Community Health Nursing Practice Test II

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  • 1/50 Questions

    A process by which vaccines are introduced into the body before infection sets in.

    • Vaccines
    • Immunization
    • Medication
    • Ointment
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About This Quiz

This Community Health Nursing Practice Test II assesses knowledge on vaccines, health care systems, reproductive health, technology in health care, natural immunity, and child labor laws. It's designed for nursing professionals to enhance their understanding and application in community health settings.

Community Health Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    It is a type of immunity in which it is present at birth and is a natural immune response to foreign invaders.

    • Natural immunity

    • Acquired immunity

    • Vaccine

    • Immunization

    Correct Answer
    A. Natural immunity
    Explanation
    Natural immunity refers to the type of immunity that is present at birth and is a natural immune response to foreign invaders. This means that individuals have a certain level of protection against pathogens from the moment they are born. Unlike acquired immunity, which is developed through exposure to pathogens or vaccination, natural immunity is innate and does not require prior exposure. Vaccines and immunization, on the other hand, are methods used to enhance or stimulate the immune system to provide protection against specific diseases. Therefore, the correct answer is natural immunity.

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  • 3. 

    The target population of IMCI is: 

    • Children

    • Adolescents

    • Women

    • Older adult

    Correct Answer
    A. Children
    Explanation
    The target population of IMCI (Integrated Management of Childhood Illness) is children. IMCI is a strategy developed by the World Health Organization (WHO) and UNICEF to improve the health and well-being of children under the age of five. It focuses on the integrated management of common childhood illnesses, such as pneumonia, diarrhea, malaria, and malnutrition. By targeting children, IMCI aims to reduce child mortality and improve overall child health outcomes.

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  • 4. 

    The following are elements of primary health care, except? 

    • Nutrition

    • Paradigm shift as a requirement of PHC

    • Safe water and sanitation

    • Maternal and child health and family planning

    Correct Answer
    A. Paradigm shift as a requirement of PHC
    Explanation
    Primary health care is a comprehensive approach to health care that focuses on providing essential health services to individuals and communities. The elements of primary health care include nutrition, safe water and sanitation, and maternal and child health and family planning. However, a paradigm shift is not an element of primary health care. A paradigm shift refers to a fundamental change in the way something is perceived or understood, and it is not a specific component or requirement of primary health care.

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  • 5. 

    A fully immunized mother has had how many doses of tetanus toxoid? 

    • 1 dose

    • 2 doses

    • 3 doses

    • 5 doses

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 doses
    Explanation
    A fully immunized mother has had 5 doses of tetanus toxoid. This is because a complete tetanus immunization schedule for women includes a total of 5 doses. These doses are typically given at different intervals during pregnancy to provide optimal protection against tetanus for both the mother and the newborn.

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  • 6. 

    Out four time-bound interventions in the Essential New born Care, which does not belong?

    • Immediate and thorough drying

    • Early Skin-to-skin contact

    • Non-separation for early breastfeeding

    • Carry out eye care and immunized procedure

    Correct Answer
    A. Carry out eye care and immunized procedure
    Explanation
    The three interventions mentioned - immediate and thorough drying, early skin-to-skin contact, and non-separation for early breastfeeding - are all related to providing essential care to the newborn immediately after birth. However, carrying out eye care and immunized procedure is not directly related to the immediate care of the newborn. It is important to note that eye care and immunizations are still crucial for the overall health and well-being of the newborn, but they are not considered time-bound interventions in the context of essential newborn care immediately after birth.

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  • 7. 

    It is fundamental to the detection of infectious cases and is recommended for case finding among adults and children who can expectorate. 

    • Throat Swab

    • Chest X-ray

    • Direct Sputum Smear Microscopy

    • TB Skin Test

    Correct Answer
    A. Direct Sputum Smear Microscopy
    Explanation
    Direct Sputum Smear Microscopy is the recommended method for case finding among adults and children who can expectorate. This method is fundamental to the detection of infectious cases. It involves examining a sample of sputum under a microscope to check for the presence of tuberculosis (TB) bacteria. This test is effective in diagnosing TB as it directly detects the bacteria in the respiratory tract. Throat swab, chest X-ray, and TB skin test are not as effective in detecting TB compared to Direct Sputum Smear Microscopy.

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  • 8. 

    There are four Rights of Food Safety. Which does not belong?

    • Right Source

    • Right Preparation

    • Right Manufacturer

    • Right Cooking

    Correct Answer
    A. Right Manufacturer
    Explanation
    The four Rights of Food Safety include Right Source, Right Preparation, Right Cooking, and Right Manufacturer. The first three rights are directly related to the handling and preparation of food, ensuring that it comes from a safe source, is prepared properly, and cooked thoroughly. However, the Right Manufacturer does not directly involve the handling or preparation of food. It refers to the responsibility of food manufacturers to produce safe and high-quality products. Therefore, it does not belong in the same category as the other three rights.

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  • 9. 

    Koplik's spots is a pathognomonic signs of what disease?

    • Measles

    • Hepatitis B

    • Tetanus

    • Diphtheria

    Correct Answer
    A. Measles
    Explanation
    Koplik's spots are small white spots that appear on the inside of the cheeks and are a characteristic sign of measles. These spots are caused by the measles virus and typically appear a few days before the rash associated with measles develops. Koplik's spots are considered pathognomonic, meaning they are unique to measles and are a definitive indicator of the disease. Therefore, the correct answer is measles.

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  • 10. 

    The following are components of FHSIS except:

    • Target Client List

    • Treatment Record

    • Tally Sheet

    • Summary of Data

    Correct Answer
    A. Summary of Data
    Explanation
    The FHSIS (Family Health and Safety Information System) is a system that collects and analyzes data related to family health and safety. The components of FHSIS include the Treatment Record, Tally Sheet, and Target Client List. These components are used to track and monitor the health and safety of families. However, the Summary of Data is not a component of FHSIS. It is likely that the Summary of Data is a report or analysis generated from the data collected in FHSIS, rather than a component of the system itself.

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  • 11. 

    It is the network of health facilities and personnel which carries out the tasks of rendering health care to the people. 

    • Health care system

    • Health care delivery

    • Health system

    • Health care delivery system

    Correct Answer
    A. Health care delivery system
    Explanation
    The answer "Health care delivery system" is the correct option because it accurately describes the network of health facilities and personnel responsible for providing health care to the people. This term encompasses the entire system, including hospitals, clinics, doctors, nurses, and other healthcare professionals, as well as the processes and infrastructure involved in delivering healthcare services to individuals and communities.

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  • 12. 

    Schistosomiasis (Bilharis or snail fever) has long been one of the important tropical diseases in our country. It is caused by blood fluke most common in the Philippines which is the Schistosoma japonicum that is transmitted by a tiny snail (Oncomelania quadrasi) into the host through an opened wound or attachment in the skin until it penetrates. One of the characteristics of this communicable disease is by affecting its host appearing protuberant. Which of the following Signs and symptoms contributes to the protuberant appearance of the host?

    • Spleenomegaly and inflamed liver

    • Full stomach of blood flukes

    • Bloody Stools

    • Anemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Spleenomegaly and inflamed liver
    Explanation
    Schistosomiasis causes the spleen and liver to become enlarged and inflamed, leading to a protuberant appearance of the host. This is because the blood flukes that cause the disease live in these organs and their presence causes inflammation and enlargement. The other options, such as a full stomach of blood flukes, bloody stools, and anemia, do not directly contribute to the protuberant appearance of the host.

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  • 13. 

    Essential Intrapartum and Newborn Care is a simple, cost-effective newborn care intervention that can improve neonatal as well as maternal care and it has an evidence-based intervention that emphasizes; core sequence of actions, performed methodically, organized so that essential time bound interventions are not interrupted and fills a gap for a package of bundled intervention in  a guideline format. Which among the choices is not Ttrue about the 4 Time-bound Interventions of EINC?

    • Immediate Drying of the Neonate

    • Skin to skin contact for 5 minutes uninterrupted

    • Proper cord clamping and cutting

    • Non-separation of the newborn from the mother for early breastfeeding initiation and rooming-in.

    Correct Answer
    A. Skin to skin contact for 5 minutes uninterrupted
    Explanation
    The statement "Skin to skin contact for 5 minutes uninterrupted" is not true about the 4 Time-bound Interventions of EINC. The other three interventions, which are immediate drying of the neonate, proper cord clamping and cutting, and non-separation of the newborn from the mother for early breastfeeding initiation and rooming-in, are all true about the 4 Time-bound Interventions of EINC.

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  • 14. 

    It is a type of Hepatitis which is food borne. 

    • Hepatitis A

    • Hepatitis B

    • Hepatitis C

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatitis A
    Explanation
    Hepatitis A is a type of hepatitis that is primarily transmitted through contaminated food and water. It is caused by the hepatitis A virus and can lead to inflammation of the liver. Hepatitis B and C, on the other hand, are primarily transmitted through blood and other bodily fluids. While all three types of hepatitis can cause liver damage, only hepatitis A is specifically known to be food borne.

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  • 15. 

    NTP Category I patients are:

    • New Pulmonary TB

    • New Extra-pulmonary TB

    • Relapse

    • Treatment After Lost of Follow-up

    Correct Answer
    A. New Pulmonary TB
    Explanation
    NTP Category I patients are classified as those with New Pulmonary TB. This means that they have recently been diagnosed with tuberculosis in their lungs for the first time. This category does not include patients who have had a relapse of the disease, those with new cases of extra-pulmonary TB, or those who are being treated after being lost to follow-up.

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  • 16. 

    Which is not an incentive and benefit of a Barangay Health Worker?

    • Hazard Allowance

    • Subsistence allowance

    • Training and education and career enrichment programs

    • Laundry allowance

    Correct Answer
    A. Laundry allowance
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Laundry allowance. This is not an incentive and benefit of a Barangay Health Worker. The other options mentioned, such as Hazard Allowance, Subsistence allowance, and Training and education and career enrichment programs, are all incentives and benefits that a Barangay Health Worker can receive. However, a laundry allowance is not typically provided as an incentive or benefit for this role.

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  • 17. 

     ________ is the drug of choice for eclampsia. 

    • Dapsone

    • Rifampicin

    • Folic acid

    • Magnesium sulfate

    Correct Answer
    A. Magnesium sulfate
    Explanation
    Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for eclampsia because it has been proven to effectively prevent and treat seizures in pregnant women with eclampsia. It works by relaxing the muscles and reducing nerve excitability, which helps to prevent the occurrence of seizures. Additionally, magnesium sulfate also helps to lower blood pressure and improve blood flow to the placenta, which is beneficial for both the mother and the baby. Other drugs listed, such as Dapsone, Rifampicin, and Folic acid, are not used for the treatment of eclampsia.

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  • 18. 

    A Primary Health Care Worker that is the initial link or the 1st contact of the community. 

    • Village Health Worker

    • Intermediate Level

    • Health Personnel of First-Line Hospitals

    • Either of the three

    Correct Answer
    A. Village Health Worker
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Village Health Worker. This is because a Village Health Worker is the primary health care worker who serves as the initial link or the first contact of the community. They are responsible for providing basic health care services and promoting health awareness in the community. The other options, Intermediate Level and Health Personnel of First-Line Hospitals, do not specifically refer to the role of being the initial link or first contact of the community.

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  • 19. 

    A method developed to ensure treatment compliance to TB patients. 

    • Multi-drug Chemotherapy

    • TB Therapy

    • Directly Observed Treatment Shortcourse

    • Fixed-dose combination

    Correct Answer
    A. Directly Observed Treatment Shortcourse
    Explanation
    Directly Observed Treatment Shortcourse (DOTS) is a method developed to ensure treatment compliance to TB patients. It involves healthcare providers directly observing patients as they take their medication to ensure they complete the full course of treatment. This approach has been proven to be effective in improving treatment outcomes and reducing the risk of drug resistance.

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  • 20. 

    You can get IgA through? 

    • Colostrum

    • Placenta

    • Vaccination

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Colostrum
    Explanation
    Colostrum is the correct answer because it is a thick, yellowish fluid produced by the mammary glands of mammals, including humans, in the first few days after giving birth. It is rich in antibodies, including IgA, which is an immunoglobulin that plays a crucial role in immune defense. Therefore, consuming colostrum can provide IgA to the body. Placenta and vaccination are not sources of IgA, and the option "None of the above" is incorrect as colostrum is a valid source of IgA.

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  • 21. 

    The health care delivery system is divided in 2 sectors. The Public and Private sector. Under the public Sector is the National and Local level where health care is generally given free at the point of service. Which of the following does not belong about the National Level under the Public Sector?

    • DOH is mandated as the leading agency

    • Maintains provincial health teams made up of DOH representatives

    • Has a regional office in every region

    • DOH mandates the Center for Health in a given area especially the private hospitals

    Correct Answer
    A. DOH mandates the Center for Health in a given area especially the private hospitals
    Explanation
    The given answer, "DOH mandates the Center for Health in a given area especially the private hospitals," does not belong about the National Level under the Public Sector because the National Level is responsible for maintaining provincial health teams made up of DOH representatives, and having a regional office in every region. The mandate of the Center for Health in a given area, especially private hospitals, would fall under the jurisdiction of the local level rather than the national level.

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  • 22. 

    What is the code of sanitation?

    • RA 7160

    • PD 856

    • RA 6425

    • PD 996

    Correct Answer
    A. PD 856
    Explanation
    PD 856 is the correct answer because it is the code of sanitation. The other options, RA 7160, RA 6425, and PD 996, are not related to sanitation.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following agent is used to prevent malaria?

    • Dapsone

    • Mebendazole

    • Chloroquine

    • Praziquantel

    Correct Answer
    A. Chloroquine
    Explanation
    Chloroquine is used to prevent malaria. It is an antimalarial drug that works by killing the parasites that cause malaria. It is commonly used in areas where malaria is prevalent to prevent infection in individuals at risk, such as travelers to malaria-endemic regions. Chloroquine is effective against both chloroquine-sensitive and chloroquine-resistant strains of malaria. It is generally well-tolerated and has been used for many years as a prophylactic agent against malaria.

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  • 24. 

    The elements of Fourmula One for Health are the following, except: 

    • Health Education

    • Health Regulation

    • Good Governance

    • Health Financing

    Correct Answer
    A. Health Education
    Explanation
    The elements of Fourmula One for Health include health regulation, good governance, and health financing. However, health education is not included in these elements. Health education is an important component in promoting and improving public health, but it is not specifically mentioned in the Fourmula One for Health framework.

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  • 25. 

    How many times should a nurse monitor the temperature of a vaccine per day? 

    • Only once

    • Twice a day

    • Thrice a day

    • Four times a day

    Correct Answer
    A. Twice a day
    Explanation
    A nurse should monitor the temperature of a vaccine twice a day to ensure its stability and effectiveness. Monitoring the temperature multiple times allows for early detection of any deviations that could potentially compromise the vaccine's quality. By checking the temperature twice a day, the nurse can take necessary actions to maintain the required temperature range and prevent any potential damage to the vaccine.

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  • 26. 

    EPI Mandatory Infant and Children Immunization Act covers children below ___. 

    • 2 years old

    • 3 years old

    • 5 years old

    • 8 years old

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 years old
    Explanation
    The EPI Mandatory Infant and Children Immunization Act covers children below 5 years old. This means that all children who are younger than 5 years old are required by law to receive the specified immunizations outlined in the act.

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  • 27. 

    According to Essential Intrapartum and Newborn Care, the 2nd post-natal visit is at how many days of life?

    • 3

    • 5

    • 7

    • 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 7
    Explanation
    The 2nd post-natal visit is typically scheduled for 7 days after birth, according to Essential Intrapartum and Newborn Care guidelines. This visit allows healthcare professionals to assess the newborn's health, monitor growth and development, and provide necessary care and support to both the baby and the mother.

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  • 28. 

    It has been found that skin to skin contact contributes to a host of medical benefits,which is not:

    • Overall success of breastfeeding/colostrum feeding

    • Enhance thermoregulation

    • Colonization with maternal skin flora

    • Stimulation of the mucosa

    Correct Answer
    A. Stimulation of the mucosa
    Explanation
    Skin to skin contact has been found to have numerous medical benefits, including enhancing thermoregulation, promoting colonization with maternal skin flora, and contributing to the overall success of breastfeeding/colostrum feeding. However, stimulation of the mucosa is not one of the benefits associated with skin to skin contact.

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  • 29. 

    The unit of health system created for local health service management and delivery in the Philippines.

    • Inter Local Health Zone

    • Inter Local Health System

    • Direct Health System

    • Two-way Referral System

    Correct Answer
    A. Inter Local Health Zone
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Inter Local Health Zone. In the Philippines, the Inter Local Health Zone is a unit of the health system that is created for local health service management and delivery. It refers to a geographical area that encompasses several local government units and is responsible for coordinating and implementing health programs and services within that area. This system aims to improve the accessibility, quality, and efficiency of healthcare delivery at the local level.

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  • 30. 

    Promotion of good health and well-being is anchored on UN's Sustainable Development Goal (SGD) number:

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    The promotion of good health and well-being is anchored on UN's Sustainable Development Goal (SGD) number 3. This goal focuses on ensuring healthy lives and promoting well-being for all at all ages. It includes targets such as reducing maternal and child mortality, combating communicable diseases, ensuring access to healthcare services, and promoting mental health. Achieving this goal is crucial for overall development and the well-being of individuals and communities.

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  • 31. 

    Which is not an element of Reproductive Health?

    • Elimination of violence against men and children and other forms of sexual and gender-based violence

    • Education and counseling on sexuality and reproductive health

    • Mental health aspect of reproductive health care

    • Maternal, infant and child health and nutrition, including breastfeeding

    Correct Answer
    A. Elimination of violence against men and children and other forms of sexual and gender-based violence
    Explanation
    The elimination of violence against men and children and other forms of sexual and gender-based violence is not considered an element of reproductive health. Reproductive health primarily focuses on education and counseling on sexuality and reproductive health, the mental health aspect of reproductive health care, and maternal, infant, and child health and nutrition, including breastfeeding. While violence prevention is an important issue, it falls outside the scope of reproductive health.

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  • 32. 

    What is the mission of the Philippine Department of Health?

    • Promotion of health and well-being for every Filipino

    • To guarantee equitable, sustainable and quality health for all Filipinos, especially the poor, and to lead the

    • A global leader for attaining better health outcomes, competitive and responsive health care system, and equitable health financing

    • Provide the direction and national plans for health programs and activities

    Correct Answer
    A. To guarantee equitable, sustainable and quality health for all Filipinos, especially the poor, and to lead the
    Explanation
    Promotion of health and well-being for every Filipino. The mission of the Philippine Department of Health is to ensure that all Filipinos, particularly the poor, have access to fair, sustainable, and high-quality healthcare. They also aim to lead in promoting the overall health and well-being of every Filipino. Additionally, they provide guidance and national plans for health programs and activities in the country.

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  • 33. 

    IMCI main symptoms include the following except:

    • Cough or difficulty of breathing

    • Ear infection

    • Fever

    • Lack of appetite

    Correct Answer
    A. Lack of appetite
    Explanation
    IMCI stands for Integrated Management of Childhood Illness, which is a strategy developed by the World Health Organization and UNICEF to improve the management of common childhood illnesses. The main symptoms of IMCI include cough or difficulty of breathing, ear infection, and fever. Lack of appetite is not typically considered a main symptom of IMCI.

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  • 34. 

    What is the main target of the Millennium Development Goals?

    • Health for all Filipinos

    • Reduce global poverty and hunger

    • Maximize the contributions of other sectors of health

    • Partnership with empowerment of the People

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduce global poverty and hunger
    Explanation
    The main target of the Millennium Development Goals is to reduce global poverty and hunger. This means that the goals aim to address the issues of poverty and hunger on a global scale, with the objective of improving the living conditions and well-being of people around the world. By focusing on reducing poverty and hunger, the Millennium Development Goals aim to create a more equitable and sustainable world for all.

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  • 35. 

    What is the most heat sensitive vaccine?

    • BCG

    • Hepatitis B

    • Tetanus Toxoid

    • Polio vaccine

    Correct Answer
    A. Polio vaccine
    Explanation
    The polio vaccine is the most heat sensitive vaccine because it contains live attenuated (weakened) virus strains that can be easily inactivated by heat. This means that exposure to high temperatures can render the vaccine ineffective, reducing its ability to provide immunity against polio. Therefore, it is crucial to store and transport the polio vaccine at the recommended temperature range to maintain its potency and ensure its effectiveness in preventing polio infection.

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  • 36. 

    The following are principles of EPI, except:

    • Mass approach

    • Supplementary immunization activities

    • Based on epidemiological situation

    • A basic health service

    Correct Answer
    A. Supplementary immunization activities
    Explanation
    Supplementary immunization activities are not a principle of EPI. The EPI (Expanded Program on Immunization) focuses on mass approach, which means reaching a large number of people with immunization services. It is also based on the epidemiological situation, meaning that the vaccination strategy is determined by the prevalence and incidence of diseases in a particular area. Additionally, EPI is considered a basic health service, as it is a fundamental component of primary healthcare. However, supplementary immunization activities are not part of the core principles of EPI.

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  • 37. 

    What is the causative agent of malaria?

    • Anopheles

    • Aeges

    • Poecilius

    • Plasmodium

    Correct Answer
    A. Plasmodium
    Explanation
    Plasmodium is the correct answer because it is the causative agent of malaria. Plasmodium is a parasitic protozoan that is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. Once inside the human body, the Plasmodium parasites multiply in the liver and then infect red blood cells, leading to the symptoms of malaria. Anopheles, Aeges, and Poecilius are not causative agents of malaria and do not play a role in the transmission or development of the disease.

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  • 38. 

    As per PD 651, births and deaths are reported within:

    • 10 days

    • 20 days

    • 30 days

    • Immediately

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 days
    Explanation
    As per PD 651, births and deaths are required to be reported within 30 days. This means that individuals are given a period of one month to report the occurrence of a birth or death. This timeframe allows for the necessary documentation and registration processes to be completed in a timely manner. Reporting within 30 days ensures accurate and up-to-date records of births and deaths, which are important for various administrative, legal, and statistical purposes.

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  • 39. 

    What are the 2 vaccines that are in freeze-dried form? 

    • DPT & Hepa B

    • DPT & MMR

    • OPV & BCG

    • BCG & Measles

    Correct Answer
    A. BCG & Measles
    Explanation
    BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guérin) and Measles vaccines are the two vaccines that are available in freeze-dried form. Freeze-drying is a process that involves removing the water from a substance while it is frozen, resulting in a dry and stable product. This method is used to preserve vaccines and extend their shelf life. BCG is used to protect against tuberculosis, while the Measles vaccine provides immunity against measles.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following are criterions in the determination of the use of appropriate technology? 
    1. Effectiveness and safety
    2. Acceptability
    3. Complexity
    4. Adequacy
    5. Feasibility
    6. Scope of technology

    • I, II, III, VI

    • I, III, IV, V, VI

    • I, II, III, V, VI

    • II, III, V, VI

    Correct Answer
    A. I, II, III, V, VI
    Explanation
    The criteria in the determination of the use of appropriate technology include effectiveness, safety, acceptability, complexity, feasibility, and scope of technology. These criteria ensure that the technology is effective in achieving its intended purpose, safe to use, acceptable to the users, not overly complex, feasible to implement, and suitable for the intended scope of application. Therefore, options I, II, III, V, and VI are the correct answers as they include all the mentioned criteria.

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  • 41. 

    In what country did the Primary Health Care was first introduced? 

    • Philippines

    • USA

    • Russia

    • China

    Correct Answer
    A. Russia
    Explanation
    Primary Health Care was first introduced in Russia.

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  • 42. 

    This Republic Act is authorizing the legacy or donation of all parts of a human body after death?

    • RA 7719

    • RA 7170

    • RA 7875

    • RA 6675

    Correct Answer
    A. RA 7170
    Explanation
    RA 7170 is the correct answer because it is the Republic Act that authorizes the legacy or donation of all parts of a human body after death. The other options (RA 7719, RA 7875, and RA 6675) do not pertain to this specific topic and therefore cannot be the correct answer.

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  • 43. 

    The legal basis of pHC was established in what year?

    • October 14, 1979

    • October 19, 1969

    • October 14, 1969

    • October 19, 1979

    Correct Answer
    A. October 19, 1979
    Explanation
    The legal basis of PHC was established on October 19, 1979.

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  • 44. 

    The study of all factors in man’s physical environment, which may exercise a deleterious effect on his health well-being and survival. 

    • Disease Prevention and Control

    • Environmental Sanitation

    • Environmental Health

    • Environmental Science

    Correct Answer
    A. Environmental Sanitation
    Explanation
    The study of all factors in man's physical environment, which may exercise a deleterious effect on his health well-being and survival, is known as environmental sanitation. This field focuses on identifying and addressing potential hazards in the environment that can negatively impact human health. It involves practices such as waste management, water and air quality control, and ensuring proper hygiene and sanitation measures are in place. By studying and implementing environmental sanitation measures, the aim is to prevent the spread of diseases and promote a healthy living environment for individuals.

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  • 45. 

    It indicates past, chronic, undernutrition:

    • Weight for Age

    • Age for Weight

    • Height for Age

    • Weight for Height

    Correct Answer
    A. Height for Age
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Height for Age. This indicator is used to assess past, chronic, undernutrition. It measures the child's height in relation to their age, indicating whether they have experienced stunted growth due to long-term malnutrition. This indicator helps identify children who have experienced long-term nutrient deficiencies and are at risk for developmental delays and other health issues.

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  • 46. 

    What R.A. declared that all communicable disease shall be reported to the nearest health station?

    • 6758

    • 1082

    • 3573

    • 7160

    Correct Answer
    A. 3573
  • 47. 

    How much percent is the hazard allowance of Public Health Workers if it’s in salary grade 20?

    • A. 5%

    • B. 10 %

    • C. 15%

    • D. 25%

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 5%
    Explanation
    The hazard allowance for Public Health Workers in salary grade 20 is 5%.

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  • 48. 

    It is a focused approach to health reform implementation ensuring that all Filipinos especially the poor received the benefits of health reform.

    • WHO

    • DOH

    • NHIP

    • AHA

    Correct Answer
    A. AHA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AHA. AHA stands for the "All for Health, Towards Health for All" program, which is a focused approach to health reform implementation in the Philippines. It aims to ensure that all Filipinos, especially the poor, receive the benefits of health reform. AHA focuses on improving access to healthcare services, promoting health equity, and strengthening the health system in the country. The program is implemented by the Department of Health (DOH) in collaboration with other stakeholders, including the World Health Organization (WHO) and the National Health Insurance Program (NHIP).

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  • 49. 

    The AHA focused approach to health reform implementation is in the context of:

    • HSRA and F1

    • FOURmula1

    • UHC

    • MDGs

    Correct Answer
    A. HSRA and F1
    Explanation
    The AHA focused approach to health reform implementation is in the context of HSRA and F1. This suggests that the AHA (American Heart Association) is prioritizing the implementation of health reform in relation to the Health Services Research Administration (HSRA) and the Formula 1 (F1) racing industry. This approach may involve utilizing research and data from HSRA to inform and guide health reform initiatives, and potentially collaborating with the F1 industry to promote health and wellness initiatives.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

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  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Sep 22, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Roducado
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