Z3dx5x CDC Volume 2
(187).webp "Z3dx5x CDC Volume 2 - Quiz")
multiple choice review questions from the second volume of the Z3DX5X CDC set 1.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?
- A.
Air Force Instruction 91-200
- B.
AFI 91-202
- C.
Air Force Manual 91-200
- D.
AFMAN 91-202
Correct Answer
B. AFI 91-202Explanation
The correct answer is AFI 91-202. This publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?
- A.
Prevent the use of unsafe equipment
- B.
Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices
- C.
Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices
- D.
Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and/or death
Correct Answer
D. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and/or deathExplanation
The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and/or death. This program aims to prevent accidents, mishaps, and unsafe situations that could result in harm to individuals or property. By implementing safety measures and risk management practices, the program ensures the well-being and preservation of both resources and personnel.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Whose responsibility is it to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an air force installation?
- A.
Air Staff
- B.
Civil Engineering
- C.
Squadron Commander
- D.
Installation Safety Office
Correct Answer
D. Installation Safety OfficeExplanation
The Installation Safety Office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an air force installation. This office is specifically dedicated to ensuring safety protocols are followed and providing guidance and support to all personnel in matters related to safety. They play a crucial role in promoting a safe working environment and preventing accidents or injuries.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the united States Department of
- A.
Commerce
- B.
The Treasury
- C.
Defense
- D.
Labor
Correct Answer
D. LaborExplanation
The correct answer is Labor because the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees in the United States. It sets and enforces standards and provides training, education, and assistance to employers and workers. OSHA falls under the jurisdiction of the United States Department of Labor, which oversees labor-related matters and promotes the welfare of workers.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?
- A.
Develop a job safety training outline
- B.
Conduct a job safety analysis
- C.
Review AF Form 55
- D.
Certify the employee
Correct Answer
B. Conduct a job safety analysisExplanation
Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis. This involves identifying potential hazards and risks associated with the task, evaluating the likelihood and severity of those risks, and implementing appropriate controls and safety measures to mitigate them. By conducting a job safety analysis, supervisors ensure that employees are aware of the potential risks involved in the task and are equipped with the necessary knowledge and training to perform it safely.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What Air Force form is used to report ground mishaps?
- A.
475
- B.
480
- C.
978
- D.
980
Correct Answer
C. 978Explanation
The correct answer is 978. This form is used by the Air Force to report ground mishaps.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What Air Force form is used to report a hazard?
- A.
457
- B.
480
- C.
978
- D.
980
Correct Answer
A. 457Explanation
The correct answer is 457. This Air Force form is used to report a hazard.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What three sub-categories make up human factors?
- A.
Physiological, physical, stress
- B.
Physiological, physical, social
- C.
Stress, organizational, physical
- D.
Physical, physiological, organizational
Correct Answer
D. Physical, physiological, organizationalExplanation
The correct answer is Physical, physiological, organizational. Human factors refer to the study of how humans interact with systems and environments. The physical sub-category focuses on the physical attributes of individuals, such as their strength, size, and sensory capabilities. The physiological sub-category examines the psychological and cognitive aspects of human performance, including perception, attention, and decision-making. The organizational sub-category considers the social and organizational factors that influence human behavior, such as teamwork, leadership, and communication.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which action is a physiological factor?
- A.
Performing a task while fatigued
- B.
Performing a task while intoxicated
- C.
Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders
- D.
Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medication that may cause drowsiness
Correct Answer
C. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leadersExplanation
Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders is not a physiological factor. Physiological factors refer to bodily processes and functions, such as fatigue, intoxication, or the effects of medication on drowsiness. Ignoring directions is a behavioral or psychological factor, as it involves a decision or choice made by an individual rather than a physiological response.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?
- A.
Bioenvironmental engineering
- B.
Installation Safety Office
- C.
Base Civil Engineer
- D.
Supervisors
Correct Answer
A. Bioenvironmental engineeringExplanation
Bioenvironmental engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess the potential risks and develop strategies to minimize or eliminate these risks. This includes conducting risk assessments, implementing control measures, and providing guidance to ensure the health and safety of individuals in the environment.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What method is considered to be the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards?
- A.
Isolating operations
- B.
Providing administrative controls
- C.
Use of personal protective equipment
- D.
Substituting a less hazardous material or process
Correct Answer
C. Use of personal protective equipmentExplanation
The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered to be the least preferred method when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. PPE includes items such as gloves, goggles, masks, and helmets, which are worn by individuals to protect themselves from potential hazards. While PPE can provide some level of protection, it is not as effective as other methods such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process. These methods are considered more reliable and effective in controlling hazards.Rate this question:
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- 12.
How many impact classifications do hardhats have?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
B. TwoExplanation
Hardhats have two impact classifications. This suggests that there are two levels of protection provided by hardhats against impacts, such as falling objects or debris. These classifications may indicate the level of resistance or ability to absorb impact force, ensuring safety for the wearer.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which Helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?
- A.
A
- B.
C
- C.
E
- D.
G
Correct Answer
B. CExplanation
Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What hazard is greatest in the typical office?
- A.
Falls
- B.
Poor Lighting
- C.
Horseplay
- D.
Poor ergonomics
Correct Answer
A. FallsExplanation
Falls are the greatest hazard in the typical office because they can occur due to various reasons such as slippery floors, cluttered walkways, or uneven surfaces. Falls can result in serious injuries like fractures, sprains, or head trauma. Office workers may also fall from chairs or ladders while reaching for items or performing tasks at height. Therefore, it is important to maintain a safe and clean office environment, regularly inspect for potential hazards, and provide proper training to prevent falls and ensure the safety of employees.Rate this question:
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- 15.
According to the Center for Disease Control and Prevention, office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?
- A.
1 to 2
- B.
2 to 2.5
- C.
2 to 4.5
- D.
2.5 to 3
Correct Answer
B. 2 to 2.5Explanation
Office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers, according to the Center for Disease Control and Prevention. This suggests that the risk of falling and getting injured is significantly higher for office workers, possibly due to factors such as working in a confined space, using office equipment, or navigating through crowded office areas.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What chapter in AFI 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction, provides specific guidance on office safety?
- A.
8
- B.
9
- C.
10
- D.
11
Correct Answer
C. 10Explanation
Chapter 10 in AFI 91-203 provides specific guidance on office safety.Rate this question:
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- 17.
How are fires classified?
- A.
Fuel Source
- B.
Heat Source
- C.
Temperature
- D.
Atmospheric conditions
Correct Answer
A. Fuel SourceExplanation
Fires are classified based on their fuel source, which refers to the material that is burning. Different types of fuel sources include wood, paper, gasoline, and electrical equipment. By classifying fires based on their fuel source, firefighters and other emergency responders can determine the most effective methods for extinguishing the fire and minimizing damage.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What classification do flammable liquids receive?
- A.
Class A
- B.
Class B
- C.
Class C
- D.
Class D
Correct Answer
B. Class BExplanation
Flammable liquids receive the classification of Class B. This classification is used to categorize substances that are highly flammable and can easily catch fire or explode when exposed to a flame or spark. Class B substances include gasoline, alcohol, oil, and other similar liquids. It is important to handle and store these liquids with caution to prevent any accidents or fires.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?
- A.
Class A
- B.
Class B
- C.
Class C
- D.
Class D
Correct Answer
C. Class CExplanation
When an electric current is introduced, fuels that are normally classified as Class A or B will change to Class C. This change in classification is due to the introduction of the electric current, which increases the risk of electrical conductivity and potential for fire hazards. Class C fuels are those that can conduct electricity and are typically flammable liquids or gases. Therefore, the correct answer is Class C.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?
- A.
Evacuate personnel from the building
- B.
Extinguish the fire if possible
- C.
Call the fire department
- D.
Sound the fire alarm
Correct Answer
D. Sound the fire alarmExplanation
When encountering a fire, the first action to take is to sound the fire alarm. This is crucial as it alerts everyone in the building about the emergency, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. By sounding the fire alarm, people are immediately made aware of the potential danger, giving them the opportunity to exit the premises and seek safety. Once the alarm is activated, personnel can then proceed to evacuate the building, call the fire department, and attempt to extinguish the fire if it is safe to do so.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?
- A.
Evacuate personnel from the building
- B.
Extinguish the fire if possible
- C.
Call the fire department
- D.
Sound the fire alarm
Correct Answer
B. Extinguish the fire if possibleExplanation
The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate firefighting equipment and techniques to actively suppress and eliminate the fire. It is important to attempt to extinguish the fire as soon as possible to prevent it from spreading further and causing more damage. However, it is crucial to prioritize safety and evacuate personnel from the building before attempting to extinguish the fire.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could taste cardiac arrest?
- A.
50
- B.
40
- C.
20
- D.
10
Correct Answer
A. 50Explanation
Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps can potentially cause cardiac arrest. This level of current is considered to be dangerous and can disrupt the normal electrical signals in the heart, leading to an abnormal heart rhythm and potentially stopping the heart altogether. It is important to note that individual susceptibility to electric shock can vary, and factors such as overall health, pre-existing heart conditions, and duration of exposure to the current can also influence the severity of the effects.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which ladder practice is NOT prohibited?
- A.
Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits
- B.
Carrying material while ascending or descending a ladder
- C.
Using a ladder as a scaffold
- D.
Using a homemade ladder.
Correct Answer
A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuitsExplanation
Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is NOT prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, meaning it does not conduct electricity. Therefore, using a wooden ladder near electrical circuits does not pose a significant risk of electric shock or electrocution. However, it is still important to exercise caution and follow safety guidelines to prevent accidents.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which action is NOT a part of Risk Management?
- A.
Accept no unnecessary risk
- B.
Make risk decisions at the appropriate level
- C.
Apply the process irregularly and continuously
- D.
Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels
Correct Answer
C. Apply the process irregularly and continuouslyExplanation
The action of applying the risk management process irregularly and continuously is not a part of risk management. Risk management involves identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks, as well as developing strategies to mitigate or manage those risks. Applying the process irregularly and continuously would be inconsistent and ineffective in effectively managing risks. It is important to consistently and systematically apply the risk management process to ensure that all potential risks are addressed and managed appropriately.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The Risk Management process includes how many steps?
- A.
Four
- B.
Five
- C.
Six
- D.
Seven
Correct Answer
B. FiveExplanation
The Risk Management process includes five steps. These steps are identification, assessment, mitigation, monitoring, and review. In the identification step, potential risks are identified and documented. The assessment step involves analyzing the likelihood and impact of each identified risk. Mitigation is the step where actions are taken to reduce or eliminate the identified risks. The monitoring step involves tracking and evaluating the effectiveness of the risk mitigation measures. Finally, in the review step, the entire risk management process is reviewed and improvements are made if necessary.Rate this question:
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- 26.
How Many Volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework specification?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
D. FourExplanation
The Department of Defense Architecture Framework specification is made up of four volumes. Each volume provides guidance and standards for different aspects of the framework, including the overall architecture, systems, and data. These volumes work together to ensure a comprehensive and cohesive approach to architecture within the Department of Defense.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?
- A.
Office of Administration
- B.
Office of Communications
- C.
Office of Public Engagement
- D.
Office of Management and Budget
Correct Answer
D. Office of Management and BudgetExplanation
The Office of Management and Budget annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record?
- A.
Administrative record, Historical Statics, and maintenance record
- B.
Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record
- C.
Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record
- D.
Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record
Correct Answer
C. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance recordExplanation
The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record consists of three parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record includes all the necessary paperwork and documentation related to the installation process. The drawing record contains the diagrams and blueprints of the installation layout. The maintenance record keeps track of all the maintenance activities and repairs done on the system. These three parts together provide a comprehensive record of the installation process, ensuring proper documentation and maintenance of the communication and information systems.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What requirements mandate the development of Air Force Architectures?
- A.
State Level
- B.
Federal Level
- C.
Congressional Level
- D.
Department of Defense Level
Correct Answer
B. Federal LevelExplanation
The development of Air Force Architectures is mandated at the Federal Level. This means that the requirements for these architectures are set and regulated by the federal government. As the Air Force is a branch of the military that operates on a national level, it is necessary for the federal government to establish the guidelines and standards for the development of these architectures to ensure consistency and alignment with national defense strategies and goals.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record depicts the physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?
- A.
Administrative Record
- B.
Maintenance Record
- C.
Drawing Record
- D.
Outage Record
Correct Answer
C. Drawing RecordExplanation
The Drawing Record in the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record is the part that depicts the physical layout of communications and information systems and provides engineering data. This record typically includes detailed drawings, diagrams, and plans that show the placement and configuration of the systems, as well as important technical information related to their installation and operation.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which Part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record is normally retained in the production work center?
- A.
Administrative Record
- B.
Maintenance Record
- C.
Drawing Record
- D.
Outage Record
Correct Answer
B. Maintenance RecordExplanation
The maintenance record is normally retained in the production work center of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record. This record includes detailed information about the maintenance activities performed on the systems, such as repairs, upgrades, and inspections. It serves as a valuable reference for the work center to track the history of maintenance actions and ensure the systems are properly maintained and functioning effectively.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection reference model specify?
- A.
Programming
- B.
Transport
- C.
Network
- D.
Data
Correct Answer
C. NetworkExplanation
The seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection reference model specify different functions within a network. The Network layer is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets between different networks. It ensures that data is delivered to the correct destination by choosing the best path for transmission. This layer also handles addressing and logical network topologies. Therefore, the Network layer is specifically focused on managing communication between different networks in the OSI model.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection reference model.
- A.
Data Transport and Application
- B.
Session and Data Transport
- C.
Network and Presentation
- D.
Application and Session
Correct Answer
A. Data Transport and ApplicationExplanation
The correct answer is Data Transport and Application. The Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model consists of seven layers: Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application. The two categories mentioned in the question are Data Transport and Application. Data Transport refers to the Transport layer, which is responsible for reliable end-to-end data delivery. Application refers to the Application layer, which provides services directly to the user and interacts with software applications.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The logical link control sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection model layer?
- A.
Transport
- B.
Data Link
- C.
Physical
- D.
Session
Correct Answer
B. Data LinkExplanation
The logical link control sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the Open Systems Interconnection model. This layer is responsible for providing error-free transmission of data frames over the physical link and managing access to the network medium. The logical link control sublayer handles flow control, error control, and framing of data packets. It ensures that data is transmitted reliably and efficiently between connected devices.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What does the Logical Link Control sublayer of the data link layer manage?
- A.
Communications between devices over multiple links of a network
- B.
Communications between devices over a single link of a network
- C.
Protocol access to the physical network medium
- D.
Protocol access to the links of a network
Correct Answer
B. Communications between devices over a single link of a networkExplanation
The Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manages communications between devices over a single link of a network. This sublayer is responsible for error control, flow control, and framing of data packets. It ensures reliable and efficient transmission of data between devices connected by a single link.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What does the media access control sublayer of the data link layer manage?
- A.
Communications between devices over a single link of a networks
- B.
Communications between devices over multiple links of a network
- C.
Protocol access to the physical network medium
- D.
Protocol access to the links of a network.
Correct Answer
C. Protocol access to the physical network mediumExplanation
The media access control sublayer of the data link layer manages the protocol access to the physical network medium. This means that it controls how devices on a network gain access to and use the physical medium, such as a cable or wireless channel, for communication. It ensures that multiple devices can share the medium efficiently and avoid collisions or conflicts.Rate this question:
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- 37.
When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a networks
- A.
Transport topology
- B.
Physical topology
- C.
Physical medium
- D.
Logical topology
Correct Answer
B. Physical topologyExplanation
The correct answer is physical topology. When the word "topology" is used alone, it typically refers to the physical layout or structure of a network. This includes the arrangement of nodes, devices, and connections in a network. It describes how the physical components are connected and organized to form the network. The physical topology can be represented through diagrams such as bus, star, ring, or mesh.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What network topology is another name for a bus topology?
- A.
Star
- B.
Ring
- C.
Loop
- D.
Linear
Correct Answer
D. LinearExplanation
A bus topology is a network setup where all devices are connected to a single cable, forming a linear structure. Therefore, the term "linear" is another name for a bus topology. In this setup, data is transmitted in both directions along the cable, and each device receives the data and checks if it is intended for them.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What topology offers centralized management of a network?
- A.
Bus
- B.
Star
- C.
Ring
- D.
Radial
Correct Answer
B. StarExplanation
The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which allows for easy management and control of the network. This central hub or switch can monitor and control the flow of data, troubleshoot any issues, and manage network resources effectively. Additionally, the star topology provides better scalability and fault tolerance compared to other topologies, making it a popular choice for networks that require centralized management.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?
- A.
There are no negative effects
- B.
A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication
- C.
Performance will suffer due to the load of additional devices
- D.
When a central node point fails, large parts of the network become isolated
Correct Answer
D. When a central node point fails, large parts of the network become isolatedExplanation
When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to facilitate communication between the different networks. If this central node point fails, it can lead to a situation where large portions of the network become isolated and unable to communicate with each other. This can disrupt the overall functioning of the interconnected network and cause communication issues between the different star networks.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which governing body is the authority for information technology communications within the Department of Defense and has every level of IT communication from the DoD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?
- A.
Defense Information Systems Agency
- B.
Federal Communications Commission
- C.
Department of Homeland Security
- D.
Department of Defense
Correct Answer
A. Defense Information Systems AgencyExplanation
The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is the correct answer because it is the governing body responsible for information technology communications within the Department of Defense (DoD). DISA has control over every level of IT communication, from the DoD information network to the warfighter. It ensures that the DoD's IT systems and networks are secure, reliable, and interoperable, supporting the military's mission and operations.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What is a Transmission Control Protocol socket?
- A.
Regulator of how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.
- B.
Reference location of a particular application or process on each machine
- C.
Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers.
- D.
Preventer of network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.
Correct Answer
C. Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers.Explanation
A Transmission Control Protocol socket is a combination of a port number and Internet Protocol address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers. This means that when a process wants to communicate over a network, it needs to specify the port number and IP address of the destination. The socket acts as a unique identifier for the process and allows it to establish a connection and request network services. It is an essential component for networking communication.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol?
- A.
Request network services and pass an argument between layers
- B.
Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine
- C.
Prevent Network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data
- D.
Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement
Correct Answer
D. Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgementExplanation
A sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is used to regulate how much information can pass over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. This helps in managing the flow of data and prevents network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices with excessive data. It allows for efficient and reliable data transmission by controlling the amount of data that can be sent before receiving confirmation from the other end.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What portion of the Internet Protocol Datagram allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?
- A.
Version Identification
- B.
Header Checksum
- C.
Time to Live
- D.
Flags
Correct Answer
B. Header ChecksumExplanation
The Header Checksum portion of the Internet Protocol Datagram allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them. The checksum is a value calculated from the header contents, and it is used to verify the integrity of the header during transmission. If the checksum calculated at the receiving end does not match the one in the header, it indicates that the header has been corrupted, and the datagram is discarded to prevent any further processing with unreliable data.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What is the value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4?
- A.
239
- B.
254
- C.
255
- D.
256
Correct Answer
C. 255Explanation
The value of the maximum octet in Internet Protocol version 4 is 255. In IPv4, an IP address is represented by four octets, each containing 8 bits. The maximum value that can be represented by 8 bits is 255. Therefore, the correct answer is 255.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?
- A.
Class A
- B.
Class B
- C.
Class C
- D.
Class D
Correct Answer
C. Class CExplanation
Class C allows for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which means that the first three octets are used for network identification and the last octet is used for host identification. Since the last octet can have a maximum value of 255, and the network and broadcast addresses are reserved, the actual number of usable hosts is 254.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What class is reserved for multicast addressing?
- A.
Class A
- B.
Class B
- C.
Class C
- D.
Class D
Correct Answer
D. Class DExplanation
Class D is reserved for multicast addressing. In IP addressing, multicast addresses are used to send data packets to a group of hosts simultaneously. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255, and they are specifically designated for multicast communication. These addresses are not assigned to individual devices but rather used by multiple hosts that are interested in receiving the multicast data.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What range of numbers are those of well-known port numbers?
- A.
0-1023
- B.
1024-49151
- C.
49152-65535
- D.
65536-87000
Correct Answer
A. 0-1023Explanation
The range of numbers that are well-known port numbers is 0-1023. Well-known port numbers are reserved for specific services or protocols, such as HTTP (port 80) or FTP (port 21), and they are commonly used and recognized by network administrators and users. Ports in this range are considered privileged and require special permissions to be opened or accessed.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory and Read Only Memory?
- A.
ROM is volatile, RAM is non-volatile
- B.
ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile
- C.
RAM has a slower access time than ROM
- D.
ROM has a slower access time than RAM
Correct Answer
B. ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatileExplanation
The major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM) is that ROM is non-volatile, meaning the data stored in it is not lost when the power is turned off, while RAM is volatile, meaning the data is lost when the power is turned off.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What action is the main purpose of system cache?
- A.
Speed up system Read Only Memory
- B.
Reduce hard drive access time to stored data
- C.
Reduce central processing unit access time to stored data
- D.
Reduce Random Access Memory access time to stored data
Correct Answer
C. Reduce central processing unit access time to stored dataExplanation
The main purpose of system cache is to reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. System cache stores frequently accessed data from the main memory, allowing the CPU to retrieve it quickly without having to access the slower main memory. This helps to improve overall system performance by reducing the time it takes for the CPU to access data.Rate this question:
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Apr 05, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Sep 12, 2016Quiz Created by
Zgoyer
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