NCLEX Practice Exam 38 (10 Questions)

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NCLEX Practice Exam 38 (10 Questions) - Quiz

All questions are shown, but the results will only be given after you’ve finished the quiz. You are given 1 minute per question, a total of 10 minutes in this quiz.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A client with diabetes has an order for ultrasonography. Preparation for an ultrasound includes:

    • A.

      Increasing fluid intake

    • B.

      Limiting ambulation

    • C.

      Administering an enema

    • D.

      Withholding food for 8 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. Increasing fluid intake
    Explanation
    Before ultrasonography. the client should be taught to drink plenty of fluids and not void. The client may ambulate. an enema is not needed. and there is no need to withhold food for 8 hours. Therefore. answers B. C. and D are incorrect.

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  • 2. 

    An infant who weighs 8 pounds at birth would be expected to weigh how many pounds at 1 year?

    • A.

      14 pounds

    • B.

      16 pounds

    • C.

      18 pounds

    • D.

      24 pounds

    Correct Answer
    D. 24 pounds
    Explanation
    By 1 year of age. the infant is expected to triple his birth weight. Answers A. B. and C are incorrect because they are too low.

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  • 3. 

    A pregnant client with a history of alcohol addiction is scheduled for a nonstress test. The nonstress test:

    • A.

      Determines the lung maturity of the fetus

    • B.

      Measures the activity of the fetus

    • C.

      Shows the effect of contractions on the fetal heart rate

    • D.

      Measures the neurological well-being of the fetus

    Correct Answer
    B. Measures the activity of the fetus
    Explanation
    A nonstress test is done to evaluate periodic movement of the fetus. It is not done to evaluate lung maturity as in answer A. An oxytocin challenge test shows the effect of contractions on fetal heart rate and a nonstress test does not measure neurological well-being of the fetus. so answers C and D are incorrect.

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  • 4. 

    A full-term male has hypospadias. Which statement describes hypospadias?

    • A.

      The urethral opening is absent.

    • B.

      The urethra opens on the dorsal side of the penis.

    • C.

      The penis is shorter than usual.

    • D.

      The urethral meatus opens on the underside of the penis.

    Correct Answer
    A. The urethral opening is absent.
    Explanation
    Hypospadias is a congenital abnormality in which the urethral meatus is on the underside of the penis.

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  • 5. 

    A gravida 3 para 2 is admitted to the labor unit. Vaginal exam reveals that the client’s cervix is 8 cm dilated. with complete effacement. The priority nursing diagnosis at this time is:

    • A.

      Alteration in coping related to pain

    • B.

      Potential for injury related to precipitate delivery

    • C.

      Alteration in elimination related to anesthesia

    • D.

      Potential for fluid volume deficit related to NPO status

    Correct Answer
    A. Alteration in coping related to pain
    Explanation
    Transition is the time during labor when the client loses concentration due to intense contractions. Potential for injury related to precipitate delivery has nothing to do with the dilation of the cervix. so answer B is incorrect. There is no data to indicate that the client has had anesthesia or fluid volume deficit. making answers C and D incorrect.

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  • 6. 

    The client with varicella will most likely have an order for which category of medication?

    • A.

      Antibiotics

    • B.

      Antipyretics

    • C.

      Antivirals

    • D.

      Anticoagulants

    Correct Answer
    C. Antivirals
    Explanation
    Varicella is chicken pox. This herpes virus is treated with antiviral medications. The client is not treated with antibiotics or anticoagulants as stated in answers A and D. The client might have a fever before the rash appears. but when the rash appears. the temperature is usually gone. so answer B is incorrect.

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  • 7. 

    A client is admitted complaining of chest pain. Which of the following drug orders should the nurse question?

    • A.

      Nitroglycerin

    • B.

      Ampicillin

    • C.

      Propranolol

    • D.

      Verapamil

    Correct Answer
    B. Ampicillin
    Explanation
    Clients with chest pain can be treated with nitroglycerin. a beta blocker such as propranolol. or Verapamil. There is no indication for an antibiotic such as Ampicillin. so answers A. C. and D are incorrect.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following instructions should be included in the teaching for the client with rheumatoid arthritis?

    • A.

      Avoid exercise because it fatigues the joints.

    • B.

      Take prescribed anti-inflammatory medications with meals.

    • C.

      Alternate hot and cold packs to affected joints.

    • D.

      Avoid weight-bearing activity.

    Correct Answer
    B. Take prescribed anti-inflammatory medications with meals.
    Explanation
    Anti-inflammatory drugs should be taken with meals to avoid stomach upset. Answers A. C. and D are incorrect. Clients with rheumatoid arthritis should exercise. but not to the point of pain. Alternating hot and cold is not necessary. especially because warm. moist soaks are more useful in decreasing pain. Weight-bearing activities such as walking are useful but is not the best answer for the stem.

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  • 9. 

    A client with acute pancreatitis is experiencing severe abdominal pain. Which of the following orders should be questioned by the nurse?

    • A.

      Meperidine 100 mg IM q 4 hours PRN pain

    • B.

      Mylanta 30 ccs q 4 hours via NG

    • C.

      Cimetidine 300 mg PO q.i.d.

    • D.

      Morphine 8 mg IM q 4 hours PRN pain

    Correct Answer
    D. Morphine 8 mg IM q 4 hours PRN pain
    Explanation
    Morphine is contraindicated in clients with gallbladder disease and pancreatitis because morphine causes spasms of the Sphincter of Oddi. Meperidine. Mylanta. and Cimetidine are ordered for pancreatitis. making answers A. B. and C incorrect.

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  • 10. 

    The client is admitted to the chemical dependence unit with an order for continuous observation. The nurse is aware that the doctor has ordered continuous observation because:

    • A.

      Hallucinogenic drugs create both stimulant and depressant effects.

    • B.

      Hallucinogenic drugs induce a state of altered perception.

    • C.

      Hallucinogenic drugs produce severe respiratory depression.

    • D.

      Hallucinogenic drugs induce rapid physical dependence.

    Correct Answer
    B. Hallucinogenic drugs induce a state of altered perception.
    Explanation
    Hallucinogenic drugs can cause hallucinations. Continuous observation is ordered to prevent the client from harming himself during withdrawal. Answers A. C. and D are incorrect because hallucinogenic drugs don’t create both stimulant and depressant effects or produce severe respiratory depression. However. they do produce psychological dependence rather than physical dependence.

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