AMOC Block 2 Test

  • DOD Directives
  • USAF Regulations
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| By Mark Creel
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Mark Creel
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Quizzes Created: 8 | Total Attempts: 546
| Attempts: 75 | Questions: 155
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1. (201c) What is the max regular annual leave a civilian can carry over every year?

Explanation

The correct answer is 240 hrs. This means that the maximum regular annual leave a civilian can carry over every year is 240 hours.

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About This Quiz
AMOC Block 2 Test - Quiz

The AMOC Block 2 Test assesses knowledge on the enlisted promotion process within the Air Force, focusing on eligibility, rank structuring, and legislative influences. It prepares airmen for advancement and aligns with military standards.

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2. (202a) What shows mandatory and/or optional training requirements and requirements for upgrade to senior certifications for MX officers? 

Explanation

AFI 21-302 shows mandatory and/or optional training requirements and requirements for upgrade to senior certifications for MX officers.

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3. (202b) The Fuel System Section is responsible for what? 

Explanation

The Fuel System Section is responsible for repairing, functionally checking, and inspecting fuel systems, fuel tanks, hydrazine systems, and related components. This means that they are in charge of maintaining and ensuring the proper functioning of all the fuel-related systems and components in an aircraft. They are responsible for repairing any issues that may arise, conducting functional checks to ensure everything is working correctly, and inspecting the systems and components for any potential problems or damage.

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4. (202d) The Unit Manpower Document(UMD)______________, while the Unit Personnel Management Roster(UPMR)

Explanation

The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is used to track all positions authorized to an installation/unit. It helps in keeping a record of the positions that are approved and allocated to a specific installation or unit. This document ensures that the authorized positions are filled and helps in managing the manpower effectively. It provides a comprehensive view of the positions available and helps in coordinating the allocation of funding for assigned personnel.

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5. (203a) High use DIFM items located near Maintenance are stored at

Explanation

High use DIFM (Do-It-For-Me) items located near Maintenance are stored at the Fwd Supply point. This is because the Fwd Supply point is strategically positioned near the Maintenance area to ensure quick and easy access to the items needed for maintenance tasks. Storing these high use items at the Fwd Supply point allows for efficient and timely maintenance operations, reducing downtime and improving overall productivity. The Fwd Supply point acts as a convenient and centralized location for these items, ensuring they are readily available when needed.

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6. (201d) A base where the Active has command is called....

Explanation

A base where the Active has command is called a Classic Associate Unit. This means that the Active component of the military has control and authority over the base.

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7. (203b) When does DIFM time end?

Explanation

The correct answer is when the item is returned to supply. This means that the DIFM (Do It For Me) time ends when the item is returned to the supply department. This suggests that the supply department is responsible for managing and maintaining the item once it has been returned, indicating the completion of the DIFM process.

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8. (202h) Intragovernmental is

Explanation

The correct answer is USAF to Non DoD. Intragovernmental refers to transactions that occur within the government. In this case, it specifically refers to transactions between the United States Air Force (USAF) and entities that are not part of the Department of Defense (Non DoD). This could include transactions with other government agencies or organizations outside of the military.

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9. (201c) How much sick leave does a civilian get every pay period?

Explanation

A civilian gets 4 hours of sick leave every pay period. This means that they are entitled to take 4 hours off from work for illness or medical appointments without losing any pay. Sick leave is an important benefit for employees as it allows them to take care of their health and well-being without facing financial consequences.

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10. (202a) What is the most important job you can have in the AF? 

Explanation

The most important job you can have in the AF is the job you are currently in because it is the job that you are responsible for and where you can make the biggest impact. It is important to give your best effort and perform your duties effectively in your current position, as it contributes to the overall success and mission of the Air Force.

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11. (202b) The noise suppression system and engine test stand sections fall under which flight? 

Explanation

The noise suppression system and engine test stand sections are related to the propulsion of the aircraft. These sections are responsible for testing and ensuring the proper functioning of the engines and their associated components. Therefore, they fall under the category of Propulsion.

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12. (205f) Which tool allows commanders to report the ability of an individual Unit Type Code (UTC) to perform its mission capabilities

Explanation

The AEF Readiness Tool (ART) allows commanders to report the ability of an individual Unit Type Code (UTC) to perform its mission capabilities. This tool provides a comprehensive assessment of the readiness status of each UTC, including personnel, equipment, and training. It helps commanders make informed decisions about deployment and resource allocation based on the readiness levels of their units. By using ART, commanders can ensure that their units are prepared and capable of fulfilling their mission requirements.

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13. (201a) What ways can the enlisted be addressed

Explanation

The enlisted can be addressed by their rank and grade. This means that their position and level of authority within the military hierarchy is used as a form of address. Using rank and grade is a common practice in the military to show respect and acknowledge the individual's position and responsibilities. It helps maintain discipline and a clear chain of command within the organization.

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14. (202d) The Logistics Composite Model (LCOM) ________

Explanation

The correct answer is "is a large scale computer sim used to model manpower and logistics requirements." The Logistics Composite Model (LCOM) is a computer simulation that is used to model and analyze manpower and logistics requirements on a large scale. It helps in identifying and addressing bottlenecks in supply chains by simulating various scenarios and predicting their impact on the overall logistics system.

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15. (202g) Decentralized Contracts must be

Explanation

Decentralized Contracts must be less than 3,000. This means that the number of decentralized contracts cannot exceed 3,000. There is a limit on the number of decentralized contracts that can be implemented, and it must be less than 3,000.

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16. (202h) Intraservice is

Explanation

Intraservice refers to communication or interaction that takes place within the same branch of the military. In this case, "USAF to USAF" means that the communication is happening within the United States Air Force, between two members or units of the Air Force. This option is the correct answer because it accurately describes intraservice communication within the Air Force.

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17. (202h) MOU, Memo of Understanding

Explanation

The correct answer explains that a Memo of Understanding (MOU) or Memorandum of Understanding is a document that outlines the responsibilities of each party involved. However, it states that the actions of each party are not dependent on each other. This means that even though the responsibilities are defined, the parties can still act independently without being influenced by the actions of the other party. The MOU serves as a framework for cooperation and understanding between the parties, but it does not dictate their actions or require them to coordinate their actions with each other.

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18. (203c) True or False: The integrated weapon system management concept empowers a SINGLE MANAGER with maximum authority over a wide range of weapon system program decisions and resources.

Explanation

The integrated weapon system management concept does indeed empower a single manager with maximum authority over a wide range of weapon system program decisions and resources. This means that this manager has the power to make important decisions and allocate resources for various weapon system programs.

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19. (202a) Which of the following is true of first assignments? 

Explanation

First assignments should change frequently for technical experience. This means that individuals in their first assignments should be given the opportunity to work in different roles or positions within their field in order to gain a wide range of technical skills and knowledge. This can help them develop a strong foundation and expertise in their chosen field.

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20. (201c) What is a union member that does not pay dues called?

Explanation

A bargaining unit refers to a group of employees who have been designated to collectively bargain with their employer. This group may include both union members and non-union members who are represented by the union in negotiations. The question is asking for the term used to describe a union member who does not pay dues, and the correct answer is "bargaining unit." This suggests that even though they may not contribute financially to the union, they are still part of the collective bargaining process and benefit from the negotiations conducted by the union.

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21. (202g) What are the two main jobs of the COR?

Explanation

The COR's main jobs are to observe and document the contractor's work. This involves monitoring and recording the progress, quality, and adherence to specifications of the contractor's work. By doing so, the COR ensures that the contractor is fulfilling their obligations and completing the project as required. This documentation also serves as evidence in case of any disputes or issues that may arise during or after the project.

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22. (205c) What are the three types of order based on the deployment process? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Warning, alert, execute order." This order is based on the deployment process and represents the sequence of actions to be taken. First, a warning is issued to notify individuals about a potential issue. Then, an alert is sent to draw attention and ensure that everyone is aware of the situation. Finally, the execute order is given to carry out the necessary actions to address the problem or situation at hand. This order ensures a systematic approach to handling deployments and promotes effective communication and action.

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23. (201d) Which AF component has dual roles?

Explanation

The Air Force Guard has dual roles as it serves both as a state militia under the command of the state governor and as a reserve component of the United States Air Force. This means that members of the Air Force Guard can be called upon to serve both at the state level for domestic emergencies and at the federal level for national defense purposes. This dual role allows the Air Force Guard to provide support and assistance in various situations, making it a crucial component of the Air Force.

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24. (205b) Why is it essential that, as a mc officer, you are familiar with BSP/ESP at a deployed location? 

Explanation

As a MC officer, being familiar with BSP/ESP at a deployed location is essential because it will allow you to customize your deployment packages according to the support that will be provided. This knowledge will enable you to plan and prepare effectively, ensuring that you have the necessary resources and assistance to carry out your duties successfully. By tailoring your deployment packages, you can maximize efficiency and effectiveness in your operations, ultimately contributing to the overall success of the mission.

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25. (205b) What is the primary purpose of a site survey

Explanation

The primary purpose of a site survey is to assess the location and gather information that will help in customizing the deployment package. By conducting a site survey, one can understand the specific requirements and challenges of the location, such as the terrain, climate, infrastructure, and resources available. This information is crucial in determining the necessary equipment, resources, and strategies needed for a successful deployment.

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26. (205c) During the personnel processing, the highest ranking person will become the…. 

Explanation

During the personnel processing, the highest ranking person will become the Troop Leader. This means that the person with the highest rank will assume the role of leading and commanding the troop. The Troop Leader is responsible for making decisions, coordinating activities, and ensuring the overall success and well-being of the troop.

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27. (201d) A base where the AF Reserve is in command is call...

Explanation

An Active Associate Unit is a base where the AF Reserve is in command. This means that the base is primarily operated by the Air Force Reserve, with support from active duty personnel. The term "active" indicates that the base is fully operational and performs regular military duties. The term "associate" suggests a close partnership between the Air Force Reserve and active duty personnel, working together to fulfill the mission of the base.

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28. (205f) What are the characteristics of aerospace power

Explanation

The characteristics of aerospace power include range, speed, flexibility, precision, and lethality. Range refers to the ability to cover large distances, speed refers to the high velocity at which aerospace platforms can operate, flexibility refers to the capability to adapt to different mission requirements, precision refers to the accuracy of targeting, and lethality refers to the capability to cause destruction or damage. These characteristics make aerospace power highly effective in military operations and provide a significant advantage in terms of reach, speed, and precision engagement.

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29. (205d) The number and type are main consideration for determining size of deployment package. 

Explanation

The given answer, "Acft," is the correct answer because the number and type of aircraft are the main factors that determine the size of a deployment package. The larger the number and more diverse the types of aircraft, the larger the deployment package needs to be in order to accommodate all the necessary equipment, supplies, and personnel for maintenance and inspection tasks. Therefore, the number and type of aircraft are crucial considerations in determining the size of the deployment package.

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30. (203a) What identifies a specific supply transaction until it's complete? 

Explanation

A document number is used to identify a specific supply transaction until it is complete. This number serves as a unique identifier for the transaction and helps in tracking and managing the supply process. It allows for easy reference and retrieval of information related to the transaction, ensuring that it can be monitored and followed until it reaches completion. The document number helps in maintaining accuracy and accountability throughout the supply chain.

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31. (203a) A different part than the one you ordered but will perform the same function and will ship automatically is known as...?

Explanation

An interchangeable part refers to a component that can be used as a substitute for another part in a given system or product. Even though it may be different from the part originally ordered, it is designed to perform the same function. These parts are often used in manufacturing processes to increase efficiency and reduce costs, as they can be mass-produced and easily replaced without requiring any modifications to the overall system.

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32. (205d) What tool is used to recover diverted aircraft and sent to remote locations with no support? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Maintenance Recovery Team (MRT). The MRT is used to recover diverted aircraft and send them to remote locations with no support. This team is responsible for providing maintenance support and ensuring that the aircraft is in a condition to be flown back to its original location or to a maintenance facility for further repairs. They are trained to handle various maintenance tasks and have the necessary equipment and resources to carry out their duties effectively.

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33. (203b) What kind of parts are expendable, not accounted for, and are normally left over from TCTOs and not restocked once consumed?

Explanation

Work Order Residue refers to the parts that are expendable and not accounted for in TCTOs (Time Compliance Technical Orders). These parts are normally left over after completing work orders and are not restocked once consumed. Therefore, the correct answer is Work Order Residue.

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34. (201a) What is Congress role in the Enlisted Promotion System?

Explanation

Congress plays a role in the Enlisted Promotion System by limiting the number of Senior Master Sergeants (SMSgt) and Chief Master Sergeants (CMSgt) to 3% of the total enlisted ranks. This means that only a certain percentage of individuals can be promoted to these higher ranks, as determined by Congress. This limitation helps to ensure that promotions are fair and equitable, and that there is a balance in the distribution of higher-ranking enlisted personnel within the military.

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35. (201c) A civilian with over 15 years time in service earns how much leave every pay period?

Explanation

A civilian with over 15 years time in service earns 8 hours of leave every pay period. This means that for every pay period, they are entitled to take 8 hours off from work without any deduction in their pay. This is a benefit given to employees who have served for a significant amount of time and is a way to reward their loyalty and dedication to the organization.

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36. (202g) What does the statement of work (SOW) tell contractors?

Explanation

The statement of work (SOW) tells contractors the specific service that is being requested. It outlines the scope and objectives of the project, providing clear instructions on what needs to be delivered. The SOW does not provide details on how to perform the service, why it is needed, or the payment terms. It simply focuses on defining the desired service or deliverable.

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37. (202e) Which of the following C- Levels is not used for overall rating?

Explanation

C-6 is not used for overall rating because the question is asking for the C-Levels that are not used for overall rating. The other options, C-1, C-3, and C-5, are not mentioned in the question and therefore may be used for overall rating. Without further information, we can conclude that C-6 is the correct answer as it is the only option explicitly mentioned in the question.

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38. (205b) BSP must  be reviewed how often? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Biennially. This means that the BSP (Bank Settlement Plan) should be reviewed every two years. This ensures that the plan is up to date and in line with any changes or developments in the banking industry. Reviewing the BSP biennially allows for adjustments to be made if necessary, ensuring its effectiveness and relevance in the long term.

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39. (201b) A disciplinary measure given by commanders on G-series order

Explanation

Article 15 is the correct answer because it is a disciplinary measure that can be given by commanders on G-series order. The G-series order is a system used by the military to issue and track orders and regulations. Article 15 refers to a non-judicial punishment that can be imposed on military personnel for minor offenses. It allows commanders to address disciplinary issues without the need for a court-martial. This form of punishment can include loss of pay, extra duty, or reduction in rank.

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40. (201b) The highest level of PME and offered to SMSgt select/MSgt

Explanation

SNCOA stands for Senior Noncommissioned Officer Academy. It is the highest level of Professional Military Education (PME) offered to Senior Master Sergeant selectees and Master Sergeants. This academy provides advanced leadership and management training to prepare these noncommissioned officers for higher-level responsibilities in their military careers.

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41. (204a) Which of the following records covers all transactions during a single day and must be reviewed by both unit and wing resource managers?

Explanation

The Daily Document Register (D04) is the correct answer because it covers all transactions during a single day and must be reviewed by both unit and wing resource managers. This register provides a comprehensive record of all documents processed on a daily basis, ensuring that all transactions are accounted for and reviewed by the appropriate managers. The other options do not specifically fulfill the requirement of covering all transactions during a single day and being reviewed by both unit and wing resource managers.

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42. (203a) What kind of items are expendable?

Explanation

Expendable items are those that are considered disposable or replaceable after use. The correct answer, XF, indicates that the items in question are expendable.

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43. (202h) Intersevice is

Explanation

The correct answer is "USAF to DoD". This means that Intersevice refers to communication or collaboration between the United States Air Force (USAF) and the Department of Defense (DoD). It implies that the USAF is working together with the broader DoD organization, which includes all branches of the military, to achieve common goals and objectives.

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44. (202b) Which section ensures that all GITA aircraft are made permanently (explosive) safe? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Egress. Egress refers to the process of exiting or escaping from an aircraft. In the context of the question, the Egress section ensures that all GITA aircraft are made permanently (explosive) safe by implementing measures and systems that allow for the safe evacuation of personnel in the event of an emergency or threat. This includes features such as emergency exits, evacuation slides, and procedures for rapid egress.

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45. (202g) What is ISS

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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46. (205a) This is activated and controlled by the IDO and coordinated with UDM on tasking's, shortfalls, and Limiting factors 

Explanation

The correct answer is DCC. The explanation for this is that DCC stands for Direct Coordination Cell, which is activated and controlled by the IDO (Intelligence Duty Officer) and coordinated with the UDM (Unit Deployment Manager) on tasking, shortfalls, and limiting factors. This suggests that the DCC plays a crucial role in coordinating and managing intelligence operations within the organization.

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47. (205b) Which section is responsible for coordinating with functional offices of Primary Responsibility (OPR's) when writing or revising a Base Support Plan/ 

Explanation

The Plans Mgmt section is responsible for coordinating with functional offices of Primary Responsibility (OPR's) when writing or revising a Base Support Plan. This section is in charge of managing and overseeing the planning process, ensuring that all relevant OPR's are involved and their input is incorporated into the plan. They work closely with other sections and offices to gather necessary information and ensure that the plan aligns with the overall goals and objectives of the organization.

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48. (205d) What base must the site survey team establish support limitation, is fully manned, and has maintenance/supply resources? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Established Operation Base. An Established Operation Base is the base where the site survey team must establish support limitation, is fully manned, and has maintenance/supply resources. This base is fully operational and equipped to handle all necessary tasks and requirements.

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49. (201a) What is the purpose of the enlisted promotion process?

Explanation

The purpose of the enlisted promotion process is to promote airmen to fulfill particular needs in their Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC). This means that promotions are based on the specific skills and qualifications required for a particular job within the Air Force. The promotion process ensures that airmen who have demonstrated the necessary abilities and competencies in their AFSC are recognized and given the opportunity to advance in their careers.

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50. (201a) Which type of promotion is designed to promote deserving hard-chargers who are behind peers

Explanation

The correct answer is STEP. STEP stands for Special Troops Education Program and it is a type of promotion designed to promote deserving hard-chargers who are behind their peers. It provides an opportunity for individuals to receive accelerated promotion by completing certain educational requirements. This promotion program is specifically aimed at recognizing and rewarding individuals who have shown exceptional dedication and commitment to their career development.

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51. (201a) When is Below The Zone promotion available to Airman?

Explanation

Below The Zone promotion is available to Airman 6 months prior to the normal promotion deadline. This means that eligible Airman can be considered for promotion earlier than their peers, giving them an opportunity to advance their career ahead of schedule. This promotion option is designed to recognize exceptional performance and potential, allowing individuals to progress faster in their military career.

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52. (204a) Funds are ______ when money transfers hands.

Explanation

When money transfers hands, it means that it is being used to pay for something or to cover expenses. Therefore, the correct answer is "Expensed" because it implies that the funds are being used or spent on a particular purpose or item.

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53. (205e) What is the purpose of reducing the Mobility Footprint of deployed units 

Explanation

Reducing the Mobility Footprint of deployed units aims to decrease the amount of airlift required. By reducing the size and weight of equipment and supplies needed for deployment, less airlift capacity is needed to transport them. This allows for more efficient use of resources and potentially reduces costs.

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54. (205e) What concept is designed to shorten the logistics pipeline 

Explanation

Lean Logistics is a concept designed to shorten the logistics pipeline. It focuses on eliminating waste and streamlining processes to improve efficiency and reduce costs in the supply chain. By implementing lean principles such as just-in-time delivery, continuous improvement, and value stream mapping, organizations can minimize inventory, reduce lead times, and optimize transportation and warehousing operations. This concept aims to achieve a smooth and agile flow of goods and information, ultimately shortening the logistics pipeline and improving overall supply chain performance.

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55. (201b) Placing a person in a position to take on a task and increasing responsibility that goes with each rank reflects which idea:

Explanation

Placing a person in a position to take on a task and increasing responsibility that goes with each rank reflects the idea of promotable progression. This means that the individual is being given opportunities to advance in their career by taking on more challenging roles and responsibilities. It suggests that their skills and abilities are recognized and valued, and they are being given the chance to grow and develop professionally.

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56. (201b) Which of the following is one of the two purposes for Counseling:

Explanation

The purpose of counseling is to help the supervisor assist subordinates in improving or changing their behavior by making wise choices and decisions. Counseling is not meant to create bullets for the supervisor's own EPR or to dictate to the subordinate what the supervisor wants done. Additionally, counseling should not aim to adversely affect the subordinate's mental health.

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57. (203a) Supply owned stocks ready for deployment are called...

Explanation

A readiness spare package refers to the supply of owned stocks that are readily available and prepared for deployment. These stocks are kept on hand to ensure that there are no delays in the availability of necessary resources when they are needed. This term implies that the supplies are already in a state of readiness and can be quickly deployed as required.

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58. (203b)  AFREP is an agency that deals with what?

Explanation

AFREP is an agency that deals with expensive XB3 items for repair.

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59. (201d) Which mobilization requires a Presidential declaration of national emergency or when otherwise authorized by law but No more than 24 months, 1,000,000 people?

Explanation

Partial Mobilization requires a Presidential declaration of national emergency or when otherwise authorized by law but for no more than 24 months and involving up to 1,000,000 people. This means that in certain situations, such as during a national crisis or war, the President can call up a limited number of military personnel and resources to support the mission, without fully mobilizing the entire military force. This allows for a targeted and controlled response to the emergency while still maintaining the capacity for a larger mobilization if needed.

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60. (204a) The DoD budget cycle consists of which 3 phases (in order)?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Formulation, Review and Enactment, Execution." In the DoD budget cycle, the first phase is formulation, where the budget is developed and planned. The second phase is review and enactment, where the budget is reviewed by Congress and enacted into law. The final phase is execution, where the budget is implemented and funds are allocated according to the plan.

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61. (201a) What skill level is required to promote from SSgt to TSgt?

Explanation

In order to promote from SSgt to TSgt, a skill level of 7-lvl is required. This suggests that individuals need to have a higher level of expertise and experience in their field to be eligible for promotion. The 7-lvl skill level indicates a higher level of proficiency and knowledge compared to the lower skill levels. Therefore, individuals must demonstrate their competence and meet the requirements of the 7-lvl skill level to advance to the rank of TSgt.

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62. (201c) How many weeks unpaid leave can a civilian get for life emergencies?

Explanation

A civilian can get up to 12 weeks of unpaid leave for life emergencies. This allows them to take time off from work to deal with personal or family matters without the risk of losing their job. This extended period of leave provides individuals with the flexibility and support they need during challenging times.

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63. (201a) Which of the following components of WAPS (SSgt-TSgt) carry the most points?

Explanation

EPRs (Enlisted Performance Reports) carry the most points in the Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) for the rank of Staff Sergeant to Technical Sergeant. EPRs are used to evaluate an airman's performance and potential, and they play a significant role in determining promotion eligibility and points allocation. SKT (Specialty Knowledge Test), PDG (Professional Development Guide), and Decorations may also contribute to the overall promotion score, but EPRs carry the highest weightage.

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64. (202b) What are the flights which fall under EMS? 

Explanation

The flights that fall under EMS are those related to Age, armament, Fabrication, MX, and MUNs. This means that these flights are involved in activities related to the maintenance, repair, and management of aircraft age, armament systems, fabrication processes, MX (maintenance), and MUNs (munition). These flights are responsible for ensuring that the aircraft and its components are in proper working condition and meet the necessary standards for safety and performance.

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65. (205a) Who coordinates, directs, and controls deployments for a base? 

Explanation

The IDO, or Installation Deployment Officer, is responsible for coordinating, directing, and controlling deployments for a base. They ensure that all necessary resources and personnel are ready for deployment and oversee the logistics and planning of the deployment process. They work closely with other base personnel and units to ensure a smooth and efficient deployment operation.

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66. (201b) Which EPR form is designated for AB-TSgt?

Explanation

AF Form 910 is the designated EPR form for AB-TSgt. The AF Form 910 is used for enlisted performance reports and is specifically designed for non-commissioned officers, including Airman Basic (AB) to Technical Sergeant (TSgt) ranks. This form is used to document and evaluate an individual's performance, achievements, and potential for promotion within the Air Force.

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67. (205b) What part of BSP identifies the total base resources and capabilities? 

Explanation

The correct answer is 1. In BSP (Business Systems Planning), the part that identifies the total base resources and capabilities is known as the "Strategic Information Systems Plan" (SISP). This plan helps in understanding the current resources and capabilities of the organization and guides the development of future strategies and systems. It identifies the key areas where the organization needs to focus and allocate its resources to achieve its goals and objectives.

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68. (201b) Can be for positive or negative actions and useful when performance reporting evaluations is due (EPR)

Explanation

The correct answer is LOC, which stands for Letter of Counseling. LOCs can be for positive or negative actions and are useful when performance reporting evaluations are due (EPR). LOCs are typically used to document and address performance or behavior issues, provide guidance or feedback, and can be used as a formal disciplinary action if necessary. They serve as a written record of counseling and can be referenced in future evaluations or actions.

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69. (201b) The most severe form of letter counseling and has a stronger degree of official censure

Explanation

An LOR (Letter of Reprimand) is the most severe form of letter counseling and represents a stronger degree of official censure. It is a written document that outlines the misconduct or poor performance of an individual and is placed in their personnel file. Unlike verbal counseling, which is a less formal and non-written form of counseling, an LOR carries more weight and can have serious consequences for the individual's career. The other options, LOA (Letter of Admonishment), LOC (Letter of Counseling), and Verbal Counseling, are less severe forms of disciplinary actions compared to an LOR.

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70. (201b) This award recognizes base-level military and civil service aircraft, munitions and missile maintenance personnel who perform hands-on maintenance or manage a maintenance function In the areas of aircraft, munitions, missiles or comm-electronic maintenance

Explanation

The Leo Marquez Award is the correct answer because it recognizes base-level military and civil service aircraft, munitions, and missile maintenance personnel who perform hands-on maintenance or manage a maintenance function in the areas of aircraft, munitions, missiles, or comm-electronic maintenance. This award is specifically named after Leo Marquez and is given to individuals who excel in their maintenance duties.

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71. (205f) How long is the AEF life cycle

Explanation

The AEF life cycle is 20 months long. This means that from the start to the end of the AEF life cycle, it takes a total of 20 months.

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72. (202f) Customer support section is...

Explanation

The correct answer is the focal point for "Submit Price Challenge and Verification Program". This means that the customer support section is specifically designated as the main point of contact for submitting price challenges and participating in the verification program. It implies that this section is responsible for handling and addressing any issues or inquiries related to the program.

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73. (203b) Dust covers, hydraulic plugs, and quick release pins are known as what?

Explanation

Dust covers, hydraulic plugs, and quick release pins are commonly used in day-to-day operations and maintenance tasks. They are essential components that are frequently replaced or used during equipment operations. Therefore, they are categorized as operating stock, which refers to the inventory of items needed for regular operations and maintenance activities. "Shop stock," "Beck stock," and "Supply stock" do not accurately describe these specific items or their purpose in the context provided.

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74. (201a) Who sets the limits on the top 5 Air Force Enlisted Ranks

Explanation

The Department of Defense (DoD) sets the limits on the top 5 Air Force Enlisted Ranks. Being the highest authority in the military, the DoD has the power to establish and regulate the ranks and positions within the Air Force. They determine the criteria and requirements for promotion to these top enlisted ranks, ensuring that only qualified individuals reach these positions. The DoD's involvement in setting these limits ensures consistency and standardization across the Air Force and other branches of the military.

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75. (201a) To promote an A1C to SrA, what are the TIG and TIS requirements?

Explanation

To promote an A1C to SrA, the Time in Grade (TIG) requirement is 20 months, and the Time in Service (TIS) requirement is 36 months. This means that an Airman must have served in the rank of A1C for at least 20 months and have a total of 36 months of military service in order to be eligible for promotion to SrA.

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76. (202a) Which of the following is an example of basic developmental education? 

Explanation

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77. (202b) What are the flights which fall under the CMS? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Accessories, Avionics, Propulsion, TMDE. These are the flights that fall under the CMS.

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78. (202E) A DOC Statement is

Explanation

A DOC Statement is used to provide units with a single source document to measure and report in SORTS. SORTS is a system that allows for the collection and reporting of unit readiness data. By using a DOC Statement, units can ensure that they have a standardized and consistent document to measure and report their readiness status. This helps to facilitate accurate and efficient reporting within the SORTS system.

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79. (202g) Who is the only person with legal authority over contractor?

Explanation

The ACO (Administrative Contracting Officer) is the only person with legal authority over a contractor. They are responsible for managing and administering the contract, ensuring compliance with terms and conditions, and making decisions on behalf of the government. The ACO has the authority to issue modifications, approve invoices, and resolve any disputes that may arise during the contract performance. They play a crucial role in overseeing the contractor's work and ensuring that it meets the requirements of the contract.

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80. (205b) What part of a BSP is classified because it assesses the ability of an installation to support contingency operations? 

Explanation

Part 2 of a BSP is classified because it assesses the ability of an installation to support contingency operations.

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81. (201a) Which promotion system is used to promote the ranks of SSgt, TSgt, and MSgt

Explanation

WAPS stands for Weighted Airman Promotion System, which is the promotion system used to promote the ranks of SSgt, TSgt, and MSgt. WAPS is a competitive process that takes into account factors such as job performance, education, and time in service. Candidates are evaluated and given scores based on these factors, and those with the highest scores are selected for promotion. This system ensures that promotions are based on merit and allows for fair and objective selection of individuals for higher ranks.

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82. (201b) Whose responsible for carefully observing the ratee's behavior, performance, and efficiency

Explanation

The rater is responsible for carefully observing the ratee's behavior, performance, and efficiency. The rater is tasked with evaluating and assessing the ratee's work and providing feedback and ratings based on their observations. This role requires attentiveness and objectivity to accurately assess the ratee's performance and provide constructive feedback for improvement. The rater plays a crucial role in the performance evaluation process.

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83. (201a) How long must an AB be in their grade to promote to AMN?

Explanation

An AB must be in their grade for 6 months in order to promote to AMN. This suggests that there is a minimum time requirement for an AB to serve in their current grade before being eligible for promotion. It is likely that this time period allows for the necessary experience and training to be gained before advancing to the next rank.

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84. (201d) Which mobilization can last up to 365 days and 200,000 troops?

Explanation

A Presidential Call-up is the mobilization that can last up to 365 days and involve 200,000 troops. This mobilization is initiated by the President of the country and is usually used in times of national emergencies or crises. It allows the President to quickly deploy a large number of troops for an extended period to address the situation at hand.

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85. (204a) During which phase does a unit develop its financial plans?

Explanation

During the formulation phase, a unit develops its financial plans. This phase involves analyzing the current financial situation, setting financial goals and objectives, and creating a plan to achieve those goals. It includes activities such as budgeting, forecasting, and identifying sources of funding. This phase is crucial as it lays the foundation for the unit's financial activities and guides decision-making in terms of resource allocation and financial management.

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86. (201a) How many points in the WAPS does the EPR carry?

Explanation

The EPR carries 250 points in the Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS).

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87. (201a) How can an enlisted person obtain a 3 skill level?

Explanation

To obtain a 3 skill level as an enlisted person, one must complete a residential initial skills training course. This course is designed to provide comprehensive training and education on the necessary skills and knowledge required for the specific job. By completing this course, the enlisted person will acquire the skills needed to perform their duties effectively and reach the 3 skill level.

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88. (202c) What are the CDDAR minimum coordinating agencies

Explanation

The CDDAR minimum coordinating agencies are Fire, EOD, and Bio-environmental Engineering. These agencies are responsible for coordinating and responding to emergency situations related to fire, explosive ordnance disposal (EOD), and bio-environmental hazards. They work together to ensure the safety and security of the affected area and its inhabitants.

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89. (201b) Written communication between rater and rate about performance

Explanation

The Airman Comprehensive Assessment is the most appropriate answer because it aligns with the context of the question, which is about written communication between a rater and ratee regarding performance. The Airman Comprehensive Assessment is a formal evaluation tool used in the United States Air Force to assess an airman's performance, potential, and overall contribution to the organization. It involves a comprehensive review of the airman's performance, including written feedback and ratings from the rater. Therefore, it fits the description of written communication between a rater and ratee about performance.

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90. (201b) Which statement identifies the purpose of the Enlisted Performance Report

Explanation

The purpose of the Enlisted Performance Report is to provide a long-term, cumulative record of an individual's performance. This means that it is intended to track and document an individual's performance over an extended period of time, rather than focusing on short-term or immediate progress. The report aims to provide a comprehensive overview of an individual's performance history, allowing for a more thorough evaluation and assessment.

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91. (202g) What does the Functional Commander control?

Explanation

The Functional Commander controls both the functional and organizational authority over the contractor. This means that they have the power to make decisions and give orders related to the contractor's work and responsibilities within their functional area. They also have the authority to oversee and manage the contractor's performance and ensure that they are fulfilling their obligations effectively.

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92. (202e) The Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRRS) is

Explanation

The Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRRS) is designated to replace SORTS and ART. This means that DRRS is intended to take the place of both SORTS and ART, potentially streamlining and simplifying the reporting process. It suggests that DRRS has been specifically chosen as the successor to SORTS and ART, indicating a planned transition from the old systems to the new one.

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93. (201b) The most informal form of counseling, not normally documented, and if documented, only for future needs if counselee does not correct the problem

Explanation

Verbal counseling is the most informal form of counseling, which is typically not documented. If it is documented, it is only done for future reference if the counselee fails to correct the problem. This type of counseling involves a verbal conversation between the counselor and the counselee, where the counselor provides guidance, advice, and support to address the issue at hand. It is a less formal approach compared to other counseling methods and is often used to address minor problems or provide immediate feedback.

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94. (201b) Which Professional Military Education opportunity is offered to the ranks of SrA & SSgt selects

Explanation

ALS (Airman Leadership School) is the Professional Military Education opportunity offered to the ranks of Senior Airman (SrA) and Staff Sergeant (SSgt) selects. ALS is a leadership development program that focuses on developing the skills and knowledge necessary for effective leadership and supervisory roles within the Air Force. It provides training in areas such as communication, management, and professional ethics, preparing Airmen for increased responsibilities and advancement in their careers.

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95. (204a) Which code identifies base organizations and who is spending money?

Explanation

The Responsibility Center Code is the correct answer because it identifies the base organizations and who is spending money. This code is used to track and allocate expenses within an organization, allowing for accountability and transparency in financial management. It helps to identify the specific department, unit, or individual responsible for the expenditures, making it easier to analyze and manage budgets.

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96. (201a) Which phases are apart of the 2 phase process to promote from TSgt to MSgt?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Weighted score and promotion board score." This is because the promotion process from Technical Sergeant (TSgt) to Master Sergeant (MSgt) involves two phases. The first phase is the calculation of the weighted score, which takes into account factors such as time in service, time in grade, decorations, and performance evaluations. The second phase is the promotion board score, which is determined by a panel of senior enlisted members who review the records and performance of eligible candidates. Both the weighted score and promotion board score play a crucial role in the promotion decision.

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97. (202h) What is the Installation Supplier/Receiver Support Agreement Manager (SAM) responsible for

Explanation

The Installation Supplier/Receiver Support Agreement Manager (SAM) is responsible for establishing procedures to prevent unnecessary delays in negotiating, revising, and reviewing support agreements. This means that they are in charge of creating a streamlined process to ensure that support agreements are handled efficiently and without unnecessary delays. This role focuses on improving the negotiation and review process to ensure that agreements are finalized in a timely manner.

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98. (203c) AFMC's structure consists of __ centers and __ staff direcorates.

Explanation

AFMC's structure consists of 5 centers and 21 staff directorates.

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99. (203c) Which of the following centers is is involved in acquisition focused on cradle-to-grave management?

Explanation

The AF Life Cycle Management Center is involved in acquisition focused on cradle-to-grave management. This means that they are responsible for managing the entire life cycle of a product or system, from its initial development and acquisition, through its operation and maintenance, and finally its retirement or disposal. They oversee all aspects of the acquisition process, including requirements definition, contract negotiation, and performance monitoring. This center plays a crucial role in ensuring that the Air Force's acquisitions are effectively managed and meet the needs of the organization.

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100. (202a) Career Broadening is defined as which of the following? 

Explanation

Career Broadening is defined as leaving the logistics career field and returning after a special tour. This means temporarily stepping away from one's current logistics career path to gain new experiences and skills in a different area or role. This special tour could involve working in a different department or organization, or even in a different industry altogether. The purpose of career broadening is to expand one's knowledge, expertise, and perspective, ultimately enhancing their overall professional development and making them a more well-rounded and versatile employee.

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101. (202c) CDDAR: The WG/CC must ________the CDDAR program. Furthermore, he/she must collaborate to ________ a publication that assigns responsibilities and procedures to implement CDDAR

Explanation

The correct answer is "implement, develop". In this context, the WG/CC (Working Group/Commander) is required to carry out and put into effect the CDDAR (Commanders' Deployment Discipline and Accountability Review) program. Additionally, they must work together to create and establish a publication that outlines the responsibilities and procedures for implementing the CDDAR program.

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102. (205a) What does the Cargo Deployment Function do? 

Explanation

The Cargo Deployment Function is responsible for in-checking, marshaling, and coordinating the load team. This means that they are involved in checking the cargo, organizing and preparing it for transportation, and overseeing the team responsible for loading it onto the designated vehicle.

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103. (201b) Supervisor & counselee devising a plan that the counselee can follow to resolve the problem while focusing on outcomes and the achievement of attainable goal represents:

Explanation

In the final phase of counseling, the supervisor and counselee work together to create a plan that the counselee can implement to resolve the problem. This plan focuses on outcomes and the achievement of attainable goals. This represents the concept of "Counselee Action (Final Phase)" where the counselee takes responsibility for their own growth and development by actively participating in the counseling process and taking action towards resolving their issues.

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104. (205c) A factor or condition that, temporarily or permanently impedes mission accomplishment. 

Explanation

LIMFACs stands for Limiting Factors. In the context of the given question, LIMFACs are factors or conditions that can temporarily or permanently hinder the accomplishment of a mission. These factors can include various obstacles, limitations, or constraints that may arise during the mission, such as resource shortages, technical difficulties, environmental conditions, or other challenges. LIMFACs play a crucial role in assessing and mitigating risks to ensure successful mission completion.

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105. (201a) Which of the following promotion types are available as a 1 time consideration only?

Explanation

Below the Zone is a promotion type that is available as a one-time consideration only. This means that individuals can only be considered for promotion below their normal zone of eligibility once in their career. It is a special promotion opportunity that allows exceptional performers to be promoted ahead of their peers. Once an individual is promoted below the zone, they will not be eligible for another below the zone promotion in the future. This promotion type is designed to recognize and reward outstanding performance and potential.

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106. (204a) Which code identifies very broad mission categories?

Explanation

The Budget Activity Code identifies very broad mission categories. It is a code used in budgeting and financial management to categorize and track the various activities and programs within an organization. This code helps in identifying and classifying the different types of expenses and investments made by the organization based on their mission categories.

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107. (205e) Which of the following are the main processes for readying the force

Explanation

The main processes for readying the force include preparing the battle-space, positioning the force, employing the force, sustaining the force, and recovering the force. These processes are essential for ensuring that the force is properly organized, deployed, and controlled. By preparing the battle-space and positioning the force, the necessary conditions and resources are set up for the mission. Employing the force involves utilizing weapon systems and designating targets. Sustaining the force involves maintaining the battle-space and providing ongoing support. Finally, recovering the force ensures that personnel and equipment are safely returned after the mission.

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108. (205c) What is the DoD's principal electronic information system used to monitor, plan, and execute deployment? 

Explanation

The DoD's principal electronic information system used to monitor, plan, and execute deployment is the Joint Planning and Execution System (JOPES). This system is designed to provide a common operating picture for military planners and commanders, allowing them to coordinate and synchronize the deployment of forces and resources. JOPES enables the DoD to effectively manage the movement of personnel, equipment, and supplies during deployment operations. It helps in tracking and managing the deployment process from the initial planning stages to the actual execution of the operation.

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109. (202f) Where would you go to if you needed to arrange pickup and delivery of mx personnel?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Deployment and distribution flight." This is because the deployment and distribution flight is responsible for arranging the pickup and delivery of military personnel. They handle the logistics and transportation of personnel to and from different locations. This flight ensures that personnel are efficiently transported to their designated destinations.

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110. (201a) What are the requirements to obtain a 5 skill level

Explanation

To obtain a 5 skill level, the requirements include completing CDC (Career Development Course), undergoing 12 months of upgrade training, and fulfilling CFETP (Career Field Education and Training Plan) core tasks. This indicates that a combination of theoretical knowledge through CDC, practical training through upgrade training, and competency in specific core tasks outlined in CFETP are necessary to achieve a 5 skill level.

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111. (201b) The most critical element of the EES:

Explanation

The Airman Comprehensive Assessment is the most critical element of the EES because it provides a comprehensive evaluation of an airman's performance, potential, and readiness. It includes feedback from supervisors, peers, and subordinates, and covers areas such as job performance, leadership abilities, and personal and professional development. This assessment helps identify an airman's strengths and areas for improvement, and plays a crucial role in determining promotions, assignments, and career development opportunities.

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112. (201b) How many levels of counseling exist:

Explanation

There are four levels of counseling that exist. This indicates that there are four different stages or degrees of counseling, each with its own purpose and intensity. The question is asking for the number of these levels, and the correct answer is 4.

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113. (201b) Which PME is offered to TSgt, TSgt select and mandatory of promotion to MSgt

Explanation

The correct answer is NCOA. NCOA, which stands for Noncommissioned Officer Academy, is the PME (Professional Military Education) offered to TSgt (Technical Sergeant), TSgt select, and mandatory for promotion to MSgt (Master Sergeant). NCOA provides advanced leadership and management training for noncommissioned officers, helping them develop the skills and knowledge necessary for higher-level positions within the military.

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114. (205d) During the force deployment planning, what distinct forces is the first element to arrive? 

Explanation

The ADVON (advanced echelon) Team is the first element to arrive during force deployment planning. This team is responsible for conducting initial reconnaissance, setting up communication networks, and preparing the operational area for the arrival of the main force. They are typically composed of specialized personnel and equipment that can quickly establish a forward presence and provide essential support until the rest of the force arrives.

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115. (201a) Who does the CJR apply to?

Explanation

The CJR (Career Job Reservation) applies to first term re-enlistments. This means that individuals who are in their first term of enlistment and are considering re-enlisting in the military are subject to the provisions of the CJR. The CJR is a policy that allows the military to manage the retention of personnel by offering incentives and benefits to encourage re-enlistment. It is not applicable to second term or third term re-enlistments, as well as retirees who have already completed their military service.

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116. (201a) What is paid to enlisted members who re-enlist in selected critically manned AFSCs?

Explanation

Enlisted members who re-enlist in selected critically manned AFSCs receive a Selective Re-enlistment Bonus. This bonus is an incentive offered to encourage enlisted members to re-enlist in positions that are deemed critical to the Air Force. It is a financial reward given in addition to the regular base pay and housing benefits that enlisted members receive.

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117. (204a) Which code identifies specific mission capability or support activity?

Explanation

The program element code is used to identify specific mission capabilities or support activities. This code helps in tracking and categorizing expenses and investments related to different programs or projects. It helps in budgeting, planning, and monitoring the performance of various program elements within an organization. The program element code provides a standardized way to identify and differentiate different activities or capabilities within a larger budget or organization structure.

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118. (202c) The CDDAR supplemental AFI must adress

Explanation

The correct answer is "all the above". The CDDAR supplemental AFI must address PPE (Personal Protective Equipment), tech data, and after-hours procedures. This means that the supplemental AFI should provide guidance and instructions on these topics to ensure the safety and efficiency of operations.

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119. (202c) The CDDAR team chief is

Explanation

The CDDAR team chief is tracked on a special certification roster.

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120. (205e) What is the function of a centralized repair facility

Explanation

A centralized repair facility serves to consolidate off-equipment intermediate-level tasks and non-mission generated workloads for various aircraft components such as engines, EW pods, avionics LRUs, wheel & tire assemblies, and more. This facility allows for efficient management and coordination of repairs, ensuring that these tasks are prioritized, tracked, and completed in a timely manner. It serves as an alternative to depot level maintenance for non-mission generated workloads, providing a centralized location for specialized skills, sophisticated equipment, and specialized facilities needed for depot level maintenance.

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121. (201a) How long must an AMN be in their grade to promote to A1C?

Explanation

An Airman (AMN) must be in their grade for 10 months to promote to Airman First Class (A1C). This indicates that there is a specific time requirement that an AMN must meet before being eligible for promotion.

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122. (203c) Which of the following is the best source for assistance in revolving recurring issues with a given weapon system?

Explanation

The System Program Office is the best source for assistance in resolving recurring issues with a given weapon system. They are responsible for the development, acquisition, and sustainment of the weapon system, and have the expertise and resources to address any recurring issues. The System Program Manager, Program Executive Officer, and Ogden Air Logistics Complex may also provide assistance, but the System Program Office is specifically designed to handle such issues.

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123. (202e) What are the 4 measured resource areas?

Explanation

The correct answer is P- Level, S- Level, R- Level, T- Level. This is because the question asks for the "4 measured resource areas" and these are the four options provided that fit that criteria.

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124. (202e) Who can raise or lower C- Level rating?

Explanation

The correct answer is SQ/CC. The "C-Level rating" refers to the rating of the unit's overall combat capability. The SQ/CC, or Squadron Commander, has the authority to raise or lower this rating based on the performance and readiness of the squadron. They are responsible for assessing the squadron's training, equipment, and personnel and making adjustments to the C-Level rating accordingly.

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125. (205f) The Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept explains how the Air Force will

Explanation

The correct answer is "Organize, equip, and sustain." The Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept is a framework that outlines how the Air Force will operate. It involves organizing the force, ensuring it is properly equipped with the necessary resources and technology, and sustaining its operations to ensure long-term effectiveness. This concept is crucial for the Air Force to be able to fly, fight, and win in various missions and operations.

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126. (204a) Which of the following records gives the RCM fiscal year-to-date on supplies, equipment, and fund balance?

Explanation

The M35- Project fund management report is the correct answer because it provides information on the RCM fiscal year-to-date on supplies, equipment, and fund balance. This report specifically focuses on the management of project funds, which would include tracking expenditures on supplies and equipment, as well as monitoring the fund balance. The other options listed do not specifically mention supplies, equipment, and fund balance, making them less likely to provide the desired information.

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127. (205a) Who is reasonable for units deployment readiness and reports on units limiting factors and shortfalls? 

Explanation

The UDM (Unit Deployment Manager) is responsible for ensuring units are ready for deployment and reports on any limiting factors or shortfalls. They oversee the readiness of units and coordinate with various personnel to ensure all necessary requirements are met. This includes coordinating training, ensuring equipment and supplies are available, and addressing any issues that may impact the unit's readiness for deployment.

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128. (205f) How many Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEFs) are there in the Air Force 

Explanation

There are 10 Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEFs) in the Air Force.

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129. (201a) Which of the following are common promotion eligibility items for Airman (AB-SrA)?

Explanation

Non-Competitive basis is a common promotion eligibility item for Airman (AB-SrA). This means that individuals can be promoted without having to compete against other candidates. Instead, they are promoted based on their performance and qualifications alone. This allows for a fair and objective evaluation of an individual's readiness for promotion, without the need for comparison to others.

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130. (201b) How many raters are required for AF Form 911

Explanation

AF Form 911 is a form used by the Air Force to document and report incidents or accidents. It is important to have multiple raters to ensure accuracy and objectivity in the reporting process. Having four raters allows for a diverse range of perspectives and reduces the likelihood of bias or errors. Each rater can provide their own observations and opinions, which can then be compared and analyzed to form a comprehensive and reliable report. Therefore, four raters are required for AF Form 911.

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131. (203b) What estimates the amount of equipment needed to perform maintenance?

Explanation

The Equipment Allowance Standard estimates the amount of equipment needed to perform maintenance. This standard helps in determining the quantity and types of equipment required for maintenance activities. It provides guidelines for maintaining an adequate inventory of equipment to ensure smooth operations and timely maintenance. By following the Equipment Allowance Standard, organizations can ensure that they have the necessary equipment on hand to effectively carry out maintenance tasks.

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132. (201a) What skill level is required to promote from SrA to SSgt

Explanation

To promote from SrA to SSgt, a skill level of 5-lvl is required. This indicates that the individual must have completed the necessary training and acquired the required skills and knowledge at the 5-level in their specific job or career field. This level of proficiency demonstrates that the individual has gained a higher level of expertise and is ready to take on more responsibilities and leadership roles as a SSgt.

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133. (204a) Which of the following is the approval committee for all financial matters?

Explanation

The Financial Management Board is the approval committee for all financial matters. This board is responsible for overseeing and making decisions regarding financial management, budgeting, and allocation of resources within an organization. They ensure that financial decisions align with the organization's goals and objectives and maintain financial stability and accountability. The Financial Management Board plays a crucial role in ensuring effective financial management and decision-making within the organization.

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134. (202b) Which of the following is NOT a section of the armament flight? 

Explanation

The question is asking for the section that is NOT a part of the armament flight. The armament flight typically consists of different sections that are responsible for various aspects of the flight. The options given are Mx section, Alternate mission equipment section, Support section, and Weapon system section. Out of these options, the correct answer is Weapon system section, as it is not a part of the armament flight.

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135. (205d) What base can look over task organic resources easily and establishes supply account? 

Explanation

A Limited Base can look over task organic resources easily and establishes supply account.

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136. (201b) Which PME is mandatory for promotion to SSgt

Explanation

ALS (Airman Leadership School) is the mandatory PME (Professional Military Education) required for promotion to SSgt (Staff Sergeant). ALS is a leadership development program that provides Airmen with the necessary skills and knowledge to effectively lead and supervise in the Air Force. It focuses on developing leadership abilities, communication skills, and critical thinking. Completion of ALS is a prerequisite for promotion to the rank of SSgt, making it a mandatory requirement for Airmen aspiring to advance in their careers.

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137. (202h) What is the MAJCOM Program Manager main task

Explanation

The MAJCOM Program Manager's main task is to publish MAJCOM supplementary guidance. This involves providing additional instructions or directives specific to the MAJCOM's operations and requirements. This helps to clarify and expand upon any existing guidance or policies provided by higher headquarters. By publishing this supplementary guidance, the Program Manager ensures that all personnel within the MAJCOM have a clear understanding of the expectations and procedures that need to be followed.

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138. (202d) Authorized Change Request(ACR) ________________, while Organizational Change Request _______________________.

Explanation

The Authorized Change Request (ACR) is used to change any category on the Unit Manning Document (UMD) by converting Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs). This means that it can be used to modify the personnel requirements and assignments within a unit by changing the job codes. On the other hand, the Organizational Change Request is specifically used for unit-level activation, inactivation, and re-designation. This means that it is used to request changes in the overall structure and organization of a unit, such as activating or deactivating a unit or changing its designation.

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139. (201a) Below the Zone applies to which of the following rank?

Explanation

Below the Zone applies to A1C - SrA rank. This means that Airmen First Class (A1C) who have demonstrated exceptional performance and potential can be promoted to Senior Airman (SrA) before their peers. It is a promotion opportunity that allows deserving A1Cs to advance to the next rank faster than the typical promotion timeline.

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140. (202f) Who manages the receipt, storage, issue, and inspection of hazmat?

Explanation

The Hazmat Pharmacy element manages the receipt, storage, issue, and inspection of hazardous materials (hazmat). This suggests that the Hazmat Pharmacy element is responsible for handling and maintaining control over hazmat inventory, ensuring that it is received, stored, issued, and inspected properly.

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141. (202h) MOA, Memo of Agreement

Explanation

This answer accurately reflects the concept of a Memo of Agreement (MOA). In an MOA, the actions of one party are dependent on the actions of the other party involved. It establishes a mutual understanding and agreement between the parties, outlining their responsibilities and expectations. The success of the agreement relies on the cooperation and actions of both parties.

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142. (201a) Which of the following make up the 5 weighted factors in WAPS (SMSgt-CMSgt)?

Explanation

The correct answer is USAF Supervisory Exam, Central Evaluation Board, Decorations, TIS, TIG. These factors make up the 5 weighted factors in WAPS (SMSgt-CMSgt). The Specialty Knowledge Test is not included in the correct answer.

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143. (201a) What are the rank requirements to obtain a 7 skill level?

Explanation

To obtain a 7 skill level, the rank requirement is SSgt (Staff Sergeant). This means that a person must achieve the rank of Staff Sergeant in order to reach a 7 skill level.

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144. (205c) What tool translated joint tasking in the TPFDD into detailed Air Force taskings? 

Explanation

The tool that translated joint tasking in the TPFDD into detailed Air Force taskings is the Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DECAPES). This tool is specifically designed for planning and executing military operations, including the translation of joint tasking into specific taskings for the Air Force. It helps in coordinating and synchronizing the deployment of forces, ensuring that each service branch understands their specific roles and responsibilities in the overall mission.

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145. (202f) Where does a/c refueling take place?

Explanation

A/C refueling takes place in the Ops section.

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146. (202c) For CDDAR MX Group/CC responsible for

Explanation

The correct answer is establishing base CDDAR capability. This answer is supported by the mention of "implementing CDDAR program" and "establishing base CDDAR capability" in the given options. The other options, such as PPE and tech data and barbeques, do not relate to the concept of establishing base CDDAR capability. Therefore, the most appropriate answer is establishing base CDDAR capability.

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147. (205a) Which agency coordinates and make decisions during exercises and deployments 

Explanation

The correct answer is ICC. ICC stands for Incident Command Center, which is an agency that coordinates and makes decisions during exercises and deployments. It is responsible for managing and directing resources, coordinating response efforts, and ensuring effective communication during emergency situations.

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148. (201b) Next highest person in chain of command, serving in grade of Major or higher, but no higher than Senior rater (Wing CC)

Explanation

The final evaluator is the next highest person in the chain of command, serving in the grade of Major or higher, but no higher than the Senior Rater (Wing CC). This means that the final evaluator is the person who holds the highest position in the rating process, above the rater, additional rater, and unit commander. They have the authority to provide the final evaluation and assessment of the individual being rated.

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149. (201a) What skill level is required to promote from TSgt to MSgt?

Explanation

To promote from TSgt to MSgt, a skill level of 7-lvl is required. This indicates that the individual must have completed the necessary training and acquired the skills and knowledge required for the next rank. The 7-lvl skill level signifies a higher level of expertise and responsibility, which is necessary for the promotion to MSgt.

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150. (201a) What are the minimum TIG requirements for STEP?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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151. (202f) LRS' War Readiness Material manager for the WRM program is the

Explanation

The Squadron readiness section is responsible for managing the War Readiness Material (WRM) program, which includes the LRS' WRM program. This section is in charge of ensuring that the squadron is prepared for war and has all the necessary materials and resources. They oversee the inventory, distribution, and maintenance of the WRM program, ensuring that all assets are accounted for and ready for deployment.

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152. (204a) Which code identifies resources consumed in carrying out program/mission?

Explanation

The correct answer is Expense and Investment Code. This code identifies the resources that are consumed in carrying out a program or mission. It helps in tracking and managing the expenses and investments made for a specific program or mission. By using this code, organizations can allocate and monitor their financial resources effectively and ensure that they are being used efficiently.

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153. (205e) Time definite deliveries allow part inventories to be

Explanation

Time definite deliveries allow part inventories to be flexible because they provide a specific and guaranteed delivery time. This flexibility allows businesses to adjust their inventory levels based on the expected arrival of the parts. They can maintain lower inventory levels and rely on the timely delivery of parts when needed, reducing the risk of excess inventory or stockouts. Time definite deliveries also enable businesses to respond quickly to changes in demand or production schedules, as they can rely on the flexibility of these deliveries to meet their needs.

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154. (202c) AETC responsibility for CDDAR

Explanation

The correct answer is "Develop, sustain, and administer the CDDAR training program." This answer is supported by the information provided in the question, which states that one of the responsibilities of AETC (Air Education and Training Command) for CDDAR (Crash Damaged Disabled Aircraft Recovery) is to develop, sustain, and administer the training program. This indicates that AETC is responsible for creating and maintaining the training program related to CDDAR.

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155. (203c) Which entity's purpose is to maintain and sustain weapon systems after acquisition?

Explanation

Air Logistics Complexes are responsible for maintaining and sustaining weapon systems after they have been acquired. These complexes provide support services such as repair, overhaul, and modification to ensure the continued functionality and readiness of the weapons. They play a crucial role in the overall life cycle management of the weapon systems, working closely with the Air Force Sustainment Center and the Air Force Life Cycle Management Center to ensure efficient and effective maintenance and sustainment operations.

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(201c) What is the max regular annual leave a civilian can carry over...
(202a) What shows mandatory and/or optional training requirements and...
(202b) The Fuel System Section is responsible for what? 
(202d) The Unit Manpower Document(UMD)______________, while the Unit...
(203a) High use DIFM items located near Maintenance are stored at
(201d) A base where the Active has command is called....
(203b) When does DIFM time end?
(202h) Intragovernmental is
(201c) How much sick leave does a civilian get every pay period?
(202a) What is the most important job you can have in the AF? 
(202b) The noise suppression system and engine test stand sections...
(205f) Which tool allows commanders to report the ability of an...
(201a) What ways can the enlisted be addressed
(202d) The Logistics Composite Model (LCOM) ________
(202g) Decentralized Contracts must be
(202h) Intraservice is
(202h) MOU, Memo of Understanding
(203c) True or False: The integrated weapon system management concept...
(202a) Which of the following is true of first assignments? 
(201c) What is a union member that does not pay dues called?
(202g) What are the two main jobs of the COR?
(205c) What are the three types of order based on the deployment...
(201d) Which AF component has dual roles?
(205b) Why is it essential that, as a mc officer, you are familiar...
(205b) What is the primary purpose of a site survey
(205c) During the personnel processing, the highest ranking person...
(201d) A base where the AF Reserve is in command is call...
(205f) What are the characteristics of aerospace power
(205d) The number and type are main consideration for determining size...
(203a) What identifies a specific supply transaction until it's...
(203a) A different part than the one you ordered but will perform the...
(205d) What tool is used to recover diverted aircraft and sent to...
(203b) What kind of parts are expendable, not accounted for, and are...
(201a) What is Congress role in the Enlisted Promotion System?
(201c) A civilian with over 15 years time in service earns how much...
(202g) What does the statement of work (SOW) tell contractors?
(202e) Which of the following C- Levels is not used for overall...
(205b) BSP must  be reviewed how often? 
(201b) A disciplinary measure given by commanders on G-series order
(201b) The highest level of PME and offered to SMSgt select/MSgt
(204a) Which of the following records covers all transactions during a...
(203a) What kind of items are expendable?
(202h) Intersevice is
(202b) Which section ensures that all GITA aircraft are made...
(202g) What is ISS
(205a) This is activated and controlled by the IDO and coordinated...
(205b) Which section is responsible for coordinating with functional...
(205d) What base must the site survey team establish support...
(201a) What is the purpose of the enlisted promotion process?
(201a) Which type of promotion is designed to promote deserving...
(201a) When is Below The Zone promotion available to Airman?
(204a) Funds are ______ when money transfers hands.
(205e) What is the purpose of reducing the Mobility Footprint of...
(205e) What concept is designed to shorten the logistics...
(201b) Placing a person in a position to take on a task and increasing...
(201b) Which of the following is one of the two purposes for...
(203a) Supply owned stocks ready for deployment are called...
(203b)  AFREP is an agency that deals with what?
(201d) Which mobilization requires a Presidential declaration of...
(204a) The DoD budget cycle consists of which 3 phases (in order)?
(201a) What skill level is required to promote from SSgt to TSgt?
(201c) How many weeks unpaid leave can a civilian get for life...
(201a) Which of the following components of WAPS (SSgt-TSgt) carry the...
(202b) What are the flights which fall under EMS? 
(205a) Who coordinates, directs, and controls deployments for a...
(201b) Which EPR form is designated for AB-TSgt?
(205b) What part of BSP identifies the total base resources and...
(201b) Can be for positive or negative actions and useful when...
(201b) The most severe form of letter counseling and has a stronger...
(201b) This award recognizes base-level military and civil service...
(205f) How long is the AEF life cycle
(202f) Customer support section is...
(203b) Dust covers, hydraulic plugs, and quick release pins are known...
(201a) Who sets the limits on the top 5 Air Force Enlisted Ranks
(201a) To promote an A1C to SrA, what are the TIG and TIS...
(202a) Which of the following is an example of basic developmental...
(202b) What are the flights which fall under the CMS? 
(202E) A DOC Statement is
(202g) Who is the only person with legal authority over contractor?
(205b) What part of a BSP is classified because it assesses the...
(201a) Which promotion system is used to promote the ranks of SSgt,...
(201b) Whose responsible for carefully observing the ratee's behavior,...
(201a) How long must an AB be in their grade to promote to AMN?
(201d) Which mobilization can last up to 365 days and 200,000 troops?
(204a) During which phase does a unit develop its financial plans?
(201a) How many points in the WAPS does the EPR carry?
(201a) How can an enlisted person obtain a 3 skill level?
(202c) What are the CDDAR minimum coordinating agencies
(201b) Written communication between rater and rate about performance
(201b) Which statement identifies the purpose of the Enlisted...
(202g) What does the Functional Commander control?
(202e) The Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRRS) is
(201b) The most informal form of counseling, not normally documented,...
(201b) Which Professional Military Education opportunity is offered to...
(204a) Which code identifies base organizations and who is spending...
(201a) Which phases are apart of the 2 phase process to promote from...
(202h) What is the Installation Supplier/Receiver Support Agreement...
(203c) AFMC's structure consists of __ centers and __ staff...
(203c) Which of the following centers is is involved...
(202a) Career Broadening is defined as which of the following? 
(202c) CDDAR: The WG/CC must ________the CDDAR program. Furthermore,...
(205a) What does the Cargo Deployment Function do? 
(201b) Supervisor & counselee devising a plan that the counselee...
(205c) A factor or condition that, temporarily or permanently impedes...
(201a) Which of the following promotion types are available as a 1...
(204a) Which code identifies very broad mission categories?
(205e) Which of the following are the main processes for readying the...
(205c) What is the DoD's principal electronic information system used...
(202f) Where would you go to if you needed to arrange pickup and...
(201a) What are the requirements to obtain a 5 skill level
(201b) The most critical element of the EES:
(201b) How many levels of counseling exist:
(201b) Which PME is offered to TSgt, TSgt select and mandatory of...
(205d) During the force deployment planning, what distinct forces is...
(201a) Who does the CJR apply to?
(201a) What is paid to enlisted members who re-enlist in selected...
(204a) Which code identifies specific mission capability or support...
(202c) The CDDAR supplemental AFI must adress
(202c) The CDDAR team chief is
(205e) What is the function of a centralized repair facility
(201a) How long must an AMN be in their grade to promote to A1C?
(203c) Which of the following is the best source for assistance in...
(202e) What are the 4 measured resource areas?
(202e) Who can raise or lower C- Level rating?
(205f) The Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept explains how...
(204a) Which of the following records gives the RCM fiscal...
(205a) Who is reasonable for units deployment readiness and reports on...
(205f) How many Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEFs) are there in the...
(201a) Which of the following are common promotion eligibility items...
(201b) How many raters are required for AF Form 911
(203b) What estimates the amount of equipment needed to perform...
(201a) What skill level is required to promote from SrA to SSgt
(204a) Which of the following is the approval committee for all...
(202b) Which of the following is NOT a section of the armament...
(205d) What base can look over task organic resources easily and...
(201b) Which PME is mandatory for promotion to SSgt
(202h) What is the MAJCOM Program Manager main task
(202d) Authorized Change Request(ACR) ________________, while...
(201a) Below the Zone applies to which of the following rank?
(202f) Who manages the receipt, storage, issue, and inspection of...
(202h) MOA, Memo of Agreement
(201a) Which of the following make up the 5 weighted factors in WAPS...
(201a) What are the rank requirements to obtain a 7 skill level?
(205c) What tool translated joint tasking in the TPFDD into detailed...
(202f) Where does a/c refueling take place?
(202c) For CDDAR MX Group/CC responsible for
(205a) Which agency coordinates and make decisions during exercises...
(201b) Next highest person in chain of command, serving in grade of...
(201a) What skill level is required to promote from TSgt to MSgt?
(201a) What are the minimum TIG requirements for STEP?
(202f) LRS' War Readiness Material manager for the WRM program is...
(204a) Which code identifies resources consumed in carrying out...
(205e) Time definite deliveries allow part inventories to be
(202c) AETC responsibility for CDDAR
(203c) Which entity's purpose is to maintain and sustain weapon...
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