity can be performed while servicing LOX on an aircraft?

Explanation

While servicing LOX on an aircraft, no other maintenance activity can be performed. This means that the focus should solely be on the servicing of LOX and no other maintenance tasks should be carried out simultaneously. It is important to prioritize and focus on completing the LOX servicing correctly and efficiently before moving on to any other maintenance activities.

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59. (104c) What does a Mulitimeter measure?

Explanation

A multimeter is a versatile electrical measuring instrument that can measure various electrical quantities. It is commonly used to measure current and resistance in electrical circuits. By measuring the current, it can determine the flow of electric charge, while measuring resistance helps in assessing the opposition to the flow of current in a circuit. Therefore, a multimeter is capable of measuring current and resistance accurately.

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60. (102b) When working above your head what is required PPE?

Explanation

When working above your head, safety glasses are required as PPE (Personal Protective Equipment) to protect the eyes from any potential hazards or debris that may fall from above. Gloves may also be necessary depending on the specific task being performed, but the question only asks for the required PPE, which is safety glasses in this case.

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61. (102a) What is the Mission of Maintenance? 

Explanation

The mission of maintenance is to ensure that aircraft and equipment are ready for use, safe to operate, and in serviceable condition. This includes ensuring that they are properly configured for their intended purpose. By prioritizing these factors, maintenance teams can effectively support operations and minimize the risk of accidents or failures due to equipment malfunction or improper configuration.

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62. (105a) Which type of inspection is used to assure no defects exist that would be detrimental to further flight?

Explanation

Thru-flight inspection is used to assure that no defects exist that would be detrimental to further flight. This type of inspection is conducted between flights to check for any visible signs of damage, loose or missing parts, or any other issues that could potentially affect the safety or performance of the aircraft during the next flight. Thru-flight inspections are typically quick and visual in nature, focusing on the exterior of the aircraft and its immediate surroundings.

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63. (105d) The A/M32A-86/-86D is which of the following?

Explanation

The A/M32A-86/-86D is a diesel driven generator.

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64. (102a) What form is used to track units items on order/account? 

Explanation

The correct answer is AF Form 2413. This form is used to track units items on order/account in the Air Force. It is a standardized form that allows for efficient and accurate tracking of items, ensuring that orders are properly accounted for and fulfilled.

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65. (105a)  Which inspection concept involves individual areas, components, and systems inspected beyond th normal -6 requirements?

Explanation

PDM stands for Planned Maintenance (or Periodic) Inspection. This concept involves inspecting individual areas, components, and systems beyond the normal requirements. It is a systematic approach to maintenance that ensures regular inspections are conducted to identify any potential issues or defects and address them before they become major problems. PDM helps to prevent unexpected breakdowns and ensures the overall reliability and safety of the inspected areas, components, and systems.

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66. (103c) A job guide falls under what type of TO?

Explanation

An organizational maintenance manual is a comprehensive guide that provides instructions and procedures for maintaining and repairing equipment or systems within an organization. A job guide, which falls under the category of organizational maintenance manuals, specifically focuses on providing guidance for specific job tasks or duties. It outlines the steps, tools, and techniques needed to successfully complete a particular job within the organization. Therefore, the correct answer is organizational maintenance manuals.

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67. (103b) A type of non-directive that is a guide for "how-to" documents 

Explanation

A pamphlet is a type of non-directive that serves as a guide for "how-to" documents. Unlike handbooks, which are usually comprehensive and cover a wide range of topics, pamphlets are more concise and focused on specific instructions or information. Pamphlets are often used for educational or promotional purposes and are designed to be easily distributed and understood.

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68. (105a) Which inspection concept translates aircraft utilization rates into calendar periods?

Explanation

The correct answer is Iso. Iso stands for Inspection Scheduled Operations and it is an inspection concept that translates aircraft utilization rates into calendar periods. This concept helps in determining when inspections and maintenance tasks should be performed based on the number of hours or cycles an aircraft has been operated. By using Iso, aircraft operators can effectively plan and schedule inspections to ensure the safety and airworthiness of the aircraft.

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69. (102a) What is a reason for an Aircraft Impoundment? 

Explanation

A reason for an aircraft impoundment could be a failed flight control system. If the flight control system malfunctions or fails, it can pose a significant risk to the safety of the aircraft and its passengers. In such cases, authorities may impound the aircraft to ensure that it is thoroughly inspected and repaired before it can be deemed safe for operation again.

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70. (102a) What form is used to Issue or turn in an item? 

Explanation

The AF Form 2005 is used to issue or turn in an item.

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71. (104d) What AFI governs the FOD program?

Explanation

AFI 21-101 is the correct answer because it governs the FOD (Foreign Object Damage) program. This AFI provides guidance and procedures for preventing and controlling FOD, which can cause damage to aircraft, equipment, and personnel. It outlines responsibilities, reporting requirements, and FOD prevention measures to ensure safe operations and maintenance practices.

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72. (105b) Which form must depot receive to process request for maintenance:

Explanation

The correct answer is AFTO 103. The AFTO 103 form is the form that the depot must receive in order to process a request for maintenance. The other options listed, DD 1348-1, DD 2875, and AFTO 107, are not the correct forms for this purpose.

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73. (105c) What series of trailer for the removal of engines is hydraulically operated and includes adjustable fore and aft and side to side angles?

Explanation

The 4000/4100 trailers series is hydraulically operated and includes adjustable fore and aft and side to side angles for the removal of engines.

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74. (105d) The A/M32A-60 is which of the following?

Explanation

The A/M32A-60 is a combination pneumatic cart and generator. This means that it serves both as a cart for transporting pneumatic equipment and as a generator for providing power. It is designed to be versatile and efficient, providing multiple functions in one unit.

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75. (105a) Who controls the flow of inspection from start to finish?

Explanation

Dock Production Management controls the flow of inspection from start to finish. They oversee and manage the entire inspection process, ensuring that it is carried out efficiently and effectively. They coordinate with crew chiefs, OICs, and MXG/CC to ensure that inspections are conducted according to the required standards and timelines. Dock Production Management plays a crucial role in maintaining quality control and ensuring that inspections are completed in a timely manner.

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76. (102c) Which of the following is NOT a risk management principle? 

Explanation

The principle "Apply the process as needed" is not a risk management principle. Risk management principles generally focus on proactive measures to identify, assess, and mitigate risks. "Apply the process as needed" suggests a reactive approach where the risk management process is only applied when deemed necessary, which goes against the proactive nature of risk management.

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77. (104d) Use AFI 10-206, Operational Reporting, during a dropped object report if it involves...

Explanation

The use of AFI 10-206, Operational Reporting, is necessary during a dropped object report if it involves adverse publicity. This means that when an object is dropped and it results in negative attention or public criticism, the guidelines outlined in AFI 10-206 should be followed for reporting and handling the situation. The other options listed (aircraft damage, resource misuse, safety violations) may also require reporting, but the specific mention of adverse publicity in the question indicates that it is the most relevant reason for using AFI 10-206 in this context.

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78. (103d) What TCTO classification could result in fatality/serious injury to people or destruction/extensive damage to equipment?

Explanation

Immediate Action TCTO classification could result in fatality/serious injury to people or destruction/extensive damage to equipment. This classification indicates that the action needs to be taken immediately to prevent any potential harm or damage. It implies that there is a high level of urgency and the consequences of not taking immediate action could be severe.

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79. (103d) Digital tech data is...

Explanation

The correct answer is "all of the above". This means that digital tech data is a requirement of new acquisition programs, allows for distribution of changes, supplements, and revisions in near real-time, and also enables near real-time changes to tech data and maintenance documentation. In other words, digital tech data serves multiple purposes and offers various benefits, making it a comprehensive solution for acquisition programs.

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80. (105d) The A/M32A-95 LASS is which of the following?

Explanation

The A/M32A-95 LASS is a pneumatic cart.

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81. (104a) What are the two types of hammers used in maintenance?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Hard face and soft face." In maintenance, hammers are commonly used for various tasks. Hard face hammers have a solid and durable face, making them suitable for heavy-duty applications and striking hard surfaces. Soft face hammers, on the other hand, have a face made of softer materials like rubber or plastic. These hammers are used when a softer impact is required to prevent damage to delicate surfaces or materials. By having both hard face and soft face hammers, maintenance workers can choose the appropriate hammer for different tasks and materials.

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82. (105a) Which inspection concept is accomplished on accrual of flying hours OR calendar days?

Explanation

AVM stands for Aircraft Vibration Monitoring. This inspection concept is accomplished on the accrual of flying hours or calendar days. AVM involves monitoring and analyzing the vibrations of an aircraft to detect any potential issues or abnormalities. By regularly monitoring these vibrations, maintenance personnel can identify and address any problems before they become more serious. This helps to ensure the safety and reliability of the aircraft.

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83. (104b) What cannot be found on all dispatchable CTKs?

Explanation

On all dispatchable CTKs, the inspection date cannot be found. The options given are etching, stamp, inspection date, and barcode. Etching, stamp, and barcode can be found on all dispatchable CTKs, but the inspection date is not included.

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84. (103e) Managing Resources, improving the unit, leading people and executing the mission are reported by what?

Explanation

UEI stands for Unit Effectiveness Inspection. It is a process that involves evaluating and assessing various aspects of a unit's performance, including managing resources, improving the unit, leading people, and executing the mission. This inspection helps identify strengths and weaknesses within the unit and provides recommendations for improvement.

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85. (104b) Tools that are lost, damage, or destroyed due to neglect are swapped one for one according to

Explanation

AFMAN 23-220 is the correct answer because it provides guidance on the procedures for the accountability and management of tools in the Air Force. It specifically addresses the replacement of lost, damaged, or destroyed tools due to neglect, stating that they should be swapped one for one. This means that for every tool that is lost, damaged, or destroyed, a replacement tool should be provided in return. The other listed documents do not specifically address the swapping of tools in this manner.

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86. (102a) What are the types of Maintenance? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Organizational and Depot. Organizational maintenance refers to the maintenance activities performed by the operating unit or organization itself, typically on a day-to-day basis. Depot maintenance, on the other hand, involves more extensive repairs and overhaul of equipment and is usually conducted at specialized facilities. These two types of maintenance cover different levels of maintenance needs and are crucial for ensuring the operational readiness and longevity of equipment.

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(105b) Who is responsible for planning the depot maintenance program...
(105a) Which inspection type is a final visual check for panel/door...
(102c) What is risk management is defined as what? 
(102a) What is a listing of personnel qualified for critical tasks?
(104d) What is one of the main FOD prevention practices?
(104d) Aircraft sustaining FOD from an unknown cause will be...
(104a) What is the first choice to break torque with?
(103d) What tool is used to accomplish one-time inpection,...
(103a) Most AF publications are related to what?
(103a) When does a publication become official
(104c) What is the main purpose of using a Circuit Card Diagnostic...
(104c) What are the two main types of Borescopes?
(103c) What form is used to request a change to a TO? 
(105c) When does non-powered AGE equipment need to be inspected for...
(105a) Which inspection type is done in conjunction with minor/major...
(105a) Which of the following is performed immediately prior to...
(102a) What is a Mission Design Series? 
(102a) What term is used to cover all aspects of moving an aircraft...
(102a) What symbol is used to document that an aircraft is not...
(103b) What are the three types of system publication? 
(105d) What is the purpose of a pneumatic cart?
(104d) Who assigns the FOD monitor position?
(104a) How many classifications are there for tools?
(104b) The master inventory list (MIL) is found...
(105b) The philosophy of reverse "triage" concept applies to:
(104b) When is a tool box inventoried?
(102c) What/who falls under the scope of risk management? 
(105c)  What form must be inspected prior to the use of...
(105b) Which depot inspection ensures structural integrity (strength,...
(102a) Who ensures the maintenance is accomplished and does not...
(102a) What is the Violation when an individual is performing mx...
(104a) Which of these is not a special hand tool?
(104a) The easiest step to avoid injury and damage while using tools...
(104b) Who's responsible for executing an effective tool program?
(104b) What form is used when TAS is unavailable?
(103c) What level is tech order distribution office located within the...
(104c) What form does the TMDE Monitor document discrepancies on?
(104c) What does an Oscilloscope do?
(103b) What are the three levels of Doctrine Documents (DD)? 
(103b) What AFI is the Publication Management Program?  
(103b) Which publication originates at the MAJCOM, FOA, and DRU level...
(105b) PDM interval is determined by:
(102c) Which choice below is NOT one of the goals of RM
(102c) What is the third step in the risk management process?
(102c) Maintenance Resource Management integrates what philosophy into...
(105c) What aircraft systems require nitrogen servicing?
(105a) Which aircraft use(s) the periodic inspection concept
(102a) What form is used to Issue release/ Receipt document? 
(103e) What is an integrated, synchronized system of inspections...
(102a) What is the Maintenance Level Concepts? 
(105d) What special safety precaution must be followed using gas...
(102a) What system is used to tract Mx, document actions, and...
(105a)  In which hangar queen category does an aircraft that has...
(103c) Which of the following is not a goal related to the use of TOs?
(103c) Which of the following is a methods and procedures TO?
(102c) Who establishes policy, requirements, and overall strategy for...
(103e) What is not a tool the Wing IG uses to prepare for external...
(105c) What other maintenance activity can be performed while...
(104c) What does a Mulitimeter measure?
(102b) When working above your head what is required PPE?
(102a) What is the Mission of Maintenance? 
(105a) Which type of inspection is used to assure no defects exist...
(105d) The A/M32A-86/-86D is which of the following?
(102a) What form is used to track units items on order/account? 
(105a)  Which inspection concept involves individual areas,...
(103c) A job guide falls under what type of TO?
(103b) A type of non-directive that is a guide for "how-to"...
(105a) Which inspection concept translates aircraft utilization rates...
(102a) What is a reason for an Aircraft Impoundment? 
(102a) What form is used to Issue or turn in an item? 
(104d) What AFI governs the FOD program?
(105b) Which form must depot receive to process request for...
(105c) What series of trailer for the removal of engines is...
(105d) The A/M32A-60 is which of the following?
(105a) Who controls the flow of inspection from start to finish?
(102c) Which of the following is NOT a risk management...
(104d) Use AFI 10-206, Operational Reporting, during a dropped object...
(103d) What TCTO classification could result in fatality/serious...
(103d) Digital tech data is...
(105d) The A/M32A-95 LASS is which of the following?
(104a) What are the two types of hammers used in maintenance?
(105a) Which inspection concept is accomplished on accrual of flying...
(104b) What cannot be found on all dispatchable CTKs?
(103e) Managing Resources, improving the unit, leading people and...
(104b) Tools that are lost, damage, or destroyed due to neglect are...
(102a) What are the types of Maintenance? 
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