Aircraft AMOC Hardest Trivia Questions! Quiz

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Mark Creel
M
Mark Creel
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 8 | Total Attempts: 541
| Attempts: 51
SettingsSettings
Please wait...
  • 1/86 Questions

    (105b) Who is responsible for planning the depot maintenance program for each system/equipment and controlling funds (TO 00-25-4)

    • AFMC Single Manager (SM)
    • Chief of Staff of Air Force
    • Secretary of the Air Force
    • MAJCOM
Please wait...
About This Quiz

There are different ways that people choose to handle a situation, and in the air force, the alternative method of compliance shows someone the different ways other than the ones approved in the AD. Do you have a proper understanding of AMOC? The quiz below is considered the hardest trivia, give it a try, and if you get high marks, consider yourself ready for the assessment quiz.

Aircraft AMOC Hardest Trivia Questions! Quiz - Quiz

Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    (102c) What is risk management is defined as what? 

    • A decision making process

    • A wing safety program

    • Common practices to reduce injuries to personnel

    • An decision making tool for commanders

    Correct Answer
    A. A decision making process
    Explanation
    Risk management is defined as a decision-making process. This means that it involves a systematic approach to identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks, as well as developing and implementing strategies to mitigate or manage those risks. By using a decision-making process, organizations can make informed choices about how to best allocate resources and address potential risks, ultimately improving their ability to achieve their objectives and minimize negative outcomes.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    (103a) Most AF publications are related to what?

    • LeMay Center

    • AF Specialty Code (AFSC)

    • AF Departmental Publication Office (AFDPO)

    • SECAF

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Specialty Code (AFSC)
    Explanation
    AF Specialty Code (AFSC) is the correct answer because AF publications are typically related to the various specialties and career fields within the Air Force. The AFSC is a code that identifies a specific job or career field within the Air Force, and these codes are used to organize and categorize the AF publications. Therefore, it makes sense that most AF publications would be related to the AF Specialty Code (AFSC).

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    (103a) When does a publication become official

    • Once the pub is signed

    • Once the base receives the paper copy

    • One year after it is written

    • Once its published on www.e-publishing.af.mil

    Correct Answer
    A. Once its published on www.e-publishing.af.mil
    Explanation
    Once a publication is published on www.e-publishing.af.mil, it becomes official. This implies that the information contained in the publication is authorized and endorsed by the relevant authorities. The publication is made available to the intended audience and can be accessed and referenced by individuals who require the information it contains. Publishing the document on a designated website ensures that it is widely accessible and can be easily found and utilized by those who need it.

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    (102a) What is a listing of personnel qualified for critical tasks?

    • PTL

    • SCR

    • AFCS

    • SEI

    Correct Answer
    A. SCR
    Explanation
    SCR stands for "Skill Code Roster," which is a listing of personnel qualified for critical tasks. This roster helps to identify individuals who possess the necessary skills and qualifications to perform specific tasks or roles within an organization. By having a SCR, organizations can ensure that the right people are assigned to critical tasks, minimizing errors and maximizing efficiency.

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    (104d) What is one of the main FOD prevention practices?

    • Account for all tools and equipment

    • Perform maintenance tasks with personal tools to save time

    • Only the Pro Super is responsible for FOD Prevention

    • Daily FOD walks are mandatory

    Correct Answer
    A. Account for all tools and equipment
    Explanation
    One of the main FOD prevention practices is to account for all tools and equipment. This means keeping track of all the tools and equipment used in a particular area or task to ensure that nothing is left behind, which could potentially become foreign object debris (FOD). By regularly checking and accounting for all tools and equipment, the risk of FOD incidents can be minimized.

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    (104d) Aircraft sustaining FOD from an unknown cause will be considered for...

    • Early Depot input

    • Air abort

    • Red ball maintenance actions

    • Impoundment

    Correct Answer
    A. Impoundment
    Explanation
    When an aircraft sustains FOD (Foreign Object Damage) from an unknown cause, it will be considered for impoundment. Impoundment refers to the act of temporarily seizing and holding the aircraft for further investigation and inspection. This is done to ensure the safety and integrity of the aircraft and to determine the cause of the FOD. Impoundment allows experts to thoroughly examine the aircraft and identify any potential risks or issues that may have led to the FOD.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

    (104a) What is the first choice to break torque with?

    • Speed handle

    • Torque handle

    • Hinge Handle

    • Ratchet

    Correct Answer
    A. Hinge Handle
    Explanation
    The hinge handle is the first choice to break torque with because it allows for a greater range of motion and provides better leverage compared to the other options. The hinge handle can be adjusted to different angles, allowing for easier access to tight spaces and better control over the amount of force applied. This makes it an ideal tool for loosening or tightening bolts or screws that require a significant amount of torque.

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    (104c) What is the main purpose of using a Circuit Card Diagnostic Unit?

    • To repair locally and save money

    • To shortcut steps on a Redball

    • To downgrade a red "X"

    Correct Answer
    A. To repair locally and save money
    Explanation
    The main purpose of using a Circuit Card Diagnostic Unit is to repair locally and save money. This unit allows for the diagnosis and repair of circuit cards without the need to send them to a higher-level repair facility, which can be costly and time-consuming. By using this unit, technicians can identify and fix issues with circuit cards on-site, reducing the need for outsourcing repairs and ultimately saving money.

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    (104c) What are the two main types of Borescopes?

    • Rigid, Flexible

    • Primary, Secondary

    • J-57, TF-33

    • Analog or Digital

    Correct Answer
    A. Rigid, Flexible
    Explanation
    The two main types of Borescopes are rigid and flexible. Rigid borescopes have a fixed straight tube and are used for inspecting straight or slightly curved areas. Flexible borescopes, on the other hand, have a flexible insertion tube that can bend and navigate through complex and curved areas. Both types of borescopes have their own advantages and are used in different applications based on the specific inspection requirements.

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    (105a) Which inspection type is a final visual check for panel/door security; downlocks, covers, and pins being removed; fluid leakage; and flight control operation?

    • Homes Station Check (HSC)

    • Hourly Postflight

    • End of runway (EOR)

    • Thruflight

    Correct Answer
    A. End of runway (EOR)
    Explanation
    The End of Runway (EOR) inspection is a final visual check that ensures panel/door security, downlocks, covers, and pins have been removed, there is no fluid leakage, and flight control operation is functioning properly. This inspection is conducted at the end of the runway before takeoff to ensure the aircraft is in a safe and airworthy condition.

    Rate this question:

  • 12. 

    (103d) What tool is used to accomplish one-time inpection, modification, or impose temporary restrictions on equipment?

    • Air Force Instruction (AFI)

    • Time compliance tech order (TCTO)

    • Safety tasking memorandum (STM)

    • Phase dock safety procedure (PDSP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Time compliance tech order (TCTO)
    Explanation
    A Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) is used to accomplish one-time inspection, modification, or impose temporary restrictions on equipment. It is a directive issued by the Air Force to ensure the safety, reliability, and compliance of equipment. TCTOs are typically issued when there is a need for immediate action or when a modification is required to address a specific issue. They provide detailed instructions on how to perform the required tasks and ensure that equipment remains in a safe and operational condition.

    Rate this question:

  • 13. 

    (102c) What/who falls under the scope of risk management? 

    • Only personnel on duty

    • Only personnel on duty

    • All personnel, everywhere

    • No personnel, anywhere

    Correct Answer
    A. All personnel, everywhere
    Explanation
    All personnel, everywhere falls under the scope of risk management. Risk management is the process of identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks in order to minimize or eliminate them. It involves analyzing potential risks and implementing strategies to mitigate them. In order to effectively manage risks, it is important to consider all personnel, regardless of their location or duty status, as they can contribute to or be affected by potential risks. By including all personnel, organizations can ensure comprehensive risk management practices and create a safer environment for everyone involved.

    Rate this question:

  • 14. 

    (103b) What are the three types of system publication? 

    • Standard, Specialized, Non-Air Force

    • Field, installation, unit

    • Departmental, installation, unit

    • Standard, directive, non-directive

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard, Specialized, Non-Air Force
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Standard, Specialized, Non-Air Force. This answer correctly identifies the three types of system publication. Standard publications are those that provide general guidance and procedures applicable to all users. Specialized publications are tailored to specific organizations or job functions. Non-Air Force publications are those that are not specific to the Air Force, such as joint publications or publications from other branches of the military.

    Rate this question:

  • 15. 

    (105b) The philosophy of reverse “triage” concept applies to:

    • ABDR

    • Depot Feild teams

    • CDDAR

    • All Maintenance Personeel

    Correct Answer
    A. ABDR
    Explanation
    The philosophy of reverse "triage" concept applies to ABDR. Reverse triage refers to the process of prioritizing and allocating resources based on the severity of the situation or the urgency of the need. In the case of ABDR (Aircraft Battle Damage Repair), this concept would involve identifying and addressing the most critical and immediate repair needs first, in order to restore the aircraft to operational status as quickly as possible. This approach ensures that limited resources are effectively utilized and that the highest priority tasks are addressed promptly.

    Rate this question:

  • 16. 

    (103c) What form is used to request a change to a TO? 

    • AFTO Form 21

    • AFTO Form 22

    • AFI 33-36

    • AFTO Form 97

    Correct Answer
    A. AFTO Form 22
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFTO Form 22. AFTO Form 22 is used to request a change to a TO (Technical Order). This form is specifically designed for requesting changes, additions, or deletions to existing TOs. It allows users to provide detailed information about the proposed change, including the reason for the change, the impact it will have, and any supporting documentation. By using AFTO Form 22, individuals can ensure that their requests for TO changes are properly documented and processed.

    Rate this question:

  • 17. 

    (102a) What is a Mission Design Series? 

    • F-15E

    • AFTO -244

    • A/M32A-86

    • ACE

    Correct Answer
    A. F-15E
  • 18. 

    (102a) What term is used to cover all aspects of moving an aircraft from its spot to the air back to a spot. 

    • Red Ball

    • Launch and recovery

    • Aircraft Parking

    • Landing Codes

    Correct Answer
    A. Launch and recovery
    Explanation
    Launch and recovery is the correct answer because it encompasses all aspects of moving an aircraft from its initial position on the ground to the air and then back to a spot upon landing. This term is commonly used in aviation to refer to the entire process of launching an aircraft for flight and recovering it safely after landing. It includes activities such as pre-flight checks, taxiing, takeoff, flight operations, landing, and parking.

    Rate this question:

  • 19. 

    (102a) What symbol is used to document that an aircraft is not flyable? 

    • /

    • -

    • X

    • *

    Correct Answer
    A. X
    Explanation
    The symbol "X" is used to document that an aircraft is not flyable. This symbol is commonly used in aviation to indicate that an aircraft is out of service or temporarily grounded. It is typically marked on the aircraft's maintenance log or other relevant documentation to indicate that it is not airworthy and should not be flown until necessary repairs or maintenance have been completed.

    Rate this question:

  • 20. 

    (104d) Who assigns the FOD monitor position?

    • Wing CC

    • Vice Wing CC

    • MXG CC

    • QA Superintendent

    Correct Answer
    A. Vice Wing CC
    Explanation
    The Vice Wing CC assigns the FOD monitor position.

    Rate this question:

  • 21. 

    (104a) How many classifications are there for tools?

    • 4

    • 5

    • 6

    • 7

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    There are five classifications for tools.

    Rate this question:

  • 22. 

    (104b) The master inventory list (MIL) is found...

    • With the TODA

    • With the tool monitor

    • In the CTK

    • In the CTK and in TAS/TC MAX

    Correct Answer
    A. In the CTK and in TAS/TC MAX
    Explanation
    The master inventory list (MIL) can be found in two places: in the CTK and in TAS/TC MAX. This means that the MIL is stored and accessible in both the CTK (presumably a specific tool or system) and TAS/TC MAX (another tool or system). Therefore, users can refer to the MIL in either of these locations to access the inventory list.

    Rate this question:

  • 23. 

    (104b) When is a tool box inventoried?

    • At the start and end of each day

    • Upon issue and return and before and after each task

    • Periodically

    • Upon the MXG/CC request

    Correct Answer
    A. Upon issue and return and before and after each task
    Explanation
    A tool box is inventoried upon issue and return and before and after each task to ensure that all tools are accounted for and in proper working condition. By conducting regular inventories, any missing or damaged tools can be identified and replaced, preventing delays or accidents during tasks. Additionally, this practice helps to maintain an organized and efficient tool inventory system.

    Rate this question:

  • 24. 

    (105a) Which inspection type is done in conjunction with minor/major iso inspections?

    • Home Station Check (HSC)

    • Hourly Postflight

    • End of Runway (EOR)

    • Thruflight

    Correct Answer
    A. Home Station Check (HSC)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Home Station Check (HSC). This inspection is done in conjunction with minor/major iso inspections. The HSC is conducted to ensure that the aircraft is in a safe and operational condition before it returns to home station. It involves a thorough inspection of the aircraft's systems, components, and overall condition. The purpose of this inspection is to identify any issues or discrepancies that may have occurred during the iso inspections and to rectify them before the aircraft is cleared for further operations.

    Rate this question:

  • 25. 

    (105a) Which of the following is performed immediately prior to take-off?

    • Fueling

    • Munitions armed

    • Intake inspection

    • Exhaust inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. Munitions armed
    Explanation
    Prior to take-off, one of the tasks that needs to be performed is arming the munitions. This involves ensuring that the weapons on the aircraft are ready for use, which may include loading ammunition, activating systems, and conducting safety checks. This step is crucial to ensure that the aircraft is prepared for any potential combat or mission requirements once it is airborne.

    Rate this question:

  • 26. 

    (105c)  What form must be inspected prior to the use of non-powered AGE equipment?

    • AFTO Form 244

    • AFTO Form 781

    • AF Form 2413

    • AF Form 22

    Correct Answer
    A. AFTO Form 244
    Explanation
    AFTO Form 244 must be inspected prior to the use of non-powered AGE equipment.

    Rate this question:

  • 27. 

    (105c) When does non-powered AGE equipment need to be inspected for corrosion, abrasion, dents and condition of welds?

    • Before use

    • After use

    • Annually

    • Monthly

    Correct Answer
    A. Before use
    Explanation
    Non-powered AGE equipment needs to be inspected for corrosion, abrasion, dents, and condition of welds before use to ensure its safety and functionality. This pre-use inspection helps identify any potential issues or damage that may have occurred since the last use, allowing for necessary repairs or maintenance to be carried out before the equipment is put into operation. By conducting this inspection before use, any potential risks or hazards can be mitigated, ensuring the equipment is in proper working condition and reducing the chances of accidents or failures during operation.

    Rate this question:

  • 28. 

    (105d) What is the purpose of a pneumatic cart?

    • Provides hydraulic pressure for testing and servicing

    • Provides low pressure/high volume air for starting aircraft engines and operating air conditioners

    • Provides electrical power to operate aircraft electrical systems

    • Provides lighting for night maintenance operations, cargo loading and unloading

    Correct Answer
    A. Provides low pressure/high volume air for starting aircraft engines and operating air conditioners
    Explanation
    A pneumatic cart is designed to provide low pressure/high volume air for starting aircraft engines and operating air conditioners. This means that it is used to supply the necessary air pressure to start the engines of an aircraft and to operate the air conditioning system. This is an important function as it ensures that the engines can be started effectively and that the aircraft's cabin can be properly cooled during flight.

    Rate this question:

  • 29. 

    (105b) Which depot inspection ensures structural integrity (strength, rigidity, damage, tolerance, durability, and service life capability):

    • Analytical Condition Inspection

    • Controlled internal extension

    • Aircraft structural integrity program

    • Phase work cards

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft structural integrity program
    Explanation
    The Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) ensures the structural integrity of aircraft by conducting inspections that evaluate the strength, rigidity, damage tolerance, durability, and service life capability of the aircraft. This program is specifically designed to identify any potential issues or weaknesses in the structure of the aircraft and take appropriate actions to maintain its integrity. It involves regular inspections, maintenance, and repairs to ensure that the aircraft remains safe and reliable throughout its service life.

    Rate this question:

  • 30. 

    (103c) What level is tech order distribution office located within the MXG?

    • SQ

    • FLT

    • GP

    • Support

    Correct Answer
    A. GP
    Explanation
    The tech order distribution office is located within the GP (Group) level of the MXG (Maintenance Group).

    Rate this question:

  • 31. 

    (102a) Who ensures the maintenance is accomplished and does not normally perform maintenance or inspections? 

    • CC

    • Mx Officer

    • Pro Super

    • Expediter

    Correct Answer
    A. Expediter
    Explanation
    The expediter ensures that maintenance is accomplished and does not normally perform maintenance or inspections. They are responsible for coordinating and expediting the flow of materials, equipment, and personnel to ensure that maintenance tasks are completed on time. They work closely with maintenance personnel, supply chain management, and other departments to ensure that all necessary resources are available and that maintenance activities are carried out efficiently.

    Rate this question:

  • 32. 

    (102a) What is the Violation when an individual is performing mx without proper TO’s 

    • TDV

    • DSV

    • UTM

    • UCR

    Correct Answer
    A. TDV
    Explanation
    When an individual is performing mx (maintenance) without proper TO's (Technical Orders), it is a violation of TDV (Technical Data Violation). Technical Orders provide specific instructions, procedures, and guidelines for performing maintenance tasks on equipment or systems. Not following these TO's can lead to errors, inefficiencies, and potential safety hazards. Therefore, it is important for individuals to adhere to the proper TO's when conducting maintenance activities.

    Rate this question:

  • 33. 

    (104a) Which of these is not a special hand tool?

    • Scribe

    • Inspection Mirror

    • Magnet

    • Crow's Foot

    Correct Answer
    A. Crow's Foot
    Explanation
    The options given are all hand tools commonly used in various industries. A scribe is a tool used for marking lines on materials, an inspection mirror is used for examining hard-to-reach areas, and a magnet is used for picking up metal objects. However, a crow's foot is not a hand tool, but rather a type of wrench attachment used for tightening or loosening bolts in tight spaces.

    Rate this question:

  • 34. 

    (104a) The easiest step to avoid injury and damage while using tools is to

    • Keep area clean with no tools lying around

    • Push on wrenches instead of pull

    • Keep sharp tools of pockets

    • Report safety technical violations

    Correct Answer
    A. Keep area clean with no tools lying around
    Explanation
    Keeping the area clean with no tools lying around is the easiest step to avoid injury and damage while using tools because it eliminates the risk of tripping over tools or accidentally stepping on them. By keeping the area clean and organized, it reduces the chances of accidents and ensures that tools are stored properly when not in use. This promotes a safe working environment and prevents potential injuries or damage that could occur due to clutter or misplaced tools.

    Rate this question:

  • 35. 

    (104b) Who’s responsible for executing an effective tool program?

    • Commanders and key leaders

    • Section chief

    • MXG/CC

    • Pro super

    Correct Answer
    A. Commanders and key leaders
    Explanation
    Commanders and key leaders are responsible for executing an effective tool program. They have the authority and decision-making power to ensure that the program is implemented and followed effectively. As the individuals in charge, they can provide the necessary resources, set expectations, and enforce accountability to ensure the success of the tool program. This responsibility cannot be solely delegated to a section chief, MXG/CC, or pro super, as they may have specific roles within the program but ultimately, it is the commanders and key leaders who are accountable for its execution.

    Rate this question:

  • 36. 

    (104b) What form is used when TAS is unavailable?

    • AF Form 1297

    • DD Form 2977

    • AF Form 2005

    • AFTO 206

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 1297
    Explanation
    When TAS (Transportation Account Code) is unavailable, the form AF Form 1297 is used.

    Rate this question:

  • 37. 

    (104c) What form does the TMDE Monitor document discrepancies on?

    • AFTO Form 350

    • AFTO Form 365

    • TO 00-25-4

    • AFTO 00-0-1

    Correct Answer
    A. AFTO Form 350
    Explanation
    The TMDE Monitor documents discrepancies on AFTO Form 350.

    Rate this question:

  • 38. 

    (104c) What does an Oscilloscope do?

    • Analyze graphic presentations of graphs

    • Graphic presentation of an electrical signal

    • Used to check every circuit on a card

    Correct Answer
    A. Graphic presentation of an electrical signal
    Explanation
    An oscilloscope is a device used to display and analyze the graphical representation of electrical signals. It allows users to visualize waveforms, voltage levels, and frequencies of signals. By providing a visual representation, an oscilloscope helps in troubleshooting and analyzing various electrical circuits and systems. It is a valuable tool in electronics, telecommunications, and other fields where the understanding and analysis of electrical signals are crucial.

    Rate this question:

  • 39. 

    (102c) What is the third step in the risk management process?

    • Identify hazards

    • Implement controls

    • Assess the hazards

    • Make control decisions

    Correct Answer
    A. Make control decisions
    Explanation
    The third step in the risk management process is to make control decisions. This involves evaluating the identified hazards and determining the most effective control measures to mitigate or eliminate the risks associated with those hazards. It requires considering various factors such as feasibility, cost-effectiveness, and the potential impact of the control measures on the overall risk level. By making informed control decisions, organizations can effectively reduce the likelihood and severity of potential hazards, ensuring the safety and well-being of individuals and the success of their operations.

    Rate this question:

  • 40. 

    (102c) Maintenance Resource Management integrates what philosophy into daily maintenance?

    • Non-verbal communication

    • Behavioral science

    • Human factors

    • Ergonomics

    Correct Answer
    A. Human factors
    Explanation
    Maintenance Resource Management (MRM) is a program that focuses on improving safety and efficiency in maintenance operations. It integrates various principles and concepts from different fields to achieve this goal. One of the key components of MRM is human factors, which involves understanding how human behavior, capabilities, and limitations can impact maintenance activities. By considering human factors, MRM aims to design systems, processes, and procedures that are compatible with human abilities, thus reducing errors and improving overall performance. Therefore, the correct answer is human factors.

    Rate this question:

  • 41. 

    (103b) What are the three levels of Doctrine Documents (DD)? 

    • Basic, operational, tactical

    • Standard, specialized, & non-air force

    • Organizational, immediate, depot

    • Advance, operational, informational

    Correct Answer
    A. Basic, operational, tactical
    Explanation
    The correct answer is basic, operational, tactical. Doctrine Documents (DD) are classified into three levels based on their scope and purpose. The basic level provides fundamental principles and concepts that guide the overall doctrine development. The operational level focuses on specific operational activities and provides detailed guidance for planning and executing missions. The tactical level deals with specific tactics, techniques, and procedures for carrying out specific tasks and operations on the battlefield. These three levels ensure that doctrine documents cater to different levels of command and provide appropriate guidance for decision-making and execution.

    Rate this question:

  • 42. 

    (103b) What AFI is the Publication Management Program?  

    • 21-101

    • 205

    • 33-360

    • 90-201

    Correct Answer
    A. 33-360
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 33-360. This AFI, or Air Force Instruction, is the Publication Management Program. It provides guidance on the management and control of Air Force publications, including the creation, revision, and distribution processes. This AFI helps ensure that Air Force publications are accurate, up-to-date, and readily available to personnel who need them.

    Rate this question:

  • 43. 

    (103b) Which publication originates at the MAJCOM, FOA, and DRU level and applies to all units under control of issuing HQ? 

    • Installation Publication

    • Unit Publication

    • Field Publication

    • Departmental Publication

    Correct Answer
    A. Field Publication
    Explanation
    Field Publication originates at the MAJCOM, FOA, and DRU level and applies to all units under control of issuing HQ. It is a type of publication that provides guidance and instructions to units within a specific field or functional area.

    Rate this question:

  • 44. 

    (105b) PDM interval is determined by:

    • AFI 21-101

    • AF Form 2005

    • 00-25-4

    • 00-20-1

    Correct Answer
    A. 00-25-4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "00-25-4". This is because 00-25-4 is a document that provides guidance and procedures for determining the PDM (Programmed Depot Maintenance) interval. It is a technical manual that outlines the requirements and processes for maintaining and servicing military equipment. AFI 21-101, AF Form 2005, and 00-20-1 are not specifically related to determining the PDM interval.

    Rate this question:

  • 45. 

    (102c) Which choice below is NOT one of the goals of RM

    • Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels

    • Integrate RM into mission process

    • Accept no unnecessary risk

    • Motivate all personnel to manage risk on and off duty

    Correct Answer
    A. Accept no unnecessary risk
    Explanation
    The goal of Risk Management (RM) is to enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, integrate RM into the mission process, and motivate all personnel to manage risk on and off duty. The choice "Accept no unnecessary risk" is not one of the goals of RM. This means that RM does not aim to completely eliminate all risks, but rather to identify, assess, and mitigate risks to an acceptable level.

    Rate this question:

  • 46. 

    (102a) What form is used to Issue release/ Receipt document? 

    • AF Form 2413

    • AF Form 1348-1

    • AF Form 2005

    • AFTO Form 103

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 1348-1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Form 1348-1. This form is used to issue release/receipt documents.

    Rate this question:

  • 47. 

    (105a) Which aircraft use(s) the periodic inspection concept

    • F-15 & F-16

    • F-16

    • F-15

    • F-22 & F-16

    Correct Answer
    A. F-15
    Explanation
    The F-15 aircraft uses the periodic inspection concept.

    Rate this question:

  • 48. 

    (103e) What is an integrated, synchronized system of inspections conducted on behalf of the SECAF, the CSAF and commanders at all levels?

    • Management Internal Compliance Toolset (MICT)

    • Air Force Inspection System (AFIS)

    • IG program

    • Wing Inpection Team (WIT)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Inspection System (AFIS)
    Explanation
    The Air Force Inspection System (AFIS) is an integrated, synchronized system of inspections conducted on behalf of the SECAF, the CSAF, and commanders at all levels. It is designed to assess and improve the readiness, compliance, and effectiveness of Air Force units and organizations. AFIS ensures that inspections are conducted consistently and objectively, providing valuable feedback to commanders and helping them identify areas for improvement. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the high standards and operational readiness of the Air Force.

    Rate this question:

  • 49. 

    (105c) What aircraft systems require nitrogen servicing?

    • Actuators and environmental control systems

    • Accumulators, shock struts, tires and fuel tank intertion

    • Fire protect systems and hydraulics

    • Aircraft pressurization and pneumatic systems

    Correct Answer
    A. Accumulators, shock struts, tires and fuel tank intertion
    Explanation
    Nitrogen servicing is required for accumulators, shock struts, tires, and fuel tank inerting. These systems rely on nitrogen to maintain proper functioning. Accumulators use nitrogen to store hydraulic energy, shock struts use nitrogen to absorb landing impact, tires are filled with nitrogen to maintain consistent pressure, and fuel tank inerting systems use nitrogen to reduce the risk of fire.

    Rate this question:

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 20, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Mark Creel
Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement
×

Wait!
Here's an interesting quiz for you.

We have other quizzes matching your interest.