AMOC Block 4 Test

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Quizzes Created: 8 | Total Attempts: 524
Questions: 97 | Attempts: 97

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AMOC Block 4 Test - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (401a) How do you measure current?

    • A.

      Amps

    • B.

      Ohms

    • C.

      Volts

    • D.

      Hertz

    Correct Answer
    A. Amps
    Explanation
    Current is measured in amps, which is short for amperes. Amps is the unit used to quantify the flow of electric charge in a circuit. It measures the rate at which electric charges pass through a given point in the circuit. Therefore, amps is the correct answer for measuring current. Ohms, volts, and hertz are not units used to measure current.

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  • 2. 

    (401a) Which of the following is not a good conductor?

    • A.

      Silver

    • B.

      Gold

    • C.

      Copper

    • D.

      Boron

    Correct Answer
    D. Boron
    Explanation
    Boron is not a good conductor because it is a metalloid and has properties of both metals and nonmetals. While metals like silver, gold, and copper have a high electrical conductivity due to the presence of free electrons that can easily move and carry electric charge, boron does not have these free electrons and therefore does not conduct electricity well.

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  • 3. 

    (401a) A relay is a(n)....

    • A.

      Current varying switch

    • B.

      Multiple position switch

    • C.

      Electrically operated mechanical switch

    • D.

      Fuse that withstands large current flow for short time

    Correct Answer
    C. Electrically operated mechanical switch
    Explanation
    A relay is an electrically operated mechanical switch. It is a device that uses an electromagnet to mechanically open or close a circuit. When an electrical current is applied to the electromagnet, it creates a magnetic field that attracts or releases a movable armature, thereby opening or closing the circuit. Relays are commonly used in electrical systems to control a high-power circuit with a low-power signal, allowing for the control of larger currents or voltages by a smaller control signal.

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  • 4. 

    (401a) What are typical aircraft AC generators rated at?

    • A.

      115/200 VAC, four-phase, 400 hertz

    • B.

      115/220 VAC, three-phase, 400 hertz

    • C.

      115/200 VAC, three-phase, 800 hertz

    • D.

      115/200 VAC, three-phase, 400 hertz

    Correct Answer
    D. 115/200 VAC, three-phase, 400 hertz
    Explanation
    Typical aircraft AC generators are rated at 115/200 VAC, three-phase, 400 hertz.

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  • 5. 

    What is the primary/normal source of DC power for aircraft?

    • A.

      Aircraft battery

    • B.

      Transformer Rectifiers

    • C.

      Generator Control Unit

    • D.

      DC Bus Bars

    Correct Answer
    B. Transformer Rectifiers
    Explanation
    Transformer rectifiers are the primary/normal source of DC power for aircraft. They are responsible for converting the alternating current (AC) power from the aircraft's generators into direct current (DC) power. This DC power is used to operate various electrical systems and components on the aircraft, such as lights, avionics, and other critical systems. The transformer rectifiers ensure a consistent and reliable power supply to meet the aircraft's electrical demands during flight.

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  • 6. 

    (401a) Which of the following is not a possible AC emergency generator?

    • A.

      Hydraulic Motor

    • B.

      Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)

    • C.

      Air Turbine Motor (ATM)

    • D.

      Emergency Activation Unit (EAU)

    Correct Answer
    D. Emergency Activation Unit (EAU)
    Explanation
    The given question asks for the option that is not a possible AC emergency generator. The options provided are Hydraulic Motor, Auxiliary Power Unit (APU), Air Turbine Motor (ATM), and Emergency Activation Unit (EAU). The correct answer is Emergency Activation Unit (EAU). The other three options, Hydraulic Motor, APU, and ATM, are all possible AC emergency generators.

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  • 7. 

    (401a) What converts 28 VDC into 115VAC 1 or 2 phase emergency power?

    • A.

      Transformer Rectifier

    • B.

      Inverter

    • C.

      Emergency Generator

    • D.

      Integrated Drive Generator (IDG)

    Correct Answer
    B. Inverter
    Explanation
    An inverter is a device that converts direct current (DC) into alternating current (AC). In this case, it is used to convert the 28 VDC emergency power into 115VAC 1 or 2 phase power. The inverter takes the DC power from a battery or other DC source and changes it into AC power, which is suitable for powering electrical devices. This is commonly used in emergency situations where a reliable and stable source of AC power is needed.

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  • 8. 

    (401a) What aircraft lighting system identifies aircraft outline and direction of flight?

    • A.

      In-flight inspection lights

    • B.

      Exterior lights

    • C.

      Navigation / Position lights

    • D.

      Formation lights

    Correct Answer
    C. Navigation / Position lights
    Explanation
    Navigation/Position lights are used to identify the aircraft's outline and direction of flight. These lights are typically located on the wingtips and tail of the aircraft and are required to be illuminated during all phases of flight. The red light is located on the left wingtip, the green light on the right wingtip, and the white light on the tail. These lights help other pilots and air traffic controllers to determine the aircraft's position, direction, and orientation in the sky, enhancing safety and preventing collisions.

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  • 9. 

    (402a) The four factors that affect Radar reflection are:

    • A.

      Size, Material, Radar Range, Reflection angle

    • B.

      Size, Material, Radar Power, Reflection angle

    • C.

      Size, Material, Radar Range, Refraction angle

    • D.

      Size, Material, Radar Range, Reflection arc

    Correct Answer
    A. Size, Material, Radar Range, Reflection angle
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Size, Material, Radar Range, Reflection angle. These four factors affect Radar reflection. Size refers to the physical dimensions of the object being detected by the radar. Material refers to the composition of the object, as different materials have different reflective properties. Radar Range refers to the distance between the radar transmitter and the object, which can affect the strength of the reflected signal. Reflection angle refers to the angle at which the radar signal hits the object and is reflected back to the radar, which can also affect the strength and accuracy of the reflection.

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  • 10. 

    (402a) What are three Radar pulse characteristics? (AKA Radar Fingerprint)

    • A.

      Pulse Repetition Frequency (PRF), Pulse Width (PW), Pulse Depth (PD)

    • B.

      Pulse Reception Frequency (PRF), Pulse Width (PW), Pulse Duration (PD)

    • C.

      Pulse Repetition Frequency (PRF), Pulse Width (PW), Pulse Duration (PD)

    • D.

      Pulse Repetition Frequency (PRF), Pulse Girth (PG), Pulse Duration (PD)

    Correct Answer
    C. Pulse Repetition Frequency (PRF), Pulse Width (PW), Pulse Duration (PD)
    Explanation
    The three radar pulse characteristics are Pulse Repetition Frequency (PRF), Pulse Width (PW), and Pulse Duration (PD). PRF refers to the number of pulses transmitted per second, PW refers to the time duration of a single pulse, and PD refers to the time duration between the start and end of a pulse. These characteristics are important in radar systems as they determine the range resolution, target detection capability, and the ability to distinguish between different targets.

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  • 11. 

    (402a) Which antenna has signal processing that allows antenna to be steered electronically?

    • A.

      Active Electronically Scanned Array (AESA)

    • B.

      Phased Array

    • C.

      Parabolic Antenna

    • D.

      Duplexer

    Correct Answer
    B. Phased Array
    Explanation
    A phased array antenna has signal processing capabilities that enable it to be electronically steered. This means that instead of physically moving the antenna to change its direction, the phased array antenna can adjust the phase and amplitude of the signals it transmits and receives to steer the beam electronically. This allows for faster and more precise beam steering, making phased array antennas suitable for applications such as radar systems and wireless communication networks.

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  • 12. 

    (402a) Which radar is used for 2-D and 3-D imagery?

    • A.

      Pulsed-Doppler Radar

    • B.

      Millimeter Wave Radar (MMW)

    • C.

      Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR)

    • D.

      Radar Altimeter

    Correct Answer
    C. Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR)
    Explanation
    Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) is used for 2-D and 3-D imagery. SAR is a radar system that creates high-resolution images by using the motion of the radar antenna. It synthesizes a large antenna aperture by utilizing the relative motion between the radar platform and the target. This allows SAR to generate detailed images with fine spatial resolution in both range and azimuth dimensions. Pulsed-Doppler Radar, Millimeter Wave Radar (MMW), and Radar Altimeter are not specifically designed for 2-D and 3-D imagery.

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  • 13. 

    (402a) What enables aircraft to determine the range and bearing of other aircraft?

    • A.

      Radar altimeter

    • B.

      Rendezvous beacon

    • C.

      Terrain Avoidance

    • D.

      Terrain Following

    Correct Answer
    B. Rendezvous beacon
    Explanation
    Rendezvous beacons enable aircraft to determine the range and bearing of other aircraft. These beacons are used for navigation and communication purposes, allowing aircraft to locate and communicate with each other. They emit signals that can be detected by other aircraft, helping them determine the distance and direction of nearby aircraft. This information is crucial for maintaining safe separation and avoiding collisions in the air. Radar altimeter, terrain avoidance, and terrain following are not directly related to determining the range and bearing of other aircraft.

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  • 14. 

    (402a) What is used used to identify and track targets on the ground?

    • A.

      Reconnaissance and Surveillance

    • B.

      Search and Rescue

    • C.

      Ground Mapping

    • D.

      Weapons Implementation

    Correct Answer
    C. Ground Mapping
    Explanation
    Ground mapping is used to identify and track targets on the ground. This technique involves the use of various sensors and imaging systems to create detailed maps and images of the Earth's surface. By analyzing these maps and images, targets on the ground can be identified and tracked for various purposes such as military operations, disaster response, and urban planning. Ground mapping is an essential tool in reconnaissance and surveillance activities, providing valuable information about enemy positions, terrain features, and potential threats on the ground.

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  • 15. 

    (402c) What type of navigation system uses good visibility, map, and compass to get to a destination, but is not very accurate? 

    • A.

      Visual

    • B.

      Dead Reckoning

    • C.

      Radio

    • D.

      Radar

    Correct Answer
    B. Dead Reckoning
    Explanation
    Dead Reckoning is a type of navigation system that relies on good visibility, a map, and a compass to reach a destination. However, it is not very accurate because it does not take into account external factors such as wind speed and direction, currents, or other variables that can affect the course of travel. Instead, it estimates the position based on a previously known location and the direction and distance traveled since then. This method can lead to cumulative errors over time, making it less precise compared to other navigation systems.

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  • 16. 

    (402c) What angle is formed between a reference and longitudinal aircraft axis? 

    • A.

      Heading

    • B.

      Course

    • C.

      Angle of attack

    • D.

      Bearing

    Correct Answer
    A. Heading
    Explanation
    The angle formed between a reference and the longitudinal aircraft axis is known as the heading.

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  • 17. 

    (402c) What action point is used for targeting weapons when target is obscured from radar? 

    • A.

      Target Point

    • B.

      Fixed Point

    • C.

      Initial Point

    • D.

      Offset Aim Point

    Correct Answer
    D. Offset Aim Point
    Explanation
    When the target is obscured from radar, the Offset Aim Point is used to target weapons. This means that instead of directly aiming at the target, the weapons are aimed at a specific point offset from the target. This allows for more accurate targeting and increases the chances of hitting the target even when it cannot be directly detected by radar.

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  • 18. 

    (402c) Which radio navigation is found on all aircraft and operates in UHF range? 

    • A.

      Automatic Direction Finding (ADF)

    • B.

      VHF omni-directional Range (VOR)

    • C.

      Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN)

    • D.

      Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)

    Correct Answer
    C. Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN)
    Explanation
    TACAN is the correct answer because it is a radio navigation system that is found on all aircraft and operates in the UHF range. ADF, VOR, and DME are also radio navigation systems, but they do not meet the criteria of being found on all aircraft and operating in the UHF range.

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  • 19. 

    (402c) Which landing systems includes the following signals: tone localizer, glide slope, and a marker beacon? 

    • A.

      Instrument Landing System

    • B.

      Microwave Landing System

    • C.

      Global Position System

    • D.

      Pilot Landing System

    Correct Answer
    A. Instrument Landing System
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Instrument Landing System. The Instrument Landing System (ILS) includes the signals of a tone localizer, glide slope, and a marker beacon. These signals help guide the aircraft during the landing approach, providing precise vertical and horizontal guidance to the pilot. The tone localizer helps the pilot align the aircraft with the centerline of the runway, the glide slope provides vertical guidance for maintaining the correct descent angle, and the marker beacon provides additional distance information to the pilot. The ILS is a widely used landing system in aviation.

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  • 20. 

    (402c) How many satellites does the military use for navigation accuracy? 

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    D. 4
    Explanation
    The military uses four satellites for navigation accuracy. This suggests that having four satellites allows for more precise and accurate navigation capabilities, as each satellite can provide different data points to triangulate and determine the user's exact location. Having multiple satellites also helps to ensure continuous coverage and availability of navigation services, even in areas with limited satellite visibility.

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  • 21. 

    (402c) Which type of navigation system provides relative bearing and altitude to nearby aircraft? 

    • A.

      Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) II

    • B.

      Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System

    • C.

      Offensive Avionics Systems

    • D.

      Ground Proximity Warning System

    Correct Answer
    A. Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) II
    Explanation
    The Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) II provides relative bearing and altitude to nearby aircraft. This system helps pilots to detect and avoid potential collisions with other aircraft by providing them with real-time information about the position and altitude of nearby planes. It uses transponder signals to determine the distance, bearing, and altitude of other aircraft and then provides this information to the pilot through visual and audio alerts. This helps pilots to maintain a safe separation from other aircraft, especially in congested airspace.

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  • 22. 

    (402c) In the Microwave Landing System (MLS), how many channels are available? 

    • A.

      100

    • B.

      200

    • C.

      300

    • D.

      400

    Correct Answer
    B. 200
    Explanation
    The Microwave Landing System (MLS) has 200 channels available.

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  • 23. 

    (402b) High Frequency Radio transmits at? (which is subject to weather interference,provides long range comm, and encrypted with a KY-75 processor)

    • A.

      1-10 MHz

    • B.

      2-30 MHz

    • C.

      3-30 MHz

    • D.

      4-40 MHz

    Correct Answer
    B. 2-30 MHz
    Explanation
    High Frequency (HF) Radio transmits at frequencies between 2-30 MHz. This frequency range is subject to weather interference, but it provides long-range communication capabilities. The use of a KY-75 processor encrypts the transmission for added security.

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  • 24. 

    (402b) Very High Frequency transmits at? (Used for short-range, Line-of-Sight (LOS))

    • A.

      20-200 MHz

    • B.

      30-300 MHz

    • C.

      40-400 MHz

    • D.

      50-500 MHz

    Correct Answer
    B. 30-300 MHz
    Explanation
    Very High Frequency (VHF) transmits at a range of 30-300 MHz. VHF is used for short-range communication and requires a clear line of sight between the transmitter and receiver. This frequency range is commonly used for various applications such as FM radio broadcasting, television broadcasting, air traffic control, and military communications.

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  • 25. 

    (402b) What has Anti-Jam feature for UHF radios and works on principle of frequency hopping? 

    • A.

      Station Keeping Equipment

    • B.

      AFSATCOM

    • C.

      Have Quick

    • D.

      Interphone Systems

    Correct Answer
    C. Have Quick
    Explanation
    Have Quick is the correct answer because it is a feature that provides anti-jam capabilities for UHF radios. It operates on the principle of frequency hopping, which means that it rapidly changes frequencies during transmission to avoid being jammed or intercepted by adversaries. This feature is commonly used in military communication systems to ensure secure and reliable communication in hostile environments.

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  • 26. 

    (402b) Tactical Digital Information Links contain what two systems? 

    • A.

      Interphone System and Global Positioning System

    • B.

      Multifunctional Information Distribution System and Radio Systems

    • C.

      Joint Tactical Information Distribution System and Radio Navigation System

    • D.

      Joint Tactical Information Distribution System and Multifunctional Information Distribution System

    Correct Answer
    D. Joint Tactical Information Distribution System and Multifunctional Information Distribution System
  • 27. 

    (402b) What maintains proper distance between A/C and allows for tight formation flying? 

    • A.

      Station Keeping Equipment

    • B.

      Navigation System

    • C.

      Interphone Systems

    • D.

      Transmitting Homing Signal

    Correct Answer
    A. Station Keeping Equipment
    Explanation
    Station Keeping Equipment is the correct answer because it is responsible for maintaining the proper distance between aircraft and allows for tight formation flying. This equipment includes various systems such as radar, GPS, and autopilot, which help pilots to maintain a specific distance and formation during flight. It ensures that aircraft stay in close proximity to each other while maintaining a safe distance to prevent collisions and ensure smooth and coordinated flying.

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  • 28. 

    (402b) How long does the Cockpit Voice Recorder and Flight Data Recorder magnetic tapes record for? 

    • A.

      20 min

    • B.

      30 min

    • C.

      40 min

    • D.

      2 hrs

    Correct Answer
    B. 30 min
    Explanation
    The Cockpit Voice Recorder and Flight Data Recorder magnetic tapes record for a duration of 30 minutes. These recorders are crucial for investigating aircraft accidents and incidents as they capture important audio and data during flight. The 30-minute recording time allows for a significant amount of information to be captured, providing valuable insights into the events leading up to an incident or accident.

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  • 29. 

    (402d) Which of the following is not an EW subsystem?

    • A.

      Electronic support

    • B.

      Electronic countermeasures

    • C.

      Electronic attack

    • D.

      Electronic protection

    Correct Answer
    B. Electronic countermeasures
    Explanation
    Electronic countermeasures (ECM) is not an EW subsystem. Electronic support (ES), electronic attack (EA), and electronic protection (EP) are all components of electronic warfare (EW). ES involves the gathering of information about enemy electronic systems, EA involves the use of electromagnetic energy to attack enemy systems, and EP involves the measures taken to protect friendly electronic systems. ECM, on the other hand, refers to the techniques used to deceive or disrupt enemy electronic systems, and is considered a separate category within EW.

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  • 30. 

    (402d) Which method of  EA employment utilizes penetration aids to confuse and degrade enemy radar?

    • A.

      Evasion/avoidance

    • B.

      Deception/confusion devices

    • C.

      Radar jamming

    • D.

      Destruction

    Correct Answer
    B. Deception/confusion devices
    Explanation
    Deception/confusion devices are utilized in the method of EA employment to confuse and degrade enemy radar. These devices are designed to create false or misleading signals, making it difficult for the enemy radar to accurately detect and track targets. By using deception and confusion, the EA employment method aims to disrupt the enemy's radar capabilities and enhance the chances of evasion and avoidance.

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  • 31. 

    (402d) What emits a frequency similar to aircraft engines in order to confuse heat seeking missiles?

    • A.

      Chaff

    • B.

      Flare

    • C.

      Decoys

    • D.

      DIRCM

    Correct Answer
    B. Flare
    Explanation
    Flares emit a frequency similar to aircraft engines in order to confuse heat seeking missiles. By releasing bright and hot flares, the heat-seeking missiles are attracted to the flares instead of the aircraft engines, diverting their trajectory and reducing the chances of a successful missile strike. This countermeasure is commonly used by military aircraft to enhance their defense against heat-seeking missiles.

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  • 32. 

    (402d) What are three types of noise jamming radar?

    • A.

      Spot, swept spot, total

    • B.

      Total, spot, focused

    • C.

      Barrage, spot, swept spot

    • D.

      Barrage, focused, spot

    Correct Answer
    C. Barrage, spot, swept spot
    Explanation
    The correct answer is barrage, spot, swept spot. Noise jamming is a technique used to disrupt radar signals. Barrage jamming involves transmitting a broad spectrum of noise signals to overwhelm the radar receiver. Spot jamming focuses on jamming a specific frequency or narrow bandwidth. Swept spot jamming involves sweeping the jamming signal across a range of frequencies. These three types of noise jamming are commonly used to interfere with radar systems.

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  • 33. 

    (402d) What type of technology uses angle reduction, absorbent material, and coatings? 

    • A.

      LO technology

    • B.

      Modern technology

    • C.

      Stealth technology

    • D.

      RAM technology

    Correct Answer
    C. Stealth technology
    Explanation
    Stealth technology uses angle reduction, absorbent material, and coatings to minimize the reflection of radar signals. By reducing the angles at which radar waves can bounce off the surface of an object, using absorbent materials to absorb the radar waves, and applying coatings to further reduce radar reflection, stealth technology makes objects difficult to detect by radar systems. This technology is commonly used in military aircraft and ships to make them less visible to enemy radar systems.

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  • 34. 

    (403b) Which of the following is the “brain” of the pressurization system and allows pressure changes at a rate that prevents injury or discomfort to crew or passengers?

    • A.

      Combination Unit

    • B.

      Pressure Relief Valve

    • C.

      Cabin Pressure Regulator

    • D.

      Power Control and Distribution Unit

    Correct Answer
    C. Cabin Pressure Regulator
    Explanation
    The cabin pressure regulator is responsible for controlling and maintaining the cabin pressure in an aircraft. It ensures that pressure changes occur at a rate that is safe and comfortable for both the crew and passengers. By regulating the pressurization system, the cabin pressure regulator prevents any potential injuries or discomfort that could arise from rapid pressure changes. Therefore, it can be considered as the "brain" of the pressurization system.

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  • 35. 

    (403b) What does the vacuum relief valve (VrV) do?

    • A.

      Prevents over pressure

    • B.

      Prevents excessive cabin pressure

    • C.

      Prevents excessive negative pressure

    • D.

      Transfers emergency air to backup air in the event of a primary power loss

    Correct Answer
    C. Prevents excessive negative pressure
    Explanation
    The vacuum relief valve (VrV) is designed to prevent excessive negative pressure. Negative pressure refers to a situation where the pressure inside a system is lower than the surrounding pressure. In the context of a vacuum relief valve, this means that the valve is responsible for maintaining a balanced pressure inside a system, preventing it from becoming too low. This is important because excessive negative pressure can lead to damage or malfunction of the system. Therefore, the vacuum relief valve ensures that the pressure remains within a safe range.

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  • 36. 

    (403b) Which of the following automatically inflates when the canopy is closed and locked, and enables the cockpit to be pressurized?

    • A.

      COMBAT EDGE

    • B.

      Fighter Canopy Seals

    • C.

      Hydraulic Control Unit

    • D.

      Hydraulic Pressure Unit

    Correct Answer
    B. Fighter Canopy Seals
    Explanation
    Fighter Canopy Seals automatically inflate when the canopy is closed and locked, and enable the cockpit to be pressurized. These seals create a tight seal between the canopy and the cockpit, preventing any air leakage and maintaining the pressurized environment inside the cockpit. This is crucial for ensuring the safety and comfort of the pilot during high-altitude flights. The other options mentioned, such as Combat Edge, Hydraulic Control Unit, and Hydraulic Pressure Unit, do not directly relate to the pressurization of the cockpit.

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  • 37. 

    (403b) Which of the following is interrelated with air conditioning and bleed air systems?

    • A.

      Heat Exchanger

    • B.

      Pressurization System

    • C.

      Cabin Pressure Regulator

    • D.

      Aircraft Instrument System

    Correct Answer
    B. Pressurization System
    Explanation
    The pressurization system is interrelated with air conditioning and bleed air systems because it is responsible for maintaining the desired cabin pressure and temperature. The pressurization system ensures that the cabin remains at a comfortable pressure and temperature by regulating the flow of conditioned air from the air conditioning system. It also controls the flow of bleed air from the engines to provide heating and cooling to the cabin. Therefore, the pressurization system is closely connected to the air conditioning and bleed air systems in an aircraft.

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  • 38. 

    (403b) In which of the following is cabin pressure maintained at 10.9 psi?

    • A.

      Isobaric range

    • B.

      Isotonic range

    • C.

      Himalayan range

    • D.

      Differential range

    Correct Answer
    A. Isobaric range
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Isobaric range. In an isobaric range, the cabin pressure is maintained at a constant level of 10.9 psi. This means that the pressure inside the cabin remains the same regardless of changes in altitude or external atmospheric pressure. Isotonic range refers to a range of equal tension in muscles, and Himalayan range refers to a mountain range. Differential range does not specifically relate to cabin pressure.

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  • 39. 

    (403b) The ________ allows doors, windows, hatches and canopies to be opened in emergencies.

    • A.

      Blast valve

    • B.

      Dump valve

    • C.

      Manifold Shutoff Valve

    • D.

      Emergency Shutoff Valve

    Correct Answer
    B. Dump valve
    Explanation
    The dump valve allows doors, windows, hatches, and canopies to be opened in emergencies.

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  • 40. 

    (403b) Which of the following contains these as its main components: Mask, counter-pressure vest, mask tensioning bladder, oxygen regulator?

    • A.

      OBOGS

    • B.

      COBRA JUDGY

    • C.

      COMBAT EDGE

    • D.

      STRYKER TRIDENT

    Correct Answer
    C. COMBAT EDGE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is COMBAT EDGE. COMBAT EDGE is the system used in fighter aircraft to provide pilots with a continuous supply of oxygen during high-altitude flights. The main components of the COMBAT EDGE system include a mask, counter-pressure vest, mask tensioning bladder, and oxygen regulator. These components work together to ensure that pilots receive the necessary oxygen levels and maintain proper breathing during flight.

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  • 41. 

    (402f) What provides pressure information and requires no external power?

    • A.

      Pitot / Static System

    • B.

      Central Air Data Computer (CADC)

    • C.

      Gyroscopic Flight Instruments

    • D.

      Attitude Indicator

    Correct Answer
    A. Pitot / Static System
    Explanation
    The Pitot / Static System provides pressure information and does not require any external power. The Pitot tube measures the dynamic pressure of the airspeed, while the static port measures the static pressure of the atmosphere. These two measurements are used together to calculate the airspeed, altitude, and vertical speed of an aircraft. Since it relies on the natural airflow and pressure of the surrounding atmosphere, it does not need any external power source to function.

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  • 42. 

    (402f) What indicates the rate at which aircraft change altitude?

    • A.

      Rate of Turn Indicator

    • B.

      Altitude Indicator

    • C.

      Airspeed Indicator

    • D.

      Vertical Velocity Indicator (VII)

    Correct Answer
    D. Vertical Velocity Indicator (VII)
    Explanation
    The vertical velocity indicator (VVI) indicates the rate at which an aircraft is changing altitude. It measures the rate of climb or descent in feet per minute. This instrument is important for pilots to maintain proper altitude control and to monitor their ascent or descent rates during flight. The rate of turn indicator, altitude indicator, and airspeed indicator do not provide information specifically about the rate of change in altitude.

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  • 43. 

    (402f) What displays the aircraft's actual airspeed?

    • A.

      Indicated Airspeed

    • B.

      True Airspeed Indicator

    • C.

      Groundspeed

    • D.

      Maximum Allowable Airspeed Indicator

    Correct Answer
    B. True Airspeed Indicator
    Explanation
    The True Airspeed Indicator displays the aircraft's actual airspeed. This instrument takes into account the altitude and temperature to provide an accurate measurement of the aircraft's speed through the air. Unlike the Indicated Airspeed, which is based on the pressure readings from the pitot-static system, the True Airspeed Indicator compensates for the variations in air density at different altitudes. Groundspeed, on the other hand, measures the speed of the aircraft relative to the ground and is affected by factors such as wind. The Maximum Allowable Airspeed Indicator is not a valid instrument and does not display the actual airspeed.

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  • 44. 

    (402f) What provides primary flight information to pilot and co-pilot instruments? (And Delivers information to other systems like autopilot, stall warning system, Offensive Avionics System (OAS), Auto throttle system) 

    • A.

      Rotation Go-Around Subsystem

    • B.

      Flight Director System

    • C.

      Central Air Data Computer (CADC)

    • D.

      Navigation Instruments

    Correct Answer
    C. Central Air Data Computer (CADC)
    Explanation
    The Central Air Data Computer (CADC) provides primary flight information to the pilot and co-pilot instruments. It also delivers information to other systems like the autopilot, stall warning system, Offensive Avionics System (OAS), and auto throttle system. The CADC is responsible for collecting and processing data from various sensors on the aircraft, such as airspeed, altitude, and vertical speed, and then providing accurate and reliable information to the flight instruments and other systems. This allows the pilots to have accurate and up-to-date flight information, which is crucial for safe and efficient flight operations.

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  • 45. 

    (402f) What provides the pilot with a picture of aircraft attitude in relation to earth?

    • A.

      Attitude Indicator (AI)

    • B.

      Altitude Director Indicator (ADI)

    • C.

      Attitude Heading Reference System (AHRS)

    • D.

      Flight Director System

    Correct Answer
    A. Attitude Indicator (AI)
    Explanation
    The Attitude Indicator (AI) provides the pilot with a visual representation of the aircraft's attitude in relation to the earth. It displays the pitch and roll of the aircraft, allowing the pilot to maintain the desired attitude during flight. The AI is an essential instrument for maintaining aircraft control and is commonly used in conjunction with other instruments such as the altimeter and heading indicator. The Altitude Director Indicator (ADI) and Attitude Heading Reference System (AHRS) are not specifically designed to provide a picture of aircraft attitude, while the Flight Director System is a separate system that provides guidance to the pilot.

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  • 46. 

    (402f) Which one of these contains command bars and tells glideslope deviation?

    • A.

      Pitch and bank steering bars

    • B.

      Attitude Director Indicator (ADI)

    • C.

      Turn and slip indicator

    • D.

      Rate of turn indicator

    Correct Answer
    B. Attitude Director Indicator (ADI)
    Explanation
    The Attitude Director Indicator (ADI) contains command bars and tells glideslope deviation. The ADI is an instrument that displays the aircraft's pitch and bank attitude, and it also includes command bars that provide guidance for maintaining the correct glideslope during an approach. It is commonly used in aircraft to assist pilots in maintaining proper flight path and instrument approach procedures.

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  • 47. 

    (402f) What provides a continuous, reliable and fast-reaction source of magnetic heading and attitude information?

    • A.

      Head Up Display (HUD)

    • B.

      Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI)

    • C.

      Attitude Heading Reference System (AHRS)

    • D.

      Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI)

    Correct Answer
    C. Attitude Heading Reference System (AHRS)
    Explanation
    The Attitude Heading Reference System (AHRS) provides a continuous, reliable, and fast-reaction source of magnetic heading and attitude information. AHRS combines accelerometer, gyroscope, and magnetometer data to determine the aircraft's orientation and heading. It is commonly used in modern aircraft to provide accurate and real-time information to the pilot for navigation and control purposes.

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  • 48. 

    (402f) What provides pilot and co-pilot with visual displays of aircraft attitude, heading, and position?

    • A.

      Flight Director System

    • B.

      Stall Warning System

    • C.

      Vertical Tape Indicators

    • D.

      Multi-Functional Displays (MFD's)

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight Director System
    Explanation
    The Flight Director System provides the pilot and co-pilot with visual displays of the aircraft's attitude, heading, and position. This system helps guide the pilots in maintaining the correct flight path and assists in making accurate decisions during flight. It displays important information such as the aircraft's pitch, roll, and yaw, as well as the heading and position on a screen, allowing the pilots to have a clear understanding of the aircraft's orientation and position in relation to the desired flight path.

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  • 49. 

    (402g) Which of 2 these are part of the Automatic Flight Control System Subsystems? 

    • A.

      Stealth, LO (Low Observable)

    • B.

      Low Light Level TV, Steerable TV Set

    • C.

      LANTIRN, Litening II/ER/AT

    • D.

      SAS, AILS

    Correct Answer
    D. SAS, AILS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SAS, AILS. SAS stands for Stability Augmentation System, which is a subsystem of the Automatic Flight Control System that helps stabilize the aircraft during flight. AILS stands for Automatic Integrated Landing System, which is another subsystem that assists with automated landing procedures. Both SAS and AILS are integral parts of the Automatic Flight Control System.

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  • 50. 

    (402g) Which one is the definition of SAS 

    • A.

      Reduces structural overload, fatigue damage, and improves aircraft controllability during turbulent

    • B.

      Controls the flight of the aircraft independently or in conjunction with other Nav equipment

    • C.

      Navigates aircraft and provides weapon storage and release capabilities for missiles and gravity weapons

    • D.

      Provide continuous, reliable, source of magnetic heading and attitude information

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduces structural overload, fatigue damage, and improves aircraft controllability during turbulent
    Explanation
    The correct answer explains that SAS (Stability Augmentation System) reduces structural overload, fatigue damage, and improves aircraft controllability during turbulent conditions. This suggests that SAS helps to stabilize the aircraft and mitigate the negative effects of turbulence, ensuring safer and smoother flights.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 18, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Mark Creel
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