Security Forces 7 Level CDC's Vol. 2

186 Questions

Settings
Please wait...
Security Forces Quizzes & Trivia

An important part of protecting our country is ensuring the safety of the people, property and resources on every Air Force base. To accomplish this goal, Security personnel undergo some training. Prepare for armed forces and security assessments and interviews with the test below ensured to help you pass. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept?
    • A. 

      Security Forces

    • B. 

      Intelligence fusion cell

    • C. 

      Other Air Force members

    • D. 

      AFOSI

  • 2. 
    All of the following are guiding principles of the integrated defense concept except...
    • A. 

      Focused logistics

    • B. 

      Full dimensional protection

    • C. 

      Capabilities for dominating mass

    • D. 

      Concept of the full spectrum dominance

  • 3. 
    Integrated defense does not require the capability to
    • A. 

      Deny

    • B. 

      Deter

    • C. 

      Delay

    • D. 

      Defuse

  • 4. 
    The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary information sources that directly supports the
    • A. 

      MAJCOM commander

    • B. 

      Installation commander

    • C. 

      Defense force commander

    • D. 

      Integrated Defense Working Group

  • 5. 
    The loss or disablement of non-nuclear assets that would harm or damage AF effectiveness to project decisive combat power and wage was are identified as
    • A. 

      Conventional weapons

    • B. 

      Mission supports assets

    • C. 

      Power projection assets

    • D. 

      Non-nuclear weapon systems

  • 6. 
    What is defined as "organizing installation defense efforts among responsible internal/external agencies to ensure all aspects of integrated defense are accomplished, considered, and compensated for? 
    • A. 

      Integrated Defense Plan

    • B. 

      Integrated Defense Concepts

    • C. 

      Integrated Defense Security Systems

    • D. 

      Integrated Defense Risk Management Process

  • 7. 
    • A. 

      Only if the installation is a full time reserve/guard installation/unit

    • B. 

      Only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources

    • C. 

      Only if the installation has non protection level resources

    • D. 

      Only during war

  • 8. 
    What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive threat classification and assessment and response by SF?
    • A. 

      Physical Barriers

    • B. 

      Night vision device

    • C. 

      Infrared imaging device

    • D. 

      Closed-circuit TV

  • 9. 
    A relatively secure area that allows for  identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as
    • A. 

      A safe area

    • B. 

      A search area

    • C. 

      A denial area

    • D. 

      An exclusion area

  • 10. 
    What area should be as far back from the search facility as possible?
    • A. 

      Parking area

    • B. 

      Staging area

    • C. 

      Overwatch

    • D. 

      Search Pit

  • 11. 
    In offense, obstacles assist in flank security, limiting enemy counter attack, cut off enemy reinforcement or routes of withdrawal, and
    • A. 

      Separating the enemy from vehicle support when the are using mounted operations

    • B. 

      Channeling the enemy into places where they can more easily be engaged

    • C. 

      Protecting defending units

    • D. 

      Isolating objectives

  • 12. 
    The two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are
    • A. 

      Existing and reinforcing

    • B. 

      Disrupting and turning

    • C. 

      Blocking and turning

    • D. 

      Turning and fixing

  • 13. 
    "To fight and win our nation's wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and spectrum of conflict in support of combatant commanders" is the mission of the
    • A. 

      Army

    • B. 

      AF

    • C. 

      Navy

    • D. 

      Marines

  • 14. 
    What is the Navy's largest formation?
    • A. 

      Fleet

    • B. 

      Flotilla

    • C. 

      Task force

    • D. 

      Strike Group

  • 15. 
    A Marine Corps platoon is the equivalent to an Air Force
    • A. 

      Squadron

    • B. 

      Group

    • C. 

      Flight

    • D. 

      Wing

  • 16. 
    The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is 
    • A. 

      Non-state supported

    • B. 

      State supported

    • C. 

      State-organized

    • D. 

      Stated directed

  • 17. 
    Generally, specifically trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of 
    • A. 

      16-24

    • B. 

      21-28

    • C. 

      23-30

    • D. 

      25-32

  • 18. 
    When are terrorist team members brought together for a final rehearsal?
    • A. 

      Never

    • B. 

      One week prior to scheduled attack execution

    • C. 

      Just before departing for the target

    • D. 

      Before executing the attack

  • 19. 
    The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
    • A. 

      Arson

    • B. 

      Bombing

    • C. 

      Hijacking

    • D. 

      Assassination

  • 20. 
    What term describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests
    • A. 

      Activity

    • B. 

      Intentions

    • C. 

      Operational capability

    • D. 

      Operating environment

  • 21. 
    Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity 
    • A. 

      Agent activity

    • B. 

      Sympathizers

    • C. 

      Terrorists

    • D. 

      Partisans

  • 22. 
    Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small groups and using a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices?
    • A. 

      Agent activity

    • B. 

      Sympathizers

    • C. 

      Terrorists

    • D. 

      Partisans

  • 23. 
    Which threat level doctrine stresses the use of battalion size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 km
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

  • 24. 
    Which of these is not  a force protection effort?
    • A. 

      Deter

    • B. 

      Detect

    • C. 

      Defuse

    • D. 

      Mitigate

  • 25. 
    The key to force protection countermeasure planning is 
    • A. 

      A classified protection plan

    • B. 

      An offensive force protection plan

    • C. 

      A defensive force protection plan

    • D. 

      Protecting sensitive information

  • 26. 
    What is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy?
    • A. 

      Cover camouflage and deception CCD

    • B. 

      Concealing camouflage deceitfully CCD

    • C. 

      Deceptive camouflage concealment DCC

    • D. 

      Camouflage, concealment, deception CCD

  • 27. 
    Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature generator t simulate a potential target?
    • A. 

      Disguise

    • B. 

      Decoy

    • C. 

      Blend

    • D. 

      Hide

  • 28. 
    Rues of engagement (ROE's) are the commanders rules for
    • A. 

      Mission requirements

    • B. 

      National policy goals

    • C. 

      The use of force

    • D. 

      Rule of law

  • 29. 
    What considerations does not drive the Rules of Engagement?
    • A. 

      Legal

    • B. 

      Policy

    • C. 

      Military

    • D. 

      Civilian

  • 30. 
    What is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the US and US forces and includes the threat to use force to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of US forces?
    • A. 

      Hostile act

    • B. 

      Hostile force

    • C. 

      Hostile intent

    • D. 

      Elements of self defense

  • 31. 
    The AF unit type code (UTC) library has how many â€‹posturing  codes?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 32. 
    When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in the UTC is required, the change is initiated at 
    • A. 

      Any level

    • B. 

      Unit level

    • C. 

      MAJCOM level

    • D. 

      Air staff level only

  • 33. 
    What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with QFEBB & QFEBS, provides HQ staff support for a medium to large (130-180 personnel) deployed SF unit?
    • A. 

      QFEBU

    • B. 

      QFEPR

    • C. 

      QFEBF

    • D. 

      QFEBA

  • 34. 
    How many phases are there in the deployment process?
    • A. 

      Five

    • B. 

      Four

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Two

  • 35. 
    The process of reception, staging, onward movement and integration begins in which deployment phase 
    • A. 

      Deployment

    • B. 

      Employment

    • C. 

      Re-deployment

    • D. 

      Pre-deployment

  • 36. 
    In the deployment process, which of these is the focal point for all base deployments?
    • A. 

      Installation deployment readiness cell

    • B. 

      Installation personnel readiness team

    • C. 

      Installation deployment officer

    • D. 

      Unit deployment manager

  • 37. 
    Which of the following is not a readiness reporting tool
    • A. 

      Status of resources and training systems (SORTS)

    • B. 

      Designed operational capability (DOC) statement

    • C. 

      Air expeditionary force reporting tool (ART)

    • D. 

      Mission essential task list (METL)

  • 38. 
    The status of resources and training systems (SORTS) has how many areas of reporting 
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      7

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      15

  • 39. 
    A summary of a unit's mission and resources for which it has been organized, designed, and equipped is known as 
    • A. 

      Status of resources and training systems (SORTS)

    • B. 

      Designed operational capability (DOC) statement

    • C. 

      Air expeditionary force reporting tool (ART)

    • D. 

      Mission essential task list

  • 40. 
    What must security forces ensure is identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate across the AF?
    • A. 

      Any deficiencies

    • B. 

      Any hazards

    • C. 

      Any threats

    • D. 

      Any risks

  • 41. 
    At a minimum, how many after action reports (AAR) must be submitted
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 42. 
    The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted how many days prior to the end of a deployment?
    • A. 

      45

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      5

  • 43. 
    The use of electronic control devices is included in what after action report (AAR) incident classification 
    • A. 

      Combat arms or training incident

    • B. 

      Shooting incident

    • C. 

      Security incident

    • D. 

      Miscellaneous

  • 44. 
    The nuclear roadmap  focuses primarily from the 
    • A. 

      Tactical level

    • B. 

      Strategic level

    • C. 

      Operational level

    • D. 

      Administrative level

  • 45. 
    What is essential to our security 
    • A. 

      Nuclear operations

    • B. 

      Nuclear deterrence

    • C. 

      Nuclear restraint

    • D. 

      Nuclear survey

  • 46. 
    The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with
    • A. 

      Installation commanders

    • B. 

      Combatant commanders

    • C. 

      Secretary of defense

    • D. 

      The president

  • 47. 
    What is defined as the denial of unauthorized access to nuclear weapons?
    • A. 

      Nuclear weapon security standard

    • B. 

      Nuclear weapons security principle

    • C. 

      Nuclear weapon security program

    • D. 

      Two person concept

  • 48. 
    Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the security program can meet the nuclear weapon security standards (NWSS) under scenarios represented by 
    • A. 

      Defense intelligence agency (DIA)

    • B. 

      AFGSC

    • C. 

      MAJCOM inspector general

    • D. 

      DOD inspector general

  • 49. 
    Active and passive security measures are used to achieve which principle
    • A. 

      Deter

    • B. 

      Delay

    • C. 

      Denial

    • D. 

      Detect

  • 50. 
    Who ensures that the host installation meets two-person concept requirements and that no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistic aircraft
    • A. 

      Entry control personnel

    • B. 

      Non qualified personnel

    • C. 

      Non-US personnel

    • D. 

      Couriers

  • 51. 
    • A. 

      Risks

    • B. 

      Tactics

    • C. 

      Planning

    • D. 

      Capabilities

  • 52. 
    How many potential adversary groups are of primary concern in nuclear security 
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      3

  • 53. 
    "A person or group that holds an extreme ideological view, either politically or in support of a specific issue" is the definition of 
    • A. 

      Criminals

    • B. 

      Terrorists

    • C. 

      Protestors

    • D. 

      Insider threats

  • 54. 
    The product resulting from collecting, processing, integrating, evaluating, analyzing and interpreting of available information concerning foreign countries or areas is 
    • A. 

      Vulnerability assessments and likely adversary tactics

    • B. 

      Motivation, objectives, and plausible scenarios

    • C. 

      Counterintelligence

    • D. 

      Intelligence

  • 55. 
    The risk acceptance authority for security deviations is the 
    • A. 

      MAJCOM commander

    • B. 

      Installation commander

    • C. 

      Defense force commander

    • D. 

      Numbered Air Force Commander (NAF)

  • 56. 
    Security deviations are documented on AF form
    • A. 

      116

    • B. 

      321

    • C. 

      590

    • D. 

      2583

  • 57. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring the need for individuals to enter an exclusion area
    • A. 

      Area supervisor

    • B. 

      Entry Controller

    • C. 

      Sole Vouching Authority

    • D. 

      Two-person concept team

  • 58. 
    Upon opening an exclusion area, members requesting entry must have
    • A. 

      Technical knowledge of the task being performed

    • B. 

      A valid reason to be in the exclusion area

    • C. 

      A valid restricted area badge

    • D. 

      A valid entry authority list

  • 59. 
    One escort official can escort how many people into an exclusion area?
    • A. 

      Three

    • B. 

      Six

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      Unlimited

  • 60. 
    If an emergency arises that requires an evacuation and all personnel are not accounted for, there is a possibility of 
    • A. 

      A stay behind threat

    • B. 

      A two person concept violation

    • C. 

      An error on the entry authority list (EAL)

    • D. 

      An incorrect count by the (SVA)

  • 61. 
    How many lines of sensors surround a launch facility (LF)
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Three

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Five

  • 62. 
    Where would you find a weapons security vault?
    • A. 

      Missile field

    • B. 

      Weapon storage areas

    • C. 

      Weapons storage and security systems (WS3)

    • D. 

      Kirtland underground munitions maintenance storage complex(KUMMSC)

  • 63. 
    • A. 

      B-1

    • B. 

      B-2

    • C. 

      B-52

    • D. 

      F-16

  • 64. 
    Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) rehearsals should be conducted within what timeframe of the pre-arrival window?
    • A. 

      48 hours

    • B. 

      36 hours

    • C. 

      24 hours

    • D. 

      12 hours

  • 65. 
    What type of aircraft security is afforded to a Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) carrying nuclear weapons?
    • A. 

      Type IV

    • B. 

      Type III

    • C. 

      Type II

    • D. 

      Type I

  • 66. 
    What is a type II security composition?
    • A. 

      Response force

    • B. 

      Area Supervisor

    • C. 

      Security Response Team

    • D. 

      Cose in sentry (CIS) and close bound sentry (CBS)

  • 67. 
    Who must authenticate for all entry authority lists (EALs) for the Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF)
    • A. 

      Courier only

    • B. 

      Entry controller

    • C. 

      SF representative only

    • D. 

      Courier and SF representative

  • 68. 
    Alert aircraft areas that contain nuclear weapons mated to aircraft delivery systems are designated as
    • A. 

      A limited area

    • B. 

      A restricted area

    • C. 

      An exclusion area

    • D. 

      A two-person concept area

  • 69. 
    The area immediately around an alert aircraft must be 
    • A. 

      No closer than 10 feet and no further than 40 feet

    • B. 

      No closer than 10 feet and no further than 60 feet

    • C. 

      No closer than 20 feet and no further than 40 feet

    • D. 

      No closer than 20 feet and no further than 60 feet

  • 70. 
    When the last tasked aircraft is loaded and placed on alert the generation area becomes 
    • A. 

      A ready alert parking area

    • B. 

      A ready alert maneuver area

    • C. 

      An alert aircraft parking area

    • D. 

      An alert aircraft maneuver area

  • 71. 
    How many types of nuclear movements are there on an installation
    • A. 

      Eight

    • B. 

      Six

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Two

  • 72. 
    Which method of movement do you keep your body off the ground and rest on your forearms and lower legs?
    • A. 

      Rush

    • B. 

      Low crawl

    • C. 

      High crawl

    • D. 

      Spider crawl

  • 73. 
    The technique the requires great patience is movement with
    • A. 

      Speed

    • B. 

      Stealth

    • C. 

      Purpose

    • D. 

      Precision

  • 74. 
    How many categories of patrols are there
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      14

  • 75. 
    Why type of patrol conducts attacks on a position or installation followed by a planned withdrawal
    • A. 

      Raid

    • B. 

      Ambush

    • C. 

      Area reconnaissance

    • D. 

      Zone reconnaissance

  • 76. 
    Who uses are reconnaissance patrols to gather information?
    • A. 

      S2

    • B. 

      Patrol leader

    • C. 

      Squad leader

    • D. 

      Defense Force Commander (DFC)

  • 77. 
    In fire and maneuver operations, most of the maneuvering forces fire support comes from
    • A. 

      M2s

    • B. 

      Mk19s

    • C. 

      Mortars

    • D. 

      Teams own weapons

  • 78. 
    Which movement technique is used when contact with the enemy is not likely and speed is needed
    • A. 

      Bounding overwatch

    • B. 

      Traveling overwatch

    • C. 

      Squad file

    • D. 

      Traveling

  • 79. 
    When moving during limited visibility conditions, dead reckoning is what type of technique?
    • A. 

      Navigation

    • B. 

      Stalking

    • C. 

      Security

    • D. 

      Control

  • 80. 
    Weather and light data is found in which paragraph of the operations order 
    • A. 

      Mission

    • B. 

      Situation

    • C. 

      Execution

    • D. 

      Service and support

  • 81. 
    Which operations order paragraph provides a clear, concise statement of the task to be accomplished?
    • A. 

      Mission

    • B. 

      Situation

    • C. 

      Execution

    • D. 

      Service and support

  • 82. 
    What would not be discussed in the service and support paragraph of the operations order?
    • A. 

      Any type of fire support

    • B. 

      Casualty collection points

    • C. 

      Cache and resupply points

    • D. 

      Materials and supply items

  • 83. 
    Who has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF units are throughout the duration of the tour of duty?
    • A. 

      Flight sergeant

    • B. 

      Area supervisor

    • C. 

      Flight commander

    • D. 

      Base defense operations center (BDOC) controller

  • 84. 
    Due to the nature of the responsibilities, a base defense operations center (BDOC) is considered 
    • A. 

      A limited area

    • B. 

      A restricted area

    • C. 

      A controlled area

    • D. 

      An exclusion area

  • 85. 
    Who does the base defense operations center (BDOC) controller filter information up to 
    • A. 

      Flight sergeant

    • B. 

      Area supervisor

    • C. 

      Flight commander

    • D. 

      Operations superintendent

  • 86. 
    Consolidating reports is a task performed in which tactical operations center (TOC) function
    • A. 

      Analyzing information

    • B. 

      Receiving information

    • C. 

      Distributing information

    • D. 

      Submitting recommendations

  • 87. 
    In which fire control measures does the leader control the fire
    • A. 

      Secondary

    • B. 

      Standoff

    • C. 

      Indirect

    • D. 

      Direct

  • 88. 
    Which firing element has an engagement priority of groups of five or more in the secondary sector
    • A. 

      Machine gun gunners

    • B. 

      M203 grenadiers

    • C. 

      Automatic riflemen

    • D. 

      Riflemen

  • 89. 
    Range is given in what unit of measuremnet
    • A. 

      Feet

    • B. 

      Yards

    • C. 

      Meters

    • D. 

      Kilometers

  • 90. 
    Which of these is not a probable direction of attack
    • A. 

      Ridge

    • B. 

      Draw

    • C. 

      Spur

    • D. 

      Cliff

  • 91. 
    The engagement range of machine guns in the base of fire element is within
    • A. 

      300 meters

    • B. 

      600 meters

    • C. 

      800 meters

    • D. 

      1800 meters

  • 92. 
    By virtue of inherent firepower, machine guns with security detachments effectively achieves all of the following except 
    • A. 

      Delay

    • B. 

      Attack

    • C. 

      Defeat

    • D. 

      Defend

  • 93. 
    What is the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman
    • A. 

      M4

    • B. 

      M24

    • C. 

      M40

    • D. 

      M110

  • 94. 
    Which close precision engagement (CPE) task provides the capability to standoff from a target, asses the situation, and pass timely information 
    • A. 

      Response

    • B. 

      Screening

    • C. 

      Counter sniper

    • D. 

      Reconnaissance

  • 95. 
    Operating openly or covertly as a listening/observation post describes which task of close precision engagement (CPE)
    • A. 

      Response

    • B. 

      Screening

    • C. 

      Counter sniper

    • D. 

      Reconnaissance

  • 96. 
    When must every defender perform shoot, move, and communicate training
    • A. 

      Every 4 months

    • B. 

      Between months 5 and 7

    • C. 

      Between months 8 and 10

    • D. 

      Annually with qualification training

  • 97. 
    When the shooter pivots on the strong side foot to face the threat what tactical movement is being performed 
    • A. 

      Contact let

    • B. 

      Contact rear

    • C. 

      Contact right

    • D. 

      Lateral movement slide step left/right

  • 98. 
    What is the most rigorous stage of development?
    • A. 

      Sra

    • B. 

      MSgt

    • C. 

      SSgt & Tsgt

    • D. 

      Amn-A1c

  • 99. 
    Which of these is not a Sra duty?
    • A. 

      Patrol leader

    • B. 

      Squad leader

    • C. 

      BDOC controller

    • D. 

      Internal/External SRT leader

  • 100. 
    What SSgt or Tsgt duty is available in certain locations?
    • A. 

      Supervisor

    • B. 

      Flight Sergeant

    • C. 

      Response force leader

    • D. 

      NCOIC/Assistant NCOIC

  • 101. 
    What force development level, encompasses the operational or strategic level of leadership
    • A. 

      Msgt

    • B. 

      CMsgt

    • C. 

      SMsgt

    • D. 

      SSgt &Tsgt

  • 102. 
    What type of control is present over assigned or attached forces or commands
    • A. 

      Tactical control

    • B. 

      Strategic control

    • C. 

      Operational control

    • D. 

      Administrative control

  • 103. 
    Which commander exercises operational control
    • A. 

      Squadron commander

    • B. 

      Installation commander

    • C. 

      Joint force commander

    • D. 

      MAJCOM commander

  • 104. 
    Supervisors must ensure their troops
    • A. 

      Have food and water

    • B. 

      Possess required qualifications and certifications

    • C. 

      Are supplied with weapons and required equipment

    • D. 

      Are issued SSIs and study material

  • 105. 
    Who is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule?
    • A. 

      Wing commander

    • B. 

      Squadron commander

    • C. 

      Security forces manager

    • D. 

      Unit deployment manager

  • 106. 
    Post and patrols will be manned in accordance with the
    • A. 

      Duty roster

    • B. 

      Post priority listing

    • C. 

      Unit manning document

    • D. 

      Unit personnel manning roster

  • 107. 
    All of the following commanders may authorize personnel to bear firearms in any foreign country for other than routine law enforcement and security duties, except the
    • A. 

      MAJCOM commander

    • B. 

      MAJCOM vice commander

    • C. 

      Installation commander

    • D. 

      Combatant commander

  • 108. 
    Who is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person's right to bear a firearm
    • A. 

      Supervisor

    • B. 

      Commander

    • C. 

      Servicing armory

    • D. 

      Security force manager

  • 109. 
    How many types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures are there?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 110. 
    What drives a post priority chart?
    • A. 

      Vulnerability assessment

    • B. 

      Inspector general assessment

    • C. 

      FPCONs

    • D. 

      Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment

  • 111. 
    Post priority charts are used to
    • A. 

      Allocate vehicles

    • B. 

      Allocate manpower

    • C. 

      Determine post rotations

    • D. 

      Determine weapon configurations

  • 112. 
    Who has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned?
    • A. 

      Group commander

    • B. 

      Security forces manager

    • C. 

      Defense force commander

    • D. 

      Each individual flight chief

  • 113. 
    The post priority chart ensures the most efficient use of limited security forces in
    • A. 

      Higher FPCONs

    • B. 

      Peacetime and Wartime

    • C. 

      Peacetime

    • D. 

      Wartime

  • 114. 
    When possible it is important to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified in order to maintain
    • A. 

      Proficiency

    • B. 

      Discipline

    • C. 

      Fairness

    • D. 

      Control

  • 115. 
    What can assist you as a flight sergeant on keeping flight morale high
    • A. 

      Post rotations

    • B. 

      Specialized courses

    • C. 

      Recognition program

    • D. 

      Providing time off

  • 116. 
    As a supervisor, what must you instill in each of your subordinates
    • A. 

      Standars

    • B. 

      Discipline

    • C. 

      Work ethic

    • D. 

      Mentorship

  • 117. 
    What should you do if a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance?
    • A. 

      Issue paperwork

    • B. 

      Verbally counsel the subordinate

    • C. 

      Investigate to determine the cause

    • D. 

      Assign the subordinate a new supervisor

  • 118. 
    The next command given after the flight falls in for inspection is
    • A. 

      Report

    • B. 

      Parade rest

    • C. 

      Open ranks march

    • D. 

      Prepare for inspection

  • 119. 
    • A. 

      The first element takes three paces forward and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm's length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes none, one, or two, paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress

    • B. 

      The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm's length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress.

    • C. 

      The first element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval. Each succeeding element also stand fast and automatically executes dress right dress.

    • D. 

      The last element stands fast. Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward and halts.

  • 120. 
    After aligning the fourth element, how many paces beyond the first element do you advance to and execute a left facing movement
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 121. 
    • A. 

      As the inspecting official approaches within six paces of the right flank of the formation, the second element leader commands " second element, attention"

    • B. 

      As the inspecting official gets six paces past the last person in the first element, the second element leader commands " second element, attention"

    • C. 

      As the inspecting official is within two paces of the right flank to the formation, the second element leader commands, "second element, attention".

    • D. 

      As soon as the inspecting official is facing the second element leader, he/she will give the command, "second element, attention".

  • 122. 
    When do you give the command, "close ranks, march"?
    • A. 

      Upon departure of the inspecting official

    • B. 

      At the completion of the guard mount briefing

    • C. 

      Immediately after the fourth rank has been inspected

    • D. 

      When the remarks of the inspecting official are completed

  • 123. 
    • A. 

      AFI 36-2903

    • B. 

      AFI 36-2905

    • C. 

      AFMAN 36-2903

    • D. 

      AFMAN 36-2905

  • 124. 
    Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining equipment
    • A. 

      Flight member

    • B. 

      Flight supervisor

    • C. 

      Flight commander

    • D. 

      NCOIC supply

  • 125. 
    A post check generally includes all of these items except
    • A. 

      Area inspection

    • B. 

      Facility inspection

    • C. 

      Weapons inspection

    • D. 

      Classified material inspection

  • 126. 
    What publication will assist you in becoming a good communicator and provide you the tools to review and assess someone else's writing?
    • A. 

      AFI 33-337

    • B. 

      AFH 33-336

    • C. 

      AFI 32-337

    • D. 

      AFH 33-337

  • 127. 
    When reviewing material for technical accuracy a concern is that it is
    • A. 

      Lengthy

    • B. 

      Made up

    • C. 

      Irrelevant

    • D. 

      Inappropriate

  • 128. 
    Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program
    • A. 

      Unit training section

    • B. 

      Immediate supervisors

    • C. 

      Air force security forces center

    • D. 

      Senior SF NCOs

  • 129. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools?
    • A. 

      Unit training section

    • B. 

      Immediate supervisors

    • C. 

      Air force security forces center

    • D. 

      Senior SF NCOs

  • 130. 
    What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips
    • A. 

      Analysis

    • B. 

      Feedback

    • C. 

      Evaluation

    • D. 

      Cross-fed

  • 131. 
    The purpose of the duty position evaluation is to
    • A. 

      Measure the qualifications of individuals and certify them for performing specific duty positions

    • B. 

      Determine that only the highest quality of individual perform duties as installation entry controllers

    • C. 

      Measure the qualification of individuals and decertify them in specific duty positions

    • D. 

      Surprise and decertify squadron personnel unprepared for duty

  • 132. 
    The primary mission of the MWD is to
    • A. 

      Aggress against, deter and degrade intruders in areas surrounding air force resources

    • B. 

      Track, detect and aggress against intruders in areas surrounding air force resources

    • C. 

      Detain, detract and degrade intruders in areas surrounding air force resources

    • D. 

      Deter, detect, detain intruders in areas surrounding air force resources

  • 133. 
    Patrol dogs are considered minimum/non-lethal force when the alternative is
    • A. 

      Apprehension

    • B. 

      Pepper spray or gunfire

    • C. 

      Resistance or restraint

    • D. 

      Gunfire or escape

  • 134. 
    When using dogs on detection screen posts, where should they be positioned to get maximum usage
    • A. 

      In low contact areas, so they don't give away your position to the enemy by barking

    • B. 

      Upwind of all positions in your sector, in order to maximize their smelling capability

    • C. 

      At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons

    • D. 

      Downwind of all personnel, so that there is no scent confusion between you and the enemy

  • 135. 
    A patrol dog team used in police services activities is a tremendous
    • A. 

      Deterrent to potential violators

    • B. 

      Physical deterrent to potential violators

    • C. 

      Physiological deterrent to potential violators

    • D. 

      Psychological deterrent to potential violators

  • 136. 
    During peaceful confrontations, the MWD team should be positioned
    • A. 

      In reserve, out of sight of the crowd

    • B. 

      Off to the side, out of direct vision of the crowd

    • C. 

      Right out in front to ward off potential participants

    • D. 

      Elsewhere and not used in peaceful confrontations

  • 137. 
    All arming rules will be in accordance with AFI 31-117, MAJCOM requirements, and as required by the  
    • A. 

      Threat working group

    • B. 

      Integrated base defense council

    • C. 

      Force protection commodity council

    • D. 

      Equipment, weapons and configuration board

  • 138. 
    All permanently assigned SF vehicles must be properly marked means that they
    • A. 

      All must have SF badges applied to both front doors

    • B. 

      All must have emergency lights, flood lights, and mobile radios

    • C. 

      Must have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system

    • D. 

      All must have a cage installed between the front and rear seats to transport a MWD

  • 139. 
    • A. 

      Base station

    • B. 

      Portable station

    • C. 

      Base station remote

    • D. 

      Mobile two way radio

  • 140. 
    The basic purpose of the financial plan submission is to
    • A. 

      Ensure the air force is allowed to purchase adequate aircraft and munitions

    • B. 

      Ensure an equitable distribution of the presidents budget for the next fiscal year

    • C. 

      Determine which branch of service requires the most funding to complete the mission

    • D. 

      Provide congress a means to determine the budget submitted at the start of its session

  • 141. 
    Who provides the most current security forces per troop allocation for the fiscal year
    • A. 

      Numbered air force

    • B. 

      Headquarters air force

    • C. 

      MAJCOM commands

    • D. 

      Air force security forces center

  • 142. 
    What is not a category for the status of funds
    • A. 

      Committed

    • B. 

      Obligated

    • C. 

      End of year

    • D. 

      Uncommitted

  • 143. 
    Who reviews and validates installation submissions for respective functional areas
    • A. 

      MAJCOM functional

    • B. 

      MAJCOM corporate structure

    • C. 

      Financial management board

    • D. 

      Financial working group

  • 144. 
    What provides standards to help commanders determine the manpower requirements for their units
    • A. 

      Air force manpower standards program (MSP)

    • B. 

      Air force manpower standards platform (MSP)

    • C. 

      Air force management engineering program (MEP)

    • D. 

      Air force management and equipment program (MEP)

  • 145. 
    When are manpower numbers reviewed
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Quarterly

    • C. 

      Annually

    • D. 

      Bi-annually

  • 146. 
    Which of these is not tracked on the unit manning document
    • A. 

      Work center

    • B. 

      Position number

    • C. 

      Air force specialty code

    • D. 

      Report no later than date

  • 147. 
    Where does the installations' labor relations specialist work?
    • A. 

      Civilian personnel office

    • B. 

      Staff judge advocate office

    • C. 

      Contract management office

    • D. 

      Area defense counsel office

  • 148. 
    All of the following are excluded from being in a bargaining unit except
    • A. 

      Supervisors

    • B. 

      Management officials

    • C. 

      Professional employees

    • D. 

      Employees in non-dedicated positions

  • 149. 
    Who controls the depth, scope and frequency of internal inspections?
    • A. 

      Commanders

    • B. 

      Wing inspector general

    • C. 

      Air force inspection agency

    • D. 

      MAJCOM inspector general

  • 150. 
    Which statute protects an alleged violation of a right?
    • A. 

      Federal service bargaining and management statute (5 USC chapter 71)

    • B. 

      Federal service bargaining and management statute (5 USC chapter 70)

    • C. 

      Federal service labor management relations statute (5 USC chapter 70)

    • D. 

      Federal service labor management relations statute (5 USC chapter 71)

  • 151. 
    Which of these is not a type of nuclear weapons technical inspection?
    • A. 

      Controlled nuclear surety inspection (CNSI)

    • B. 

      Limited nuclear surety inspection (LNSI)

    • C. 

      Initial nuclear surety inspection (INSI)

    • D. 

      Joint nuclear surety inspection

  • 152. 
    Which of the following is not an alarm response code?
    • A. 

      Code 1

    • B. 

      Code 2

    • C. 

      Code 3

    • D. 

      Code 4

  • 153. 
    Which is not a designated PL1 resource?
    • A. 

      Nuclear weapons

    • B. 

      Senior executive mission (SENEX) aircraft

    • C. 

      Aircraft designed to transport the first lady of the united states

    • D. 

      Command, control, communications, and computer (C4) systems

  • 154. 
    Which protection level (PL) is assigned for controlled areas when owner/users are primarily responsible for security?
    • A. 

      PL4

    • B. 

      PL3

    • C. 

      PL2

    • D. 

      PL1

  • 155. 
    How many team configurations are there for use in a tactical situation?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      2

  • 156. 
    Which team movement allows for more coverage to the front
    • A. 

      Three person team movement

    • B. 

      Two person team movement

    • C. 

      Four person team movement

    • D. 

      Y formation

  • 157. 
    The T formation is best suited for what environment?
    • A. 

      Intersecting hallways

    • B. 

      Narrow hallways

    • C. 

      Wider hallways

    • D. 

      Stairwells

  • 158. 
    Which of these is not considered a target point on a door for entry when using a shotgun
    • A. 

      Hinges

    • B. 

      Door knob

    • C. 

      Locking mechanism

    • D. 

      Center mass of the door

  • 159. 
    When making room entry, your weapons should be oriented towards the
    • A. 

      Threat

    • B. 

      Fast wall

    • C. 

      Unknown

    • D. 

      Strong wall

  • 160. 
    When securing a closed stairwell, which person pulls long security to the next bend or landing?
    • A. 

      #1

    • B. 

      #2

    • C. 

      #3

    • D. 

      #4

  • 161. 
    When responding to a residence, when you first reach the door you should not
    • A. 

      Knock normally

    • B. 

      Listen for 15-30 seconds

    • C. 

      Stand directly in front of the door

    • D. 

      Check to see if screened doors are locked

  • 162. 
    What determines the attitude and cooperation of those involved in a dispute
    • A. 

      The nature of the dispute

    • B. 

      The location of the dispute

    • C. 

      The responding patrols attitude

    • D. 

      Whether or not children are present

  • 163. 
    Which of the following injuries is not considered grievous bodily harm
    • A. 

      Deep cuts

    • B. 

      Bloody nose

    • C. 

      Fractured bones

    • D. 

      Damaged internal organs

  • 164. 
    Excluding homicide, what is perhaps the most serious crime that will be investigated
    • A. 

      Rape

    • B. 

      Assault

    • C. 

      Adultery

    • D. 

      Child abuse

  • 165. 
    What is not considered an objective of the victim/witness assistance program (VWAP)
    • A. 

      Mitigate the physical, psychological, and financial hardships suffered by the victim

    • B. 

      Ensure best efforts are made to accord victims certain rights

    • C. 

      Foster cooperation of victims and witnesses

    • D. 

      Prosecute the accused

  • 166. 
    Who notifies the victim that the accuse escaped, was released, or died?
    • A. 

      First sergeant

    • B. 

      Defense force commander

    • C. 

      SJA

    • D. 

      AFOSI Det. commander

  • 167. 
    • A. 

      It would have no effect as long as the investigator was informed

    • B. 

      It would cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime

    • C. 

      It would be beneficial to have all evidence collected and placed in a central location

    • D. 

      It would have no effect, allow the crime scene to be investigated quicker, and a suspect found faster

  • 168. 
    What is the benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected
    • A. 

      It allows photographs to be taken

    • B. 

      It assists in creating a more realistic diagram of the scene

    • C. 

      It allows responding patrols to better piece together events

    • D. 

      It allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was found

  • 169. 
    Why is it a good procedure to have a patrolman not involved in the preliminary investigation search the scene?
    • A. 

      It allows for additional flight members to gain experience

    • B. 

      It provides a great training environment as it adds realism to the training

    • C. 

      It will bring fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses or suspects

    • D. 

      It could possibly destroy your hard work , contaminate the crime scene and violate the chain of evidence requirements

  • 170. 
    Your key actions during the preliminary investigation are to
    • A. 

      Collect and preserve

    • B. 

      Observe and record

    • C. 

      Record and sketch

    • D. 

      Photo and record

  • 171. 
    Who assumes overall command and control at a major accident site
    • A. 

      Installation commander

    • B. 

      Disaster control group

    • C. 

      Incident commander

    • D. 

      Fire chief

  • 172. 
    During which major accident response phase is the estimated number of casualties reported
    • A. 

      Recovery phase

    • B. 

      Response phase

    • C. 

      Notification phase

    • D. 

      Withdrawal phase

  • 173. 
    Which major accident response phase is the most complex and time consuming
    • A. 

      Recovery phase

    • B. 

      Response phase

    • C. 

      Notification phase

    • D. 

      Withdrawal phase

  • 174. 
    What zone established at a weapons of mass destruction (WMD) incident site is also referred to as a restricted zone?
    • A. 

      Control zone

    • B. 

      Warm zone

    • C. 

      Cold zone

    • D. 

      Hot zone

  • 175. 
    Once the president has declared a major disaster requiring federal emergency assistance, the federal emergency management agency (FEMA) requests help through the
    • A. 

      United states army

    • B. 

      Department of state

    • C. 

      Department of defense

    • D. 

      Federal bureau of investigation

  • 176. 
    During which phase of a natural disaster should the installation commander reassess the situation?
    • A. 

      Sustained emergency phase

    • B. 

      Initial emergency phase

    • C. 

      Notification phase

    • D. 

      Recovery phase

  • 177. 
    Who is responsible for information flow at a school violence situation?
    • A. 

      Public affairs

    • B. 

      School principal

    • C. 

      Incident commander

    • D. 

      Defense force commander

  • 178. 
    What is the time limit placed on suspect interviews
    • A. 

      As long as it takes to obtain a confession

    • B. 

      No more than 30 mins

    • C. 

      No more than 60 mins

    • D. 

      There is no time limit

  • 179. 
    When questioning a juvenile, what actions should you take if you cannot find a parent or they cannot respond in a timely manner
    • A. 

      Seek defense force commander (DFC) advice

    • B. 

      Seek area defense council (ADC) advice

    • C. 

      Seek staff judge advocate (SJA) advice

    • D. 

      Question them with a witness

  • 180. 
    Which of the following suspect background facts is of no value to you prior to questioning?
    • A. 

      Nationality

    • B. 

      Income

    • C. 

      Race

    • D. 

      Age

  • 181. 
    An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a
    • A. 

      Habitual offender

    • B. 

      Psychotic offender

    • C. 

      First time offender

    • D. 

      Professional offender

  • 182. 
    During what step of the guidelines of conducting a follow-up investigation should a determination be made that the initial incident scene was thoroughly processed
    • A. 

      Collecting physical evidence

    • B. 

      Conducting additional interviews

    • C. 

      Identifying and apprehending suspects

    • D. 

      Review and analyze all previous reports

  • 183. 
    The AF form 3226 is used for apprehension
    • A. 

      In a private dwelling

    • B. 

      During an interview

    • C. 

      Off the installation

    • D. 

      In a work center

  • 184. 
    To authorize the use of off base patrols overseas the installation commander must coordinate with
    • A. 

      MAJCOM Staff judge advocate (SJA)

    • B. 

      Defense force commander

    • C. 

      Installation SJA

    • D. 

      Host nation

  • 185. 
    Prior to the trial, what aids in recalling all the details of the case?
    • A. 

      Speaking to the witness

    • B. 

      Consulting with the defense counsel

    • C. 

      Arranging and reviewing original notes

    • D. 

      Returning to the crime scene to recall the events

  • 186. 
    Which of the following best describes the personal attributes that are essential when testifying
    • A. 

      Skill, tact, poise and self assurance

    • B. 

      Skill, tact, poise and self confidence

    • C. 

      Skill, reliance, poise and self confidence

    • D. 

      Skill, cockiness, poise, and self confidence