Security Forces 7 Level CDC's Vol. 2
An important part of protecting our country is ensuring the safety of the people, property and resources on every Air Force base. To accomplish this goal, Security personnel undergo some training. Prepare for armed forces and security assessments and interviews with the test below ensured to help you pass. All the best!
- 1.What provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept?
- A.
Security Forces
- B.
Intelligence fusion cell
- C.
Other Air Force members
- D.
AFOSI
- 2.All of the following are guiding principles of the integrated defense concept except...
- A.
Focused logistics
- B.
Full dimensional protection
- C.
Capabilities for dominating mass
- D.
Concept of the full spectrum dominance
- 3.Integrated defense does not require the capability to
- A.
Deny
- B.
Deter
- C.
Delay
- D.
Defuse
- 4.The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary information sources that directly supports the
- A.
MAJCOM commander
- B.
Installation commander
- C.
Defense force commander
- D.
Integrated Defense Working Group
- 5.The loss or disablement of non-nuclear assets that would harm or damage AF effectiveness to project decisive combat power and wage was are identified as
- A.
Conventional weapons
- B.
Mission supports assets
- C.
Power projection assets
- D.
Non-nuclear weapon systems
- 6.What is defined as "organizing installation defense efforts among responsible internal/external agencies to ensure all aspects of integrated defense are accomplished, considered, and compensated for?
- A.
Integrated Defense Plan
- B.
Integrated Defense Concepts
- C.
Integrated Defense Security Systems
- D.
Integrated Defense Risk Management Process
- 7.Integrated Defense Plans (IDP's) are accomplished by Air Reserve and/or Air Guard installations/units
- A.
Only if the installation is a full time reserve/guard installation/unit
- B.
Only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources
- C.
Only if the installation has non protection level resources
- D.
Only during war
- 8.What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive threat classification and assessment and response by SF?
- A.
Physical Barriers
- B.
Night vision device
- C.
Infrared imaging device
- D.
Closed-circuit TV
- 9.A relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as
- A.
A safe area
- B.
A search area
- C.
A denial area
- D.
An exclusion area
- 10.What area should be as far back from the search facility as possible?
- A.
Parking area
- B.
Staging area
- C.
Overwatch
- D.
Search Pit
- 11.In offense, obstacles assist in flank security, limiting enemy counter attack, cut off enemy reinforcement or routes of withdrawal, and
- A.
Separating the enemy from vehicle support when the are using mounted operations
- B.
Channeling the enemy into places where they can more easily be engaged
- C.
Protecting defending units
- D.
Isolating objectives
- 12.The two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are
- A.
Existing and reinforcing
- B.
Disrupting and turning
- C.
Blocking and turning
- D.
Turning and fixing
- 13."To fight and win our nation's wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and spectrum of conflict in support of combatant commanders" is the mission of the
- A.
Army
- B.
AF
- C.
Navy
- D.
Marines
- 14.What is the Navy's largest formation?
- A.
Fleet
- B.
Flotilla
- C.
Task force
- D.
Strike Group
- 15.A Marine Corps platoon is the equivalent to an Air Force
- A.
Squadron
- B.
Group
- C.
Flight
- D.
Wing
- 16.The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is
- A.
Non-state supported
- B.
State supported
- C.
State-organized
- D.
Stated directed
- 17.Generally, specifically trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of
- A.
16-24
- B.
21-28
- C.
23-30
- D.
25-32
- 18.When are terrorist team members brought together for a final rehearsal?
- A.
Never
- B.
One week prior to scheduled attack execution
- C.
Just before departing for the target
- D.
Before executing the attack
- 19.The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
- A.
Arson
- B.
Bombing
- C.
Hijacking
- D.
Assassination
- 20.What term describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests
- A.
Activity
- B.
Intentions
- C.
Operational capability
- D.
Operating environment
- 21.Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity
- A.
Agent activity
- B.
Sympathizers
- C.
Terrorists
- D.
Partisans
- 22.Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small groups and using a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices?
- A.
Agent activity
- B.
Sympathizers
- C.
Terrorists
- D.
Partisans
- 23.Which threat level doctrine stresses the use of battalion size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 km
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
- 24.Which of these is not a force protection effort?
- A.
Deter
- B.
Detect
- C.
Defuse
- D.
Mitigate
- 25.The key to force protection countermeasure planning is
- A.
A classified protection plan
- B.
An offensive force protection plan
- C.
A defensive force protection plan
- D.
Protecting sensitive information
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