AMOC Block 5.1 Test

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Quizzes Created: 8 | Total Attempts: 520
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AMOC Block 5.1 Test - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (502c) Which lift truck has a 3000lb capacity and is used to load pylons , munitions, and fuel tanks on fighters?

    • A.

      MJ 11

    • B.

      MHU 83

    • C.

      MJ 1

    • D.

      MHU 84

    Correct Answer
    C. MJ 1
    Explanation
    The MJ 1 lift truck is the correct answer because it has a 3000lb capacity and is specifically designed for loading pylons, munitions, and fuel tanks on fighters. The other options, MHU 83 and MHU 84, are not mentioned to have the same capacity or purpose.

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  • 2. 

    (502c) Which lift trailer has 10 wheels and is capable of transporting the MAC 2?

    • A.

      MHU 226

    • B.

      MHU 110

    • C.

      MHU 101

    • D.

      MHU 262

    Correct Answer
    B. MHU 110
    Explanation
    The MHU 110 is the correct answer because it is the only option listed that has 10 wheels and is capable of transporting the MAC 2. The other options either have a different number of wheels or are not capable of transporting the MAC 2.

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  • 3. 

    (502c) What is used to load rounds on all tactical aircraft equipped with a 20mmgun system?

    • A.

      A10 ALS Dragon

    • B.

      Linkless Ammunition System

    • C.

      Universal Ammunition Loading System

    • D.

      Universal Loader System

    Correct Answer
    C. Universal Ammunition Loading System
    Explanation
    The Universal Ammunition Loading System is used to load rounds on all tactical aircraft equipped with a 20mm gun system. It is a versatile and efficient system that allows for quick and easy loading of ammunition onto the aircraft, ensuring that the gun system is ready for use during missions.

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  • 4. 

    (502c) Personnel should handle detonators, initiators, squibs, and other such devices in what?

    • A.

      Original containers

    • B.

      Protective containers

    • C.

      Munitions handling containers

    • D.

      Explosive containers

    Correct Answer
    B. Protective containers
    Explanation
    Personnel should handle detonators, initiators, squibs, and other such devices in protective containers to ensure their safety. These containers are specifically designed to safeguard against accidental ignition or detonation, minimizing the risk of harm to the personnel and the surrounding environment. By using protective containers, the chances of mishandling or unauthorized use of these explosive devices are significantly reduced, promoting a secure and controlled handling process.

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  • 5. 

    (502c) How many fire extinguishers are required on every vehicle transporting explosives?

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      2

    • D.

      1

    Correct Answer
    C. 2
    Explanation
    Every vehicle transporting explosives should have at least two fire extinguishers. This is necessary to ensure the safety of the vehicle and its surroundings in case of a fire emergency. Having two fire extinguishers allows for redundancy and ensures that there is enough firefighting capability to effectively combat any potential fires that may occur during transportation.

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  • 6. 

    (502d) When a munition is armed _________? 

    • A.

      It is ready to be uploaded to the airframe

    • B.

      All personnel should be at least 4000 feet away

    • C.

      The next normal event initiates functioning of the fuse

    • D.

      It is ready to be dropped from the aircraft

    Correct Answer
    C. The next normal event initiates functioning of the fuse
    Explanation
    When a munition is armed, the next normal event initiates functioning of the fuse. This means that once the munition is armed, it is not immediately ready to be uploaded to the airframe or dropped from the aircraft. Instead, it requires a specific event, which could be a trigger or a specific condition, to initiate the functioning of the fuse. This ensures that the munition will only explode or function as intended when the desired event occurs, preventing accidental detonation or premature activation.

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  • 7. 

    (502d) This component initiates burning of propellant 

    • A.

      Initiator

    • B.

      Igniter

    • C.

      Primer

    • D.

      Propelling charge

    Correct Answer
    B. Igniter
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Igniter." An igniter is a component that initiates the burning of propellant. It is responsible for starting the combustion process, which generates the necessary thrust for propulsion. Without an igniter, the propellant would not burn and the engine would not function properly. Therefore, the igniter plays a crucial role in the functioning of the propulsion system.

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  • 8. 

    (502d) High explosives are used to destroy things, rapidly decompose, and ______ 

    • A.

      Are lethal at a range of 30 feet per explosive pound

    • B.

      Are identified by a brown band

    • C.

      Primarily cause lethality through shockwave effects

    • D.

      Are identified by a yellow band

    Correct Answer
    D. Are identified by a yellow band
    Explanation
    High explosives are identified by a yellow band. This means that when high explosives are packaged or stored, they are marked with a yellow band to indicate their presence. This is important for safety purposes, as it helps individuals to easily identify and handle high explosives correctly. The yellow band serves as a warning sign to ensure that proper precautions are taken when dealing with these potentially dangerous substances.

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  • 9. 

    (502d) Low explosives are used to do work propel things, _______, _________. 

    • A.

      Have a brown band, and are found on AIM-120 and AIM-9M X

    • B.

      Need a booster charge, and cannot be used on nuclear munitions

    • C.

      Must have a gas grain generator, and typically deflagrate

    • D.

      Are used in rocket motors, are illegal to use as weapons

    Correct Answer
    A. Have a brown band, and are found on AIM-120 and AIM-9M X
    Explanation
    Low explosives are used to do work, propel things, and have a brown band. They are commonly found on AIM-120 and AIM-9M X missiles.

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  • 10. 

    (502d) Which correctly lists the explosive train/chain? 

    • A.

      Detonator, booster charge, bursting charge

    • B.

      Detonator, booster, charge, bomb fill

    • C.

      Primer, detonator, booster blast, bursting charge

    • D.

      Bursting charge, booster charge, explosive charge

    Correct Answer
    A. Detonator, booster charge, bursting charge
  • 11. 

    (502d) Which is the main charge least sensitive explosive in train?

    • A.

      Detonator

    • B.

      Booster Charge

    • C.

      Bursting charge

    • D.

      Primer

    Correct Answer
    C. Bursting charge
    Explanation
    The bursting charge is the main charge least sensitive explosive in a train. This means that it is less prone to accidental detonation or ignition compared to other explosive components like detonators, booster charges, and primers. The bursting charge is designed to provide the necessary force to break open doors or containers in case of an emergency or during controlled operations, while minimizing the risk of unintentional explosions.

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  • 12. 

    (502d) What routes electrical lanyards from charging well to fuze well

    • A.

      Charging wire

    • B.

      Conduit

    • C.

      Explosive Train detonating device

    • D.

      Detonating cord

    Correct Answer
    B. Conduit
    Explanation
    Conduit is the correct answer because it is a protective tube or channel that is used to route electrical wires or cables from one location to another. In this case, the conduit is responsible for routing the electrical lanyards from the charging well to the fuze well. It provides a safe and organized pathway for the lanyards, ensuring that they are protected and properly connected between the two wells.

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  • 13. 

    (502d) The fuze can be positioned in the nose, tail, or both (except for penetrators). It’s action(detonation) can be initiated in what ways? 

    • A.

      Proximity, void detection, time

    • B.

      Airburst, time, impact

    • C.

      Delay, airburst, impact

    • D.

      Impact, time, proximity

    Correct Answer
    D. Impact, time, proximity
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Impact, time, proximity". This means that the fuze can be detonated by impact, a predetermined time delay, or when it reaches a certain proximity to a target.

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  • 14. 

    (502d) What are the two methods of arming the fuze? 

    • A.

      Mechanically timed, and electronically timed

    • B.

      Drop charge, thermal battery

    • C.

      Thermal battery, and grain gas generator

    • D.

      Mechanically pull, electronic pull

    Correct Answer
    A. Mechanically timed, and electronically timed
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Mechanically timed, and electronically timed. These two methods refer to the different ways in which the fuze can be armed. Mechanically timed means that the fuze is armed based on a mechanical mechanism, such as a timer or a specific action, while electronically timed means that the fuze is armed through an electronic circuit or system. Both methods allow for precise and controlled arming of the fuze, depending on the specific requirements of the situation.

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  • 15. 

    (502d) The Mk-84 General Purpose Bomb and the BLU-109 penetrator are what weight? 

    • A.

      500 lbs

    • B.

      2,000 lbs

    • C.

      1,000 lbs

    • D.

      5,000 lbs

    Correct Answer
    B. 2,000 lbs
    Explanation
    The Mk-84 General Purpose Bomb and the BLU-109 penetrator both have a weight of 2,000 lbs.

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  • 16. 

    (502d) The BDU-33 is a 25 lb practice bomb, it simulates ____________ low drag bombs.

    • A.

      BLU-109

    • B.

      MK-83/MK-84

    • C.

      MK-82/MK-84

    • D.

      Mk-82

    Correct Answer
    C. MK-82/MK-84
    Explanation
    The BDU-33 is a 25 lb practice bomb that simulates MK-82/MK-84 low drag bombs.

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  • 17. 

    (504a) What governs how personnel design and operate nuclear weapons and nuclear weapons system?

    • A.

      Nuclear Weapon System Report

    • B.

      DoD Weapons Safety Standard

    • C.

      AFI 91-201

    • D.

      AFI 91-204

    Correct Answer
    B. DoD Weapons Safety Standard
    Explanation
    The DoD Weapons Safety Standard governs how personnel design and operate nuclear weapons and nuclear weapons systems. This standard provides guidelines and regulations to ensure the safe handling, storage, transportation, and use of these weapons. It outlines the necessary procedures, training requirements, and safety measures that must be followed by all personnel involved in the design and operation of nuclear weapons. By adhering to this standard, the Department of Defense aims to minimize the risk of accidents, unauthorized use, and potential harm to personnel and the environment.

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  • 18. 

    (504a) Which of the following reports is NOT a nuclear weapon system accident report?

    • A.

      NUCFLASH

    • B.

      Broken Arrow

    • C.

      Empty Quiver

    • D.

      Bent Spear

    Correct Answer
    D. Bent Spear
    Explanation
    Bent Spear is not a nuclear weapon system accident report. Bent Spear refers to incidents involving nuclear weapons that deviate from standard procedures, such as unauthorized movement or loss of control, but without the risk of detonation or release of nuclear material. NUCFLASH, Broken Arrow, and Empty Quiver are all terms used to describe different types of nuclear weapon accidents or incidents involving the loss, damage, or unauthorized use of nuclear weapons.

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  • 19. 

    (504a) Which incident report is completed when damage to a weapon or component requires rework, replacement, or examination by DOE?

    • A.

      Nucflash

    • B.

      Broken Arrow

    • C.

      Bent Spear

    • D.

      Dull Sword

    Correct Answer
    C. Bent Spear
    Explanation
    A Bent Spear incident report is completed when damage to a weapon or component requires rework, replacement, or examination by DOE. This report is used to document any incidents involving nuclear weapons that do not involve the risk of nuclear detonation, but still require attention and investigation.

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  • 20. 

    (504a) Which accident report could create a risk of war?

    • A.

      Broken Arrow

    • B.

      Bent Spear

    • C.

      NUCFLASH

    • D.

      Empty Quiver

    Correct Answer
    C. NUCFLASH
    Explanation
    NUCFLASH refers to a term used in the military to describe an accidental or unauthorized nuclear detonation or the potential for one. Such an incident could have severe consequences and escalate tensions between nations, potentially leading to a risk of war. The other options, Broken Arrow, Bent Spear, and Empty Quiver, also refer to accidents involving nuclear weapons, but they do not specifically indicate the potential for a nuclear detonation, making NUCFLASH the most likely accident report to create a risk of war.

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  • 21. 

    (504a) Which of the following is a nuclear weapon system accident that could not create the risk of war?

    • A.

      Broken Arrow

    • B.

      Empty Quiver

    • C.

      NUCFLASH

    • D.

      Dull Sword

    Correct Answer
    A. Broken Arrow
    Explanation
    A Broken Arrow refers to an accident involving a nuclear weapon that does not result in the risk of war. It could include events such as the accidental dropping, loss, or damage of a nuclear weapon, but without any intention or threat of using it as a weapon. These accidents are typically caused by technical malfunctions, human error, or transportation mishaps. While serious and potentially dangerous, they do not involve intentional deployment or the initiation of hostilities, thus not creating the risk of war.

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  • 22. 

    (504a) What type of accident report is filed when loss, theft, seizure or destruction of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component occurs?

    • A.

      NUCFLASH

    • B.

      Broken Arrow

    • C.

      Empty Quiver

    • D.

      Dull Sword

    Correct Answer
    C. Empty Quiver
    Explanation
    Empty Quiver is the correct answer because it refers to the type of accident report that is filed when there is a loss, theft, seizure, or destruction of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component. This term is commonly used in the military and nuclear industry to categorize such incidents and initiate appropriate response and investigation measures.

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  • 23. 

    (504a) What type of report is completed for safety deficiencies not included in the accident or incident categories?

    • A.

      Dull Sword

    • B.

      Empty quiver

    • C.

      Broken Arrow

    • D.

      NUCFLASH

    Correct Answer
    A. Dull Sword
    Explanation
    A Dull Sword report is completed for safety deficiencies that are not included in the accident or incident categories. This type of report is used to document and address safety issues that may not have resulted in an accident or incident but still pose a potential risk. It helps in identifying and rectifying safety deficiencies to prevent future incidents or accidents.

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  • 24. 

    (504a) Area where the two person concept must be enforced because it contains a nuclear weapon, nuclear weapon system, or certified critical component:

    • A.

      Exclusion Area

    • B.

      Restricted Area

    • C.

      No-Lone zone

    • D.

      Controlled Area

    Correct Answer
    C. No-Lone zone
    Explanation
    A No-Lone zone is an area where the two person concept must be enforced because it contains a nuclear weapon, nuclear weapon system, or certified critical component. This means that no individual is allowed to be alone in this area, as it ensures accountability and reduces the risk of unauthorized access or tampering with sensitive materials. The presence of two people acts as a safeguard and provides an additional layer of security in such high-risk areas.

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  • 25. 

    (504a) Who is responsible for identifying unreliable personnel to their supervisors

    • A.

      Supervisor

    • B.

      Commanders at all levels

    • C.

      Individuals

    • D.

      Unit commanders

    Correct Answer
    C. Individuals
    Explanation
    Individuals are responsible for identifying unreliable personnel to their supervisors. This means that it is the duty of each individual to recognize and report any personnel who may be unreliable or untrustworthy to their immediate supervisors. This responsibility falls on every member of the organization, regardless of their rank or position. By taking this responsibility seriously, individuals contribute to maintaining a reliable and trustworthy workforce, ensuring the smooth functioning of the organization.

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  • 26. 

    (504a) Which certified position requires a person to be in close physical proximity to a nuclear weapon and uses technical knowledge?

    • A.

      Controlled

    • B.

      Critical

    • C.

      Sole Vouching Authority (SVA)

    • D.

      Unit Commander

    Correct Answer
    B. Critical
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Critical." In this context, the term "critical" refers to a certified position that involves being in close physical proximity to a nuclear weapon and utilizing technical knowledge. This position is likely responsible for maintaining and ensuring the safe operation of the nuclear weapon, as well as troubleshooting any technical issues that may arise.

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  • 27. 

    (504a) Which certified position does not require a person to have technical knowledge pertaining to the launching, releasing, or detonating of a nuclear weapon or critical component?

    • A.

      Controlled

    • B.

      Critical

    • C.

      Sole Vouching Authority

    • D.

      DWing Weapon Manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Controlled
    Explanation
    The position of Controlled does not require a person to have technical knowledge pertaining to the launching, releasing, or detonating of a nuclear weapon or critical component.

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  • 28. 

    (504a) What is designed to make sure a lone individual cannot perform an incorrect act or unauthorized procedure on a nuclear weapon, nuclear weapon system, or certified critical component?

    • A.

      Single person concept

    • B.

      Wing-Man Concept

    • C.

      Two-person concept

    • D.

      Custody Transfer

    Correct Answer
    C. Two-person concept
    Explanation
    The two-person concept is designed to ensure that a lone individual cannot perform an incorrect act or unauthorized procedure on a nuclear weapon, nuclear weapon system, or certified critical component. This concept requires that any action involving these items must be carried out by at least two authorized individuals, who are responsible for verifying and overseeing each other's actions to minimize the risk of error or unauthorized access. This system provides an additional layer of security and accountability to prevent accidents, unauthorized use, or intentional misuse of nuclear weapons or critical components.

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  • 29. 

    (504b) Any designated area immediately surrounding where one or more nuclear weapon(s)/system(s) will be soon, but has not yet arrived:

    • A.

      No-Lone zone

    • B.

      Exclusion area

    • C.

      Controlled area

    • D.

      Restricted Area

    Correct Answer
    B. Exclusion area
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Exclusion area". An exclusion area refers to a designated area that surrounds where one or more nuclear weapons or systems will be soon but have not yet arrived. This area is restricted and prohibits anyone from entering or being present in order to ensure safety and security.

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  • 30. 

    (504b) Who is the individual responsible for verifying a person’s need to enter an Exclusion Area/No Lone zone prior to granting them access?

    • A.

      Wing weapon Manager

    • B.

      ECP security

    • C.

      Sole vouching authority (SVA)

    • D.

      Weapons Custodian

    Correct Answer
    C. Sole vouching authority (SVA)
    Explanation
    The sole vouching authority (SVA) is responsible for verifying a person's need to enter an Exclusion Area/No Lone zone before granting them access. This means that the SVA is the individual who ensures that the person has a legitimate reason to enter the restricted area and meets all the necessary requirements for access. The SVA acts as the final authority in granting or denying access to the Exclusion Area/No Lone zone.

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  • 31. 

    (504b) Which nuclear weapon yields in the “kiloton range” and is for strategic/tactical use

    • A.

      B-61

    • B.

      B-83

    • C.

      W-80

    • D.

      BDU-33

    Correct Answer
    A. B-61
    Explanation
    The B-61 is a nuclear weapon that yields in the "kiloton range" and is designed for both strategic and tactical use. It is a versatile weapon that can be delivered by various platforms such as aircraft, making it suitable for different military operations. The B-61 has been in service since the 1960s and has undergone several modifications and upgrades over the years to enhance its capabilities and ensure its effectiveness in various scenarios.

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  • 32. 

    (504b) Which nuclear weapon yields in the “megaton range” and is for strategic use?

    • A.

      B-61

    • B.

      B-83

    • C.

      W-80

    • D.

      BDU-33

    Correct Answer
    B. B-83
    Explanation
    The B-83 is the correct answer because it is a nuclear weapon that yields in the "megaton range", which means it has a explosive force equivalent to millions of tons of TNT. It is also designed for strategic use, indicating that it is intended for deployment in long-range missions and targeting important military or civilian infrastructure.

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  • 33. 

    (504b) Which warhead is in an AGM-86B, ALCM?

    • A.

      B-61

    • B.

      B-83

    • C.

      W-80

    • D.

      AGM-63

    Correct Answer
    C. W-80
    Explanation
    The correct answer is W-80. The AGM-86B, ALCM (Air-Launched Cruise Missile) is equipped with a W-80 warhead. The W-80 warhead is a nuclear warhead that can be used for both air-to-surface and surface-to-surface missions. It is designed to provide a high-yield nuclear explosion and has been used by the United States Air Force since the 1980s.

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  • 34. 

    (504b) Missiles with warheads removed may be transported on bomber or strike aircraft are called:

    • A.

      Strategic Airlift

    • B.

      Tactical Airlift

    • C.

      Launchers

    • D.

      Tactical Ferry

    Correct Answer
    D. Tactical Ferry
    Explanation
    Tactical Ferry refers to the transportation of missiles without warheads on bomber or strike aircraft. This term is used when the missiles need to be moved from one location to another for various purposes such as training or maintenance. It distinguishes this type of transportation from other methods like Strategic Airlift, which involves the movement of fully armed missiles for strategic purposes, and Tactical Airlift, which refers to the transportation of troops and equipment to support tactical operations. Launchers, on the other hand, are the devices used to launch missiles.

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  • 35. 

    (504b) Who is similar to the Production Superintendant of the convoy?

    • A.

      Security Forces

    • B.

      Tow Teams

    • C.

      Tech Advisor

    • D.

      WWM

    Correct Answer
    C. Tech Advisor
    Explanation
    The Tech Advisor is similar to the Production Superintendant of the convoy because both play a crucial role in overseeing and managing the technical aspects of the operation. They both provide guidance and expertise in their respective fields to ensure smooth operations and efficient production. While Security Forces and Tow Teams may have different responsibilities related to security and transportation, they do not directly align with the role and responsibilities of the Production Superintendant. Similarly, WWM is not mentioned in the question and therefore cannot be considered as a similar role.

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  • 36. 

    (504b) Who initiates the AF Form 504, Weapons Custodian Transfer Document?

    • A.

      WWM

    • B.

      MASO

    • C.

      Custodian

    • D.

      Aircrew

    Correct Answer
    B. MASO
    Explanation
    The MASO (Maintenance Analysis and Support Organization) initiates the AF Form 504, Weapons Custodian Transfer Document. This form is used to document the transfer of weapons custody between individuals or units. The MASO is responsible for overseeing and managing maintenance activities, including the transfer of weapons custody, so it makes sense that they would be the ones to initiate this document.

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  • 37. 

    (504b) How many copies of the AF FORM 504 are created for each package?

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      2

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    Three copies of the AF FORM 504 are created for each package. This is necessary to ensure that multiple parties involved in the process have access to the form. One copy is typically retained by the originator of the package, one copy is sent to the receiving party, and one copy is kept for record-keeping purposes. Having multiple copies helps to facilitate communication, documentation, and accountability throughout the process.

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  • 38. 

    (502f) The daily munitions operations uses what three phase process?

    • A.

      Pre-Planning, execution, and transaction phase

    • B.

      Planning, execution, and action phase

    • C.

      Planning, execution, and transaction phase

    • D.

      Planning, acceptance, and transaction phase

    Correct Answer
    C. Planning, execution, and transaction phase
    Explanation
    The daily munitions operations involve three phases: planning, execution, and transaction. In the planning phase, the necessary preparations and strategies are made to ensure a successful operation. The execution phase involves carrying out the planned activities, including the transportation, handling, and storage of munitions. Finally, the transaction phase involves the documentation and recording of all activities and transactions related to the munitions operations. This three-phase process ensures that the operations are well-organized, efficient, and properly documented.

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  • 39. 

    (502f) During which phase does the Component/lot selection and Validate allocation (peacetime only) occur?

    • A.

      Planning phase

    • B.

      Execution phase

    • C.

      Transaction phase

    • D.

      Acceptance phase

    Correct Answer
    A. Planning phase
    Explanation
    During the planning phase, the Component/lot selection and Validate allocation (peacetime only) occur. This phase is where the project is carefully planned and organized, including the selection of components or lots for allocation and validating the allocation process. It is a crucial stage where all the necessary preparations and decisions are made before moving forward with the project execution.

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  • 40. 

    (502f) During which phase does the CAS transaction occur?

    • A.

      Planing phase

    • B.

      Execution phase

    • C.

      Transaction phase

    • D.

      Acceptance phase

    Correct Answer
    C. Transaction phase
    Explanation
    The CAS transaction occurs during the Transaction phase. This phase is when the actual transaction takes place, where the necessary changes are made to the database or system. The Transaction phase typically follows the Planning phase, where the transaction is planned and prepared for execution. It is followed by the Execution phase, where the transaction is carried out, and the Acceptance phase, where the transaction's results are reviewed and accepted.

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  • 41. 

    (502f) During which phase does the movement to build location occur?

    • A.

      Planning

    • B.

      Execution

    • C.

      Transaction

    • D.

      Acceptance

    Correct Answer
    B. Execution
    Explanation
    During the execution phase, the movement to build location occurs. This phase involves the actual implementation of the plans and strategies formulated during the planning phase. It is during this phase that the necessary resources are mobilized, and the activities required to build the location are carried out. The execution phase is crucial as it determines the successful completion of the project and ensures that the objectives set during the planning phase are achieved.

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  • 42. 

    (502f) Who is responsible for processing flightline movements and expenditures in CAS?

    • A.

      MASO

    • B.

      WWM

    • C.

      Pro Super

    • D.

      Weapons expediter

    Correct Answer
    D. Weapons expediter
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Weapons expediter." The weapons expediter is responsible for processing flightline movements and expenditures in CAS. They are in charge of managing and coordinating the logistics related to weapons and ammunition, ensuring that they are properly accounted for and distributed. This role is crucial in maintaining the readiness and effectiveness of the CAS operations.

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  • 43. 

    (502b) What determines exact munition

    • A.

      Fragmentary order (FRAG)

    • B.

      ATO

    • C.

      MASO

    • D.

      WWM

    Correct Answer
    A. Fragmentary order (FRAG)
    Explanation
    A fragmentary order (FRAG) is a type of military order that provides specific instructions for the use of munitions. It is a concise and quickly issued order that allows for flexibility and adaptability in the use of munitions based on changing circumstances. The FRAG order determines the exact munitions that are to be used in a given situation, taking into account factors such as the enemy's position, the terrain, and the objective of the mission. It is an essential component of effective military planning and execution.

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  • 44. 

    (502c) Which trailer has a 5,500 lb capacity and a hinged center section?

    • A.

      MHU-144

    • B.

      MHU-141

    • C.

      MHU-226

    • D.

      MHU-110

    Correct Answer
    B. MHU-141
    Explanation
    The MHU-141 trailer has a 5,500 lb capacity and a hinged center section.

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  • 45. 

    (502c) Which trailer has a 40K pound capacity and is used on the B-52 and B-1

    • A.

      MHU-144

    • B.

      MHU-141

    • C.

      MHU-204

    • D.

      MHU-196

    Correct Answer
    D. MHU-196
    Explanation
    The MHU-196 trailer has a 40K pound capacity and is used on the B-52 and B-1.

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  • 46. 

    (502c) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an explosive movement routes?

    • A.

      Safest routes from MSA to flight line

    • B.

      Is constantly patrolled by SF

    • C.

      Not necessarily shortest

    • D.

      Avoids mission critical facilities if possible

    Correct Answer
    B. Is constantly patrolled by SF
    Explanation
    An explosive movement route is a route used to transport explosive materials safely. The characteristics of such a route include being the safest route from the MSA (munition storage area) to the flight line, not necessarily being the shortest route, and avoiding mission critical facilities if possible. However, it is not necessary for the route to be constantly patrolled by SF (security forces).

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  • 47. 

    (503a) Which is not a function of the main armament control panel?

    • A.

      Selective jettison of munitions and related suspension equipment

    • B.

      The energizing and de-energizing of bomb rack arming solenoids at selected stations

    • C.

      Nuclear weapons prearm and unlock functions

    • D.

      May provide the capability to vary missile tone (AIM-9)

    Correct Answer
    D. May provide the capability to vary missile tone (AIM-9)
    Explanation
    The main armament control panel performs various functions related to munitions and bomb rack arming. It enables the selective jettison of munitions and suspension equipment, as well as the energizing and de-energizing of bomb rack arming solenoids at selected stations. It also has functions related to nuclear weapons prearm and unlock. However, it does not provide the capability to vary missile tone (AIM-9).

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  • 48. 

    (503b) Most projectiles are made of what?

    • A.

      Aluminum

    • B.

      Steel

    • C.

      Iron

    • D.

      Tungsten

    Correct Answer
    B. Steel
    Explanation
    Most projectiles are made of steel because it is a strong and durable material that can withstand the high pressure and forces exerted during the firing process. Steel also has good hardness and toughness properties, making it suitable for penetrating targets. Additionally, steel is readily available and relatively affordable compared to other materials like tungsten.

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  • 49. 

    (503b) Why are projectiles color coded?

    • A.

      Filling identification and corrosion control

    • B.

      Identification

    • C.

      Corrosion control

    • D.

      So 2W1s don't load the incorrect rounds

    Correct Answer
    A. Filling identification and corrosion control
    Explanation
    Projectiles are color coded for two main reasons: filling identification and corrosion control. The color coding helps in easily identifying the type of filling inside the projectile, such as explosive, smoke, or illuminating material. This is crucial for proper handling, storage, and use of projectiles. Additionally, color coding is used for corrosion control, as certain colors are associated with specific types of protective coatings that help prevent corrosion and ensure the longevity of the projectiles. By color coding projectiles, it also helps to prevent 2W1s (personnel responsible for loading ammunition) from loading incorrect rounds, which could have serious consequences.

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  • 50. 

    (503b) What acts a gas seal and stabilizes projectile in flight by gripping the rifling grooves in barrel, causing the projectile to spin?

    • A.

      Rotating band

    • B.

      Fuse

    • C.

      Propellant

    • D.

      O ring

    Correct Answer
    A. Rotating band
    Explanation
    The rotating band acts as a gas seal and stabilizes the projectile in flight by gripping the rifling grooves in the barrel, causing the projectile to spin. This spinning motion improves accuracy and stability by creating gyroscopic stability, which helps the projectile maintain its trajectory. The rotating band also helps to create a gas seal between the projectile and the barrel, preventing gas leakage and maximizing the propulsion force generated by the propellant.

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