Security Forces 7 Level CDC's Vol. 2
-
The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
-
Arson
-
Bombing
-
Hijacking
-
Assassination
-
An important part of protecting our country is ensuring the safety of the people, property and resources on every Air Force base. To accomplish this goal, Security personnel undergo some training. Prepare for armed forces and security assessments and interviews with the test below ensured to help you pass. All the best!
Quiz Preview
- 2.
Which of the following injuries is not considered grievous bodily harm
-
Deep cuts
-
Bloody nose
-
Fractured bones
-
Damaged internal organs
Correct Answer
A. Bloody noseExplanation
A bloody nose is not considered grievous bodily harm because it is a common and minor injury that does not cause significant or lasting damage to the body. While deep cuts, fractured bones, and damaged internal organs can all be classified as grievous bodily harm because they have the potential to cause serious harm or even death, a bloody nose is generally not considered to be in the same category.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
What effect, if any, would allowing objects to be touched, stains to be walked on, or footprints or tire marks to be to be destroyed at a crime scene?
-
It would have no effect as long as the investigator was informed
-
It would cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime
-
It would be beneficial to have all evidence collected and placed in a central location
-
It would have no effect, allow the crime scene to be investigated quicker, and a suspect found faster
Correct Answer
A. It would cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crimeExplanation
Allowing objects to be touched, stains to be walked on, or footprints or tire marks to be destroyed at a crime scene would cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime. This is because the destruction or alteration of evidence can lead to the loss of crucial information that could have been used to accurately analyze and understand the crime. Without intact evidence, the investigator may make incorrect assumptions or draw incorrect conclusions, leading to a flawed investigation and potential wrongful accusations.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
Why is it a good procedure to have a patrolman not involved in the preliminary investigation search the scene?
-
It allows for additional flight members to gain experience
-
It provides a great training environment as it adds realism to the training
-
It will bring fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses or suspects
-
It could possibly destroy your hard work , contaminate the crime scene and violate the chain of evidence requirements
Correct Answer
A. It will bring fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses or suspectsExplanation
Having a patrolman not involved in the preliminary investigation search the scene is a good procedure because it brings fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects. This ensures that the patrolman can observe and document any evidence or details that may have been missed or overlooked by those directly involved in the investigation. It helps to maintain the integrity of the crime scene and prevents any potential contamination or violation of the chain of evidence requirements.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive threat classification and assessment and response by SF?
-
Physical Barriers
-
Night vision device
-
Infrared imaging device
-
Closed-circuit TV
Correct Answer
A. Physical BarriersExplanation
Physical barriers can effectively delay intruders because they create obstacles and obstacles that make it difficult for intruders to gain access to a facility or area. These barriers can include fences, walls, gates, and other physical structures that are designed to prevent unauthorized entry. By delaying intruders, physical barriers provide security personnel with more time to assess the threat, classify it, and determine an appropriate response. This allows SF (Security Forces) to effectively manage and neutralize potential threats in a timely manner.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
"To fight and win our nation's wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and spectrum of conflict in support of combatant commanders" is the mission of the
-
Army
-
AF
-
Navy
-
Marines
Correct Answer
A. ArmyExplanation
The given statement describes the mission of the Army. It states that the Army's purpose is to fight and win the nation's wars by providing prompt and sustained land dominance. This mission encompasses a wide range of military operations and conflicts, and it aims to support combatant commanders. Therefore, the correct answer is Army.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
Range is given in what unit of measuremnet
-
Feet
-
Yards
-
Meters
-
Kilometers
Correct Answer
A. MetersExplanation
The range is given in meters because meters are commonly used as a unit of measurement for distance. Feet, yards, and kilometers are also units of measurement for distance, but meters are the most widely used unit in scientific and everyday contexts. Therefore, it is logical to assume that the range would be given in meters.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
What can assist you as a flight sergeant on keeping flight morale high
-
Post rotations
-
Specialized courses
-
Recognition program
-
Providing time off
Correct Answer
A. Post rotationsExplanation
Post rotations can assist a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high by providing variety and new challenges for the team. By rotating individuals to different positions or tasks, it prevents monotony and boredom, keeping the team engaged and motivated. This also allows individuals to learn new skills and gain different perspectives, fostering personal and professional growth. Additionally, post rotations can help build camaraderie and teamwork as members work closely with different colleagues, strengthening relationships and creating a positive work environment.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips
-
Analysis
-
Feedback
-
Evaluation
-
Cross-fed
Correct Answer
A. FeedbackExplanation
Feedback is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips because it provides them with valuable information about their performance, the effectiveness of their strategies, and the morale of their troops. Feedback allows commanders to make informed decisions, identify areas for improvement, and adjust their tactics accordingly. It helps them understand the needs and concerns of their subordinates, fostering effective communication and collaboration within the command structure. By actively seeking and utilizing feedback, commanders can enhance their leadership skills, optimize their decision-making processes, and ultimately achieve their objectives more efficiently.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
Which of the following is not an alarm response code?
-
Code 1
-
Code 2
-
Code 3
-
Code 4
Correct Answer
A. Code 4Explanation
Code 4 is not an alarm response code because it is not listed as one of the options provided. The question asks for the code that is not an alarm response code, and since code 4 is not included in the list, it is the correct answer.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
What is the benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected
-
It allows photographs to be taken
-
It assists in creating a more realistic diagram of the scene
-
It allows responding patrols to better piece together events
-
It allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found
Correct Answer
A. It allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was foundExplanation
Having a crime scene adequately protected allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found. This is important because it ensures that no evidence is tampered with or contaminated, preserving the integrity of the crime scene. By reviewing the scene in its original state, the investigator can accurately assess and document the evidence, which is crucial for the investigation and potential prosecution of the crime.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
When questioning a juvenile, what actions should you take if you cannot find a parent or they cannot respond in a timely manner
-
Seek defense force commander (DFC) advice
-
Seek area defense council (ADC) advice
-
Seek staff judge advocate (SJA) advice
-
Question them with a witness
Correct Answer
A. Seek staff judge advocate (SJA) adviceExplanation
When questioning a juvenile and unable to find a parent or if they cannot respond in a timely manner, seeking staff judge advocate (SJA) advice is the appropriate action to take. The SJA is a legal advisor who can provide guidance on the legal implications and procedures involved in questioning a juvenile without parental presence. They can help ensure that the questioning is conducted in a legally sound and appropriate manner, protecting the rights and interests of the juvenile.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
What is the Navy's largest formation?
-
Fleet
-
Flotilla
-
Task force
-
Strike Group
Correct Answer
A. FleetExplanation
The Navy's largest formation is a fleet. A fleet is a large group of naval vessels, including aircraft carriers, battleships, submarines, and support ships, that are organized and deployed together for a specific mission or operation. Fleets are typically commanded by an admiral and are responsible for conducting naval operations in a specific region or theater of operations. They are capable of projecting power, conducting maritime security operations, and providing support and protection to other military forces.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
Rues of engagement (ROE's) are the commanders rules for
-
Mission requirements
-
National policy goals
-
The use of force
-
Rule of law
Correct Answer
A. The use of forceExplanation
ROE's refer to the rules set by commanders regarding the use of force. These rules dictate when and how force can be employed in a specific mission or operation. They provide guidelines to military personnel on the appropriate level of force to be used in different situations, ensuring that actions are in line with legal and ethical standards. ROE's help to prevent excessive use of force and promote the safety of both military personnel and civilians involved in the mission.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
In which fire control measures does the leader control the fire
-
Secondary
-
Standoff
-
Indirect
-
Direct
Correct Answer
A. DirectExplanation
In fire control measures, the leader exercises direct control over the fire. This means that the leader is directly involved in managing and extinguishing the fire. They may use firefighting equipment, direct the actions of their team members, or physically engage in firefighting activities themselves. This level of control allows the leader to have immediate influence and make necessary adjustments to effectively combat the fire.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
Supervisors must ensure their troops
-
Have food and water
-
Possess required qualifications and certifications
-
Are supplied with weapons and required equipment
-
Are issued SSIs and study material
Correct Answer
A. Possess required qualifications and certificationsExplanation
The correct answer is "possess required qualifications and certifications." This is because supervisors have the responsibility to ensure that their troops have the necessary qualifications and certifications to perform their duties effectively and safely. This ensures that the troops are competent and capable of carrying out their tasks and responsibilities.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
When possible it is important to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified in order to maintain
-
Proficiency
-
Discipline
-
Fairness
-
Control
Correct Answer
A. ProficiencyExplanation
Rotating personnel through each post they are qualified in ensures that they gain experience and expertise in different areas, leading to proficiency. This practice allows individuals to develop a well-rounded skill set, adapt to different roles, and enhance their overall performance. By regularly rotating personnel, organizations can also identify any gaps in knowledge or skills and provide necessary training or support. This approach promotes continuous learning, growth, and efficiency within the team.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
All permanently assigned SF vehicles must be properly marked means that they
-
All must have SF badges applied to both front doors
-
All must have emergency lights, flood lights, and mobile radios
-
Must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system
-
All must have a cage installed between the front and rear seats to transport a MWD
Correct Answer
A. Must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address systemExplanation
The correct answer is that all permanently assigned SF vehicles must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system. This means that these vehicles need to be equipped with emergency lights and sirens to alert others on the road and a public address system to communicate with the public when necessary. This ensures that the vehicles are properly equipped for emergency situations and can effectively perform their duties.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
Which of these is not considered a target point on a door for entry when using a shotgun
-
Hinges
-
Door knob
-
Locking mechanism
-
Center mass of the door
Correct Answer
A. Center mass of the doorExplanation
The center mass of the door is not considered a target point for entry when using a shotgun. The hinges, door knob, and locking mechanism are all potential target points that can be targeted to gain entry into a door using a shotgun. However, the center mass of the door is not a specific point that is targeted for entry.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
What determines the attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute
-
The nature of the dispute
-
The location of the dispute
-
The responding patrols attitude
-
Whether or not children are present
Correct Answer
A. The responding patrols attitudeExplanation
The attitude of the responding patrols plays a crucial role in determining the attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute. The way the patrols handle the situation, their level of professionalism, and their ability to remain calm and unbiased can greatly influence the behavior and cooperation of the parties involved. If the patrols approach the dispute with a positive and cooperative attitude, it can help defuse tensions and encourage a more amicable resolution. Conversely, if the patrols display a negative or confrontational attitude, it may escalate the situation and hinder cooperation.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a
-
Habitual offender
-
Psychotic offender
-
First time offender
-
Professional offender
Correct Answer
A. Habitual offenderExplanation
An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a habitual offender. This term is used to describe someone who repeatedly engages in criminal behavior without experiencing guilt or remorse. Unlike first time offenders who may feel remorse and learn from their mistakes, habitual offenders continue to commit crimes without any sense of moral responsibility. This behavior pattern suggests a lack of empathy and a disregard for societal norms and laws.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
Which method of movement do you keep your body off the ground and rest on your forearms and lower legs?
-
Rush
-
Low crawl
-
High crawl
-
Spider crawl
Correct Answer
A. High crawlExplanation
The high crawl method of movement involves keeping your body off the ground and resting on your forearms and lower legs. This technique is commonly used in military training and involves moving forward by propelling yourself with your arms and legs while keeping your torso elevated. It allows for faster movement than the low crawl, where the body remains in contact with the ground, and is more suitable for situations that require speed and agility. The spider crawl and rush methods are not relevant to this question.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
The technique the requires great patience is movement with
-
Speed
-
Stealth
-
Purpose
-
Precision
Correct Answer
A. StealthExplanation
Stealth is the correct answer because it refers to the ability to move silently and avoid being detected. This technique requires great patience as it involves being cautious and deliberate in every movement to avoid making any noise or attracting attention. It requires a high level of focus and discipline to maintain stealth, making it a skill that demands patience and careful execution.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
What SSgt or Tsgt duty is available in certain locations?
-
Supervisor
-
Flight Sergeant
-
Response force leader
-
NCOIC/Assistant NCOIC
Correct Answer
A. Flight SergeantExplanation
A Flight Sergeant is a rank in the military that is available in certain locations. This rank is typically held by a Staff Sergeant or Technical Sergeant, and their duty is to supervise and lead a flight or group of personnel. They are responsible for ensuring the smooth operation and coordination of activities within their assigned unit.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
The post priority chart ensures the most efficient use of limited security forces in
-
Higher FPCONs
-
Peacetime and Wartime
-
Peacetime
-
Wartime
Correct Answer
A. Peacetime and WartimeExplanation
The post priority chart is designed to optimize the use of limited security forces in both peacetime and wartime situations. It helps in determining the level of security measures required based on the FPCON (Force Protection Condition) level. By prioritizing posts and allocating resources accordingly, the chart ensures that security forces are deployed efficiently to address potential threats and vulnerabilities in both peacetime and wartime scenarios.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
What should you do if a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance?
-
Issue paperwork
-
Verbally counsel the subordinate
-
Investigate to determine the cause
-
Assign the subordinate a new supervisor
Correct Answer
A. Investigate to determine the causeExplanation
If a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance, it is important to investigate to determine the cause. This is because there could be various reasons behind the substandard performance, such as lack of training, personal issues, or miscommunication. By conducting an investigation, the supervisor can identify the root cause of the problem and take appropriate actions to address it. This may involve providing additional training, counseling the subordinate, or making necessary adjustments to their work environment. Simply issuing paperwork or assigning a new supervisor without understanding the cause may not effectively address the issue.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment
-
Flight member
-
Flight supervisor
-
Flight commander
-
NCOIC supply
Correct Answer
A. Flight memberExplanation
The correct answer is "flight member." In any organization or team, it is the responsibility of all members to maintain the equipment they use. This includes ensuring that it is in good working condition, performing regular maintenance and inspections, and reporting any issues or malfunctions to the appropriate authority. While supervisors, commanders, and NCOIC supply may have oversight and management responsibilities, the ultimate responsibility for maintaining equipment lies with the individuals who use it on a daily basis, in this case, the flight members.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to
-
Measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions
-
Determine that only the highest quality of individual perform duties as installation entry controllers
-
Measure the qualification of individuals and decertify them in specific duty positions
-
Surprise and decertify squadron personnel unprepared for duty
Correct Answer
A. Measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positionsExplanation
The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions. This process ensures that individuals are properly trained and qualified to perform their assigned duties, which helps maintain a high level of competency and effectiveness within the organization. It also helps to ensure that individuals are placed in positions that align with their skills and abilities, ultimately contributing to the overall success of the organization.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
The primary mission of the MWD is to
-
Aggress against, deter and degrade intruders in areas surrounding air force resources
-
Track, detect and aggress against intruders in areas surrounding air force resources
-
Detain, detract and degrade intruders in areas surrounding air force resources
-
Deter, detect, detain intruders in areas surrounding air force resources
Correct Answer
A. Deter, detect, detain intruders in areas surrounding air force resourcesExplanation
The primary mission of the MWD (Military Working Dog) is to deter, detect, and detain intruders in areas surrounding air force resources. This means that the MWD is responsible for preventing and discouraging unauthorized individuals from entering these areas, as well as identifying and apprehending any intruders that do manage to breach the security. By performing these tasks, the MWD helps to maintain the safety and security of air force resources and personnel.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
What is not considered an objective of the victim/witness assistance program (VWAP)
-
Mitigate the physical, psychological, and financial hardships suffered by the victim
-
Ensure best efforts are made to accord victims certain rights
-
Foster cooperation of victims and witnesses
-
Prosecute the accused
Correct Answer
A. Prosecute the accusedExplanation
The victim/witness assistance program (VWAP) aims to mitigate the physical, psychological, and financial hardships suffered by the victim, ensure that victims are accorded certain rights, and foster cooperation of victims and witnesses. However, prosecuting the accused is not considered an objective of the VWAP. The program focuses on supporting and assisting victims and witnesses rather than actively participating in the prosecution process.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
What is the time limit placed on suspect interviews
-
As long as it takes to obtain a confession
-
No more than 30 mins
-
No more than 60 mins
-
There is no time limit
Correct Answer
A. There is no time limitExplanation
The correct answer is "there is no time limit". This means that there is no specific duration set for suspect interviews. The absence of a time limit allows law enforcement officers to conduct interviews for as long as necessary to gather information and evidence, without being restricted by a predetermined timeframe. This flexibility allows for thorough investigations and ensures that all relevant details are obtained from the suspect.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
The AF form 3226 is used for apprehension
-
In a private dwelling
-
During an interview
-
Off the installation
-
In a work center
Correct Answer
A. In a private dwellingExplanation
The AF form 3226 is used for apprehension in a private dwelling. This means that when military personnel need to apprehend someone who is in a private residence, they would use this form. It is important to have a specific form for this situation because apprehending someone in their own home requires different procedures and considerations compared to apprehending them in other locations such as a work center or off the installation.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
Prior to the trial, what aids in recalling all the details of the case?
-
Speaking to the witness
-
Consulting with the defense counsel
-
Arranging and reviewing original notes
-
Returning to the crime scene to recall the events
Correct Answer
A. Arranging and reviewing original notesExplanation
Arranging and reviewing original notes aids in recalling all the details of the case prior to the trial. This is because original notes are likely to contain important information and evidence related to the case. By organizing and reviewing these notes, the person involved in the trial can refresh their memory and ensure that they have a comprehensive understanding of the case. This can help them effectively present and argue their position during the trial.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is
-
Non-state supported
-
State supported
-
State-organized
-
Stated directed
Correct Answer
A. State supportedExplanation
A terrorist group that operates independently but receives support from one or more governments is referred to as "state supported." This means that while the group may not be directly controlled or organized by the governments, it receives assistance, whether it be financial, logistical, or ideological, from them. The support can come in various forms, such as funding, training, or providing safe havens. The term "state supported" acknowledges the indirect involvement of governments in aiding and abetting such terrorist groups.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
Who does the base defense operations center (BDOC) controller filter information up to
-
Flight sergeant
-
Area supervisor
-
Flight commander
-
Operations superintendent
Correct Answer
A. Flight sergeantExplanation
The base defense operations center (BDOC) controller filters information up to the flight sergeant. The flight sergeant is responsible for overseeing the operations and activities within the BDOC. They act as a liaison between the BDOC and higher-ranking officials, ensuring that relevant information is communicated effectively. The flight sergeant plays a crucial role in coordinating and managing the flow of information within the BDOC, making them the appropriate choice for filtering information up to them.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
Who is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person's right to bear a firearm
-
Supervisor
-
Commander
-
Servicing armory
-
Security force manager
Correct Answer
A. CommanderExplanation
The commander is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person's right to bear a firearm. As the highest-ranking officer in charge, the commander has the authority to make decisions regarding the use and possession of firearms within their jurisdiction. They have the power to suspend or revoke an individual's firearm privileges if necessary, in order to ensure the safety and security of the organization or community.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
When making room entry, your weapons should be oriented towards the
-
Threat
-
Fast wall
-
Unknown
-
Strong wall
Correct Answer
A. UnknownExplanation
When making room entry, it is important to keep your weapons oriented towards the "unknown" because you do not know what potential threats may be present in the room. By keeping your weapons oriented towards the unknown, you are prepared to quickly react and respond to any potential threats that may arise. This ensures your safety and the safety of others in the room.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
Excluding homicide, what is perhaps the most serious crime that will be investigated
-
Rape
-
Assault
-
Adultery
-
Child abuse
Correct Answer
A. RapeExplanation
Rape is considered one of the most serious crimes that will be investigated, excluding homicide. It is a violent act that involves non-consensual sexual intercourse or penetration, often resulting in severe physical and psychological trauma for the victim. Rape is a violation of a person's autonomy, dignity, and basic human rights. It is a crime that is taken very seriously by law enforcement agencies and is subject to strict legal consequences.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
Which of the following suspect background facts is of no value to you prior to questioning?
-
Nationality
-
Income
-
Race
-
Age
Correct Answer
A. IncomeExplanation
Income is of no value prior to questioning because it does not provide any relevant information about the suspect's involvement in the situation being investigated. Nationality, race, and age could potentially provide clues or insights into the suspect's potential motives or connections to the crime. However, income is unrelated to criminal behavior and does not impact the investigation process.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
In fire and maneuver operations, most of the maneuvering forces fire support comes from
-
M2s
-
Mk19s
-
Mortars
-
Teams own weapons
Correct Answer
A. Teams own weaponsExplanation
The correct answer is teams own weapons. In fire and maneuver operations, the primary source of fire support for maneuvering forces is their own weapons. This means that the team members rely on their individual firearms, such as rifles or machine guns, to provide covering fire while advancing or maneuvering on the battlefield. This allows the team to suppress the enemy and create opportunities for movement and tactical advantage. Other weapons mentioned, such as m2s, mk19s, and mortars, may also provide fire support but are typically not as readily available or maneuverable as the team's own weapons.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
Who has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF units are throughout the duration of the tour of duty?
-
Flight sergeant
-
Area supervisor
-
Flight commander
-
Base defense operations center (BDOC) controller
Correct Answer
A. Base defense operations center (BDOC) controllerExplanation
The base defense operations center (BDOC) controller has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF units are throughout the duration of the tour of duty. This is because the BDOC controller is responsible for monitoring and coordinating the activities of all security forces units on the base. They are in charge of maintaining situational awareness and ensuring that all SF units are properly deployed and accounted for. The BDOC controller plays a crucial role in ensuring the overall security and effectiveness of the base's defense operations.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
What is the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman
-
M4
-
M24
-
M40
-
M110
Correct Answer
A. M4Explanation
The standard issue weapon for a designated marksman is the M4. This is a commonly used rifle by military forces and is known for its accuracy and versatility. It is lightweight and compact, making it suitable for various combat situations. The M4 is equipped with a scope and other accessories that enhance its effectiveness in long-range engagements, which is essential for a designated marksman.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
What is the most rigorous stage of development?
-
Sra
-
MSgt
-
SSgt & Tsgt
-
Amn-A1c
Correct Answer
A. Amn-A1cExplanation
The most rigorous stage of development is Amn-A1c. This is because Amn-A1c refers to the initial stages of an individual's military career, where they are still in the early stages of their training and development. During this time, they are subjected to intense physical and mental challenges, rigorous training programs, and strict discipline to mold them into capable and competent military personnel. This stage requires a high level of dedication, perseverance, and commitment to successfully complete the training and move on to higher ranks.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
Which of these is not a Sra duty?
-
Patrol leader
-
Squad leader
-
BDOC controller
-
Internal/External SRT leader
Correct Answer
A. Squad leaderExplanation
The correct answer is Squad leader. In the given options, all the other positions mentioned (Patrol leader, BDOC controller, Internal/External SRT leader) are considered as Sra duties, except for the Squad leader. The Squad leader is a leadership position within a squad, which is responsible for leading and coordinating the actions of the squad members. However, it is not specifically categorized as a Sra duty.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
What drives a post priority chart?
-
Vulnerability assessment
-
Inspector general assessment
-
FPCONs
-
Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment
Correct Answer
A. Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessmentExplanation
The post priority chart is driven by the Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment. This assessment helps to identify and prioritize potential risks and vulnerabilities within a defense system. By conducting an IDRMP assessment, organizations can determine the level of risk associated with different areas and allocate resources accordingly. The post priority chart is then created based on the results of this assessment, ensuring that the most critical areas are given the highest priority for action and mitigation.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
Post priority charts are used to
-
Allocate vehicles
-
Allocate manpower
-
Determine post rotations
-
Determine weapon configurations
Correct Answer
A. Allocate manpowerExplanation
Post priority charts are used to allocate manpower. This means that these charts are used to determine the distribution and assignment of personnel to different posts or positions. By using these charts, organizations can effectively manage and allocate their human resources based on the specific needs and priorities of each post. This ensures that the right personnel are assigned to the right tasks and responsibilities, optimizing efficiency and productivity.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
When reviewing material for technical accuracy a concern is that it is
-
Lengthy
-
Made up
-
Irrelevant
-
Inappropriate
Correct Answer
A. IrrelevantExplanation
When reviewing material for technical accuracy, one of the concerns is that it may contain irrelevant information. This means that the content provided may not be directly related to the topic or may not contribute to the understanding of the subject matter. Irrelevant information can confuse readers and make it harder for them to grasp the important concepts. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the material is concise and focused, avoiding any unnecessary or unrelated content.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
What zone established at a weapons of mass destruction (WMD) incident site is also referred to as a restricted zone?
-
Control zone
-
Warm zone
-
Cold zone
-
Hot zone
Correct Answer
A. Hot zoneExplanation
The zone established at a weapons of mass destruction (WMD) incident site that is also referred to as a restricted zone is the hot zone. This area is highly dangerous and contaminated with hazardous materials, requiring strict control and restricted access. It is the area closest to the source of the incident and poses the highest risk to individuals and responders.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
What considerations does not drive the Rules of Engagement?
-
Legal
-
Policy
-
Military
-
Civilian
Correct Answer
A. CivilianExplanation
The Rules of Engagement are guidelines that dictate when and how military forces can engage in combat. They are primarily driven by legal, policy, and military considerations. Legal considerations ensure that military actions comply with international laws and regulations. Policy considerations align military actions with the overall objectives and strategies of the government. Military considerations focus on the effectiveness and efficiency of military operations. However, civilian considerations do not drive the Rules of Engagement as they are not directly related to the operational decisions made by military forces.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jan 21, 2025 +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Jan 21, 2025Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Feb 02, 2017Quiz Created by
Catherine Halcomb
Back to top