Z3dx5x CDC Volume 2

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  • 1/100 Questions

    What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?

    • Prevent the use of unsafe equipment
    • Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices
    • Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices
    • Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and/or death
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About This Quiz


multiple choice review questions from the second volume of the Z3DX5X CDC set 1.

Z3dx5x CDC Volume 2 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What method is considered to be the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards?

    • Isolating operations

    • Providing administrative controls

    • Use of personal protective equipment

    • Substituting a less hazardous material or process

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of personal protective equipment
    Explanation
    The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered to be the least preferred method when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. PPE includes items such as gloves, goggles, masks, and helmets, which are worn by individuals to protect themselves from potential hazards. While PPE can provide some level of protection, it is not as effective as other methods such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process. These methods are considered more reliable and effective in controlling hazards.

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  • 3. 

    What hazard is greatest in the typical office?

    • Falls

    • Poor Lighting

    • Horseplay

    • Poor ergonomics

    Correct Answer
    A. Falls
    Explanation
    Falls are the greatest hazard in the typical office because they can occur due to various reasons such as slippery floors, cluttered walkways, or uneven surfaces. Falls can result in serious injuries like fractures, sprains, or head trauma. Office workers may also fall from chairs or ladders while reaching for items or performing tasks at height. Therefore, it is important to maintain a safe and clean office environment, regularly inspect for potential hazards, and provide proper training to prevent falls and ensure the safety of employees.

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  • 4. 

    What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

    • Evacuate personnel from the building

    • Extinguish the fire if possible

    • Call the fire department

    • Sound the fire alarm

    Correct Answer
    A. Sound the fire alarm
    Explanation
    When encountering a fire, the first action to take is to sound the fire alarm. This is crucial as it alerts everyone in the building about the emergency, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. By sounding the fire alarm, people are immediately made aware of the potential danger, giving them the opportunity to exit the premises and seek safety. Once the alarm is activated, personnel can then proceed to evacuate the building, call the fire department, and attempt to extinguish the fire if it is safe to do so.

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  • 5. 

    What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?

    • Evacuate personnel from the building

    • Extinguish the fire if possible

    • Call the fire department

    • Sound the fire alarm

    Correct Answer
    A. Extinguish the fire if possible
    Explanation
    The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate firefighting equipment and techniques to actively suppress and eliminate the fire. It is important to attempt to extinguish the fire as soon as possible to prevent it from spreading further and causing more damage. However, it is crucial to prioritize safety and evacuate personnel from the building before attempting to extinguish the fire.

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  • 6. 

    What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

    • There are no negative effects

    • A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication

    • Performance will suffer due to the load of additional devices

    • When a central node point fails, large parts of the network become isolated

    Correct Answer
    A. When a central node point fails, large parts of the network become isolated
    Explanation
    When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to facilitate communication between the different networks. If this central node point fails, it can lead to a situation where large portions of the network become isolated and unable to communicate with each other. This can disrupt the overall functioning of the interconnected network and cause communication issues between the different star networks.

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  • 7. 

    What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol?

    • Request network services and pass an argument between layers

    • Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine

    • Prevent Network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data

    • Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement

    Correct Answer
    A. Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement
    Explanation
    A sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is used to regulate how much information can pass over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. This helps in managing the flow of data and prevents network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices with excessive data. It allows for efficient and reliable data transmission by controlling the amount of data that can be sent before receiving confirmation from the other end.

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  • 8. 

    What is the value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4?

    • 239

    • 254

    • 255

    • 256

    Correct Answer
    A. 255
    Explanation
    The value of the maximum octet in Internet Protocol version 4 is 255. In IPv4, an IP address is represented by four octets, each containing 8 bits. The maximum value that can be represented by 8 bits is 255. Therefore, the correct answer is 255.

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  • 9. 

    Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded pair network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling?

    • Media Converter

    • Modem

    • Switch

    • Router

    Correct Answer
    A. Media Converter
    Explanation
    A media converter is a device that converts the electrical signal used in copper unshielded pair network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling. It is used to connect different types of media, such as copper and fiber, allowing them to communicate with each other. This conversion is necessary because copper cabling uses electrical signals to transmit data, while fiber optic cabling uses light signals. The media converter acts as a transceiver, receiving the electrical signal from the copper cabling and converting it into light waves to be transmitted through the fiber optic cabling.

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  • 10. 

    Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?

    • Air Force Instruction 91-200

    • AFI 91-202

    • Air Force Manual 91-200

    • AFMAN 91-202

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 91-202
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFI 91-202. This publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program.

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  • 11. 

    The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the united States Department of

    • Commerce

    • The Treasury

    • Defense

    • Labor

    Correct Answer
    A. Labor
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Labor because the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees in the United States. It sets and enforces standards and provides training, education, and assistance to employers and workers. OSHA falls under the jurisdiction of the United States Department of Labor, which oversees labor-related matters and promotes the welfare of workers.

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  • 12. 

    What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?

    • Develop a job safety training outline

    • Conduct a job safety analysis

    • Review AF Form 55

    • Certify the employee

    Correct Answer
    A. Conduct a job safety analysis
    Explanation
    Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis. This involves identifying potential hazards and risks associated with the task, evaluating the likelihood and severity of those risks, and implementing appropriate controls and safety measures to mitigate them. By conducting a job safety analysis, supervisors ensure that employees are aware of the potential risks involved in the task and are equipped with the necessary knowledge and training to perform it safely.

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  • 13. 

    Which action is a physiological factor?

    • Performing a task while fatigued

    • Performing a task while intoxicated

    • Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders

    • Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medication that may cause drowsiness

    Correct Answer
    A. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders
    Explanation
    Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders is not a physiological factor. Physiological factors refer to bodily processes and functions, such as fatigue, intoxication, or the effects of medication on drowsiness. Ignoring directions is a behavioral or psychological factor, as it involves a decision or choice made by an individual rather than a physiological response.

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  • 14. 

    Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?

    • Bioenvironmental engineering

    • Installation Safety Office

    • Base Civil Engineer

    • Supervisors

    Correct Answer
    A. Bioenvironmental engineering
    Explanation
    Bioenvironmental engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess the potential risks and develop strategies to minimize or eliminate these risks. This includes conducting risk assessments, implementing control measures, and providing guidance to ensure the health and safety of individuals in the environment.

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  • 15. 

    How are fires classified?

    • Fuel Source

    • Heat Source

    • Temperature

    • Atmospheric conditions

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuel Source
    Explanation
    Fires are classified based on their fuel source, which refers to the material that is burning. Different types of fuel sources include wood, paper, gasoline, and electrical equipment. By classifying fires based on their fuel source, firefighters and other emergency responders can determine the most effective methods for extinguishing the fire and minimizing damage.

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  • 16. 

    Which action is NOT a part of Risk Management?

    • Accept no unnecessary risk

    • Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

    • Apply the process irregularly and continuously

    • Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels

    Correct Answer
    A. Apply the process irregularly and continuously
    Explanation
    The action of applying the risk management process irregularly and continuously is not a part of risk management. Risk management involves identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks, as well as developing strategies to mitigate or manage those risks. Applying the process irregularly and continuously would be inconsistent and ineffective in effectively managing risks. It is important to consistently and systematically apply the risk management process to ensure that all potential risks are addressed and managed appropriately.

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  • 17. 

    Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management? 

    • Office of Administration

    • Office of Communications

    • Office of Public Engagement

    • Office of Management and Budget

    Correct Answer
    A. Office of Management and Budget
    Explanation
    The Office of Management and Budget annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management.

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  • 18. 

    What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record?

    • Administrative record, Historical Statics, and maintenance record

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record

    Correct Answer
    A. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record
    Explanation
    The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record consists of three parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record includes all the necessary paperwork and documentation related to the installation process. The drawing record contains the diagrams and blueprints of the installation layout. The maintenance record keeps track of all the maintenance activities and repairs done on the system. These three parts together provide a comprehensive record of the installation process, ensuring proper documentation and maintenance of the communication and information systems.

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  • 19. 

    What requirements mandate the development of Air Force Architectures?

    • State Level

    • Federal Level

    • Congressional Level

    • Department of Defense Level

    Correct Answer
    A. Federal Level
    Explanation
    The development of Air Force Architectures is mandated at the Federal Level. This means that the requirements for these architectures are set and regulated by the federal government. As the Air Force is a branch of the military that operates on a national level, it is necessary for the federal government to establish the guidelines and standards for the development of these architectures to ensure consistency and alignment with national defense strategies and goals.

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  • 20. 

    Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record depicts the physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?

    • Administrative Record

    • Maintenance Record

    • Drawing Record

    • Outage Record

    Correct Answer
    A. Drawing Record
    Explanation
    The Drawing Record in the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record is the part that depicts the physical layout of communications and information systems and provides engineering data. This record typically includes detailed drawings, diagrams, and plans that show the placement and configuration of the systems, as well as important technical information related to their installation and operation.

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  • 21. 

    Which Part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record is normally retained in the production work center?

    • Administrative Record

    • Maintenance Record

    • Drawing Record

    • Outage Record

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Record
    Explanation
    The maintenance record is normally retained in the production work center of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record. This record includes detailed information about the maintenance activities performed on the systems, such as repairs, upgrades, and inspections. It serves as a valuable reference for the work center to track the history of maintenance actions and ensure the systems are properly maintained and functioning effectively.

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  • 22. 

    The logical link control sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection model layer?

    • Transport

    • Data Link

    • Physical

    • Session

    Correct Answer
    A. Data Link
    Explanation
    The logical link control sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the Open Systems Interconnection model. This layer is responsible for providing error-free transmission of data frames over the physical link and managing access to the network medium. The logical link control sublayer handles flow control, error control, and framing of data packets. It ensures that data is transmitted reliably and efficiently between connected devices.

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  • 23. 

    When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a networks

    • Transport topology

    • Physical topology

    • Physical medium

    • Logical topology

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical topology
    Explanation
    The correct answer is physical topology. When the word "topology" is used alone, it typically refers to the physical layout or structure of a network. This includes the arrangement of nodes, devices, and connections in a network. It describes how the physical components are connected and organized to form the network. The physical topology can be represented through diagrams such as bus, star, ring, or mesh.

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  • 24. 

    What topology offers centralized management of a network?

    • Bus

    • Star

    • Ring

    • Radial

    Correct Answer
    A. Star
    Explanation
    The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which allows for easy management and control of the network. This central hub or switch can monitor and control the flow of data, troubleshoot any issues, and manage network resources effectively. Additionally, the star topology provides better scalability and fault tolerance compared to other topologies, making it a popular choice for networks that require centralized management.

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  • 25. 

    Which governing body is the authority for information technology communications within the Department of Defense and has every level of IT communication from the DoD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?

    • Defense Information Systems Agency

    • Federal Communications Commission

    • Department of Homeland Security

    • Department of Defense

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Information Systems Agency
    Explanation
    The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is the correct answer because it is the governing body responsible for information technology communications within the Department of Defense (DoD). DISA has control over every level of IT communication, from the DoD information network to the warfighter. It ensures that the DoD's IT systems and networks are secure, reliable, and interoperable, supporting the military's mission and operations.

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  • 26. 

    What portion of the Internet Protocol Datagram allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?

    • Version Identification

    • Header Checksum

    • Time to Live

    • Flags

    Correct Answer
    A. Header Checksum
    Explanation
    The Header Checksum portion of the Internet Protocol Datagram allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them. The checksum is a value calculated from the header contents, and it is used to verify the integrity of the header during transmission. If the checksum calculated at the receiving end does not match the one in the header, it indicates that the header has been corrupted, and the datagram is discarded to prevent any further processing with unreliable data.

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  • 27. 

    Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?

    • Printer

    • Scanner

    • Monitor

    • Camera Lens

    Correct Answer
    A. Scanner
    Explanation
    A scanner is a device that optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image. It uses sensors to capture the image or text and then converts it into a digital format that can be stored or manipulated on a computer. Unlike a printer, which produces physical copies of digital images or text, a scanner takes physical copies and converts them into digital form. A monitor is a display device, and a camera lens is a part of a camera system. Therefore, a scanner is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 28. 

    Which Network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?

    • Local Area Network

    • Wide Area Network

    • Virtual Private Network

    • Metropolitan Area Network

    Correct Answer
    A. Local Area Network
    Explanation
    A Local Area Network (LAN) is a group of computers and devices that are connected to a common communications line, such as Ethernet, and share resources like a single processor or server. LANs are typically used within a small geographic area, such as an office building or a home, to facilitate communication and resource sharing among the connected devices.

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  • 29. 

    Which network is a network that links Local Area Networks and Metropolitan Area Networks by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?

    • Local Area Network

    • Wide Area Network

    • Virtual Private Network

    • Metropolitan Area Network

    Correct Answer
    A. Wide Area Network
    Explanation
    A Wide Area Network (WAN) is a network that connects Local Area Networks (LANs) and Metropolitan Area Networks (MANs) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company. WANs are typically used to connect geographically dispersed locations over a large area, such as different branches of a company or multiple cities. They provide a wider coverage and allow for the transmission of data over long distances. Therefore, the given answer "Wide Area Network" accurately describes the network that links LANs and MANs using long-distance communication links.

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  • 30. 

    Which network provides a private tunnel through the internet?

    • Local Area Network

    • Wide Area Network

    • Virtual Private Network

    • Metropolitan Area Network

    Correct Answer
    A. Virtual Private Network
    Explanation
    A Virtual Private Network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the internet. It allows users to securely access and transmit data over public networks by encrypting their internet connection. This ensures that data remains confidential and protected from unauthorized access. VPNs are commonly used by individuals and organizations to establish secure connections remotely, enabling them to access private networks and resources as if they were directly connected to the local network.

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  • 31. 

    Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information fully encodes all the way through the network to the users' own end terminals?

    • Internet Protocol

    • End-to-end

    • Bulk

    • Link

    Correct Answer
    A. End-to-end
    Explanation
    End-to-end encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since it fully encodes the information from the sender's end terminal all the way to the recipient's end terminal. This means that the data remains encrypted throughout the entire communication process, including while it is being transmitted over the network. This ensures that even if the data is intercepted or accessed by unauthorized parties, it cannot be deciphered without the encryption keys held by the sender and recipient.

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  • 32. 

    What characteristic is NOT an advantage of fiber optic cable?

    • Cost to install and train technicians

    • Electromagnetic immunity

    • Low Attenuation

    • Security

    Correct Answer
    A. Cost to install and train technicians
    Explanation
    The cost to install and train technicians is not an advantage of fiber optic cable. Fiber optic cable is known for its high installation and training costs compared to other types of cables. However, the other options listed - electromagnetic immunity, low attenuation, and security - are all advantages of fiber optic cable.

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  • 33. 

    What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?

    • Shell

    • Kernel

    • User Programs

    • Dynamic-Link library

    Correct Answer
    A. Kernel
    Explanation
    The kernel is the correct answer because it is the core of the UNIX operating system and interacts directly with the hardware. It manages resources, controls the execution of processes, and provides essential services such as memory management, device drivers, and file system access. The kernel acts as a bridge between the hardware and the user programs, allowing them to communicate and utilize the system's resources efficiently. The shell, user programs, and dynamic-link library are all important components of the UNIX system, but they do not interact as closely with the hardware as the kernel does.

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  • 34. 

    What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?

    • Word

    • Access

    • Outlook

    • Powerpoint

    Correct Answer
    A. Outlook
    Explanation
    Outlook is a personal information manager developed by Microsoft. It is widely used for managing emails, calendars, contacts, tasks, and notes. With Outlook, users can send and receive emails, schedule appointments and meetings, organize contacts, create to-do lists, and keep track of important information. It provides a centralized platform for managing personal and professional information efficiently, making it a popular choice for individuals and businesses alike.

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  • 35. 

    Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?

    • Malware

    • Spyware

    • Adware

    • Trojans

    Correct Answer
    A. Spyware
    Explanation
    Spyware is computer software that is specifically designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. It secretly monitors a user's activities, such as browsing habits, keystrokes, and even captures personal information like passwords and credit card details. This data is then sent to a third party without the user's knowledge or consent. Spyware is considered a type of malware, but unlike other types such as adware or Trojans, its primary purpose is to gather personal information rather than causing direct harm to the user's computer system.

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  • 36. 

    Who has the authority to grant permission to ship classified materials Friday-Sunday?

    • Classified Information Program Manager

    • Information Assurance Officer

    • Security Manager

    • Supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Security Manager
    Explanation
    The security manager has the authority to grant permission to ship classified materials Friday-Sunday. This individual is responsible for overseeing the security of classified information and ensuring that proper protocols are followed. Granting permission for shipping classified materials falls within their purview as they have the knowledge and expertise to assess the risks and make informed decisions regarding the transportation of sensitive information.

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  • 37. 

    Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?

    • Secret Internet Protocol Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network

    • Sensitive but Unclassified IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network

    • Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System IP Data

    • Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information IP Data

    Correct Answer
    A. Sensitive but Unclassified IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network. This network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user because it is specifically designed for handling sensitive but unclassified information. It is not as secure as other networks like Secret Internet Protocol Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network, but it still ensures the confidentiality and integrity of unclassified data being transmitted. The other options, Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System IP Data and Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information IP Data, are both classified networks and do not support unclassified e-mail service.

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  • 38. 

    What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force provide as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force Personnel?

    • Air Force Portal

    • IMDS

    • Advanced Distributed Learning Service

    • Electronic-Publications

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Portal
    Explanation
    The Global Combat Support System-Air Force provides the Air Force Portal as a major program that serves as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force Personnel. The Air Force Portal is a secure website that allows Air Force members to access various resources, such as news, email, training materials, and personnel information, all in one centralized location. It is designed to enhance communication and collaboration among Air Force personnel and provide easy access to important tools and resources.

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  • 39. 

    According to the Center for Disease Control and Prevention, office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?

    • 1 to 2

    • 2 to 2.5

    • 2 to 4.5

    • 2.5 to 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 to 2.5
    Explanation
    Office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers, according to the Center for Disease Control and Prevention. This suggests that the risk of falling and getting injured is significantly higher for office workers, possibly due to factors such as working in a confined space, using office equipment, or navigating through crowded office areas.

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  • 40. 

    Which ladder practice is NOT prohibited?

    • Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits

    • Carrying material while ascending or descending a ladder

    • Using a ladder as a scaffold

    • Using a homemade ladder.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits
    Explanation
    Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is NOT prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, meaning it does not conduct electricity. Therefore, using a wooden ladder near electrical circuits does not pose a significant risk of electric shock or electrocution. However, it is still important to exercise caution and follow safety guidelines to prevent accidents.

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  • 41. 

    What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

    • Star

    • Ring

    • Loop

    • Linear

    Correct Answer
    A. Linear
    Explanation
    A bus topology is a network setup where all devices are connected to a single cable, forming a linear structure. Therefore, the term "linear" is another name for a bus topology. In this setup, data is transmitted in both directions along the cable, and each device receives the data and checks if it is intended for them.

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  • 42. 

    What is a peripheral device?

    • A main internal component of a computer

    • Not a main internal component of a computer

    • A main component of a computer and can be either internal or external

    • Not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external

    Correct Answer
    A. Not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external
    Explanation
    A peripheral device is not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external. Peripheral devices are additional hardware devices that are connected to a computer to enhance its functionality. Examples of peripheral devices include printers, scanners, keyboards, mice, and external hard drives. These devices are not essential for the basic functioning of a computer but provide additional features and capabilities. They can be connected to the computer either internally, such as expansion cards, or externally, such as USB devices.

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  • 43. 

    Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data?

    • Local Area Networks

    • Wide Area Networks

    • Metropolitan Area Networks

    • Wireless Area Networks

    Correct Answer
    A. Wireless Area Networks
    Explanation
    Wireless Area Networks use Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data. CSMA/CA is a protocol used in wireless networks to prevent two or more devices from transmitting data at the same time and causing collisions. It works by having devices listen to the network before transmitting, and if the network is busy, they wait for a random amount of time before attempting to transmit again. This helps to ensure that data is transmitted without interference or collisions in wireless networks.

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  • 44. 

    Which wireless local area network security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?

    • Service Set Identifier Broadcasting?

    • Media Access Control Filtering

    • Encryption

    • Tunnelling

    Correct Answer
    A. Encryption
    Explanation
    Encryption is the best described method for hiding a message in a special code. It involves converting the original message into an unreadable format using an encryption algorithm and a secret key. Only the intended recipient with the corresponding decryption key can decipher the message and retrieve the original information. This ensures the confidentiality and integrity of the message, making encryption an effective security measure for wireless local area networks.

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  • 45. 

    What Microsoft application is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database?

    • Word

    • Access

    • Outlook

    • Powerpoint

    Correct Answer
    A. Access
    Explanation
    Access is the correct answer because it is a Microsoft application specifically designed for creating desktop databases. It allows users to easily create, manage, and manipulate databases, making it a powerful tool for organizing and storing large amounts of data. Unlike Word, Outlook, and PowerPoint which are primarily used for word processing, email management, and creating presentations respectively, Access is specifically focused on database management.

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  • 46. 

    Which incidents occur when a higher level of classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system?

    • Classified Message Incident

    • Eavesdropping

    • Data Spillage

    • Backdoor

    Correct Answer
    A. Classified Message Incident
    Explanation
    When a higher level of classified data is transferred to a lower classification level system via a messaging system, it is referred to as a "Classified Message Incident." This incident involves the unauthorized transfer of sensitive information, potentially compromising the security and confidentiality of the data. It can lead to serious consequences, such as unauthorized access to classified information by individuals who do not have the necessary clearance level.

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  • 47. 

    Which classified document markings identify the highest level of classification?

    • Banner Lines

    • Portion Marks

    • Component and Office

    • Classification authority

    Correct Answer
    A. Banner Lines
    Explanation
    Banner Lines are used to identify the highest level of classification in classified documents. They typically appear at the top and bottom of each page and contain information such as the classification level, classification authority, and the document's control number. These markings are crucial in ensuring that the document is handled and protected according to its classification level.

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  • 48. 

    Which event is NOT a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?

    • When it is placed in service

    • When it is removed from service

    • When the storage container is cleaned

    • When compromise of the combination is suspected

    Correct Answer
    A. When the storage container is cleaned
    Explanation
    Changing the combination on a container storing classified materials is necessary when there is a risk of compromise or unauthorized access. Cleaning the storage container, on the other hand, does not inherently pose a security threat or increase the likelihood of compromise. Therefore, cleaning the container is not a valid reason to change the combination.

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  • 49. 

    Whose responsibility is it to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an air force installation?

    • Air Staff

    • Civil Engineering

    • Squadron Commander

    • Installation Safety Office

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation Safety Office
    Explanation
    The Installation Safety Office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an air force installation. This office is specifically dedicated to ensuring safety protocols are followed and providing guidance and support to all personnel in matters related to safety. They play a crucial role in promoting a safe working environment and preventing accidents or injuries.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Apr 5, 2024 +

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  • Current Version
  • Apr 05, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 12, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Zgoyer

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