Security Forces 7 Level CDC's Vol. 2

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Security Forces Quizzes & Trivia

An important part of protecting our country is ensuring the safety of the people, property and resources on every Air Force base. To accomplish this goal, Security personnel undergo some training. Prepare for armed forces and security assessments and interviews with the test below ensured to help you pass. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept?

    • A.

      Security Forces

    • B.

      Intelligence fusion cell

    • C.

      Other Air Force members

    • D.

      AFOSI

    Correct Answer
    A. Security Forces
    Explanation
    The foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept is provided by the Security Forces. Security Forces play a crucial role in protecting Air Force installations, personnel, and resources. They are responsible for maintaining law and order, conducting patrols, enforcing regulations, and responding to security threats. In the context of the ID concept, Security Forces collaborate with other entities such as intelligence fusion cells, other Air Force members, and AFOSI (Air Force Office of Special Investigations) to ensure a comprehensive and coordinated defense strategy. However, it is the Security Forces that form the core foundation of the ID concept.

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  • 2. 

    All of the following are guiding principles of the integrated defense concept except...

    • A.

      Focused logistics

    • B.

      Full dimensional protection

    • C.

      Capabilities for dominating mass

    • D.

      Concept of the full spectrum dominance

    Correct Answer
    C. Capabilities for dominating mass
    Explanation
    The question asks for the guiding principle that is not a part of the integrated defense concept. The integrated defense concept is a comprehensive approach that includes principles such as focused logistics, full dimensional protection, and the concept of full spectrum dominance. However, "capabilities for dominating mass" is not a guiding principle of the integrated defense concept.

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  • 3. 

    Integrated defense does not require the capability to

    • A.

      Deny

    • B.

      Deter

    • C.

      Delay

    • D.

      Defuse

    Correct Answer
    D. Defuse
    Explanation
    Integrated defense does not require the capability to defuse. Defusing refers to the act of neutralizing or disarming a potential threat or danger. In the context of integrated defense, it is not necessary to have the ability to defuse as it focuses more on denying, deterring, and delaying potential threats. These strategies aim to prevent or discourage attacks rather than directly dealing with the threat itself. Therefore, while denying, deterring, and delaying are important components of integrated defense, the capability to defuse is not required.

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  • 4. 

    The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary information sources that directly supports the

    • A.

      MAJCOM commander

    • B.

      Installation commander

    • C.

      Defense force commander

    • D.

      Integrated Defense Working Group

    Correct Answer
    C. Defense force commander
    Explanation
    The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary information sources that directly support the Defense force commander. This means that the fusion cell provides crucial intelligence and information to the Defense force commander, allowing them to make informed decisions and effectively lead the defense forces. The fusion cell's products are likely to include intelligence reports, analyses, and assessments that are specifically tailored to meet the needs of the Defense force commander. Therefore, the fusion cell plays a critical role in supporting the Defense force commander in their command and control responsibilities.

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  • 5. 

    The loss or disablement of non-nuclear assets that would harm or damage AF effectiveness to project decisive combat power and wage was are identified as

    • A.

      Conventional weapons

    • B.

      Mission supports assets

    • C.

      Power projection assets

    • D.

      Non-nuclear weapon systems

    Correct Answer
    C. Power projection assets
    Explanation
    Power projection assets refer to the military capabilities and resources that enable a country to deploy and sustain forces in a foreign territory. These assets include aircraft carriers, amphibious assault ships, strategic airlifters, and other platforms that can transport and support troops and equipment. The loss or disablement of power projection assets would significantly hinder the Air Force's ability to project decisive combat power and wage war, as it would limit their ability to rapidly deploy forces and maintain a presence in a specific region.

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  • 6. 

    What is defined as "organizing installation defense efforts among responsible internal/external agencies to ensure all aspects of integrated defense are accomplished, considered, and compensated for? 

    • A.

      Integrated Defense Plan

    • B.

      Integrated Defense Concepts

    • C.

      Integrated Defense Security Systems

    • D.

      Integrated Defense Risk Management Process

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrated Defense Plan
    Explanation
    An Integrated Defense Plan is defined as organizing installation defense efforts among responsible internal/external agencies to ensure all aspects of integrated defense are accomplished, considered, and compensated for. This plan involves coordinating and aligning the activities of various agencies involved in defense to create a comprehensive and effective defense strategy for an installation. It ensures that all necessary measures are taken to protect the installation from potential threats and risks.

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  • 7. 

    Integrated Defense Plans (IDP's) are accomplished by Air Reserve and/or Air Guard installations/units

    • A.

      Only if the installation is a full time reserve/guard installation/unit

    • B.

      Only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources

    • C.

      Only if the installation has non protection level resources

    • D.

      Only during war

    Correct Answer
    B. Only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources
    Explanation
    Integrated Defense Plans (IDP's) are only accomplished by Air Reserve and/or Air Guard installations/units that are responsible for protection level resources. This means that these installations have the necessary resources and capabilities to provide defense and protection in the event of a threat or attack. Other installations that do not have protection level resources would not be involved in the implementation of IDP's.

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  • 8. 

    What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive threat classification and assessment and response by SF?

    • A.

      Physical Barriers

    • B.

      Night vision device

    • C.

      Infrared imaging device

    • D.

      Closed-circuit TV

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical Barriers
    Explanation
    Physical barriers can effectively delay intruders because they create obstacles and obstacles that make it difficult for intruders to gain access to a facility or area. These barriers can include fences, walls, gates, and other physical structures that are designed to prevent unauthorized entry. By delaying intruders, physical barriers provide security personnel with more time to assess the threat, classify it, and determine an appropriate response. This allows SF (Security Forces) to effectively manage and neutralize potential threats in a timely manner.

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  • 9. 

    A relatively secure area that allows for  identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as

    • A.

      A safe area

    • B.

      A search area

    • C.

      A denial area

    • D.

      An exclusion area

    Correct Answer
    B. A search area
    Explanation
    A search area is a relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel and vehicles. This suggests that within this area, there are measures in place to verify the identity of individuals and vehicles entering or present in the area. This could include security checks, identification procedures, and monitoring systems to ensure the safety and security of the area.

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  • 10. 

    What area should be as far back from the search facility as possible?

    • A.

      Parking area

    • B.

      Staging area

    • C.

      Overwatch

    • D.

      Search Pit

    Correct Answer
    B. Staging area
    Explanation
    The staging area should be as far back from the search facility as possible. This is because the staging area is the designated location where resources, personnel, and equipment are gathered and prepared before they are deployed to the search facility. By positioning the staging area far back from the search facility, it ensures that there is enough space for the organization and preparation of resources without interfering with the operations and efficiency of the search facility itself.

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  • 11. 

    In offense, obstacles assist in flank security, limiting enemy counter attack, cut off enemy reinforcement or routes of withdrawal, and

    • A.

      Separating the enemy from vehicle support when the are using mounted operations

    • B.

      Channeling the enemy into places where they can more easily be engaged

    • C.

      Protecting defending units

    • D.

      Isolating objectives

    Correct Answer
    D. Isolating objectives
    Explanation
    Obstacles in offense play a crucial role in isolating objectives. By placing obstacles strategically, the attacking force can create a barrier that separates the enemy from their objectives, making it harder for them to defend or reinforce those positions. This isolation weakens the enemy's ability to effectively defend their objectives and allows the attacking force to focus their efforts on capturing or neutralizing them. By isolating objectives, the attacking force can gain a tactical advantage and increase their chances of success in the offensive operation.

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  • 12. 

    The two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are

    • A.

      Existing and reinforcing

    • B.

      Disrupting and turning

    • C.

      Blocking and turning

    • D.

      Turning and fixing

    Correct Answer
    A. Existing and reinforcing
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "existing and reinforcing." When encountering obstacles, there are typically two types that one may come across. Existing obstacles refer to those that are already present and need to be navigated around or overcome. Reinforcing obstacles, on the other hand, are additional barriers that are put in place to further impede progress. Therefore, the answer "existing and reinforcing" accurately describes the two types of obstacles that are commonly encountered.

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  • 13. 

    "To fight and win our nation's wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and spectrum of conflict in support of combatant commanders" is the mission of the

    • A.

      Army

    • B.

      AF

    • C.

      Navy

    • D.

      Marines

    Correct Answer
    A. Army
    Explanation
    The given statement describes the mission of the Army. It states that the Army's purpose is to fight and win the nation's wars by providing prompt and sustained land dominance. This mission encompasses a wide range of military operations and conflicts, and it aims to support combatant commanders. Therefore, the correct answer is Army.

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  • 14. 

    What is the Navy's largest formation?

    • A.

      Fleet

    • B.

      Flotilla

    • C.

      Task force

    • D.

      Strike Group

    Correct Answer
    A. Fleet
    Explanation
    The Navy's largest formation is a fleet. A fleet is a large group of naval vessels, including aircraft carriers, battleships, submarines, and support ships, that are organized and deployed together for a specific mission or operation. Fleets are typically commanded by an admiral and are responsible for conducting naval operations in a specific region or theater of operations. They are capable of projecting power, conducting maritime security operations, and providing support and protection to other military forces.

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  • 15. 

    A Marine Corps platoon is the equivalent to an Air Force

    • A.

      Squadron

    • B.

      Group

    • C.

      Flight

    • D.

      Wing

    Correct Answer
    C. Flight
    Explanation
    A Marine Corps platoon is the equivalent to an Air Force flight. In both the Marine Corps and the Air Force, these terms refer to a small unit of personnel that work together to achieve a specific mission or objective. A platoon in the Marine Corps typically consists of 30-40 Marines, while a flight in the Air Force typically consists of 10-20 personnel. Therefore, the term "flight" is the most appropriate equivalent for a Marine Corps platoon in the Air Force.

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  • 16. 

    The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is 

    • A.

      Non-state supported

    • B.

      State supported

    • C.

      State-organized

    • D.

      Stated directed

    Correct Answer
    B. State supported
    Explanation
    A terrorist group that operates independently but receives support from one or more governments is referred to as "state supported." This means that while the group may not be directly controlled or organized by the governments, it receives assistance, whether it be financial, logistical, or ideological, from them. The support can come in various forms, such as funding, training, or providing safe havens. The term "state supported" acknowledges the indirect involvement of governments in aiding and abetting such terrorist groups.

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  • 17. 

    Generally, specifically trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of 

    • A.

      16-24

    • B.

      21-28

    • C.

      23-30

    • D.

      25-32

    Correct Answer
    C. 23-30
    Explanation
    Terrorist organizations often recruit individuals who possess above-average intelligence to carry out their operations effectively. These individuals are typically young adults between the ages of 23 and 30, as they are considered to be in their prime physical and mental condition. This age range allows terrorists to manipulate and radicalize individuals who are more vulnerable and easily influenced. Additionally, individuals within this age range are often more willing to take risks and have a higher level of physical fitness, making them suitable candidates for carrying out terrorist activities.

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  • 18. 

    When are terrorist team members brought together for a final rehearsal?

    • A.

      Never

    • B.

      One week prior to scheduled attack execution

    • C.

      Just before departing for the target

    • D.

      Before executing the attack

    Correct Answer
    C. Just before departing for the target
    Explanation
    Terrorist team members are brought together for a final rehearsal just before departing for the target. This timing ensures that all members are present and fully prepared for the attack. Rehearsing just before departure allows the team to review their plans, roles, and strategies one last time to ensure a successful execution of the attack. This also minimizes the chance of any last-minute changes or disruptions that may occur if the rehearsal is held too early.

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  • 19. 

    The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is

    • A.

      Arson

    • B.

      Bombing

    • C.

      Hijacking

    • D.

      Assassination

    Correct Answer
    B. Bombing
    Explanation
    Terrorist groups commonly use bombing as a tactic because it allows them to cause mass destruction, instill fear, and attract media attention. Bombings can be carried out in various ways, such as suicide bombings, car bombings, or improvised explosive devices (IEDs). This tactic is effective in causing casualties, damaging infrastructure, and disrupting societies. Bombings also create a sense of insecurity and uncertainty among the public, which is one of the main objectives of terrorist groups.

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  • 20. 

    What term describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests

    • A.

      Activity

    • B.

      Intentions

    • C.

      Operational capability

    • D.

      Operating environment

    Correct Answer
    B. Intentions
    Explanation
    The term that describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests is "Intentions". This refers to the motivation or purpose behind the terrorist attacks, specifically targeting US interests. It indicates the deliberate intent of the terrorists to cause harm or damage to the United States and its assets.

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  • 21. 

    Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity 

    • A.

      Agent activity

    • B.

      Sympathizers

    • C.

      Terrorists

    • D.

      Partisans

    Correct Answer
    B. Sympathizers
    Explanation
    Sympathizers are individuals who support a particular cause or group but may not directly engage in terrorist activities themselves. They may carry out random acts against targets of opportunity as a way to show their support or further the cause indirectly. This type of activity does not involve organized planning or coordination, making it less threatening compared to agent activity, terrorists, or partisans who are more actively involved in carrying out attacks.

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  • 22. 

    Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small groups and using a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices?

    • A.

      Agent activity

    • B.

      Sympathizers

    • C.

      Terrorists

    • D.

      Partisans

    Correct Answer
    C. Terrorists
    Explanation
    Terrorists are defined as individuals or small groups who use a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices. They engage in acts of violence and intimidation to achieve political, religious, or ideological goals.

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  • 23. 

    Which threat level doctrine stresses the use of battalion size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 km

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    C. III
    Explanation
    Threat level doctrine III stresses the use of battalion size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 km. This means that in this threat level doctrine, the emphasis is on using battalion size units (which typically consist of around 500-1,200 soldiers) to carry out helicopter insertions to a distance of 50 km. This suggests that this doctrine considers the use of helicopters and battalion size units as an effective strategy for conducting operations at a significant distance from the base or point of insertion.

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  • 24. 

    Which of these is not  a force protection effort?

    • A.

      Deter

    • B.

      Detect

    • C.

      Defuse

    • D.

      Mitigate

    Correct Answer
    C. Defuse
    Explanation
    Defuse is not a force protection effort because it refers to the act of reducing or eliminating the threat of a potentially explosive situation, rather than actively protecting against it. Deterrence aims to discourage potential threats from taking action, detection involves identifying and recognizing threats, and mitigation involves minimizing the impact of a threat once it has occurred. However, defusing a situation does not involve protecting against a threat, but rather resolving it peacefully.

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  • 25. 

    The key to force protection countermeasure planning is 

    • A.

      A classified protection plan

    • B.

      An offensive force protection plan

    • C.

      A defensive force protection plan

    • D.

      Protecting sensitive information

    Correct Answer
    D. Protecting sensitive information
    Explanation
    The key to force protection countermeasure planning is protecting sensitive information. This is because sensitive information, such as military strategies, tactics, and locations, can be exploited by adversaries to plan attacks or undermine defensive measures. By safeguarding sensitive information, the effectiveness of force protection countermeasures is enhanced, as potential threats are denied access to critical intelligence.

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  • 26. 

    What is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy?

    • A.

      Cover camouflage and deception CCD

    • B.

      Concealing camouflage deceitfully CCD

    • C.

      Deceptive camouflage concealment DCC

    • D.

      Camouflage, concealment, deception CCD

    Correct Answer
    D. Camouflage, concealment, deception CCD
    Explanation
    Camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD) is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy. This involves using various techniques and tactics to hide and blend in with the surrounding environment, deceive the enemy by presenting false information or targets, and conceal one's own forces and assets to make them difficult to detect or target. CCD is an important aspect of military strategy and can greatly enhance the defensive capabilities of a force.

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  • 27. 

    Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature generator t simulate a potential target?

    • A.

      Disguise

    • B.

      Decoy

    • C.

      Blend

    • D.

      Hide

    Correct Answer
    B. Decoy
    Explanation
    A decoy is an object or action that is used to simulate or imitate something else, often with the intention of diverting attention or misleading others. In the context of the question, using a signature generator to simulate a potential target can be seen as a form of decoy, as it creates a false representation of the target to deceive or distract. Therefore, the term "decoy" best fits the description provided in the question.

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  • 28. 

    Rues of engagement (ROE's) are the commanders rules for

    • A.

      Mission requirements

    • B.

      National policy goals

    • C.

      The use of force

    • D.

      Rule of law

    Correct Answer
    C. The use of force
    Explanation
    ROE's refer to the rules set by commanders regarding the use of force. These rules dictate when and how force can be employed in a specific mission or operation. They provide guidelines to military personnel on the appropriate level of force to be used in different situations, ensuring that actions are in line with legal and ethical standards. ROE's help to prevent excessive use of force and promote the safety of both military personnel and civilians involved in the mission.

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  • 29. 

    What considerations does not drive the Rules of Engagement?

    • A.

      Legal

    • B.

      Policy

    • C.

      Military

    • D.

      Civilian

    Correct Answer
    D. Civilian
    Explanation
    The Rules of Engagement are guidelines that dictate when and how military forces can engage in combat. They are primarily driven by legal, policy, and military considerations. Legal considerations ensure that military actions comply with international laws and regulations. Policy considerations align military actions with the overall objectives and strategies of the government. Military considerations focus on the effectiveness and efficiency of military operations. However, civilian considerations do not drive the Rules of Engagement as they are not directly related to the operational decisions made by military forces.

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  • 30. 

    What is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the US and US forces and includes the threat to use force to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of US forces?

    • A.

      Hostile act

    • B.

      Hostile force

    • C.

      Hostile intent

    • D.

      Elements of self defense

    Correct Answer
    C. Hostile intent
    Explanation
    Hostile intent is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the US and US forces, including the threat to use force to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of US forces. It refers to the intention or plan to carry out a hostile act, indicating a clear and immediate danger to the US and its forces. This term encompasses the mental state and purpose behind the potential use of force, highlighting the aggressive nature and potential harm associated with the intent.

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  • 31. 

    The AF unit type code (UTC) library has how many ​posturing  codes?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    C. 6
    Explanation
    The AF unit type code (UTC) library has 6 posturing codes.

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  • 32. 

    When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in the UTC is required, the change is initiated at 

    • A.

      Any level

    • B.

      Unit level

    • C.

      MAJCOM level

    • D.

      Air staff level only

    Correct Answer
    A. Any level
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "any level." This means that a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in the UTC can be initiated at any level within the organization. This gives flexibility and allows for the possibility of change to be initiated by anyone who identifies the need for it, regardless of their position or level of authority.

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  • 33. 

    What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with QFEBB & QFEBS, provides HQ staff support for a medium to large (130-180 personnel) deployed SF unit?

    • A.

      QFEBU

    • B.

      QFEPR

    • C.

      QFEBF

    • D.

      QFEBA

    Correct Answer
    D. QFEBA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is QFEBA. When deployed with QFEBB & QFEBS, QFEBA provides HQ staff support for a medium to large deployed SF unit.

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  • 34. 

    How many phases are there in the deployment process?

    • A.

      Five

    • B.

      Four

    • C.

      Three

    • D.

      Two

    Correct Answer
    B. Four
    Explanation
    The correct answer is four because the question asks about the number of phases in the deployment process and the answer options provide different numbers. Since "four" is the only option that matches the correct answer, it can be concluded that there are four phases in the deployment process.

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  • 35. 

    The process of reception, staging, onward movement and integration begins in which deployment phase 

    • A.

      Deployment

    • B.

      Employment

    • C.

      Re-deployment

    • D.

      Pre-deployment

    Correct Answer
    A. Deployment
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "deployment". In the deployment phase, the process of reception, staging, onward movement, and integration begins. This phase involves the actual movement and positioning of resources, personnel, and equipment to the designated location for their intended use. It is a crucial step in the overall deployment process as it marks the start of the operational activities.

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  • 36. 

    In the deployment process, which of these is the focal point for all base deployments?

    • A.

      Installation deployment readiness cell

    • B.

      Installation personnel readiness team

    • C.

      Installation deployment officer

    • D.

      Unit deployment manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation deployment readiness cell
    Explanation
    The focal point for all base deployments is the installation deployment readiness cell. This cell is responsible for ensuring that all necessary preparations and requirements are met before any deployment takes place. They coordinate with different departments and units to ensure that personnel, equipment, and resources are ready for deployment. Their main objective is to ensure that the installation is fully prepared and capable of supporting any deployment operations.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following is not a readiness reporting tool

    • A.

      Status of resources and training systems (SORTS)

    • B.

      Designed operational capability (DOC) statement

    • C.

      Air expeditionary force reporting tool (ART)

    • D.

      Mission essential task list (METL)

    Correct Answer
    B. Designed operational capability (DOC) statement
    Explanation
    The Designed Operational Capability (DOC) statement is not a readiness reporting tool. Readiness reporting tools are used to assess and report the readiness status of resources and training systems, such as the Status of Resources and Training Systems (SORTS), the Air Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART), and the Mission Essential Task List (METL). The DOC statement, on the other hand, is a document that outlines the desired operational capabilities of a system or equipment. It is not specifically used for readiness reporting purposes.

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  • 38. 

    The status of resources and training systems (SORTS) has how many areas of reporting 

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      7

    • C.

      10

    • D.

      15

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4 because the question asks about the number of areas of reporting in the status of resources and training systems (SORTS). SORTS is a system used by the military to assess the readiness and availability of resources and training. It consists of four main areas of reporting: personnel, equipment, supply, and training. These areas provide a comprehensive overview of the military's readiness and capabilities.

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  • 39. 

    A summary of a unit's mission and resources for which it has been organized, designed, and equipped is known as 

    • A.

      Status of resources and training systems (SORTS)

    • B.

      Designed operational capability (DOC) statement

    • C.

      Air expeditionary force reporting tool (ART)

    • D.

      Mission essential task list

    Correct Answer
    B. Designed operational capability (DOC) statement
    Explanation
    A designed operational capability (DOC) statement is a summary of a unit's mission and the resources it has been organized, designed, and equipped with. It provides an overview of the unit's capabilities and readiness to carry out its assigned tasks. This document outlines the unit's operational readiness and serves as a reference for evaluating its effectiveness and efficiency in meeting its objectives. It helps in assessing the unit's ability to accomplish its mission and provides valuable information for planning and decision-making.

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  • 40. 

    What must security forces ensure is identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate across the AF?

    • A.

      Any deficiencies

    • B.

      Any hazards

    • C.

      Any threats

    • D.

      Any risks

    Correct Answer
    A. Any deficiencies
    Explanation
    Security forces must ensure that any deficiencies are identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate them across the AF. This is important because deficiencies in security measures can leave vulnerabilities that can be exploited by threats or hazards, leading to risks to the organization. Identifying and addressing deficiencies promptly helps to strengthen the overall security posture and minimize potential harm or damage.

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  • 41. 

    At a minimum, how many after action reports (AAR) must be submitted

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Three

    • D.

      Four

    Correct Answer
    B. Two
    Explanation
    At a minimum, two after action reports (AAR) must be submitted. This implies that there could be more than two reports, but at least two reports are required.

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  • 42. 

    The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted how many days prior to the end of a deployment?

    • A.

      45

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      15

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    C. 15
    Explanation
    The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted 15 days prior to the end of a deployment. This allows sufficient time for the report to be reviewed and analyzed before the deployment concludes. Submitting the report earlier ensures that any necessary changes or adjustments can be made in a timely manner to improve future deployments.

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  • 43. 

    The use of electronic control devices is included in what after action report (AAR) incident classification 

    • A.

      Combat arms or training incident

    • B.

      Shooting incident

    • C.

      Security incident

    • D.

      Miscellaneous

    Correct Answer
    D. Miscellaneous
    Explanation
    The use of electronic control devices is included in the miscellaneous category in an after action report (AAR). This category encompasses incidents that do not fit into the other specified classifications such as combat arms or training incident, shooting incident, or security incident. The miscellaneous category is used to capture any other incidents or events that may have occurred during the situation being reported on.

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  • 44. 

    The nuclear roadmap  focuses primarily from the 

    • A.

      Tactical level

    • B.

      Strategic level

    • C.

      Operational level

    • D.

      Administrative level

    Correct Answer
    C. Operational level
    Explanation
    The nuclear roadmap is a plan or strategy that outlines the steps and actions to be taken in the development and use of nuclear technology. The operational level refers to the level at which specific tasks and activities are carried out to implement the strategy. This suggests that the nuclear roadmap primarily focuses on the practical and technical aspects of nuclear operations, such as the deployment, maintenance, and use of nuclear weapons or power plants.

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  • 45. 

    What is essential to our security 

    • A.

      Nuclear operations

    • B.

      Nuclear deterrence

    • C.

      Nuclear restraint

    • D.

      Nuclear survey

    Correct Answer
    B. Nuclear deterrence
    Explanation
    Nuclear deterrence is essential to our security because it refers to the military strategy of using the threat of nuclear weapons to prevent an enemy from attacking. It relies on the belief that the consequences of a nuclear attack would be so devastating that no rational adversary would risk initiating one. Thus, by possessing and maintaining a credible nuclear deterrent, a country can deter potential aggressors and ensure its own security.

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  • 46. 

    The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with

    • A.

      Installation commanders

    • B.

      Combatant commanders

    • C.

      Secretary of defense

    • D.

      The president

    Correct Answer
    B. Combatant commanders
    Explanation
    The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with combatant commanders. This means that the roadmap is designed to coordinate and synchronize nuclear operations and strategies with the combatant commanders, who are responsible for specific geographic regions and military operations. By aligning with combatant commanders, the nuclear roadmap ensures that nuclear capabilities are integrated into overall military planning and objectives, enhancing the effectiveness and coordination of the US nuclear forces.

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  • 47. 

    What is defined as the denial of unauthorized access to nuclear weapons?

    • A.

      Nuclear weapon security standard

    • B.

      Nuclear weapons security principle

    • C.

      Nuclear weapon security program

    • D.

      Two person concept

    Correct Answer
    A. Nuclear weapon security standard
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "nuclear weapon security standard." A nuclear weapon security standard refers to a set of guidelines and protocols that are put in place to prevent unauthorized access to nuclear weapons. These standards ensure that strict measures are implemented to safeguard nuclear weapons and prevent them from falling into the wrong hands. By adhering to these standards, countries can maintain the security and integrity of their nuclear weapons stockpiles.

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  • 48. 

    Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the security program can meet the nuclear weapon security standards (NWSS) under scenarios represented by 

    • A.

      Defense intelligence agency (DIA)

    • B.

      AFGSC

    • C.

      MAJCOM inspector general

    • D.

      DOD inspector general

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense intelligence agency (DIA)
    Explanation
    Inspections and visits primarily focus on evaluating whether the security program can meet the nuclear weapon security standards (NWSS) under various scenarios. Among the options provided, the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) is the most relevant entity to assess the security program's capabilities. The DIA specializes in intelligence and security matters, making them well-equipped to evaluate the program's ability to meet NWSS requirements. The other options, such as AFGSC, MAJCOM Inspector General, and DOD Inspector General, may have different areas of expertise and responsibilities that are not directly related to nuclear weapon security standards.

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  • 49. 

    Active and passive security measures are used to achieve which principle

    • A.

      Deter

    • B.

      Delay

    • C.

      Denial

    • D.

      Detect

    Correct Answer
    B. Delay
    Explanation
    Active and passive security measures are used to achieve the principle of delay. Delaying tactics are implemented to slow down potential threats and intrusions, providing additional time for detection and response. Active measures involve proactive actions such as deploying security personnel or implementing security systems, while passive measures involve physical barriers or obstacles that hinder or delay unauthorized access. By incorporating both active and passive security measures, organizations can effectively delay the progress of attackers, increasing the chances of detection and mitigation.

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  • 50. 

    Who ensures that the host installation meets two-person concept requirements and that no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistic aircraft

    • A.

      Entry control personnel

    • B.

      Non qualified personnel

    • C.

      Non-US personnel

    • D.

      Couriers

    Correct Answer
    D. Couriers
    Explanation
    Couriers ensure that the host installation meets two-person concept requirements and that no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistic aircraft. They are responsible for delivering sensitive materials and documents, and as part of their duties, they ensure that the necessary security protocols are followed, including the two-person concept and the delineation of no-lone zones. Couriers play a crucial role in maintaining the security and integrity of nuclear logistic operations.

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