7 Level CDC 2AX7X Air Force Volume 2

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7 Level CDC 2AX7X Air Force Volume 2 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

    • A.

      Air Combat Command (ACC)

    • B.

      Air Training Command (ATC)

    • C.

      Air Reserve Command (AFRC)

    • D.

      Air Education and Training Command (AETC)

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Education and Training Command (AETC)
    Explanation
    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). AETC is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel. As such, it is logical that TDs, which are involved in training activities, would be assigned to AETC. The other options, Air Combat Command (ACC), Air Training Command (ATC), and Air Reserve Command (AFRC), do not have a primary focus on training and education, making AETC the most appropriate choice.

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  • 2. 

    The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?

    • A.

      Any 7-level course

    • B.

      Weight and Balance

    • C.

      Maintenance Orientation

    • D.

      General Technical Order System

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance Orientation
    Explanation
    The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Orientation course. This course provides an introduction to the maintenance field and covers topics such as safety procedures, organizational structure, and basic maintenance principles. The block training method involves grouping related topics together and delivering them in a concentrated format, allowing for efficient and effective learning. This method is particularly suitable for courses like Maintenance Orientation that require a broad overview of the subject matter.

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  • 3. 

    How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (SCR)?

    • A.

      Annually

    • B.

      Semi-annually

    • C.

      Quarterly

    • D.

      Monthly

    Correct Answer
    B. Semi-annually
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent must review and sign the special certification roster (SCR) semi-annually. This means that they need to review and sign the roster twice a year. This frequency ensures that the officer/superintendent stays updated on the certifications of the maintenance personnel and can make any necessary adjustments or updates as needed. Reviewing and signing the SCR semi-annually helps maintain the accuracy and validity of the certifications within the maintenance department.

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  • 4. 

    In order to be given authority to downgrade a “Red-X” an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of

    • A.

      TSgt

    • B.

      MSgt

    • C.

      SMSgt

    • D.

      CMSgt

    Correct Answer
    B. MSgt
    Explanation
    To be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of MSgt (Master Sergeant). This means that only individuals who have reached the rank of Master Sergeant and have received approval from the MGX/CC can have the authority to downgrade a "Red-X."

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  • 5. 

    Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time

    • A.

      Access to Distance Learning courseware.

    • B.

      Access to special certification roster criteria listings.

    • C.

      Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide.

    • D.

      Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel.

    Correct Answer
    D. Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel.
    Explanation
    The Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with visibility of their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that individuals can easily access information about their own qualifications, certifications, and training progress. This allows personnel to track their own development and ensure they meet the necessary requirements for their roles. It also enables supervisors and managers to have a clear understanding of their team's skills and training needs. By providing this visibility, TBA helps to ensure that personnel are properly trained and qualified for their responsibilities.

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  • 6. 

    In the Training Business Area (TBA), what type of notification does the “System Messages” board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information?

    • A.

      Open suspenses

    • B.

      System upgrades

    • C.

      Application problems

    • D.

      Changes to your user roles

    Correct Answer
    C. Application problems
    Explanation
    The "System Messages" board provides notifications about application problems in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information. This means that if there are any issues or glitches with the system, users will be notified through the "System Messages" board.

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  • 7. 

    What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      II

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    B. II
    Explanation
    The correct answer is II. The four sub-phases mentioned in the question (multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training) are part of training phase II.

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  • 8. 

    What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses?

    • A.

      Maintenance qualification.

    • B.

      Maintenance refresher.

    • C.

      On-the-job

    • D.

      Ancillary

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance qualification.
    Explanation
    Continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses. This type of training focuses on maintaining and enhancing the skills and knowledge of maintenance personnel. It helps them stay up-to-date with the latest techniques and technologies in their field, ensuring that they are qualified to perform their duties effectively. Therefore, the correct answer is Maintenance qualification.

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  • 9. 

    How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?

    • A.

      Monthly

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Semiannually

    • D.

      Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This means that the MXG/CC receives updates and information about the training progress and status of the maintenance training flight every month. This regular briefing allows the MXG/CC to stay informed and make any necessary adjustments or decisions regarding the training program.

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  • 10. 

    An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      45

    • D.

      60

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
    Explanation
    If an individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed 30 days after returning before decertification is required. This means that they have a grace period of 30 days to complete the recertification after they have returned from their TDY, leave, or incapacitation. After the 30-day period, if the recertification is not completed, the individual will be decertified.

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  • 11. 

    Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?

    • A.

      Operations officer.

    • B.

      Group commander.

    • C.

      Unit training manager.

    • D.

      Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief.

    Correct Answer
    C. Unit training manager.
    Explanation
    The unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC). This is because the unit training manager oversees the training and development of personnel within the unit, and it is their role to ensure that the trainee and their supervisor are aligned on the goals and expectations of the CDC. The operations officer, group commander, and maintenance training flight commander may have other responsibilities related to training and development, but the specific task of conducting the interview falls under the purview of the unit training manager.

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  • 12. 

    Manpower authorizations are

    • A.

      Funded.

    • B.

      Unfunded.

    • C.

      Unvalidated.

    • D.

      Both funded and unfunded.

    Correct Answer
    A. Funded.
    Explanation
    Manpower authorizations are funded means that the necessary resources and budget have been allocated to support the authorized positions. This implies that the organization has the financial means to hire and maintain the required workforce. It ensures that there is adequate funding available to cover salaries, benefits, and other operational costs associated with the authorized positions.

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  • 13. 

    A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held

    • A.

      Weekly.

    • B.

      Monthly.

    • C.

      Quarterly.

    • D.

      Semiannually.

    Correct Answer
    B. Monthly.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is monthly because holding a meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) on a monthly basis allows for regular updates and discussions on staffing concerns. This frequency ensures that any issues or changes in personnel can be addressed in a timely manner and appropriate actions can be taken. Holding the meeting weekly might be too frequent and may not allow enough time for significant updates, while holding it quarterly or semiannually might be too infrequent and could lead to delays in addressing staffing problems.

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  • 14. 

    The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is

    • A.

      12 hours.

    • B.

      13 hours.

    • C.

      14 hours.

    • D.

      15 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 hours.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 12 hours. The maximum continuous duty time that can be scheduled for workers without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is 12 hours. This means that workers can work for a maximum of 12 hours straight without needing any special permission.

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  • 15. 

    Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to

    • A.

      14 hours.

    • B.

      15 hours.

    • C.

      16 hours.

    • D.

      18 hours.

    Correct Answer
    C. 16 hours.
    Explanation
    Maintenance group commanders have the authority to approve exceeding a 12-hour shift up to a maximum of 16 hours. This means that if there are exceptional circumstances or urgent maintenance tasks that require additional time, the commander can authorize the personnel to work for up to 16 hours in a single shift. However, any shift exceeding this limit would require further approval or justification.

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  • 16. 

    Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

    • A.

      Maintenance supply liaison.

    • B.

      Maintenance supply support.

    • C.

      Maintenance operations center.

    • D.

      Maintenance data system analysis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance supply liaison.
    Explanation
    The maintenance supply liaison is typically responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a point of contact between maintenance and supply operations, ensuring that necessary supplies are available and addressing any issues that may arise. This role involves coordinating with various departments and personnel to ensure smooth supply operations and timely resolution of supply-related problems.

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  • 17. 

    Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the

    • A.

      Maintenance Squadron (MXS).

    • B.

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).

    • C.

      Aircraft Maintenance Squadron (AMXS).

    • D.

      Maintenance Operations Squadron (MOS).

    Correct Answer
    B. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).
    Explanation
    Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). The LRS is responsible for managing logistics operations, including supply chain management, transportation, and distribution. As liaison personnel, their role is to facilitate communication and coordination between the maintenance squadron and the LRS, ensuring that the necessary supplies and support are available for maintenance activities. This direct reporting relationship allows for efficient communication and decision-making within the logistics chain.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?

    • A.

      Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions.

    • B.

      Advising supervisors on supply management documents.

    • C.

      Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list.

    • D.

      Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.

    Correct Answer
    D. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.
    Explanation
    The duty of collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty. The other options, such as monitoring the status of back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list, are all tasks that a Maintenance Supply Liaison would typically be responsible for. However, collecting and turning in assets, particularly those that are expendable, excess, and surplus, would likely fall under the purview of a different role or department.

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  • 19. 

    The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base’s Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      45

    • D.

      60

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
    Explanation
    After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account.

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  • 20. 

    Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?

    • A.

      XF3

    • B.

      XD2

    • C.

      XD1

    • D.

      XB3

    Correct Answer
    D. XB3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is XB3. The XB3 code indicates that the asset is expendable, meaning it is expected to be used up or consumed during normal operations. This code also indicates that the asset is recoverable, meaning it can be repaired or reconditioned for reuse. Lastly, the asset is not reparable, as indicated by the absence of the "R" code. Therefore, before an asset can be placed in bench stock, it must have the XB3 ERRC code assigned to it.

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  • 21. 

    The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?

    • A.

      30

    • B.

      60

    • C.

      90

    • D.

      120

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels that provide a 30-day supply. This means that the inventory of bench stock assets should be sufficient to cover the organization's needs for a period of 30 days. By maintaining this level of supply, the organization can ensure that it has enough stock on hand to meet its operational requirements without excessive surplus or shortages.

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  • 22. 

    Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    B. II
    Explanation
    Shelf life items that are still serviceable can be inspected and re-marked with a new expiration date. This means that if the item is still in good condition and meets all the necessary requirements, it can be given a new expiration date to extend its usability. This is applicable to type II items.

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  • 23. 

    Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?

    • A.

      MXG Commander.

    • B.

      MXG Superintendent.

    • C.

      MXG Deputy Commander.

    • D.

      Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements. They oversee the operations and maintenance activities of the squadron, including coordinating with other units and ensuring that resources and personnel are available to meet manufacturing needs. The MX SUPT plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth functioning of the maintenance group and meeting local manufacture requirements.

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  • 24. 

    What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?

    • A.

      Audio Visual Center.

    • B.

      Engineering Data Service Center.

    • C.

      AF Primary Standards Laboratory.

    • D.

      Communication and Information System.

    Correct Answer
    B. Engineering Data Service Center.
    Explanation
    The Engineering Data Service Center acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for storing and organizing these important documents and information. The other options listed, such as the Audio Visual Center, AF Primary Standards Laboratory, and Communication and Information System, do not specifically mention their role in storing engineering drawings and data, making the Engineering Data Service Center the most suitable answer.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

    • A.

      Oil sheen on standing water.

    • B.

      Stressed vegetation.

    • C.

      Stains on ground.

    • D.

      Cloudy water.

    Correct Answer
    D. Cloudy water.
    Explanation
    Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by natural factors such as sediment or minerals in the water. While pollution can cause water to become cloudy, it is not always the sole cause. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more commonly associated with pollution and can be clearer indicators of environmental contamination.

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  • 26. 

    Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?

    • A.

      Operations officer.

    • B.

      Section supervisor.

    • C.

      Squadron commander.

    • D.

      Squadron safety monitor.

    Correct Answer
    B. Section supervisor.
    Explanation
    The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. This is because the section supervisor has direct oversight of the personnel in their section and is in the best position to understand the specific hazards and training needs of their team. The operations officer, squadron commander, and squadron safety monitor may have overall responsibility for safety and training, but the section supervisor is the one who is directly responsible for developing the HAZCOM training plan for their specific workcenter.

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  • 27. 

    Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?

    • A.

      AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag.

    • B.

      DD Form 1574, Serviceable Tag-Material.

    • C.

      DD Form 1577–1, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag-Material.

    • D.

      DD Form 1577–2, Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag.

    Correct Answer
    A. AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag.
  • 28. 

    Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

    • A.

      Section supervisor.

    • B.

      Squadron Commander.

    • C.

      Flight Commander/Chief.

    • D.

      Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).

    Correct Answer
    B. Squadron Commander.
    Explanation
    The Squadron Commander must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This is because the equipment account custodian is responsible for managing and overseeing the equipment inventory within the squadron. The Squadron Commander, as the highest-ranking officer within the squadron, has the authority to make this appointment and ensure that the equipment is properly accounted for and maintained.

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  • 29. 

    What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      III

    • C.

      IIB

    • D.

      IIA

    Correct Answer
    C. IIB
    Explanation
    An individual must receive Block IIB of supply training before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor.

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  • 30. 

    What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?

    • A.

      AF IMT 453, Report of Survey Register.

    • B.

      AF IMT 1185, Statement of Record Data.

    • C.

      DD Form 362, Statement of Charges/Cash Collection Voucher.

    • D.

      DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss.

    Correct Answer
    D. DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss. This form is used to document all reports of surveys (ROS). It is specifically designed for investigating property loss and determining financial liability. The form helps in recording details of the investigation, including the circumstances of the loss, the responsible party, and the amount of financial liability. It is an essential document for tracking and resolving property loss incidents.

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  • 31. 

    Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?

    • A.

      Flight Service Center (FSC).

    • B.

      Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).

    • C.

      Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO).

    • D.

      Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO).

    Correct Answer
    B. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).
    Explanation
    The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use detail records. This office is specifically designated to handle the coordination and oversight of these assets, ensuring that they are properly accounted for and maintained. The other options, such as the Flight Service Center (FSC), Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO), and Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO), do not have the same level of responsibility for SPRAM assets.

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  • 32. 

    Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?

    • A.

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander.

    • B.

      Maintenance Group (MXG) deputy commander.

    • C.

      Mission Support Group (MSG) commander.

    • D.

      Maintenance Group (MXG) commander.

    Correct Answer
    C. Mission Support Group (MSG) commander.
    Explanation
    The Mission Support Group (MSG) commander is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians. This indicates that the MSG commander has the authority and accountability to ensure that these requests are properly reviewed and approved. The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander, Maintenance Group (MXG) deputy commander, and MXG commander may have other responsibilities within their respective roles, but they are not specifically mentioned as being responsible for reviewing SPRAM authorizations.

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  • 33. 

    Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      C

    • C.

      G

    • D.

      P

    Correct Answer
    B. C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C. The PMIC code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This code is used to classify and identify items that have multiple precious metals in their composition.

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  • 34. 

    Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

    • A.

      D18, Priority Monitor Report.

    • B.

      D04, Daily Document Register.

    • C.

      M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.

    • D.

      D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.

    Correct Answer
    B. D04, Daily Document Register.
    Explanation
    The Daily Document Register (D04) is the supply tracking document that provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. This document keeps a record of all the documents processed, including their numbers, ensuring that all transactions are properly tracked and accounted for. The other options listed do not specifically mention tracking document numbers or providing information on all processed documents.

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  • 35. 

    Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?

    • A.

      D18, Priority Monitor Report.

    • B.

      D04, Daily Document Register.

    • C.

      M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.

    • D.

      D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.

    Correct Answer
    A. D18, Priority Monitor Report.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D18, Priority Monitor Report. This document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. The Priority Monitor Report is used to track the supply of parts and prioritize their delivery based on the urgency of need. It helps ensure that critical parts are prioritized and delivered in a timely manner to minimize any disruptions in operations.

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  • 36. 

    Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?

    • A.

      D18, Priority Monitor Report.

    • B.

      D04, Daily Document Register.

    • C.

      M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.

    • D.

      D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.

    Correct Answer
    C. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
    Explanation
    The Organization Effectiveness Report (M-24) is the correct answer because it provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support. This report helps track the effectiveness of the organization's supply support by monitoring the issue and availability of supplies in the bench stock. It provides valuable information for management to assess the efficiency and effectiveness of the supply chain and make necessary improvements if needed.

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  • 37. 

    Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?

    • A.

      Aircraft commander.

    • B.

      Host installation commander.

    • C.

      Operations Group Commander.

    • D.

      Mission Support Group commander.

    Correct Answer
    B. Host installation commander.
    Explanation
    The host installation commander is responsible for authorizing the temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms. This individual holds the authority and oversight to ensure the proper handling and security measures are in place for classified material at the host installation. The other options, such as the aircraft commander, operations group commander, and mission support group commander, may have their own responsibilities and authorities but do not specifically pertain to the authorization of temporary storage of in-transit classified material.

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  • 38. 

    When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every

    • A.

      Hour.

    • B.

      2 hours.

    • C.

      3 hours.

    • D.

      4 hours.

    Correct Answer
    C. 3 hours.
    Explanation
    When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft that has secret or confidential equipment installed, security checks need to be conducted regularly to ensure the safety and integrity of the equipment. These checks are necessary to prevent unauthorized access or tampering. Conducting security checks every 3 hours allows for timely detection of any potential security breaches and ensures that the equipment remains secure during the owner/user's absence.

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  • 39. 

    Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit’s list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?

    • A.

      Flight commander/Chief.

    • B.

      Maintenance Group commander.

    • C.

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.

    • D.

      MX Operations Officer (MOO)/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT).

    Correct Answer
    C. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.
    Explanation
    The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. This individual is responsible for ensuring that all supply assets are properly maintained and meet the necessary requirements for operational readiness. They have the authority to review and approve any changes or updates to the list, ensuring that all assets are accounted for and in proper working order. The Flight commander/Chief, Maintenance Group commander, and MX Operations Officer (MOO)/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT) may have oversight and input, but the final decision lies with the LRS Chief Inspector.

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  • 40. 

    Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request?

    • A.

      Customer.

    • B.

      Maintenance Supply support.

    • C.

      Maintenance Supply Liaison.

    • D.

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Customer Service.

    Correct Answer
    A. Customer.
    Explanation
    The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request. As the one who needs the parts, the customer is in the best position to assess the urgency of the request and prioritize it accordingly. The customer's input helps the maintenance supply support, maintenance supply liaison, and logistics readiness squadron customer service to efficiently allocate resources and fulfill the request in a timely manner.

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  • 41. 

    Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?

    • A.

      1A or JA.

    • B.

      AR or BR.

    • C.

      AA or AM.

    • D.

      BM or CM.

    Correct Answer
    B. AR or BR.
    Explanation
    The urgency justification codes (UJCs) AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare. These UJCs indicate that the repair is urgent and needs to be done as soon as possible.

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  • 42. 

    Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must Maintenance coordinate with?

    • A.

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Flight Service Center.

    • B.

      Maintenance Group (MXG) Quality Assurance.

    • C.

      MXG Maintenance Data System Analysis.

    • D.

      LRS material management element.

    Correct Answer
    D. LRS material management element.
    Explanation
    Maintenance must coordinate with the LRS material management element before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area. The LRS material management element is responsible for managing and distributing materials and supplies within the logistics readiness squadron. They have the necessary knowledge and resources to ensure that the supply point is properly established and stocked with the required materials.

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  • 43. 

    Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor?

    • A.

      Annually.

    • B.

      Semiannually.

    • C.

      Quarterly.

    • D.

      Monthly.

    Correct Answer
    B. Semiannually.
    Explanation
    Supply point accounts must be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor semiannually, which means twice a year. This ensures that the supply point's records are accurate and up to date. Reconciling the accounts involves comparing the physical inventory with the recorded inventory, identifying any discrepancies, and making necessary adjustments. This regular reconciliation helps in preventing inventory shortages or overages and ensures efficient supply management within the workcenter.

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  • 44. 

    When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the

    • A.

      Operations Officer.

    • B.

      Aircraft Section flight chief.

    • C.

      Maintenance Operations Center (MOC).

    • D.

      Aircraft Maintenance Unit’s (AMU) Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) dedicated scheduler.

    Correct Answer
    D. Aircraft Maintenance Unit’s (AMU) Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) dedicated scheduler.
    Explanation
    When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), the responsibility of notifying the Aircraft Maintenance Unit’s (AMU) Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) dedicated scheduler falls on the supply personnel. The PS&D scheduler is responsible for coordinating and scheduling the maintenance activities for the aircraft, including the replacement of MICAP parts. Therefore, they need to be informed when a MICAP part is issued and placed in the TNB so that they can include it in the maintenance schedule and ensure timely replacement.

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  • 45. 

    When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?

    • A.

      Deficiency Report (DR).

    • B.

      Supply Discrepancy Report.

    • C.

      Maintenance cross-tell report.

    • D.

      Product Quality Deficiency Report.

    Correct Answer
    B. Supply Discrepancy Report.
    Explanation
    When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, a Supply Discrepancy Report is submitted. This report is used to document any discrepancies or issues with the supply chain, such as incorrect or missing items. By submitting a Supply Discrepancy Report, the individual can request a refund or a replacement item to correct the deficiency in the supply.

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  • 46. 

    Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group?

    • A.

      Originator.

    • B.

      Action Point.

    • C.

      Screening Point.

    • D.

      Originating Point.

    Correct Answer
    D. Originating Point.
    Explanation
    The originating point is responsible for the overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group. They are the ones who initiate the process of reporting and managing deficiencies within the organization.

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  • 47. 

    Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization?

    • A.

      Originator.

    • B.

      Action Point.

    • C.

      Screening Point.

    • D.

      Originating Point.

    Correct Answer
    C. Screening Point.
    Explanation
    The screening point acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization. This means that the screening point is responsible for receiving and reviewing the deficiency reports from the support point and then forwarding them to the submitting organization for further action. The screening point plays a crucial role in ensuring effective communication and coordination between these two entities in addressing and resolving any deficiencies identified.

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  • 48. 

    Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within

    • A.

      8 hours.

    • B.

      16 hours.

    • C.

      24 hours.

    • D.

      32 hours.

    Correct Answer
    C. 24 hours.
    Explanation
    Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, it is important to report it promptly to ensure that necessary actions are taken to address the issue. Waiting too long to report the deficiency can lead to delays in resolving the problem and potentially compromising safety. Therefore, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within 24 hours to ensure timely response and resolution.

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  • 49. 

    Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?

    • A.

      Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required.

    • B.

      Assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts.

    • C.

      Advising MXG/CC on TO availability.

    • D.

      Resolving TO availability problems.

    Correct Answer
    A. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required.
    Explanation
    The MXG technical order distribution office (TODO) is responsible for various duties related to technical order distribution. These duties include assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts, advising the MXG/CC on TO availability, and resolving TO availability problems. However, establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required is not a duty typically performed by the MXG TODO.

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  • 50. 

    What Maintenance Operations Flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies?

    • A.

      Maintenance Supply Liaison.

    • B.

      Maintenance Operations Center.

    • C.

      Maintenance Management Analysis.

    • D.

      Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.

    Correct Answer
    D. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.
    Explanation
    The Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies. This section is in charge of planning and scheduling maintenance operations, as well as maintaining proper documentation of all maintenance activities. They are responsible for ensuring that TCTOs are properly documented and managed to ensure the efficiency and effectiveness of maintenance operations.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jun 17, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 12, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    MAFBCMO
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