Aircraft AMOC Hardest Trivia Questions! Quiz

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  • 1/86 Questions

    (102c) What is risk management is defined as what? 

    • A decision making process
    • A wing safety program
    • Common practices to reduce injuries to personnel
    • An decision making tool for commanders
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About This Quiz

There are different ways that people choose to handle a situation, and in the air force, the alternative method of compliance shows someone the different ways other than the ones approved in the AD. Do you have a proper understanding of AMOC? The quiz below is considered the hardest trivia, give it a try, and if you get high marks, See moreconsider yourself ready for the assessment quiz.

Aircraft AMOC Hardest Trivia Questions! Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (102c) What/who falls under the scope of risk management? 

    • Only personnel on duty

    • Only personnel on duty

    • All personnel, everywhere

    • No personnel, anywhere

    Correct Answer
    A. All personnel, everywhere
    Explanation
    All personnel, everywhere falls under the scope of risk management. Risk management is the process of identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks in order to minimize or eliminate them. It involves analyzing potential risks and implementing strategies to mitigate them. In order to effectively manage risks, it is important to consider all personnel, regardless of their location or duty status, as they can contribute to or be affected by potential risks. By including all personnel, organizations can ensure comprehensive risk management practices and create a safer environment for everyone involved.

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  • 3. 

    (102c) Which of the following is NOT a risk management principle? 

    • Accept no unnecessary risks

    • Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

    • Integrate RM into operations and activity planning at all levels

    • Apply the process as needed

    Correct Answer
    A. Apply the process as needed
    Explanation
    The principle "Apply the process as needed" is not a risk management principle. Risk management principles generally focus on proactive measures to identify, assess, and mitigate risks. "Apply the process as needed" suggests a reactive approach where the risk management process is only applied when deemed necessary, which goes against the proactive nature of risk management.

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  • 4. 

    (102c) What is the third step in the risk management process?

    • Identify hazards

    • Implement controls

    • Assess the hazards

    • Make control decisions

    Correct Answer
    A. Make control decisions
    Explanation
    The third step in the risk management process is to make control decisions. This involves evaluating the identified hazards and determining the most effective control measures to mitigate or eliminate the risks associated with those hazards. It requires considering various factors such as feasibility, cost-effectiveness, and the potential impact of the control measures on the overall risk level. By making informed control decisions, organizations can effectively reduce the likelihood and severity of potential hazards, ensuring the safety and well-being of individuals and the success of their operations.

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  • 5. 

    (102c) Maintenance Resource Management integrates what philosophy into daily maintenance?

    • Non-verbal communication

    • Behavioral science

    • Human factors

    • Ergonomics

    Correct Answer
    A. Human factors
    Explanation
    Maintenance Resource Management (MRM) is a program that focuses on improving safety and efficiency in maintenance operations. It integrates various principles and concepts from different fields to achieve this goal. One of the key components of MRM is human factors, which involves understanding how human behavior, capabilities, and limitations can impact maintenance activities. By considering human factors, MRM aims to design systems, processes, and procedures that are compatible with human abilities, thus reducing errors and improving overall performance. Therefore, the correct answer is human factors.

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  • 6. 

    (103b) What are the three levels of Doctrine Documents (DD)? 

    • Basic, operational, tactical

    • Standard, specialized, & non-air force

    • Organizational, immediate, depot

    • Advance, operational, informational

    Correct Answer
    A. Basic, operational, tactical
    Explanation
    The correct answer is basic, operational, tactical. Doctrine Documents (DD) are classified into three levels based on their scope and purpose. The basic level provides fundamental principles and concepts that guide the overall doctrine development. The operational level focuses on specific operational activities and provides detailed guidance for planning and executing missions. The tactical level deals with specific tactics, techniques, and procedures for carrying out specific tasks and operations on the battlefield. These three levels ensure that doctrine documents cater to different levels of command and provide appropriate guidance for decision-making and execution.

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  • 7. 

    (103b) What AFI is the Publication Management Program?  

    • 21-101

    • 205

    • 33-360

    • 90-201

    Correct Answer
    A. 33-360
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 33-360. This AFI, or Air Force Instruction, is the Publication Management Program. It provides guidance on the management and control of Air Force publications, including the creation, revision, and distribution processes. This AFI helps ensure that Air Force publications are accurate, up-to-date, and readily available to personnel who need them.

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  • 8. 

    (103b) Which publication originates at the MAJCOM, FOA, and DRU level and applies to all units under control of issuing HQ? 

    • Installation Publication

    • Unit Publication

    • Field Publication

    • Departmental Publication

    Correct Answer
    A. Field Publication
    Explanation
    Field Publication originates at the MAJCOM, FOA, and DRU level and applies to all units under control of issuing HQ. It is a type of publication that provides guidance and instructions to units within a specific field or functional area.

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  • 9. 

    (103b) What are the three types of system publication? 

    • Standard, Specialized, Non-Air Force

    • Field, installation, unit

    • Departmental, installation, unit

    • Standard, directive, non-directive

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard, Specialized, Non-Air Force
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Standard, Specialized, Non-Air Force. This answer correctly identifies the three types of system publication. Standard publications are those that provide general guidance and procedures applicable to all users. Specialized publications are tailored to specific organizations or job functions. Non-Air Force publications are those that are not specific to the Air Force, such as joint publications or publications from other branches of the military.

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  • 10. 

    (103b) A type of non-directive that is a guide for “how-to” documents 

    • Handbooks

    • Pamphlet

    • Recurring

    • Visual aids

    Correct Answer
    A. Pamphlet
    Explanation
    A pamphlet is a type of non-directive that serves as a guide for "how-to" documents. Unlike handbooks, which are usually comprehensive and cover a wide range of topics, pamphlets are more concise and focused on specific instructions or information. Pamphlets are often used for educational or promotional purposes and are designed to be easily distributed and understood.

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  • 11. 

    (105b) PDM interval is determined by:

    • AFI 21-101

    • AF Form 2005

    • 00-25-4

    • 00-20-1

    Correct Answer
    A. 00-25-4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "00-25-4". This is because 00-25-4 is a document that provides guidance and procedures for determining the PDM (Programmed Depot Maintenance) interval. It is a technical manual that outlines the requirements and processes for maintaining and servicing military equipment. AFI 21-101, AF Form 2005, and 00-20-1 are not specifically related to determining the PDM interval.

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  • 12. 

    (105b) Who is responsible for planning the depot maintenance program for each system/equipment and controlling funds (TO 00-25-4)

    • AFMC Single Manager (SM)

    • Chief of Staff of Air Force

    • Secretary of the Air Force

    • MAJCOM

    Correct Answer
    A. AFMC Single Manager (SM)
    Explanation
    The AFMC Single Manager (SM) is responsible for planning the depot maintenance program for each system/equipment and controlling funds. This means that they are in charge of organizing and coordinating the maintenance program for the different systems and equipment within the Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC). They also have the authority to allocate and manage the funds required for this maintenance program.

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  • 13. 

    (105b) Which form must depot receive to process request for maintenance:

    • DD 1348-1

    • DD 2875

    • AFTO 107

    • AFTO 103

    Correct Answer
    A. AFTO 103
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFTO 103. The AFTO 103 form is the form that the depot must receive in order to process a request for maintenance. The other options listed, DD 1348-1, DD 2875, and AFTO 107, are not the correct forms for this purpose.

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  • 14. 

    (105b) Which depot inspection ensures structural integrity (strength, rigidity, damage, tolerance, durability, and service life capability):

    • Analytical Condition Inspection

    • Controlled internal extension

    • Aircraft structural integrity program

    • Phase work cards

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft structural integrity program
    Explanation
    The Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) ensures the structural integrity of aircraft by conducting inspections that evaluate the strength, rigidity, damage tolerance, durability, and service life capability of the aircraft. This program is specifically designed to identify any potential issues or weaknesses in the structure of the aircraft and take appropriate actions to maintain its integrity. It involves regular inspections, maintenance, and repairs to ensure that the aircraft remains safe and reliable throughout its service life.

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  • 15. 

    (105b) The philosophy of reverse “triage” concept applies to:

    • ABDR

    • Depot Feild teams

    • CDDAR

    • All Maintenance Personeel

    Correct Answer
    A. ABDR
    Explanation
    The philosophy of reverse "triage" concept applies to ABDR. Reverse triage refers to the process of prioritizing and allocating resources based on the severity of the situation or the urgency of the need. In the case of ABDR (Aircraft Battle Damage Repair), this concept would involve identifying and addressing the most critical and immediate repair needs first, in order to restore the aircraft to operational status as quickly as possible. This approach ensures that limited resources are effectively utilized and that the highest priority tasks are addressed promptly.

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  • 16. 

    (102b) When working above your head what is required PPE?

    • Gloves

    • Safety glasses

    • Both a and b

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Safety glasses
    Explanation
    When working above your head, safety glasses are required as PPE (Personal Protective Equipment) to protect the eyes from any potential hazards or debris that may fall from above. Gloves may also be necessary depending on the specific task being performed, but the question only asks for the required PPE, which is safety glasses in this case.

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  • 17. 

    (102c) Which choice below is NOT one of the goals of RM

    • Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels

    • Integrate RM into mission process

    • Accept no unnecessary risk

    • Motivate all personnel to manage risk on and off duty

    Correct Answer
    A. Accept no unnecessary risk
    Explanation
    The goal of Risk Management (RM) is to enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, integrate RM into the mission process, and motivate all personnel to manage risk on and off duty. The choice "Accept no unnecessary risk" is not one of the goals of RM. This means that RM does not aim to completely eliminate all risks, but rather to identify, assess, and mitigate risks to an acceptable level.

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  • 18. 

    (102c) Who establishes policy, requirements, and overall strategy for RM.

    • SECAF

    • Respective MAJCOMs

    • Owning Wing CCs

    • All Airmen

    Correct Answer
    A. SECAF
    Explanation
    The SECAF, or Secretary of the Air Force, establishes policy, requirements, and overall strategy for RM. As the highest-ranking civilian official in the Air Force, the SECAF is responsible for making decisions and setting guidelines that shape the risk management practices within the organization. This includes determining the overall strategic direction for risk management, establishing policies that all Airmen must follow, and providing guidance to the respective MAJCOMs and Owning Wing CCs on how to implement risk management effectively.

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  • 19. 

    (103a) Most AF publications are related to what?

    • LeMay Center

    • AF Specialty Code (AFSC)

    • AF Departmental Publication Office (AFDPO)

    • SECAF

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Specialty Code (AFSC)
    Explanation
    AF Specialty Code (AFSC) is the correct answer because AF publications are typically related to the various specialties and career fields within the Air Force. The AFSC is a code that identifies a specific job or career field within the Air Force, and these codes are used to organize and categorize the AF publications. Therefore, it makes sense that most AF publications would be related to the AF Specialty Code (AFSC).

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  • 20. 

    (103a) When does a publication become official

    • Once the pub is signed

    • Once the base receives the paper copy

    • One year after it is written

    • Once its published on www.e-publishing.af.mil

    Correct Answer
    A. Once its published on www.e-publishing.af.mil
    Explanation
    Once a publication is published on www.e-publishing.af.mil, it becomes official. This implies that the information contained in the publication is authorized and endorsed by the relevant authorities. The publication is made available to the intended audience and can be accessed and referenced by individuals who require the information it contains. Publishing the document on a designated website ensures that it is widely accessible and can be easily found and utilized by those who need it.

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  • 21. 

    (103c) Which of the following is not a goal related to the use of TOs?

    • Up-to-date

    • Accurate

    • User-friendly

    • Concise

    Correct Answer
    A. Concise
    Explanation
    The use of TOs, or technical orders, aims to provide up-to-date, accurate, and user-friendly information. However, the goal of being concise is not directly related to the use of TOs. While it is important for TOs to be clear and concise, it is not a specific goal related to their use.

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  • 22. 

    (103c) Which of the following is a methods and procedures TO?

    • 00-2-15

    • 1-3-45

    • 0-34-5

    • 1F-16D-2

    Correct Answer
    A. 00-2-15
  • 23. 

    (103c) A job guide falls under what type of TO?

    • Methods and procedures

    • Organizational maintenance manuals

    • General technical order

    • Structures

    Correct Answer
    A. Organizational maintenance manuals
    Explanation
    An organizational maintenance manual is a comprehensive guide that provides instructions and procedures for maintaining and repairing equipment or systems within an organization. A job guide, which falls under the category of organizational maintenance manuals, specifically focuses on providing guidance for specific job tasks or duties. It outlines the steps, tools, and techniques needed to successfully complete a particular job within the organization. Therefore, the correct answer is organizational maintenance manuals.

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  • 24. 

    (103c) What level is tech order distribution office located within the MXG?

    • SQ

    • FLT

    • GP

    • Support

    Correct Answer
    A. GP
    Explanation
    The tech order distribution office is located within the GP (Group) level of the MXG (Maintenance Group).

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  • 25. 

    (103c) What form is used to request a change to a TO? 

    • AFTO Form 21

    • AFTO Form 22

    • AFI 33-36

    • AFTO Form 97

    Correct Answer
    A. AFTO Form 22
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFTO Form 22. AFTO Form 22 is used to request a change to a TO (Technical Order). This form is specifically designed for requesting changes, additions, or deletions to existing TOs. It allows users to provide detailed information about the proposed change, including the reason for the change, the impact it will have, and any supporting documentation. By using AFTO Form 22, individuals can ensure that their requests for TO changes are properly documented and processed.

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  • 26. 

    (102a) What is the Mission of Maintenance? 

    • Aircraft and equipment readiness, safe, and serviceable, and properly configured

    • Safe equipment, Serviceable equipment, and quality maintenance

    • Utilize proper resource management, safe equipment, and Aircraft and equipment readiness

    • Timely scheduled maintenance, Safe equipment, and Serviceable equipment

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft and equipment readiness, safe, and serviceable, and properly configured
    Explanation
    The mission of maintenance is to ensure that aircraft and equipment are ready for use, safe to operate, and in serviceable condition. This includes ensuring that they are properly configured for their intended purpose. By prioritizing these factors, maintenance teams can effectively support operations and minimize the risk of accidents or failures due to equipment malfunction or improper configuration.

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  • 27. 

    (102a) What is the Maintenance Level Concepts? 

    • Flight Line Level, Back Shop Level, Depot Level

    • Basic Level, Organizational Level, Strategic Level

    • Organizational Level, Intermediate Level, and Depot Level

    • On-Equipment Level, Off-Equipment Level, and Depot Level

    Correct Answer
    A. Organizational Level, Intermediate Level, and Depot Level
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Organizational Level, Intermediate Level, and Depot Level. These are the three levels of maintenance in the Maintenance Level Concepts. The Organizational Level refers to the maintenance tasks performed by the unit or organization that operates the equipment. The Intermediate Level involves more complex maintenance tasks that are typically performed at a centralized maintenance facility. The Depot Level is the highest level of maintenance and involves extensive repairs and overhauls that are conducted at a specialized depot facility.

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  • 28. 

    (102a) What are the types of Maintenance? 

    • Organizational and Depot

    • On-Equipment and Off-Equipment

    • Flight line and Back shop

    • Scheduled Maintenance and Non-Scheduled Maintenance

    Correct Answer
    A. Organizational and Depot
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Organizational and Depot. Organizational maintenance refers to the maintenance activities performed by the operating unit or organization itself, typically on a day-to-day basis. Depot maintenance, on the other hand, involves more extensive repairs and overhaul of equipment and is usually conducted at specialized facilities. These two types of maintenance cover different levels of maintenance needs and are crucial for ensuring the operational readiness and longevity of equipment.

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  • 29. 

    (102a) What is a Mission Design Series? 

    • F-15E

    • AFTO -244

    • A/M32A-86

    • ACE

    Correct Answer
    A. F-15E
  • 30. 

    (102a) Who ensures the maintenance is accomplished and does not normally perform maintenance or inspections? 

    • CC

    • Mx Officer

    • Pro Super

    • Expediter

    Correct Answer
    A. Expediter
    Explanation
    The expediter ensures that maintenance is accomplished and does not normally perform maintenance or inspections. They are responsible for coordinating and expediting the flow of materials, equipment, and personnel to ensure that maintenance tasks are completed on time. They work closely with maintenance personnel, supply chain management, and other departments to ensure that all necessary resources are available and that maintenance activities are carried out efficiently.

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  • 31. 

    (102a) What term is used to cover all aspects of moving an aircraft from its spot to the air back to a spot. 

    • Red Ball

    • Launch and recovery

    • Aircraft Parking

    • Landing Codes

    Correct Answer
    A. Launch and recovery
    Explanation
    Launch and recovery is the correct answer because it encompasses all aspects of moving an aircraft from its initial position on the ground to the air and then back to a spot upon landing. This term is commonly used in aviation to refer to the entire process of launching an aircraft for flight and recovering it safely after landing. It includes activities such as pre-flight checks, taxiing, takeoff, flight operations, landing, and parking.

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  • 32. 

    (102a) What system is used to tract Mx, document actions, and determine health fleet? 

    • FMC

    • ACE

    • MESL

    • MIS

    Correct Answer
    A. MIS
    Explanation
    MIS stands for Management Information System. It is a system used to track Mx (maintenance), document actions, and determine the health of the fleet. MIS provides information and data related to maintenance activities, allowing for better decision-making and analysis of the fleet's overall performance. It helps in identifying trends, monitoring progress, and ensuring effective management of resources.

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  • 33. 

    (102a) What symbol is used to document that an aircraft is not flyable? 

    • /

    • -

    • X

    • *

    Correct Answer
    A. X
    Explanation
    The symbol "X" is used to document that an aircraft is not flyable. This symbol is commonly used in aviation to indicate that an aircraft is out of service or temporarily grounded. It is typically marked on the aircraft's maintenance log or other relevant documentation to indicate that it is not airworthy and should not be flown until necessary repairs or maintenance have been completed.

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  • 34. 

    (102a) What is a reason for an Aircraft Impoundment? 

    • Every In-Flight Emergency

    • Every Ground Emergency

    • Canopy not fully operational

    • Failed Flight Control System

    Correct Answer
    A. Failed Flight Control System
    Explanation
    A reason for an aircraft impoundment could be a failed flight control system. If the flight control system malfunctions or fails, it can pose a significant risk to the safety of the aircraft and its passengers. In such cases, authorities may impound the aircraft to ensure that it is thoroughly inspected and repaired before it can be deemed safe for operation again.

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  • 35. 

    (102a) What is a listing of personnel qualified for critical tasks?

    • PTL

    • SCR

    • AFCS

    • SEI

    Correct Answer
    A. SCR
    Explanation
    SCR stands for "Skill Code Roster," which is a listing of personnel qualified for critical tasks. This roster helps to identify individuals who possess the necessary skills and qualifications to perform specific tasks or roles within an organization. By having a SCR, organizations can ensure that the right people are assigned to critical tasks, minimizing errors and maximizing efficiency.

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  • 36. 

    (102a) What is the Violation when an individual is performing mx without proper TO’s 

    • TDV

    • DSV

    • UTM

    • UCR

    Correct Answer
    A. TDV
    Explanation
    When an individual is performing mx (maintenance) without proper TO's (Technical Orders), it is a violation of TDV (Technical Data Violation). Technical Orders provide specific instructions, procedures, and guidelines for performing maintenance tasks on equipment or systems. Not following these TO's can lead to errors, inefficiencies, and potential safety hazards. Therefore, it is important for individuals to adhere to the proper TO's when conducting maintenance activities.

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  • 37. 

    (102a) What form is used to Issue or turn in an item? 

    • AF Form 2413

    • AF Form 1348-1

    • AF Form 2005

    • AFTO Form 103

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 2005
    Explanation
    The AF Form 2005 is used to issue or turn in an item.

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  • 38. 

    (102a) What form is used to Issue release/ Receipt document? 

    • AF Form 2413

    • AF Form 1348-1

    • AF Form 2005

    • AFTO Form 103

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 1348-1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Form 1348-1. This form is used to issue release/receipt documents.

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  • 39. 

    (102a) What form is used to track units items on order/account? 

    • AF From 2413

    • AF Form 1348-1

    • AF Form 2005

    • AFTO Form 103

    Correct Answer
    A. AF From 2413
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Form 2413. This form is used to track units items on order/account in the Air Force. It is a standardized form that allows for efficient and accurate tracking of items, ensuring that orders are properly accounted for and fulfilled.

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  • 40. 

    (104d) What AFI governs the FOD program?

    • AFI 91-201

    • AFI 91-204

    • AFI 21-101

    • AFI 21-102

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 21-101
    Explanation
    AFI 21-101 is the correct answer because it governs the FOD (Foreign Object Damage) program. This AFI provides guidance and procedures for preventing and controlling FOD, which can cause damage to aircraft, equipment, and personnel. It outlines responsibilities, reporting requirements, and FOD prevention measures to ensure safe operations and maintenance practices.

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  • 41. 

    (104d) Who assigns the FOD monitor position?

    • Wing CC

    • Vice Wing CC

    • MXG CC

    • QA Superintendent

    Correct Answer
    A. Vice Wing CC
    Explanation
    The Vice Wing CC assigns the FOD monitor position.

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  • 42. 

    (104d) What is one of the main FOD prevention practices?

    • Account for all tools and equipment

    • Perform maintenance tasks with personal tools to save time

    • Only the Pro Super is responsible for FOD Prevention

    • Daily FOD walks are mandatory

    Correct Answer
    A. Account for all tools and equipment
    Explanation
    One of the main FOD prevention practices is to account for all tools and equipment. This means keeping track of all the tools and equipment used in a particular area or task to ensure that nothing is left behind, which could potentially become foreign object debris (FOD). By regularly checking and accounting for all tools and equipment, the risk of FOD incidents can be minimized.

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  • 43. 

    (104d) Aircraft sustaining FOD from an unknown cause will be considered for...

    • Early Depot input

    • Air abort

    • Red ball maintenance actions

    • Impoundment

    Correct Answer
    A. Impoundment
    Explanation
    When an aircraft sustains FOD (Foreign Object Damage) from an unknown cause, it will be considered for impoundment. Impoundment refers to the act of temporarily seizing and holding the aircraft for further investigation and inspection. This is done to ensure the safety and integrity of the aircraft and to determine the cause of the FOD. Impoundment allows experts to thoroughly examine the aircraft and identify any potential risks or issues that may have led to the FOD.

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  • 44. 

    (104d) Use AFI 10-206, Operational Reporting, during a dropped object report if it involves...

    • Air craft damage

    • Adverse publicity

    • Resource misuse

    • Safety violations

    Correct Answer
    A. Adverse publicity
    Explanation
    The use of AFI 10-206, Operational Reporting, is necessary during a dropped object report if it involves adverse publicity. This means that when an object is dropped and it results in negative attention or public criticism, the guidelines outlined in AFI 10-206 should be followed for reporting and handling the situation. The other options listed (aircraft damage, resource misuse, safety violations) may also require reporting, but the specific mention of adverse publicity in the question indicates that it is the most relevant reason for using AFI 10-206 in this context.

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  • 45. 

    (104a) How many classifications are there for tools?

    • 4

    • 5

    • 6

    • 7

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    There are five classifications for tools.

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  • 46. 

    (104a) What is the first choice to break torque with?

    • Speed handle

    • Torque handle

    • Hinge Handle

    • Ratchet

    Correct Answer
    A. Hinge Handle
    Explanation
    The hinge handle is the first choice to break torque with because it allows for a greater range of motion and provides better leverage compared to the other options. The hinge handle can be adjusted to different angles, allowing for easier access to tight spaces and better control over the amount of force applied. This makes it an ideal tool for loosening or tightening bolts or screws that require a significant amount of torque.

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  • 47. 

    (104a) What are the two types of hammers used in maintenance?

    • Hard face and soft face

    • One face and two face

    • Ball peen and mallet

    • 12 oz and 3 in

    Correct Answer
    A. Hard face and soft face
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Hard face and soft face." In maintenance, hammers are commonly used for various tasks. Hard face hammers have a solid and durable face, making them suitable for heavy-duty applications and striking hard surfaces. Soft face hammers, on the other hand, have a face made of softer materials like rubber or plastic. These hammers are used when a softer impact is required to prevent damage to delicate surfaces or materials. By having both hard face and soft face hammers, maintenance workers can choose the appropriate hammer for different tasks and materials.

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  • 48. 

    (104a) Which of these is not a special hand tool?

    • Scribe

    • Inspection Mirror

    • Magnet

    • Crow's Foot

    Correct Answer
    A. Crow's Foot
    Explanation
    The options given are all hand tools commonly used in various industries. A scribe is a tool used for marking lines on materials, an inspection mirror is used for examining hard-to-reach areas, and a magnet is used for picking up metal objects. However, a crow's foot is not a hand tool, but rather a type of wrench attachment used for tightening or loosening bolts in tight spaces.

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  • 49. 

    (104a) The easiest step to avoid injury and damage while using tools is to

    • Keep area clean with no tools lying around

    • Push on wrenches instead of pull

    • Keep sharp tools of pockets

    • Report safety technical violations

    Correct Answer
    A. Keep area clean with no tools lying around
    Explanation
    Keeping the area clean with no tools lying around is the easiest step to avoid injury and damage while using tools because it eliminates the risk of tripping over tools or accidentally stepping on them. By keeping the area clean and organized, it reduces the chances of accidents and ensures that tools are stored properly when not in use. This promotes a safe working environment and prevents potential injuries or damage that could occur due to clutter or misplaced tools.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 20, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Mark Creel

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